Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India – Mandamus (Given in a Case) Cannot be Annulled by Changing the Law

Jojy George Koduvath

Taken from: Doctrines on Ultra Vires and Removing the BASIS of the Judgment, in ED Director’s Tenure Extension Case (Dr. Jaya Thakur Vs. Union of India)

Abstract

  • It is found in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India (2023) by the Supreme Court of India that that the direction (mandamus) given in an earlier case (Common Cause case, 2021) that no further extension shall be granted to the second respondent (Sanjay Kumar Mishra, Director, Enforcement Directorate) could not have been nullified by changing the Law (which formed the basis of the earlier decision).

Brief History

Shri. Sanjay Kumar Mishra was appointed as the Director of Enforcement Directorate, on 19th November 2018, for two years, by the President of India (as the head of various investigating agencies). On 13th November 2020, the President of India approved the extension of his tenure, for one year.

Court directed that no further extension: A Writ Petition was filed in 2020 before the Supreme Court of India, as ‘Common Cause (A Registered Society) v. Union of India’, in public interest, under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, praying to quash the extension order. It was contented before the Apex Court that the Government did not have the power to extend the tenure of the Director. The Court, rejected the contention and dismissed the Writ Petition in 2021 (2021 SCC OnLine SC 687). But, the court directed that no further extension shall be granted to the second respondent (Sanjay Kumar Mishra, Director, Enforcement Directorate).

Amendment of Central Vigilance Commission Act (CVC Act): After dismissal of the Writ Petition in 2021, two new provisos were added to Sec. 25(d) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act (CVC Act), by way of Amendment. Parliament also amended the Central Vigilance Commission Act and the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. By the amendments the very basis on which the judgment was delivered has been taken away. The new provisions permitted an extension at a time for one year with a rider that the cumulative period should not be more than 5 years. Challenging the Amendments Writ Petitions were filed before the Apex Court.

Term of Director Was Further Extended: During the pendency of the said writ petitions, on 17th November 2021, the tenure of the Director was extended for a period of one year, i.e. upto 18th November 2022, or until further orders, whichever was earlier; and thereby another Writ Petition was also was filed.

Contentions: It was contended by the petitioners (in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India) that that the direction (mandamus) given in an earlier case (Common Cause case, 2021) that no further extension shall be granted to the second respondent (Sanjay Kumar Mishra, Director, Enforcement Directorate) could not have been nullified by changing the Law (which formed the basis of the earlier decision).

The main argument of the Union of India was that – by the amendment the very basis on which the the earlier judgment (Common Cause case, 2021) was delivered has been taken away and that the new provision permited the extension. 

It is held in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India  (2023) that the orders giving extension to the tenure of the respondent No. 2- Sanjay Kumar Mishra, for a period of one year are illegal; and that the nullification of a mandamus by a subsequent legislative exercise was impermissible.

Nullification of a Mandamus by a Legislation is Impermissible

The Apex Court relied on, mainly, the following earlier decisions to hold that the nullification of a mandamus by a subsequent legislation was illegal –

  • Madan Mohan Pathak v. Union of India, (1978) 2 SCC 50,
  • In Re., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96,
  • S.R. Bhagwat v. State of Mysore, (1995) 6 SCC 16
  • Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455,
  • Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala and others, (2019) 13 SCC 185.

(a) Madan Mohan Pathak v. Union of India, (1978) 2 SCC 50: The employees of the LIC were denied the benefits which they were entitled to. They filed writ petitions  before the High Court of Calcutta for a writ of mandamus and prohibition directing the LIC to act in accordance with the terms of a Settlement. It was allowed by the Calcutta High Court The LIC preferred Appeal. During the pendency of the appeal the Life Insurance Corporation (Modification of Settlement) Act, 1976 was enacted. The effect of the enactment was to annul the benefits which the employees of the LIC were entitled to in view of the mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court. The Seven Judge Bench in Madan Mohan Pathak v. Union of India, (1978) 2 SCC 50, considered the constitutional validity of the Life Insurance Corporation (Modification of Settlement) Act, 1976.

Bhagwati, J (speaking for himself, Krishna Iyer and Desai, JJ.) observed thus:

  • “9. We are, therefore, of the view that, in any event, irrespective of whether the impugned Act is constitutionally valid or not, the Life Insurance Corporation is bound to obey the writ of mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court and to pay annual cash bonus for the year April 1, 1975 to March 31, 1976 to Class III and Class IV employees.”

Beg. CJ, in his concurring judgment observed thus:

  • “32. I may, however, observe that even though the real object of the Act may be to set aside the result of the mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court, yet, the section does not mention this object at all. Probably this was so because the jurisdiction of a High Court and the effectiveness of its orders derived their force from Article 226 of the Constitution itself. These could not be touched by an ordinary act of Parliament.”

Beg. CJ, continued as under:

  • “Even if Section 3 of the Act seeks to take away the BASIS of the judgment of the Calcutta High Court, without mentioning it, by enacting what may appear to be a law, yet, I think that, where the rights of the citizen against the State are concerned, we should adopt an interpretation which upholds those rights. Therefore, according to the interpretation I prefer to adopt the rights which had passed into those embodied in a judgment and became the basis of a mandamus from the High Court could not be taken away in this indirect fashion.”

(b) In Re., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96: The Constitution Bench of the Apex Court, In Re., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96, observed as under:

  • “76. The principle which emerges from these authorities is that the legislature can change the BASIS on which a decision is given by the Court and thus change the law in general, which will affect a class of persons and events at large. It cannot, howeverset aside an individual decision inter partes and affect their rights and liabilities alone. Such an act on the part of the legislature amounts to exercising the judicial power of the State and to functioning as an appellate court or tribunal.”

(c) S.R. Bhagwat v. State of Mysore, (1995) 6 SCC 16: In this case it was observed as under:

  • “12. It is now well settled by a catena of decisions of this Court that a binding judicial pronouncement between the parties cannot be made ineffective with the aid of any legislative power by enacting a provision which in substance overrules such judgment and is not in the realm of a legislative enactment which displaces the BASIS or foundation of the judgment and uniformly applies to a class of persons concerned with the entire subject sought to be covered by such an enactment having retrospective effect. We may only refer to two of these judgments.
  • … This is a case where on interpretation of existing law, the High Court had given certain benefits to the petitioners. That order of mandamus was sought to be nullified by the enactment of the impugned provisions in a new statute. This in our view would be clearly impermissible legislative exercise.”

(d) Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala, (2019) 13 SCC 185: A similar view has been taken by the Apex Court in Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala and others2525 (2019) 13 SCC 185 .

(e) Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455: In Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, the Apex Court “on the issue of permissibility of legislative override”, observed as under:

  • “50. The permissibility of legislative override in this country should be in accordance with the principles laid down by this Court in the aforementioned as well as other judgments, which have been culled out as under:
  • 50.1. The effect of the judgments of the Court can be nullified by a legislative act removing the BASIS of the judgment. Such law can be retrospective. Retrospective amendment should be reasonable and not arbitrary and must not be violative of the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution. [Lohia Machines Ltd. v. Union of India, (1985) 2 SCC 197 : 1985 SCC (Tax) 245]
  • 50.2. The test for determining the validity of a validating legislation is that the judgment pointing out the defect would not have been passed, if the altered position as sought to be brought in by the validating statute existed before the Court at the time of rendering its judgment. In other words, the defect pointed out should have been cured such that the BASIS of the judgment pointing out the defect is removed.
  • 50.3. Nullification of mandamus by an enactment would be impermissible legislative exercise (see : S.R. Bhagwat [S.R. Bhagwat v. State of Mysore, (1995) 6 SCC 16 : 1995 SCC (L&S) 1334] ). Even interim directions cannot be reversed by a legislative veto (see : Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal [Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, In re, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96 (2)] and Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala [Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala, (2019) 13 SCC 185] ).
  • 50.4. Transgression of constitutional limitations and intrusion into the judicial power by the legislature is violative of the principle of separation of powers, the rule of law and of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.”

Read Blog: Can Legislature Overpower Court Decisions by an Enactment?

Rule of Law  and of Article 14

Investigating agencies are to be protected from any extraneous influence to enable them to discharge their duties in the manner required for proper implementation of the rule of law. In  Vineet Narain  v. Union of India, (1998) 1 SCC 226, it was found as under:

  • “In view of the common perception shared by everyone including the Government of India and the Independent Review Committee (IRC) of the need for insulation of the CBI from extraneous influence of any kind, it is imperative that some action is urgently taken to prevent the continuance of this situation with a view to ensure proper implementation of the rule of law. This is the need of equality guaranteed in the Constitution.”

In Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455, it was held as under:

  • “Transgression of constitutional limitations and intrusion into the judicial power by the legislature is violative of the principle of separation of powers, the rule of law and of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.”

Judiciary – Protector of Constitution & Democracy as ultimate arbiter on Constitution

The Apex Court (in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India, 2023) quoted up to the following passage in Binoy Viswam v. Union of India, (2017) 7 SCC 59 –

  • “88. Undoubtedly, we are in the era of liberalised democracy. In a democratic society governed by the Constitution, there is a strong trend towards the constitutionalisation of democratic politics, where the actions of democratically elected Government are judged in the light of the Constitution. In this context, judiciary assumes the role of protector of the Constitution and democracy, being the ultimate arbiter in all matters involving the interpretation of the Constitution.
  • 89. Having said so, when it comes to exercising the power of judicial review of a legislation, the scope of such a power has to be kept in mind and the power is to be exercised within the limited sphere assigned to the judiciary to undertake the judicial review. This has already been mentioned above. Therefore, unless the petitioner demonstrates that Parliament, in enacting the impugned provision, has exceeded its power prescribed in the Constitution or this provision violates any of the provision, the argument predicated on “limited governance” will not succeed. One of the aforesaid ingredients needs to be established by the petitioners in order to succeed.”

Judicial Review

The Apex Court held in this case (Dr. Jaya Thakur Vs. Union of India) as under –

  • It could thus be seen that the role of the judiciary is to ensure that the aforesaid two organs of the State i.e. the Legislature and the Executive function within the constitutional limits. Judicial review is a powerful weapon to restrain unconstitutional exercise of power by the legislature and executive. The role of this Court is limited to examine as to whether the Legislature or the Executive has acted within the powers and functions assigned under the Constitution. However, while doing so, the court must remain within its self-imposed limits.”

The scope of the judicial review in examining the legislative functions of the Legislature with regard to validity of the Amendments were considered in the following decisions-

  • Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, 1989 Supp (2) SCC 364
  • Frankfurter, J. of the U.S. Supreme Court dissenting in the controversial expatriation case of Trop v. Dulles [356 US 86]
  • Binoy Viswam v. Union of India and others2222 (2017) 7 SCC 59

The Apex Court (Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India) elaborately quoted  Binoy Viswam v. Union of India, (2017) 7 SCC 59, to pointed out  the following –

a. Judicial Review – Grounds available (on the validity of a piece of legislation): The grounds of judicial review that are available to adjudge the validity of a piece of legislationare two and “there is no third ground.”  (State of A.P. v. McDowell & Co., 1996-3 SCC 709, State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, 2012- 6 SCC; State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, 2012-6 SCC 312). The grounds are:

  • First, Legislation, not within the competence of the legislature, and
  • Second, Legislation, in contravention of any of the fundamental rights stipulated in Part III of the Constitution or any other right/provision of the Constitution.

b. Arbitrariness and Unreasonableness By Itself Do Not Constitute A Ground For striking down a statute (though they are Grounds for Administrative Action): Pointing out that there are only two grounds, (1) lack of legislative competence and (2) violation of any of the fundamental rights, and no third ground to invalidate any piece of legislation, it was observed in State of A.P. v. McDowell & Co. 1996-3 SCC 709, as under:

  • “No enactment can be struck down by just saying that it is arbitrary [An expression used widely and rather indiscriminately – an expression of inherently imprecise import. The extensive use of this expression in India reminds one of what Frankfurter, J. said in Hattie Mae Tiller v. Atlantic Coast Line Railroad Co., 87 L Ed 610 : 318 US 54 (1943): “The phrase begins life as a literary expression; its felicity leads to its lazy repetition and repetition soon establishes it as a legal formula, undiscriminatingly used to express different and sometimes contradictory ideas”, said the learned Judge.] or unreasonable. Some or other constitutional infirmity has to be found before invalidating an Act. An enactment cannot be struck down on the ground that court thinks it unjustified. Parliament and the legislatures, composed as they are of the representatives of the people, are supposed to know and be aware of the needs of the people and what is good and bad for them.
  • The court cannot sit in judgment over their wisdom. In this connection, it should be remembered that even in the case of administrative action, the scope of judicial review is limited to three grounds viz.
    • unreasonableness, which can more appropriately be called irrationality,
    • illegality, and
    • procedural impropriety
  • (see: Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service, 1984-3 All ER 935 (HL) which decision has been accepted by this Court as well).
  • The applicability of doctrine of proportionality even in administrative law sphere is yet a debatable issue.
  • (See the opinions of Lords Lowry and Ackner in R. v. Secy. of State for the Home Deptt., ex p Brind, (1991) 1 All ER 720 (HL).
  • It would be rather odd if an enactment were to be struck down by applying the said principle when its applicability even in administrative law sphere is not fully and finally settled.” (Quoted in State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, 2012-6 SCC 312)
  • A legislation cannot be challenged simply on the ground of unreasonableness because that by itself does not constitute a ground. The validity of a constitutional amendment and the validity of plenary legislation have to be decided purely as questions of constitutional law. This Court in State of Rajasthan v. Union of India [State of Rajasthan v. Union of India, (1977) 3 SCC 592] said : (SCC p. 660, para 149)”
  • Also referred: State of WB v. EITA India Ltd., (2003) 5 SCC 239, Rajbala v. State of Haryana, (2016) 2 SCC 445 : AS Krishna v. State of Madras, AIR 1957 SC 297.
  • A fortiori, a law cannot be invalidated on the ground that the legislature did not apply its mind or it was prompted by some improper motive.
  • In K.T. Plantation (P) Ltd. v. State of Karnataka, (2011) 9 SCC 1, it was observed as under:
  • “205. Plea of
    • unreasonableness,
    • arbitrariness,
    • proportionality, etc.
  • always raises an element of subjectivity on which a court cannot strike down a statute or a statutory provision, especially when the right to property is no more a fundamental right. Otherwise the court will be substituting its wisdom to that of the legislature, which is impermissible in our constitutional democracy.”

c. Judicial Review – First Ground – Ultra Vires The Constitution: In Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India, (2008) 6 SCC 1, following pertinent observations were made –

  • “219. A legislation passed by Parliament can be challenged only on constitutionally recognised grounds. Ordinarily, grounds of attack of a legislation is whether the legislature has legislative competence or whether the legislation is ultra vires the provisions of the Constitution. If any of the provisions of the legislation violates fundamental rights or any other provisions of the Constitution, it could certainly be a valid ground to set aside the legislation by invoking the power of judicial review.

d. 2nd Ground – Violation of Fund. Rigt. – Presumption In Favour of Constitutionality

  • In Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar, AIR 1958 SC 731, it was observed as under:
  • ’15. The courts, it is accepted, must presume that the legislature understands and correctly appreciates the needs of its own people, that its laws are directed to problems made manifest by experience and that its discriminations are based on adequate grounds. It must be borne in mind that the legislature is free to recognise degrees of harm and may confine its restrictions to those cases where the need is deemed to be the clearest …” (reiterated in Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi, AIR 1959 SC 942.)
  • In Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar, AIR 1958 SC 731, it was observed that there was always a presumption in favour of constitutionality of an enactment and the burden is upon him, who attacks it. It stated as under:
  • ’15. … and finally that in order to sustain the presumption of constitutionality the court may take into consideration matters of common knowledge, matters of common report, the history of the times and may assume every state of facts which can be conceived existing at the time of legislation.” (reiterated in Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi, AIR 1959 SC 942.)
  • In Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India, AIR 1960 SC 554, reiterated the principle that presumption was always in favour of constitutionality of an enactment and observed as under:
  • ‘8. Therefore, when the constitutionality of an enactment is challenged on the ground of violation of any of the articles in Part III of the Constitution, the ascertainment of its true nature and character becomes necessary i.e. its subject-matter, the area in which it is intended to operate, its purport and intent have to be determined. In order to do so it is legitimate to take into consideration all the factors such as history of the legislation, the purpose thereof, the surrounding circumstances and conditions, the mischief which it intended to suppress, the remedy for the disease which the legislature resolved to cure and the true reason for the remedy.’ (referred Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi, AIR 1959 SC 942, Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar, AIR 1955 SC 661, Charanjit Lal Chowdhury v. Union of India, 1950 SCC 833 : AIR 1951 SC 41, and State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara,  1951 SCC 860 : AIR 1951 SC 318.)

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Doctrines on Ultra Vires, Rule of Law, Judicial Review, Nullification of Mandamus, and Removing the BASIS of the Judgment, in ED Director’s Tenure Extension Case (Dr. Jaya Thakur Vs. Union of India)

Jojy George Koduvath

Abstract

  • Is Nullification of a Mandamus (by Changing Law) Permissible? Ans. No.

Dr. Jaya Thakur Vs. Union of India – Facts in a Nutshell

Shri. Sanjay Kumar Mishra was appointed as the Director of Enforcement Directorate, on 19th November 2018, for two years, by the President of India (as the head of various investigating agencies). On 13th November 2020, the President of India approved the extension of his tenure, for one year.

A Writ Petition was filed in 2020 before the Supreme Court of India, as ‘Common Cause (A Registered Society) v. Union of India’ (2021 SCC OnLine SC 687), in public interest, under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, praying to quash the extension order.

Contention – It was contented before the Apex Court, in ‘Common Cause (A Registered Society) v. Union of India’ (2021 SCC OnLine SC 687) that the Government did not have the power to extend the tenure of the Director.

Decision: In ‘Common Cause (A Registered Society) v. Union of India’ (2021 SCC OnLine SC 687) the Court, rejected the contention of the petitioners and dismissed the Writ Petition. But, the Court directed that no further extension shall be granted. The Court observed in paragraph 23, as under:

  • “23. … Though we have upheld the power of the Union of India to extend the tenure of Director of Enforcement beyond the period of two years, we should make it clear that extension of tenure granted to officers who have attained the age of superannuation should be done only in rare and exceptional cases. Reasonable period of extension can be granted to facilitate the completion of ongoing investigations only after reasons are recorded by the Committee constituted under Section 25(a) of the CVC Act.
  • Any extension of tenure granted to persons holding the post of Director of Enforcement after attaining the age of superannuation should be for a short period. We do not intend to interfere with the extension of tenure of the second Respondent in the instant case for the reason that his tenure is coming to an end in November, 2021. We make it clear that no further extension shall be granted to the second Respondent (Sanjay Kumar Mishra).”

Law Amended & Very BASIS of  the Judgment was Changed

After dismissal of the Writ Petition in 2021, two new provisos were added to Sec. 25(d) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act (CVC Act), by way of Amendment. Parliament also amended the Central Vigilance Commission Act, and the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act. By the amendment the very basis on which the judgment was delivered has been taken away. The new provision permits an extension at a time for one year with a rider that the cumulative period should not be more than 5 years.

Challenging the Amendments Writ Petitions were filed before the Apex Court.

Term of Director Was Further Extended: During the pendency of the said writ petitions, on 17th November 2021, the tenure of the Director was extended for a period of one year, i.e. upto 18th November 2022, or until further orders, whichever was earlier; and thereby another Writ Petition was also was filed.

Contentions of the Petitioners & Amicus Curiae

  1. The Union of India annulled Court decision. It was not permissible in law. It is to be quashed and set aside.
  2. The nullification of mandamus by an enactment is also an impermissible legislative exercise.
  3. The impugned Amendments does not change the BASIS, though, in view of the judgment of the Apex Court in Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455, the effect of the judgments could be nullified by a legislative act of removing the BASIS of the judgment, and such law could be retrospective. .
  4. It is not permissible to ‘set aside’ an individual Court decision inter partes by amending Law (so as to affect the rights and liabilities of the parties), though it is permissible for the Legislature to change the BASIS on which a decision is given by the Court and, thus, change the law in general, which will affect a class of persons and events at large. Following decisions were relied on-
    • Shri Prithvi Cotton Mills Ltd. v. Broach Borough Municipality, (1969) 2 SCC 283,
    • Bhaktawar Trust v. M.D. Narayan, (2003) 5 SCC 298,
    • Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, Re, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96, and
    • Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 463
    • The amended provisions are manifestly arbitrary.
  5. Amendment should be reasonable and not arbitrary and must not be violative of the fundamental rights, though, the effect of the judgments could be nullified by a legislative act of removing the BASIS of the judgment.
  6. Apex Court has consistently held that the tenure of the high-ranking officials like the Director of Enforcement, the Director of CBI and the Director General of Police should be for a fixed period of two years in order to insulate such an officer from extraneous pressures and enable him to work independently and freely. Follwing decisions were placed –
    • Vineet Narain  v. Union of India, (1998) 1 SCC 226
    • Prakash Singh v. Union of India (Prakash Singh-1), (2006) 8 SCC 1
    • Prakash Singh  v. Union of India(Prakash Singh-2), (2019) 4 SCC 14 and
    • Prakash Singh  v. Union of India (Prakash Singh-3), (2019) 4 SCC 1
  7. The very independence of an officer would be taken away by the situation – if an incumbent performs as per the wishes of the authority, he would get an extension.
  8. The Court in Vineet Narain v. Union of India, (1998) 1 SCC 226, has approved the recommendations of the Independent Review Committee. It was tasked, inter alia, to suggest the changes needed to ensure against extraneous pressures, arbitrary withdrawals or transfers of personnel etc.
  9. In Madras Bar Association v. Union of India (2014) 10 SCC 1, the Court had struck down the provision for re-appointment of the Chairperson/ Members for another term of 5 years under the National Tax Tribunals Act, 2005, by holding that such a provision itself has the effect of undermining the independence of the Chairperson/ Members of National Tax Tribunal (NTT).
  10. In Rojer Mathew v. South Indian Bank Limited, (2020) 6 SCC 1, when the provision for reappointment of the Chairperson/Members under the NTT Act, 2005 was sought to be introduced by way of Rules, the same was struck down by this Court as being in disregard of the binding principles enunciated by this Court and being destructive of judicial independence.
  11. The Madras High Court in V. Sasitharan v. The Government of Tamil Nadu, 1995 SCC OnLine Mad 592, pointed out that the extensions granted to the officers beyond the date of retirement, generate disgruntlement and dis-appointment amongst lower down in the ladder whose only aspiration in their official career would be to reach to the top most post in the administrative set up.
  12. The Madras High Court has held that if such extensions are granted as a matter of bounty, then there is every possibility of the officer in service playing to the tunes of those in power totally acting against public interest.
  13. There is chance of misuse of powers by any political party, which may be in power.
  14. The impugned Amendments, if permitted to remain, would lead to a tendency wherein incumbents/officers would succumb to the pressure of the Government in power and act as per their desire so that they get further extensions.
  15. The argument that the present incumbent needs to be continued on account of an ongoing mutual evaluation of India by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is also self-contradictory. Even after the Amendment, the incumbent can continue only upto November 2023, whereas the possible plenary discussions are likely to be held in the month of June 2024. The argument is, therefore, without substance.
  16. The institutions like the ED and the CBI are needed to be kept insulated to protect the democracy (relied on: Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India, 2023 SCC OnLine SC 216).

Contentions of the Union of India

  • The applicants are, in effect, seeking review of the judgment of this court. In Beghar Foundation v. Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retired) (2021) 3 SCC 1, it was submitted that the Change in Law cannot be a ground for review.
  • The Legislature has power even to annul the mandamus issued by the Court. (M/s Kishan Lal Lakhmi Chand v. State of Haryana, 1993 Supp (4) SCC 461, relied on.)
  • It was submitted that in view of the judgment of this Court in the case of Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455, the effect of the judgments of the Court can be nullified by a legislative act of removing the BASIS of the judgment. Such law can be retrospective.
  • The contention that the Amendment annulled the mandamus is without substance. The mandamus was contextual on the BASIS of the statutory provision existing then. Since the statutory provision has undergone a complete change taking away the foundation on the BASIS of which the mandamus is issued, the contention in that regard deserves to be rejected.
  • (a) The Legislature is undoubtedly competent to pass such a legislation.
    • (b) The question is – whether this Court would have rendered the same judgment in Common Cause (2021), had it considered the law which has undergone change.
    • (c) Following decisions were relied on –
    • Indian Aluminium Co. v. State of Kerala (1996) 7 SCC 637,
    • Goa Foundation v. State of Goa (2016) 6 SCC 602 and
    • K.S. Puttaswamy (Retired) (Aadhar) v. Union of India (2019) 1 SCC 1
  • Scope of interference by the Court while exercising power of judicial review of the legislative action of the State is very limited. Unless the Court finds that –
    • (i) the legislation is not within the competence of the legislature or
    • (ii) it has violated the fundamental rights or any of the provisions of the Constitution, it will not be permissible for the Court to interfere with the same. (various judgments were relied on).
  • The words “rare” and “exceptional” as found in the case of Common cause (2021) have now been taken away by an Amendment. (Welfare Association, A.R.P., Maharashtra v. Ranjit P. Gohil, (2003) 9 SCC 358, relied on).
  • The present writ petitions are not bona fide public interest litigations, but are filed with an oblique motive. Most of the writ petitioners are members of political parties. Various members of these political parties are under investigation by the ED.
  • The extension can be granted to the incumbents only if the High- Level Committees recommend the same, and that too, in public interest and for the reasons to be recorded in writing. It is submitted that the provision of granting extension of one year at a time is made so that the incumbent functions effectively.
  • The argument that incremental extensions would lead to the incumbents working under the pressure of the Government is totally untenable. He submits that the extensions could be granted only in a case when the Committee, as provided in Section 25 of the CVC Act, recommends such an extension. Such Committee consists of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners who are totally independent, impeccable and impartial persons. The Director of CBI is concerned, equally, the extension can be granted only in an event when the Committee consisting of (a) the Hon’ble Prime Minister; (b) the Leader of Opposition; and (c) the Chief Justice of India or his nominee would recommend such an extension.
  • If a long-fixed tenure of 5 years is granted at a time, then there is also a possibility that a person, knowing that he will continue to be in the office for a period of 5 years, may not discharge his duties effectively.
  • Nobody is indispensable; however, leadership makes a lot of difference.
  • Present incumbent needs to be continued on account of an ongoing mutual evaluation of India by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). The evaluation had to be done in the year 2019. However, it could not be done on account of the COVID- 19 pandemic. The evaluation has already begun and is likely to end in June 2024.
  • The main component of the evaluation is its effectiveness.  The present incumbent is at the helm of affairs for the last so many years, it was found necessary that for effective presentation of the efforts made by the country, he should be continued till the process of evaluation is complete.
  • A mutual evaluation report provides an in-depth description and analysis of a country’s system for preventing criminal abuse of the financial system as well as focused recommendations to the country to further strengthen its system. Therefore, it was found that the present assessment should be done under the leadership of the present incumbent.

Findings of the Court

1. Rule of Law  and of Article 14: Investigating agencies are to be protected from any extraneous influence to enable them to discharge their duties in the manner required for proper implementation of the rule of law. In  Vineet Narain  v. Union of India, (1998) 1 SCC 226, it was found as under:

  • “In view of the common perception shared by everyone including the Government of India and the Independent Review Committee (IRC) of the need for insulation of the CBI from extraneous influence of any kind, it is imperative that some action is urgently taken to prevent the continuance of this situation with a view to ensure proper implementation of the rule of law. This is the need of equality guaranteed in the Constitution.”

In Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455, it was held as under:

  • “Transgression of constitutional limitations and intrusion into the judicial power by the legislature is violative of the principle of separation of powers, the rule of law and of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.”

Read Blog: Can Legislature Overpower Court Decisions by an Enactment?

2. Judicial Review: The Apex Court held in this case (Dr. Jaya Thakur Vs. Union of India) as under –

  • It could thus be seen that the role of the judiciary is to ensure that the aforesaid two organs of the State i.e. the Legislature and the Executive function within the constitutional limits. Judicial review is a powerful weapon to restrain unconstitutional exercise of power by the legislature and executive. The role of this Court is limited to examine as to whether the Legislature or the Executive has acted within the powers and functions assigned under the Constitution. However, while doing so, the court must remain within its self-imposed limits.”

The scope of the judicial review in examining the legislative functions of the Legislature with regard to validity of the Amendments were considered in the following decisions-

  • Asif Hameed v. State of Jammu and Kashmir, 1989 Supp (2) SCC 364
  • Frankfurter, J. of the U.S. Supreme Court dissenting in the controversial expatriation case of Trop v. Dulles [356 US 86]
  • Binoy Viswam v. Union of India and others2222 (2017) 7 SCC 59

The Apex Court (Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India) elaborately quoted  Binoy Viswam v. Union of India, (2017) 7 SCC 59, to pointed out  the following –

a. Judicial Review – Grounds available (on the validity of a piece of legislation): The grounds of judicial review that are available to adjudge the validity of a piece of legislation are two and “there is no third ground.”(State of A.P. v. McDowell & Co., 1996-3 SCC 709, State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, 2012- 6 SCC; State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, 2012-6 SCC 312).

The grounds are:

  • First, Legislation, not within the competence of the legislature, and
  • Second, Legislation, in contravention of any of the fundamental rights stipulated in Part III of the Constitution or any other right/provision of the Constitution.

b. Arbitrariness and Unreasonableness By Itself Do Not Constitute A Ground For striking down a statute (though they are Grounds for Administrative Action): Pointing out that there are only two grounds, (1) lack of legislative competence and (2) violation of any of the fundamental rights, and no third ground to invalidate any piece of legislation, it was observed in State of A.P. v. McDowell & Co. 1996-3 SCC 709, as under:

  • “No enactment can be struck down by just saying that it is arbitrary [An expression used widely and rather indiscriminately – an expression of inherently imprecise import. The extensive use of this expression in India reminds one of what Frankfurter, J. said in Hattie Mae Tiller v. Atlantic Coast Line Railroad Co., 87 L Ed 610 : 318 US 54 (1943): “The phrase begins life as a literary expression; its felicity leads to its lazy repetition and repetition soon establishes it as a legal formula, undiscriminatingly used to express different and sometimes contradictory ideas”, said the learned Judge.] or unreasonable. Some or other constitutional infirmity has to be found before invalidating an Act. An enactment cannot be struck down on the ground that court thinks it unjustified. Parliament and the legislatures, composed as they are of the representatives of the people, are supposed to know and be aware of the needs of the people and what is good and bad for them.
  • The court cannot sit in judgment over their wisdom. In this connection, it should be remembered that even in the case of administrative action, the scope of judicial review is limited to three grounds viz.
    • unreasonableness, which can more appropriately be called irrationality,
    • illegality, and
    • procedural impropriety
  • (see: Council of Civil Service Unions v. Minister for the Civil Service, 1984-3 All ER 935 (HL) which decision has been accepted by this Court as well).
  • The applicability of doctrine of proportionality even in administrative law sphere is yet a debatable issue.
  • (See the opinions of Lords Lowry and Ackner in R. v. Secy. of State for the Home Deptt., ex p Brind, (1991) 1 All ER 720 (HL).
  • It would be rather odd if an enactment were to be struck down by applying the said principle when its applicability even in administrative law sphere is not fully and finally settled.” (Quoted in State of M.P. v. Rakesh Kohli, 2012-6 SCC 312)
  • A legislation cannot be challenged simply on the ground of unreasonableness because that by itself does not constitute a ground. The validity of a constitutional amendment and the validity of plenary legislation have to be decided purely as questions of constitutional law. This Court in State of Rajasthan v. Union of India [State of Rajasthan v. Union of India, (1977) 3 SCC 592] said : (SCC p. 660, para 149)”
  • Also referred: State of WB v. EITA India Ltd., (2003) 5 SCC 239, Rajbala v. State of Haryana, (2016) 2 SCC 445 : AS Krishna v. State of Madras, AIR 1957 SC 297.
  • A fortiori, a law cannot be invalidated on the ground that the legislature did not apply its mind or it was prompted by some improper motive.
  • In K.T. Plantation (P) Ltd. v. State of Karnataka, (2011) 9 SCC 1, it was observed as under:
  • “205. Plea of
    • unreasonableness,
    • arbitrariness,
    • proportionality, etc.
  • always raises an element of subjectivity on which a court cannot strike down a statute or a statutory provision, especially when the right to property is no more a fundamental right. Otherwise the court will be substituting its wisdom to that of the legislature, which is impermissible in our constitutional democracy.”

c. Judicial Review – First Ground – Ultra Vires The Constitution: In Ashoka Kumar Thakur v. Union of India, (2008) 6 SCC 1, following pertinent observations were made –

  • “219. A legislation passed by Parliament can be challenged only on constitutionally recognised grounds. Ordinarily, grounds of attack of a legislation is whether the legislature has legislative competence or whether the legislation is ultra vires the provisions of the Constitution. If any of the provisions of the legislation violates fundamental rights or any other provisions of the Constitution, it could certainly be a valid ground to set aside the legislation by invoking the power of judicial review.

d. 2nd Ground – Violation of Fund. Rigt. – Presumption In Favour of Constitutionality

  • In Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar, AIR 1958 SC 731, it was observed as under:
  • ’15. The courts, it is accepted, must presume that the legislature understands and correctly appreciates the needs of its own people, that its laws are directed to problems made manifest by experience and that its discriminations are based on adequate grounds. It must be borne in mind that the legislature is free to recognise degrees of harm and may confine its restrictions to those cases where the need is deemed to be the clearest …” (reiterated in Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi, AIR 1959 SC 942.)
  • In Mohd. Hanif Quareshi v. State of Bihar, AIR 1958 SC 731, it was observed that there was always a presumption in favour of constitutionality of an enactment and the burden is upon him, who attacks it. It stated as under:
  • ’15. … and finally that in order to sustain the presumption of constitutionality the court may take into consideration matters of common knowledge, matters of common report, the history of the times and may assume every state of facts which can be conceived existing at the time of legislation.” (reiterated in Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi, AIR 1959 SC 942.)
  • In Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India, AIR 1960 SC 554, reiterated the principle that presumption was always in favour of constitutionality of an enactment and observed as under:
  • ‘8. Therefore, when the constitutionality of an enactment is challenged on the ground of violation of any of the articles in Part III of the Constitution, the ascertainment of its true nature and character becomes necessary i.e. its subject-matter, the area in which it is intended to operate, its purport and intent have to be determined. In order to do so it is legitimate to take into consideration all the factors such as history of the legislation, the purpose thereof, the surrounding circumstances and conditions, the mischief which it intended to suppress, the remedy for the disease which the legislature resolved to cure and the true reason for the remedy.’ (referred Mahant Moti Das v. S.P. Sahi, AIR 1959 SC 942, Bengal Immunity Co. Ltd. v. State of Bihar, AIR 1955 SC 661, Charanjit Lal Chowdhury v. Union of India, 1950 SCC 833 : AIR 1951 SC 41, and State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara,  1951 SCC 860 : AIR 1951 SC 318.)

e. In Taxation, The Legislature Enjoys A Greater Latitude: In the field of taxation, the legislature enjoys a greater latitude for classification, as noted by in a long line of cases. Some of these decisions are –

  • Steelworth Ltd. v. State of Assam, 1962 Supp (2) SCR 589,
  • Gopal Narain v. State of U.P., AIR 1964 SC 370 ,
  • Ganga Sugar Corpn. Ltd. v. State of U.P., (1980) 1 SCC 223 : 1980 SCC (Tax) 90,
  • R.K. Garg v. Union of India, (1981) 4 SCC 675.

f. Judiciary – Protector of Constitution & Democracy as ultimate arbiter on Constitution: The Apex Court (in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India) quoted up to the following passage in Binoy Viswam v. Union of India, (2017) 7 SCC 59 –

  • “88. Undoubtedly, we are in the era of liberalised democracy. In a democratic society governed by the Constitution, there is a strong trend towards the constitutionalisation of democratic politics, where the actions of democratically elected Government are judged in the light of the Constitution. In this context, judiciary assumes the role of protector of the Constitution and democracy, being the ultimate arbiter in all matters involving the interpretation of the Constitution.
  • 89. Having said so, when it comes to exercising the power of judicial review of a legislation, the scope of such a power has to be kept in mind and the power is to be exercised within the limited sphere assigned to the judiciary to undertake the judicial review. This has already been mentioned above. Therefore, unless the petitioner demonstrates that Parliament, in enacting the impugned provision, has exceeded its power prescribed in the Constitution or this provision violates any of the provision, the argument predicated on “limited governance” will not succeed. One of the aforesaid ingredients needs to be established by the petitioners in order to succeed.”

3. Manifest Arbitrariness: Apart from (i) lack of legislative competence and (ii) contravention of any of the fundamental rights, the validity of the legislative act can be challenged on “another ground as could be culled out from the recent judgments of this Court” is “manifest arbitrariness”. However, while doing so, it will have to be remembered that the presumption is in favour of the constitutionality of a legislative enactment.

4. It is nobody’s case that Parliament did not have power to enact: In the present case (Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India), it is nobody’s case that Parliament did not have power to enact on the subject.

5. Impugned Amendments Whether Violate Fundamental Rights? Ans. No.

The arguments of the petitioners, in this regard, were not accepted by the Court .

The Director of Enforcement is concerned, the Central Government can appoint such a Director only on the recommendation of the Committee .Section 4 of the CVC Act deals with appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners. The appointment of Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners can be made only after a Committee consisting of

  • .(a) the Prime Minister (Chairman);
  • (b) the Minister of Home Affairs (Member); and
  • (c) the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People (Member) recommends for the same.

The appointment of the Director of CBI cannot be made unless it is recommended by the High-Level Committee consisting of the

  • Prime Minister;
  • The Leader of Opposition; and
  • The Chief Justice of India or Judge of the Supreme Court nominated by him/her.

The aforesaid provisions have been made in order to give effect to the directions issued by this Court in the case of Vineet Narain (supra). The Apex Court in the case of Vineet Narain (supra) has issued a specific direction that the Director of CBI as well as the Director of Enforcement shall have a minimum tenure of two years.

The impugned Amendments empower the Government to extend the tenure of the incumbent in the said office by a period of one year at a time subject to the maximum period of five years including the period mentioned in the initial appointment.

When a committee can be trusted with regard to recommending their initial appointment, we see no reason as to why such committees cannot be trusted to consider as to whether the extension is required to be given in public interest or not.

We are, therefore, unable to accept the arguments that the impugned Amendments grant arbitrary power to the Government to extend the tenure of the Director of ED/CBI and has the effect of wiping out the insulation of these offices from extraneous pressures.

6. Whether Permissible To Extend Tenure Beyond Two Years? Ans. Yes. 

The arguments of the petitioners, in this regard, were not accepted by the Court .

In Common Cause case (2021) it was urged that it was not permissible for the Government to extend the period of tenure of Director of Enforcement beyond two years; and that if the extension was permitted, it would frustrate the very purpose of insulating the aforesaid high posts from extraneous pressures. The Court rejected the arguments and held as under:

  • “If the Government has the power to appoint a person as Director of Enforcement for a period of more than two years, Section 25 of the CVC Act cannot be said to be inconsistent with Section 21 of the General Clauses Act. Following the dictum of this Court in State of Punjab v. Harnek Singh (supra) in which it was held that General Clauses Act has to be read into all Central Acts unless specifically excluded, we are of the considered view that the rule of construction embodied in Section 21 of the General Clauses Act has reference to the context and subject matter of Section 25 of the CVC Act. The judgment of the Constitution Bench of this Court in Kamla Prasad Khetan (supra) is applicable to the facts of this case ….”

7. The Court held in 2021- No Further Extension To The Second Respondent: It is violated. The Court specifically observed in the earlier decision, Common Cause (2021), as under:

  • “23. The justification given by the Union of India for extension of the tenure of second Respondent is that important investigations are at a crucial stage in trans-border crimes. The decision to extend the tenure of the second Respondent is pursuant to the recommendation made by the high powered committee.
  • Though we have upheld the power of the Union of India to extend the tenure of Director of Enforcement beyond the period of two years, we should make it clear that extension of tenure granted to officers who have attained the age of superannuation should be done only in rare and exceptional cases. Reasonable period of extension can be granted to facilitate the completion of ongoing investigations only after reasons are recorded by the Committee constituted under Section 25(a) of the CVC Act.
  • Any extension of tenure granted to persons holding the post of Director of Enforcement after attaining the age of superannuation should be for a short period. We do not intend to interfere with the extension of tenure of the second Respondent in the instant case for the reason that his tenure is coming to an end in November, 2021. We make it clear that no further extension shall be granted to the second Respondent.”

8. Is Nullification of a Mandamus (by A Changed Law) Permissible? Ans. No.

It is found in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India that that the above direction in Common Cause (2021) was “a specific mandamus that no further extension shall be granted to the second respondent (Sanjay Kumar Mishra)”. Undisputedly, the Union of India as well as the respondent No. 2- Sanjay Kumar Mishra were parties to the said proceedings.

Therefore it is held in Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Union of India that the orders giving extensions to the tenure of the respondent No. 2- Sanjay Kumar Mishra, for a period of one year each are illegal.

It is held that nullification of a mandamus by a subsequent legislative exercise would be impermissible.

The Apex Court relied on, mainly, the following earlier decisions –

  • Madan Mohan Pathak v. Union of India, (1978) 2 SCC 50,
  • In Re., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96,
  • S.R. Bhagwat v. State of Mysore, (1995) 6 SCC 16
  • Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455,
  • Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala and others, (2019) 13 SCC 185.

9. (a) Madan Mohan Pathak v. Union of India (1978) 2 SCC 50: The employees of the LIC were denied the benefits which they were entitled to. They filed writ petitions  before the High Court of Calcutta for a writ of mandamus and prohibition directing the LIC to act in accordance with the terms of a Settlement. It was allowed by the Calcutta High Court The LIC preferred Appeal. During the pendency of the appeal the Life Insurance Corporation (Modification of Settlement) Act, 1976 was enacted. The effect of the enactment was to annul the benefits which the employees of the LIC were entitled to in view of the mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court. The Seven Judge Bench in Madan Mohan Pathak v. Union of India, (1978) 2 SCC 50, considered the constitutional validity of the Life Insurance Corporation (Modification of Settlement) Act, 1976.

Bhagwati, J (speaking for himself, Krishna Iyer and Desai, JJ.) observed thus:

  • “9. We are, therefore, of the view that, in any event, irrespective of whether the impugned Act is constitutionally valid or not, the Life Insurance Corporation is bound to obey the writ of mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court and to pay annual cash bonus for the year April 1, 1975 to March 31, 1976 to Class III and Class IV employees.”

Beg. CJ, in his concurring judgment observed thus:

  • “32. I may, however, observe that even though the real object of the Act may be to set aside the result of the mandamus issued by the Calcutta High Court, yet, the section does not mention this object at all. Probably this was so because the jurisdiction of a High Court and the effectiveness of its orders derived their force from Article 226 of the Constitution itself. These could not be touched by an ordinary act of Parliament.”

Doctrine of Change of basis of earlier Judgment

Beg. CJ, continued as under:

  • “Even if Section 3 of the Act seeks to take away the BASIS of the judgment of the Calcutta High Court, without mentioning it, by enacting what may appear to be a law, yet, I think that, where the rights of the citizen against the State are concerned, we should adopt an interpretation which upholds those rights. Therefore, according to the interpretation I prefer to adopt the rights which had passed into those embodied in a judgment and became the BASIS of a mandamus from the High Court could not be taken away in this indirect fashion.”

(b) In Re., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96

The Constitution Bench of the Apex Court, In Re., Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96, observed as under:

  • “76. The principle which emerges from these authorities is that the legislature can change the BASIS on which a decision is given by the Court and thus change the law in general, which will affect a class of persons and events at large. It cannot, however, set aside an individual decision inter partes and affect their rights and liabilities alone. Such an act on the part of the legislature amounts to exercising the judicial power of the State and to functioning as an appellate court or tribunal.”

(c) S.R. Bhagwat v. State of Mysore, (1995) 6 SCC 16: In this case it was observed as under:

  • “12. It is now well settled by a catena of decisions of this Court that a binding judicial pronouncement between the parties cannot be made ineffective with the aid of any legislative power by enacting a provision which in substance overrules such judgment and is not in the realm of a legislative enactment which displaces the BASIS or foundation of the judgment and uniformly applies to a class of persons concerned with the entire subject sought to be covered by such an enactment having retrospective effect. We may only refer to two of these judgments.
  • … This is a case where on interpretation of existing law, the High Court had given certain benefits to the petitioners. That order of mandamus was sought to be nullified by the enactment of the impugned provisions in a new statute. This in our view would be clearly impermissible legislative exercise.”

(d) Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala and others2525 (2019) 13 SCC 185: A similar view has been taken by the Apex Court in Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala and others2525 (2019) 13 SCC 185 .

(e) Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, (2022) 12 SCC 455: In Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, the Apex Court “on the issue of permissibility of legislative override”, observed as under:

  • “50. The permissibility of legislative override in this country should be in accordance with the principles laid down by this Court in the aforementioned as well as other judgments, which have been culled out as under:
  • 50.1. The effect of the judgments of the Court can be nullified by a legislative act removing the BASIS of the judgment. Such law can be retrospective. Retrospective amendment should be reasonable and not arbitrary and must not be violative of the fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution. [Lohia Machines Ltd. v. Union of India, (1985) 2 SCC 197 : 1985 SCC (Tax) 245]
  • 50.2. The test for determining the validity of a validating legislation is that the judgment pointing out the defect would not have been passed, if the altered position as sought to be brought in by the validating statute existed before the Court at the time of rendering its judgment. In other words, the defect pointed out should have been cured such that the BASIS of the judgment pointing out the defect is removed.
  • 50.3. Nullification of mandamus by an enactment would be impermissible legislative exercise (see : S.R. Bhagwat [S.R. Bhagwat v. State of Mysore, (1995) 6 SCC 16 : 1995 SCC (L&S) 1334] ). Even interim directions cannot be reversed by a legislative veto (see : Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal [Cauvery Water Disputes Tribunal, In re, 1993 Supp (1) SCC 96 (2)] and Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala [Medical Council of India v. State of Kerala, (2019) 13 SCC 185] ).
  • 50.4. Transgression of constitutional limitations and intrusion into the judicial power by the legislature is violative of the principle of separation of powers, the rule of law and of Article 14 of the Constitution of India.”

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Grant in Property Law

Jojy George Koduvath

PART I

Grant – Introduction

What is ‘Grant’?

  • ‘Grant’ is a generic term to indicate ‘transfer’ of property (e.g., sale, lease, gift, etc.).
  • But, in property law, ‘grant’ does not convey the idea of an ‘absolute transfer’, especially when it is used in place of sale, gift, etc., and it manifests a concession, permission, or settlement (with conditions).
    • Thus, when a ‘grant’ is made, some interest is retained by the grantor; and it arises from a contract, express or implied, with conditions.
  • The word ‘grant’ is also used to convey the idea of a donation, aid, easement, or dedication to a trust, among other things.
  • ‘Grant’ is also a technical term to denote conditional transfer of lands by a sovereign; and it is more than a licence (which is personal and does not create an interest in land) and less than an outright and unconditional ‘transfer’ of property.
  • It is used to differentiate from a ‘sale’ – sale being ‘an absolute transfer of all rights in the property sold; and no rights are left in transferor’ (Bai Kanku v. Victorbhai Kanjibhai Khristi, AIR 1969 Guj 239; Basanti Mohanty v. Brahmanand Das, AIR 1996 Ori  86; Bhaskaran v.  Raghavan, 2021-3 Ker LJ 498).

Characteristics of ‘Grant

  • Usually, it expresses a grant by deed.
  • Generally, it imports a contract with conditions, express or implied.
  • Ordinarily, it will be without consideration.
  • Conventionally it is creation of an ‘interest’ in property (in case of easement, no interest is created; but only a right of enjoyment). 
  • Mostly irrevocable, as long as the conditions are fulfilled.
  • Usually, conditions are specified in the grant to limit the grant period.

‘Grant’ – Collins Dictionary of Law

Inferior interest, out of an interest retained by the grantor, e.g., the grant of a lease of land by the person holding the freehold.

‘Grant’ – Earl Jowtt’s Dictionary of English Law

In the widest sense, ‘grant’ may comprehend everything that is granted or passed from one to another by deed. But commonly the term is applied to rights created or transferred by the Crown; e.g., grants of pensions, patents, charters, franchise (Quoted in Mohsin Ali v. State of MP, 1975-2 SCC 122).

‘Grant’ – Salmond on Jurisprudence

What is ‘grant’ is stated in Salmond’s Jurisprudence, 12th Edition, at pages 338-339, under the heading ‘The Classes of Agreements’, as under:

  • • “…. A contract is an agreement which creates an obligation or a right in Personam between the parties to it. A grant is an agreement which creates a right of any other description; examples being grants of leases, easements, charges, patents, franchises, licences and so forth. An agreement which transfers a right may be termed generically an assignment. On which extinguishes a right is a release, discharge, or surrender.” (Quoted in H. Anraj v. Government of Tamil Nadu  (& Shri Dipak Dhar v. The State of West Bengal), AIR 1986 SC 63: (1986) 1 SCC 414.)

Black’s Law Dictionary

Black’s Law Dictionary gives the following meaning to “Grant” –

  • “(i) to bestow; to confer upon someone other than the person of entity which makes the grant;
  • (ii) to give or present as a right or privilege. (Quoted in: Hajee SVM Mohamed v. The Govt. of TN, 1997-3 SCC 466)

An Easement or Licence is the (express or implied) ‘Grant of a Right’

It is pointed out in Hajee S.V.M. Mohamed v. The Govt. of TN, 1997-3 SCC 466, that the definition of licence in Section 52 of the Indian Easements Act denotes that it is the grant of a right made by the grantor and that Sec. 53 and Sec. 54 of the said Act also refer unequivocally to the grant of licence.

Note: A license is personal to an individual, whereas a ‘grant’ in an easement pertains to a right attached to the land.

Grant may be Express or “Implied

The origin of all easements is, theoretically, grant by the servient owner. It may be express or implied. It may also be presumed from long use.

  • Note: Traditionally, the term ‘implied easement’ was used by the conventional authorities only to denote ‘easement of necessity‘. However, in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, the Supreme Court used the same to refer to an easement of grant ‘arising by implication‘.

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “13. On the question of easement by grant, the Appellate Court was of the opinion that the plaintiff’s claim in that respect stood proved. The plaintiff had acquaintance and association with the Ashramam and Yogini Amma from his childhood days as revealed from the oral and documentary evidence. Considering the location and nature of `B’ schedule pathway, the location of two pillars at its inception and the gate from which it started, it could be seen that it had been in use by the plaintiff as a pathway. The plaintiff had been residing in the house on `A’ schedule property even prior to the deed of settlement. Therefore, the Appellate Authority arrived at the conclusion that the plaintiff had obtained right of easement of grant from Yogini Amma over the `B’ schedule pathway.
  • An easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties and it may have its own consideration. (B.B. Katiyar’s Commentaries on Easements and Licenses, p. 762).  It may be either express or even by necessary implication. Though easement of necessity will come to an end with the termination of necessity, easement acquired by grant cannot be extinguished on that ground as per section 13(b) of the Indian Easements Act, 1882. Therefore, even assuming that the plaintiff had an alternative pathway as contended by the defendants, it does not extinguish the right of easement of grant in favour of the plaintiff. Therefore, the Trial Court was justified in granting a relief of declaration of right of easement of grant over the `B’ schedule pathway. However, the declaration granted on the ground of easement of necessity was not justified.”

The aforesaid Supreme Court decision (Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622) arose from the Kerala High Court decision, Sree Swyam Prakash Ashramam v. N. Gopala Pillai on 9 May, 2006. It was affirmed by the Supreme Court. The Kerala High Court held as under:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user. In the case of an express grant of easement the limit thereof depends on the words used.”

Upholding the view of the Kerala High Court, the Apex Court held as under:

  • “In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

Also read: Implied Grant: A Valid Mode of Creation of Easement under Indian Law

No Explicit ‘Consideration’ Required for Easement by Grant

Neither the provisions of the enacted law (Easements Act, 1882) nor judicial decisions specifically address the requirement of ‘consideration’ in the creation of easements by grant. This omission is understandable, as Indian law clearly permits the acquisition of easements by grant, both express and implied. Since an easement may arise by implication, and the intention to grant can be inferred from the terms of the grant or the surrounding circumstances, the fundamental principle of easement law – that every easement is, in theory, rooted in a grant – supports the conclusion that no express consideration is required for the creation of an easement by grant.

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act reads:

  • “An easement may be acquired by the owner of the immovable property for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right is created, or, on his behalf, by any person in possession of the same.”

Sec. 13 further elaborates on easements of necessity and quasi-easements, indicating that such easements can arise from the transfer or bequest of immovable property, again without a requirement for consideration.

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, the Supreme Court held:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user.”

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PART II

The Government Grants Act, 1895

The Government Grants Act, 1895 (formerly, before 1950, known as ‘Crown Grants Act, 1895’), had been enacted with a view to securing the Govt. lands from potential or protracted legal claims. It is a small Act with 3 sections.

The salient features of the Act are the following-

  • 1. Transfer of Property Act, 1882, does not to apply to Government grants.
  • 2. It applies to “any grant or other transfer of land or of any interest therein“.
  • 3. It applies to grants and other transfers “heretofore made or hereafter to be made by or on behalf of the Government“.

The Government Grants Act, 1895 reads as under:

  • 1. Title and extent.-(1) This Act may be called the Government Grants Act, 1895.
  • (2) It extends to the whole of India except the territories which, immediately before the 1st November, 1956 , were comprised in Part B States.
  • 2. Transfer of Property Act, 1882, not to apply to Government grants.- Nothing in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (4 of 1882 ), contained shall apply or be deemed ever to have applied to any grant or other transfer of land or of any interest therein heretofore made or hereafter to be made by or on behalf of the Government to, or in favour of, any person whomsoever; but every such grant and transfer shall be construed and take effect as if the said Act had not been passed.
  • 3. Government grants to take effect according to their tenor.- All provisions, restrictions, conditions and limitations over contained in any such grant or transfer as aforesaid shall be valid and take effect according to their tenor, any rule of law, statute or enactment of the Legislature to the contrary notwithstanding.

Note:

  • Grants Act apply to all States except the “Part B States”.
  • Under States Reorganisation Act, 1956, Part B states are
    • Patiala and East Punjab States Union (PEPSU),
    • Hyderabad,
    • Jammu and Kashmir,
    • Travancore-Cochin. 
    • Madhya Bharat,
    • Mysore,
    • Rajasthan, and
    • Saurashtra.

Grants Act does not apply to Land-Reform enactments made by the States, for the Grants Act is a Central Legislation.

By the advent of this Act, (i) no statutory notice under Sec. 106 TP Act – was necessary for evicting tenants from Govt. lands; (ii) no bar to apply the provisions in Sec. 111 (g) of the TP Act to invoke forfeiture provision (for claiming title or violating any provision in the agreement) with respect to agricultural tenancy lands owned by Govt.

Government Lands Grants Act, 1940 (Cochin)

The Government Lands Grants Act, 1940 (enacted with the same words to effect restrictions as that of the Government Grants Act, 1895) made constraints in the ‘grant or other transfer of land or of any interest therein heretofore made or hereafter to be made by or on behalf of the Government to, or in favour of, any person whomsoever’.  By virtue of Section 2 of this Act, the Transfer of Property Act and Tenancy Acts do not apply to lands given as grant by the Government.

Efficacy of Grants Act After Independence

Ever so many decisions have come from various courts in India, including the Supreme Court, accepting the efficacy of the Grants Act. In Union of India v. S. Narasimhulu Naidu, 2021-10 SCALE 135,  2021-7 Mad LJ 58,  our Apex Court considered the effect of the unregistered transfer of land by the State of Andhra Pradesh to the Union, made in 1956; and held as under:

  • “Since the land is transferred from the State, document of title is not required to be registered in terms of Section 17 of the Registration Act, 1908 and/or in terms of Government Grants Act, 1895.”

Grants Act (Special Statute) Prevails Over Transfer of Property Act

In Hajee SVM Mohamed Jamaludeen Bros and Co. v. Govt. of TN, AIR 1997 SC 1368, the Supreme Court has held as under:

  • “9. The combined effect of the above two sections of the Grants Act is that terms of any grant or terms of any transfer of land made by a government would stand insulated from the tentacles of any statutory law. Section 3 places the terms of such grant beyond the reach of any restrictive provision contained in any enacted law or even the equitable principles of justice, equity and good conscience adumbrated by common law if such principles are inconsistent with such terms. The two provisions are so framed as to confer unfettered discretion on the government to enforce any condition or limitation or restriction in all types of grants made by the government to any person. In other words, the rights, privileges and obligations of any grantee of the government would be completely regulated by the terms of the grant, even if such terms are inconsistent with the provisions of any other law.
  • 14. It is true that the word ‘grant’ is not defined in the Grants Act but it is quite evident that the word has been used in the Act is its etimological sense and, therefore, it should get its widest import. In Black’s Law Dictionary, the word “Grant” is shown to have the meanings (i) to bestow; to confer upon someone other than the person or entity which makes the grant; (ii) to give or present as a right or privilege. (Fifth Edn., Page 629).
  • 15. The definition of licence in Section 52 of the Indian Easements Act denotes that it is the grant of a right made by the grantor. Section 53 and Section 54 of the said Act also refer unequivocally to the grant of licence. Thus without a ‘grant’ in the general sense no licence can be created.
  • 16. In Mohsin Ali Vs. State of MP, 1975 2 SCC 122 : AIR 1975 SC 1518, this Court said that ‘in the widest sense grant may comprehend everything that is granted or passed from one to another by deed. But commonly the term is applied to rights created or transferred by the Crown e.g. grants of pensions, patents, charters, franchise (See Earl Jowtt’s Dictionary of English Law).’
  • 17. The word ‘grant’ used in the Grants Act could, therefore envelop within it everything granted by the government to any person. Thus, the licence which appellant obtained by virtue of the agreement would undoubtedly fall within the ambit of ‘grant’ envisaged in the Grants Act. “

In Pradeep Oil Corporation v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi, AIR 2011 SC 1869, the Supreme Court has held as under:

  • “17. In the present case grant has been made by the President of India in terms of Section 2 of the Government Grants Act, 1895 and the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 may have little bearing in the instant case. The former, i.e. the Government Grants Act, 1895 being a special statute would prevail over the general statute, i.e. the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. Accordingly, the rights and obligations of the parties would be governed by the terms of the provisions of Government Grants Act, 1895 whereunder the Government is entitled to impose limitations and restrictions upon the grants and other transfer made by it or under its authority.”

In State of Madras v.s T.M. Oosman Haji And Co., AIR 1970 Mad 27, it is held as under:

  • “The Government Grants Act was passed not only to settle the doubts which had arisen as to the effect of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, but also, to remove any doubts with regard to the cower of the Government to impose limitations and restrictions upon grants and other transfers of lands made by it, or under its authority.
  • Section 2 of the Government Grants Act deals with exemptions as regards the Crown Grants from, the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and thus it gives effect to the first object mentioned in the preamble.
  • Section 3 of the Act provides that Crown Grants should take effect according to their tenor, notwithstanding any law to the contrary.”

In State of UP v. Zahoor Ahmad, AIR 1973 SC 2520: 1973-2 SCC 547, the Supreme Court has observed as under:

  • “16. Section 3 of the Government Grants Act declares the unfettered discretion of the Government to impose such conditions and limitations as it thinks fit, no matter what the general law of the land be. The meaning of sections 2 and 3 of the Government Grants is that the scope of that Act is not limited to affecting the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act only. The Government has unfettered discretion to impose any conditions, limitations, or restrictions in its grants, and the right, privileges and obligations of the grantee would be regulated according to the terms of the grant, notwithstanding any provisions of any statutory or common law.”

In Murlidhar Jalan  v. State of Meghalaya, AIR 1997 SC 2690, the Supreme Court has held that when a perpetual lease granted by the Government for 99 years was not renewed after expiry, the relationship as tenant and landlord stood terminated and party concerned is not entitled for declaration that he is land-holder and after termination of lease, his possession is of trespasser. It was observed as under:

  • “3…….We find no force in the contention. It is an admitted position that renewal was not granted. Thereby, the previous lease stood expired and the relationship as tenant and landlord came to be terminated. He accepted the title of the Government; thus thereafter, he continued to be in possession as a trespasser. It is true that a lower level officer accepted the rent; and recognition was obviously made on a mistaken impression that the land was required for a public purpose; but on the basis thereof, it cannot be construed that the title of the appellant was confirmed by the conduct of the Government. Accordingly, the declaration of title as land-holder cannot be granted. The High Court, therefore, was right in refusing to grant the relief. It is not a case of taking possession without due process of law. The possession only continues to a facet of the facts. Apart from that there is no other documentary evidence on the basis of which it could be concluded that the title of the Government is defeated by acceptance of the rent or by requisition of the property by mistaken act on the part of the Government.

Government has unfettered discretion and under S. 3 Grants Act

Union of India v. Dinshaw Shapoorji Anklesari, 2014-14 SCC 204, said as under:

  • “42. In Union of India and others v. Kamla Verma, 2010-13 SCC 511, this Court has held that it is always open to the Union of India to resume the land held on old grant terms and that the Union of India cannot be prevented from resuming the said land.
  • 43. Therefore, it is clear that the Government has unfettered discretion and under Section 3 impose any condition, limitation or restriction in its grants and the rights, privileges and obligations of the grantee would be regulated only according to the terms of the grant itself though they may be inconsistent with the provisions of any Statute or Common Law.”

Lease conditioned by Payment of RentCannot be Irrevocable Grant

Our Apex Court observed in State of Madhya Pradesh v. Binod Mills Co Pvt.  Ltd.,   2019, (Rohinton Fali Nariman, Sanjay Kishan Kaul, JJ.) as under:

  • “10. Having heard learned counsel on behalf of the parties, we are of the view that neither the judgment of the Single Judge nor the judgment of the Division Bench can be sustained. It is clear on a reading of the 1912 document as well as the Lease-Acceptance deed that only a lease was entered into of the aforesaid land by the erstwhile Gwalior State in favour of the Binod Mills Co. Ltd., which lease was conditioned by payment of rent and by the condition that the Mill must continue and not cease to exist. In this view of the matter, it cannot be said that any irrevocable Grant had been made by the erstwhile Gwalior State in favour of the Binod Mills Co. Ltd. Further Section 182 of the M.P. Land Revenue Code, 1959, states as follows:
  • “182. Rights and liabilities of a Government lessee.- (1) A Government lessee shall, subject to any express provisions in this Code, hold his land in accordance with the terms and conditions of the grant, which shall be deemed to be a grant within the meaning of the Government Grants Act, 1895 (XV of 1895).
  • (2) A Government lessee may be ejected from his land by order of a Revenue Officer on one or more of the following grounds, namely: –
  • .(i) that he has failed to pay the rent for a period of three months from the date on which it became due; or
  • (ii) that he has used such land for purposes other than for which it was granted; or
  • (iii) that the term of his lease has expired; or
  • (iv) that he has contravened any of the terms and conditions of the grant:
  • Provided that no order for ejectment of a Government lessee under this sub-section shall be passed without giving him an opportunity of being heard in his defence.”
  • 12. This provision again makes it clear that a land held under a Government Grant can be held as a Government lessee only if no ground for ejectment is made out under sub- section (2). Sub-section (2) has grounds for ejectment, apart from user of land for purposes other than for which it was granted. Failure to pay the rent for a period of three months from the date on which it became due, as also that any other terms and conditions of the grant had been contravened are also grounds for ejectment. It is, thus clear that even if the Mill was running, the Binod Mills Co. Ltd. could have been ejected if they failed to pay rent for a period of three months from the date on which such rent became due. This would show that this is a case of a Government lease and not an irrevocable Grant, as has wrongly been held by both the Single Judge and the Division Bench.”

Grants Act – Not required to Follow any other Procedure or Law

In Azim Ahmad Kazmi v. State of UP, 2012-7 SCC 278, the Supreme Court, relying upon the Grants Act, held that when a special procedure is prescribed for resumption of land under the lease deed, the State was not required to follow any other procedure or law.

Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980

Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980 was enacted with a view to modify the rights under grants and leases, for cultivation, made by the former States of Travancore and Cochin. The Act was made for the reason that such grants and leases brought about heavy loss to the Government, and they resulted in huge unearned profits to the grantees and lessees; and it was found necessary in the public interest that such undue profits to a few person were to be utilised for the common benefit of the general public.

Section 4(1) of the Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980, reads as under:

  • “4. Grantees and lessees to pay current seigniorage rates – Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the time being in force, or in any grant, lease deed, contract or agreement, or in any judgment, decree or order of any court, with effect on and from the commencement of this Act, every grantee and every lessee shall be bound to pay to the Government the seigniorage rates in force for the time being for the timber cut and removed from any land held by him under the grant or lease.”

The Act required the Grantees and lessees also to pay rent to the Government. The Collector was authorised to revise the assessment and rent. The Constitutional validity of this Act was upheld in Majeed v. State of Kerala, 2006(1) KerLT 19.

PART III

Grant – Termination

Effect of Grant that Allows Unilateral Termination

The decision in Hajee SVM Mohamed v. The Govt. of TN, 1997(3) SCC 466, concluded as under:

  • “The result is that appellant cannot bypass clause 7 of the instrument under which he obtained the right to collect “chank shells” . The said clause adequately empowers the government to unilaterally terminate the arrangement or revoke the grant without assigning any reason whatsoever. The said clause is valid and could be enforced by the government at any time and hence the action of the government in rescinding the contract was valid. Appellant is not therefore, entitled to damages.”

99 Years Lease Not Renewed – Possession of Land-Holder is that of a Trespasser

In Murlidhar Jalan v. State of Meghalaya, AIR 1997 SC 2690, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “3…. It is an admitted position that renewal was not granted. Thereby, the previous lease stood expired and the relationship as tenant and landlord came to be terminated. He accepted the title of the Government; thus thereafter, he continued to be in possession as a trespasser.”

In Tata Steel Limited v. State of Jharkhand , Chelameswar, J., 2015-10 SCALE 35, the Supreme Court after considering the Grants Act and  Hajee SVM Mohamed Jamaludeen v. Government of Tamil Nadu, held as under:

  • “19….. Section 2 of the Government Grants Act declares that “nothing contained in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 applies to any grant or other transfer of land or any interest therein” made by or on behalf of the Government either prior to or after the commencement of the said Act. In other words, when Government transfers land or any interest therein to any person, such a transfer is not governed by the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. The rights and obligations flowing from the transfer of either a piece of land or an interest therein by the Government cannot be determined on the basis of the rights and obligations specified under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882. They are to be ascertained only from the tenor of the document made by the Government evidencing such a transfer. .. ..”

PART III

Govt. Grant – Land Continues to be Govt. Lands

A  Planter under a Grant from Government is not a Jenmi

  • Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86,
  • Kannan Devan Hills Produce v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301
  • State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272
  • State of Kerala v. The Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co.,  AIR 1998 Ker 267

During second half of the 19th century in erstwhile Kingdoms in South India gave very large extent of Government lands, on “grant” to various persons (mostly foreigners) or institutions for putting up plantation.

The lands granted by the Erstwhile (Travancore or Cochin) Sircar continued to be lands belonging to the Sircar, and the grantees did not acquire absolute proprietary rights. It is made clear in the following decisions.-

Acceptance of Rent- Not recognition of Title; Right Not  Stand Confirmed by Govt.

In Murlidhar Jalan v. State of Meghalaya, AIR 1997 SC 2690, the Supreme Court held further as under:

  • “It is true that a lower level officer accepted the rent; and recognition was obviously made on a mistaken impression that the land was required for a public purpose; but on the basis thereof, it cannot be construed that the title of the appellant was confirmed by the conduct of the Government. Accordingly, the declaration of title as land-holder cannot be granted. The High Court, therefore, was right in refusing to grant the relief. It is not a case of taking possession without due process of law. The possession only continues to a facet of the facts. Apart from that there is no other documentary evidence on the basis of which it could be concluded that the title of the Government is defeated by acceptance of the rent or by requisition of the property by mistaken act on the part of the Government.”
  • See also: R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Govt. of Karnataka, 2010 -5 SCC 203.

Rules under which Travancore Govt. issued Grants

The Rules included –

  • i. Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills (for Coffee cultivation), 1865.
  • ii. Rules for the grant of grass lands to Coffee estates, 1877.
  • iii . Rules for the sale of Waste Lands for Coffee or Tea cultivation, 1913.
  • iv. Rules for the sale of Government lands on the Travancore Hills for Coffee or Tea cultivation, 1923.

Grant of Reserved Forest Land

Sec. 23 of the Indian Forest Act, 1927, reads as under:

  • 23. No right acquired over reserved forest, except as here provided – No right of any description shall be acquired in or over a reserved forest except by succession or under a grant or contract in writing made by or on behalf of the Government or some person in whom such right was vested when the notification under section 20 was issued.

Corresponding provision in the Kerala Forest Act, 1961 is Section 22. It reads as follows –

  • “22. No right acquired over Reserved Forests except as herein provided
  • No right of any description shall be acquired in or over a Reserved Forest except under a grant or contract in writing made by or on behalf of the Government or by or on behalf of some person in whom such right or the power to create such right was vested when the notification under Section 19 was published or succession from such person:
  • Provided that no patta shall, without the previous sanction of the Government be granted for any land included within a Reserved Forest and every patta granted without such sanction shall be null and void.”

Referring Sec. 22 of the Kerala Forest Act, 1961, it is held in Joonktolle Tea And Industries Ltd. v. State of Kerala, Feb. 28, 2020, it is held by the Kerala High Court as under:

  • “11. Though the learned counsel for the petitioner contends that there is no transfer of interest in the property and that all that has happened is an amalgamation of the companies, a plain reading of the order of the Calcutta High Court would make it clear that there has been a takeover of the company by the present petitioner with all its assets and liabilities. Such an exercise can only be a transfer of the rights and assets as vested in the transferee company. If that be so, the contention raised by the learned Special Government Pleader that such an exercise is not possible in view of the provisions of Section 2 of the Forest (Conservation) Act and Section 22 of the Kerala Forest Act appears to be well founded. In Sunil Kumar v. Divisional Forest Officer [2000(2) KLT SN 7] this Court held that lease of a portion of reserve forest would be impermissible without the prior permission of the Central Government under the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980. A Division Bench of this Court in State of Kerala and others v. New World Investment (P) Ltd. and others [2015 KHC 7103], considering a case of reserve forest land leased out by the erstwhile Cochin Government held that any further transfer by way of sale or lease or otherwise by the original lessee would  be impermissible in view of the clear provisions of the statutes. Though the learned Senior Counsel attempts to show a distinction between sale in the said case and an amalgamation in the case on hand, since Section 22 specifically prohibits the ‘acquisition of rights of any nature’ without a grant or contract on writing by the Government, I am of the opinion that the mode of acquisition of the rights would be irrelevant. The prayers sought for in the writ petition, therefore, cannot be granted.”

In Secretary, TDB v. Mohanan Nair (T.R. Ramachandran Nair & A.V. Ramakrishna Pillai, JJ.), ILR 2013-2 Ker 883; 2013-3 KLT 132, an important decision on Kerala Land Reforms Act, it is found –

  • There should be permission for use and occupation of the land by a competent person.
  • The definition of ‘tenant’ will also show that there should be an agreement to pay rent or other consideration for being allowed to “possess and to enjoy the land”, with a person who is “entitled to lease the land.”  Without interest being created in the land, nobody can claim to be a cultivating tenant.
  • If there is no demise of the land in favour of one, if at all any tenancy right can be created, the same can be done by the Devaswom Board only by appropriate proceedings
  • If no right to cultivate and raise produce of land given; but, right to take usufructs alone granted; or a mere licence, it will not mature into a tenancy.
  • Kuthakapattom licence cannot mature into a tenancy.
  • Use of word “rent” in receipt will not be conclusive to show existence of tenancy agreement,
  • Purchase Certificate issued by Land Tribunal, for land belonging to Devaswom (exempted category under S.3(1)(x) of the Act), will be in total violation of Rules, and will be a nullity.
  • Misfeasance or non-feasance of trustee cannot affect trust itself.
  • Court can interfere even if some years have passed and there was inaction on the part of Devaswom Board for certain period.

What is ‘Patta’?

Patta is a Certificate or Document issued by the Government (i) to tenants/ grantees of Govt. property, for cultivation, residence etc., and (ii) to persons to whom ownership is conferred upon Govt. property.

‘Patta’ was originally a word connected to land-lease. In Revenue documents (‘record of rights’) of various States in India , the lessee is referred to as patta-dhar. Several enactments also refer patta as lease-document.  

Read Blog: What is Patta or Pattayam?

Following decisions speak as to patta issued to Tenants –

  • Nature Lovers Movement Vs. State of Kerala, AIR  2009 SC 1573
  • Kamala Bakshi Vs. Khairati Lal, AIR  2000 SC 1808
  • Glanrock Estate (P) Ltd Vs. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR  2010 SC 795 (Ryotwari Patta).
  • M Chinnathambi Alias Muthiah Vs. Ponnathal, 2010-1 Mad WN 725;
  • Umapathi, K.  Vs. Addl. Collector, Thanjavur, 2000-2 Mad LJ 725
  • KS Shanthilal Vs. Sarojini Ammal, 1996-1 Mad LJ 562, (Ryotwari Patta)

Important Decisions on Grant

Kannan Devan Hills Produce v. The State Of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301 Kenan Devan Hills Concession (on grant deeds) fall within the expression “Janmam right” vested with Sircar. This land is dealt with under this heading, i.e. Pandaravaka Lands, i.e. lands belonging to the Sircar.
State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272Company did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the Concession Area (on grant deeds)
Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86 – A coffee planter who holds lands under a grant  is not a Jenmi.
Majeed v. State of Kerala,(2006) 1 KerLT 19Petitioner contended – ‘grant’ was free hold property. The court did not accept.
Thomas Philip v. Forest Range Officer, 2021-2 KerLT 578Arguement that deed of grantfor coffee or tea cultivation’ was not a grant, but a title deed was not accepted

Our Apex Court considered the effect of “grant” by the Erstwhile Governments, in the following decisions. The importance of conditional transfer that restrict interest in the property (contra-distinct to absolute transfer) is emphasised in these rulings.

  • 1. Kannan Devan Hills Produce v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301
  • 2. State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272
  • 3. Thomas Philip v. Forest Range Officer, 2021-2 KerLT 578
  • 4. Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86
  • 5. Majeed v. State of Kerala, (2006) 1 KerLT 19

1. Kannan Devan Hills Produce v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301

The Supreme Court, in Kannan Devan Hills Produce v. The State Of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301 (Sikri (Cj), Shelat, A.N. Ray, I.D. Dua, , H.R.  Khanna, JJ.) held that Kenan Devan Hills Concession (on grant deeds) fall within the expression “Janmam right” vested with Sircar. This land is dealt with under this heading, i.e. Pandaravaka Lands, i.e. lands belonging to the Sircar.

Points came for consideration were the following:

  • 1. Whether the Kannan Devan Hills (Resumption of Lands) Act, 1971 was protected from challenge under Art. 31A of the Constitution. That is, whether these lands fall within expression ‘Janmam right’ or “estate”  in art. 31A of the Constitution.
  • 2. If the lands acquired were an “estate”, or with ‘Janmam right’ owned by the Company, the land reform enactment did not have stood valid. (Note: Kesavananda Bharathi Case came in 1973.)

According to the petitioner Company, ‘it has at all times been holding, cultivating, enjoying and dealing with the Concession Land as the absolute, owner thereof’.

The position taken by the State was –

  • that the petitioner Company was not an absolute owner, but only a lessee under the Government, especially since the 1899 Proclamation issued by H.H. the Maharaja.
  • that the petitioner’s predecessor-in-title was John Danial Munro, who obtained, the first Pooniat Concession from Punjar Valiya Raja, on July 11, 1877. This Concession recited that an, application was made for the grant of the above property to the Raja for coffee cultivation.
  • It was further stipulated in the Concession that
    •  “you shall clear and remove the jungles, and reclaim the waste lands within the said boundaries, and cultivate them with coffee up to the year 1058 and from the year 1059, pay our rent collector a yearly rent at the rate of 3,000 British Rupees.”
  • H.H. the Maharaja (Travancore) executed a deed of ratification, dated November 28, 1878, by which the Government ratified the First Pooniat Concession dated July 11, 1877.
  • This deed of ratification laid down –  the Government permitted the grantee to hold the land.
  • Clause 5 of the Deed of Ratification, is important. It provides, inter alia, that
    • “the grantee can appropriate to his own use within the limits of the grant all timber except … Teak, Cole Teak, Blackwood, Ebony, Karoonthaly, Sandalwood……….
  • The eleventh clause reads – “The land granted shall be held in perpetuity as heritable or transferable property, but every case of transfer … be immediately made known to the Sircar….”
  • The twelfth clause stipulates – “The discovery of useful mines and treasures within the limits of the grant shall be communicated to the Sircar, ….”
  • The sixteenth clause provides – “The grantee shall be bound to preserve the forest trees growing on the banks of the principal streams …. fifty yards …. Similarly … preserve the, trees about the crest of the hill to the extent of a quarter of a mile on each side.”

The Apex Court found the following:

  • The janmam rights (even if remained with the Poonjar Chief), H.H. the Maharaja became the janmi by the Royal proclamation of 1899.
  • The nature of ‘janmam right’ has been examined by this Court previously in Kavalappara Kottarathil Kochuni v. State of Madras [1960] 3 S.C.R. 887 Subba Rao, J., observed that janmam right in Kerala is an “estate and it is the freehold interest.
  • The Sircar itself is one of these Janmis and it was the largest Janmi. It came to possess janmam lands by gift, purchase, escheat, confiscation and other ways.
  • If any person wants land in Travancore, he must obtain it from, some one of the body of Janmis, i.e. from the Sircar, which is the Chief Janmi, or from some other Janmi.

The Apex Court held that it was difficult to resist the conclusion that the lands in dispute fall within the expression “Janmam right” vested with Sircar.

The Apex Court further found

  • The Registered Lands included inter alia, (a) Pandaravaka lands and (b) Janmam lands. “Pandaravaka or Sircar lands are, lands of which the State is the landlord or the Jenmi and whatever rights which vest in the ryots are derived from the Sircar.”
  • Kenan Devan Hills Concession is dealt with under this heading, i.e. Pandaravaka Lands, i.e. lands belonging to the Sircar.
  • It thus appears that the State grants like
    • Kanan Devan Hills Concession and
    • Ten Square Miles Concession, and
    • Munro Lands,
  • were treated under the heading ‘Pandaravaka Lands, i.e. lands belonging to the Sircar.

On these findings The Apex Court upheld the Kannan Devan Hills (Resumption of Lands) Act, 1971 and dismissed the challenge of the Company.

2. State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272

With respect to the same property  it was held in State of Kerala v. Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272as under:

  • “The Trial Court in a detailed and well-reasoned judgment dismissed the suit of the company. The Trial Court on the interpretation of First Concession (Exhibit P- 1), Second Concession (Exhibit P-2), deed of ratification (Exhibit P-62) and the Government agreement with the Society dated August 2, 1866 (Exhibit P-64) came to the conclusion that the company did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the Concession Area or the trees and timber in the said area. It was held that the Poonjar Chief had only conveyed heritable and transferable possessory rights over the Concession area to the grantee. It was also held that absolute rights over the trees and timber in the Concession Area did not pass to the grantee and it had only the right to use and remove timber subject to the restrictions imposed in the deeds of conveyance/ratification.”

It is observed:

  • “An identical clause in another grant entered into by the Travancore Government came for consideration before a Full Bench of the Kerala High Court in George A Leslie v. State of Kerala, [1969] K. L.T. 378, K. K. Mathew, J. (as the learned Judge then was) interpreted the clause as under:
    •  We think that if title to the reserved trees passed to the grantees, a provision of this nature would have been quite unnecessary. There was no purpose in stating that the grantees will be free to appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant, if title to the trees passed to the grantees; the provision is a clear indication that the grantees were allowed to cut and appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant as a matter of concession.”
  • We agree with the interpretation given to the clause by Mathew, J. and hold that the respondent- company did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the Concession Area or the trees and the timber therein.”

It is observed further:

  • “It was further held by Mathew, J. (in George A. Leslie v. State of Kerala, 1969 KLT 378) that kuttikanam being the governments share of the value of the trees owned by the government it has the power to fix the value of the trees. We agree with the reasoning and conclusions reached by Mathew, J.”

The Apex Court upheld and approved “the judgment and findings” of the Trial Court.

3. George A. Leslie vs State Of Kerala – AIR 1970 Ker 21

Travancore Regulation II of 1040 and Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills dated 24th April 1865 considered.

It is observed:

  • “Ext. P-l is a grant made under the Travancore Regulation II of 1040 and the Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills dated 24th April 1865. It conferred a heritable and transferable interest in the grantees of the land comprised in it. Clause 5 in Ext. P-l, which is identical with Section 5 in Form A of the Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills, is the relevant provision for deciding this question. It provides:
    • Grantees can appropriate to their own use within the limits of the grant all timber except the following and such as may hereinafter be reserved, namely, Teak, Gole Teak, Blackwood, Ebony, Karcomthaly, Sandalwood; should they carry any timber without the limits of the grant, it will be subject to the pay ment of kuttikanom or customs duty or both, as the case may be, in the same way as timber ordinarily felled”.
  • 10. We think that if title to the reserved trees passed to the grantees, a provision of this nature would have been quite unnecessary. There was no purpose in stating that the grantees will be free to appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant, if title to the trees passed to the grantees; the provision is a clear indication that the grantees were allowed to cut and appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant as a matter of concession.”

4. Thomas Philip v. Forest Range Officer 1923 ‘Grant’ of Travancore Government

Grant made by the Travancore Government, in 1923 was considered in Thomas Philip v. Forest Range Officer, 2021-2 KerLT 578. The Chief Secretary to the Government of Travancore ‘granted’ land ‘for coffee or tea cultivation’. The fifth condition read as under:

  • “The full right to Royal trees within the grant is reserved and continues to vest in the Government. The Grantee shall be bound to take care of the Royal trees particularised in column 5 of the schedule hereunder written until they are removed or otherwise disposed of by the Government. The Grantee shall also be bound to deliver to the Government all ivory found and other Royalties produced in the land, and all captured elephants, and will be paid the regulated price for the articles of produce, and the regulated reward for the elephant, at the discretion of the Government.”

It was contended that the ‘ownership’ of the land was purchased by the petitioner’s father in 1941. He planted trees. The petitioner made an application in 2006 to the Forest Range Officer seeking NOC for felling rosewood trees and teak wood trees. It was denied in view of the fifth condition of title deed to the effect that the full right over all the trees in the properties were fully vested with the Government. The petitioner argued that the 1923 deed is not a grant, but a title deed. The Government Pleader argued that the property held by the petitioner is a grant which would come under the purview of the Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980. In view of the said Act, 1980, the appropriation of teak, Blackwood, etc. were subject to payment of seigniorage at the rates specified. Section 4(1) of the Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980, reads as under:

  • “4. Grantees and lessees to pay current seigniorage rates- (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in any law for the time being in force, or in any grant, lease deed, contract or agreement, or in any judgment, decree or order of any court, with effect on and from the commencement of this Act, every grantee and every lessee shall be bound to pay to the Government the seigniorage rates in force for the time being for the timber cut and removed from any land held by him under the grant or lease.”

On the basis of Jose v. State of Kerala, 2020 (2) KLT 560 and Manoj A.N. v. State of Kerala 2013 (3) KLT 649, it was argued for the State that the trees  came into existence subsequent to the assignment was also covered by the Act.

Relying on Gopi v. Tahsildar, 2002 (3) KLT 526, and  Majeed v. State of Kerala, 2006 (1) KLT 19, it was contended that that the rights obtained in terms of 1923 grant was not absolute. (The Government Pleader also relied on two unreported judgments – in W.P.(C) No. 804/2006 and Crl. M.C. No. 7347/2017).

The petitioner argued that the restriction was only in respect of the trees made mention in 1923 title deed and the trees sought to be cut and removed by the petitioner are those planted by the father of the petitioner. The Court held as under:

  • “But, the fifth condition quoted above would show that the grantee is bound to deliver to the Government other royalties produced in the land also and Government is expected to pay regulated price for the articles of produce. The term ‘other royalties produced’ would indeed include subsequently planted royal trees also…..
  • In view of sub-section (1) of Section 4 and the non-obstante clause therein, the petitioner is liable to pay seigniorage for the trees proposed to be cut and removed by him. The fifth condition in Ext.P1 (1923) will stand modified to the extent provided under Section 4(1) of the Act, 1980.”

The High Court concluded analysing the Ext. P1 (1923) Title Deed, Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980, Kerala Preservation of Trees Act, 1986 and Kerala Promotion of Tree Growth on Non-Forest Areas Act, 2005 as under:

  • .(1) The fifth condition in Ext. P1 Title Deed will stand modified by the Kerala Grants and Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980, as per which every grantee and every lessee shall be bound to pay to the Government the seigniorage rates in force for the timber cut and removed from any land held under the grant or lease.
  • (2) For cutting, uprooting or burning any tree falling within the definition of tree as contained in Section 2(e) of the Kerala Preservation of Trees Act, 1986, it is necessary to obtain previous permission of the Authorised Officer.
  • (3) Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law, except in respect of trees:
    • .(i) reserved by the Government at the time of assignment of such land, or
    • (ii) trees standing on any land notified under Section 5 of the Kerala Preservation of Trees Act, 1986 every owner of non-forest land shall have the right to cut and transport any tree, other than sandalwood tree standing on his land.”

Note: Note: In this case, the expression “title deed” does not denote a document conferring full ownership. This can be clarified by the use of the phrase “title thereto” in the definition of ‘Prescriptive Easement’ under the Easement Act. (See End Notes)

5. Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala Coffee Planter under a Grant is not a Jenmi

Following passage from Sri T. Madhava Row’s Memorandum (Travancore Land Revenue Manual) regarding the origin and nature of Jenmom rights is quoted in the Judgment (Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86). Sri T. Madhava Row stated as under: 

  • “A Jenmi is often termed a landlord. But, it must be clearly  understood and also always remembered that a Jenmi though certainly a landlord, is a peculiar Kind or landlord. Any person, who holds a pattah from a Collector in a British District and under it holds from the British Government subject to Government tax more or less, is called a landlord in ordinary language. 
  • Even in Travancore, any coffee planter or indeed any ryot, who holds lands under a grant from the Sirkar, etc. , is or may be called a landlord. But, be it remembered, such landlords are not Jenmies
  • A Jenmi differs from such landlords in that he does not derive his title to lands from the Sirdar etc. His title to the Jenmom lands is inherent. He is, so far as his Jenmom lands are concerned, a little territorial sovereign in a limited sense. He is landlord of his Jenmom domain exactly in the sense in which this Sirkar is landlord of all the land it grants to planters and indeed to all ryots in general; in the sense in which the British government is landlord of all the Ryotwari lands of the East Coast Zillahs of the Madras Presidency.
  • It is necessary, in view to avoid errors and misconceptions, to familiarize the mind to this definition of t Jenmi. The origin of Jenmom property may be briefly explained here with a view to make the rights of jenmis clear. Kerala Desom   (in which Travancore is included) was originally conquered by Parasurama, and this great warrior parcelled out the conquered lands among a limited number of brahmins. The Brahmins then became territorial lords, each independent of the rest. From that early age, the lands have descended with the tenure almost unimpared. The lands so belonging to each Brahmin are said to constitute his Jenmom, and the Brahmin himself is called a jenmi. These lands, so long as they continue in possession of the Jenmi, are free of all taxation. To this day this exemption continues in full force.
  • Jenmom lands are precisely what are in Europe called allodial properties as contradistinguished from feudal. It must be clear from what has been stated that all the lands in Travancore belong to a body of jenmis. There are no lands that do not belong to some Jenmi or other. Be it remembered that the Sirkar itself is one of these Jenmis, it  having come to possess Jenmom lands by gift, purchase, eacheat, confiscation and other ways. It is only a great Jenmi, great in the sense that its jenmom property is extensive. If any person wants land in Travancore, he must obtain it from, and hold it of, some one of the body of Jenmis, i. e. , from the Sirhar, which is the chief Jenmi, or from some other Jenmi”. (pp. 2 and 3 of Travancore land Revenue Manual, Vol. IV)

Note: Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86 gives us “illuminative information as to the concept of ‘jenmom’” as pointed out in Harrisons Malayalam Limited v. State of Kerala, 2018 2 KerHC 719; 2018 2 KerLT 369 – though this decision was overruled by the larger Bench in Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez Vs. Albert Fernandez, AIR 1971 Ker 168 :1971 KerLT 216).

It was held in Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez v. Albert Fernandez  that Pandarapattom land in the Travancore area of the State was ‘estate’ within the meaning of Article 31-A(2)(a).

6. Majeed v. State of Kerala Grant and the Right of Ownership

In  Majeed v. State of Kerala,(2006) 1 KerLT 19 (K.A. Abdul Gafoor, K. Thankappan, K. Hema, JJ.), the State demanded seigniorage under  Kerala Grants and Leases Modification of Rights Act, 1980. Petitioner was a person who purchased trees from Travancore Rubber and Tea Company Ltd. Disputes, and questions arose in the light of the Kerala Grants & Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980. Admittedly, there was originally a grant. The scope of the ‘grant’ was disputed.

The question that came before the Full Bench was –

  • whether, in the light of Section 4 of the Kerala Grants & Leases (Modification of Rights) Act, 1980, ‘seigniorage (or kuttikanam) is liable to be paid for removal of the timber of the trees stated to be planted by the grantee from a property assigned by way of grant by the Government’.

The legal background for reference to Full Bench was the following:

  • In State of Kerala v. Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., [1991] 2 SCC 272, our Apex Court has held that “the State Government could refuse to permit transportation of timber from the Concession Area” and the “Government being the owner had a right to impose kuttikanam on the removal of the trees out of the Concession Area.
  • The Division Bench that referred the matter to the (present) Full Bench noted that a similar matter was considered by a Division Bench, and opined that the contention that Kuttikanam (or seigniorage) could not be charged in respect of “such timber which was planted by the grantee in the Concession Area” was negatived by the Apex Court.
  • The said decision of the Apex Court has been distinguished by yet another Division Bench of the High Court in State of Kerala v. Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd.,1998 (1) KLT 28: AIR 1998 Ker 267 (K.K. Usha, N. Dhinakar, JJ.), holding that “if the Government and intended to claim ownership on the trees which are to be cultivated by the grantee, specific reference would have been made to such trees also in the documents”. The Bench, therefore, concluded that if the trees are planted by the grantee, “the grantee is not liable to pay any seigniorage or kuttikanam in respect of timber of those shade trees”.

The Full Bench, in reference, held as under:

  • “14. Apart from this, the Special Government Pleader has pointed out to us the departmental rules regarding the sale of waste land, subject to which grant has been made as per Ext. R2(a), which categorically makes it clear that: “The other terms of the grant shall be the same as those that apply to waste lands granted under the coffee land dated 7th July 1898.” (The Government Pleader also relied on two unreported judgments – in W.P.(C) No. 804/2006 and Crl. M.C. No. 7347/2017)
  • The rules for the sale of wasteland on the Travancore Hills for coffee or tea cultivation provide for reservation of trees to attract Clause (c) of Section 3 of the Act. She further submits that, the grant in terms of Ext. R2(a) is not absolute. Notwithstanding the terms of the lease, the government can, as per Section 4demand seigniorage from the grantee.”

The contention of the petitioner was that it was the free hold property. 

The Full Bench rejected the contention on ‘free hold’..

  • The rejected contention was stated by the Court as under:
  • “The petitioner contends that the respondents have no authority to demand seigniorage in respect of the timber of the trees planted by the company, as the property in question granted in favour of the company is not a leasehold property, but a free hold property, as is revealed by the order of grant Exts. R2(i).”

The High Court rejected the Writ Petition recording as under:

  • “Except the liability to pay seigniorage, nothing remains to be resolved in this Writ Petition. Necessarily, the aforesaid finding shall result in dismissal of the Writ Petition.”

PART IV

Forfeiture on Claim of Ownership By ‘Grantee’

There is no specific provision for forfeiture of grant for claiming ‘title as owner’, by grantee (similar to the forfeiture of tenancy for claiming ‘ownership’ by a tenant under Sec. 111(g) of the TP Act).

Will claim of ownership (over the granted-property) by grantee amount to forfeiture?

The answer is – Yes. Following are the reasons:

  • 1. Applying the Principles of ‘Forfeiture of Tenancy’ it being on principles on justice, equity and good conscience. The right of forfeiture (for claiming title as owner, by tenant, under Sec. 111(g), TP Act) is a right that arises in common law (that is, on the principles of justice, equity and good conscience (Maharaja of Jaipore  v. Rukmini Pattamahadevi, 46 Ind App 109; AIR 1919 PC 1; Rattan Lal v. Vardesh Chander AIR 1976 SC 588).
  • 2. Analogy to Holding-over in Agricultural lease. The right of ‘holding over’ on termination of lease (if lessor accept rent even after termination of the lease period) is provided under Sec. 116 of the TP Act. Though Sec. 117 of the TP Act exempts ‘leases for agricultural purposes’ (from the whole Chapter), it is pointed out in a good number of decisions that the principles thereof (holding over) would apply to agricultural leases also, if no express prohibition, for it contains the principles of justice, equity and good conscience. (See: Amrit Lal v. Mamleshwar, AIR 1973 Del. 75.)
  • 3. Analogy to Forfeiture (itself) in Agricultural lease. Agricultural leases, being specifically exempted in Sec. 117 (it may be argued), the principles on justice, equity and good conscience may not apply to them as regards forfeiture (under Sec. 111). But, the principles thereon definitely apply to grants, for it is not governed by the TP Act (See: Namdeo Lokman Lodhi v. Narmadabai, AIR 1953 SC 228.)

By the advent of this Act, (i) no statutory notice – under Sec. 106 TP Act – was necessary for evicting tenants from Govt. lands; (ii) no bar to apply the provisions in Sec. 111 (g) of the TP Act to invoke forfeiture provision (for claiming title or violating any provision in the agreement) with respect to agricultural tenancy lands owned by Govt.

Right of Forfeiture is a right arose in Common Law

Section 111, Transfer of Property Act, 1882 says as to forfeiture as to lease. It being based on the common law principles as to justice, equity and good conscience, the principles can be applied to ‘grants’ also; for, (i) the provisions of the Transfer of Property Act are not applicable to ‘grants’ and (ii) no provision of law (as regards grant) stands contrary these principles (Vasudeva Menon v. K.J. Plantation, 2012 (3) KerLT 730).

Section 111, Transfer of Property Act reads as under:

  • 111. Determination of lease – A lease of immoveable property determines—
  • (a) …  to … (f)
  • (g) by forfeiture; that is to say,
    • (1) in case the lessee breaks an express condition which provides that, on breach thereof, the lessor may re-enter; or
    • (2) in case the lessee renounces his character as such by setting up a title in a third person or by claiming title in himself; or
    • (3) the lessee is adjudicated an insolvent and the lease provides that the lessor may re-enter on the happening of such event;
  • and in any of these cases the lessor or his transferee gives notice in writing to the lessee of his intention to determine the lease;
  • (h) …

Sec.117 of the Transfer of Proper Act provides as follows:

  • “117. Exemption of leases for agricultural purposesNone of the provisions of this Chapter apply to leases for agricultural purposes, except in so far as the State Government may by notification published in the Official Gazette declare all or any of such provisions to be so applicable in the case of all or any of such leases, together with, or subject to, those of the local law, if any, for the time being in force.
  • Such notification shall not take effect until the expiry of six months from the date of its publication.”

The right of forfeiture (for claiming title as owner, by tenant) being a right that arises in common law (that is, on the principles of justice, equity and good conscience (Maharaja of Jaipore  v. Rukmini Pattamahadevi, 46 Ind App 109; AIR 1919 PC 1; Ratan Lal v. Vardesh Chander AIR 1976 SC 588), it can be applied in “agricultural leases” also, if no express prohibition.

KM Joseph, J. held in  Vasudeva Menon v. K.J. Plantation, 2012 (3) KerLT 730 (when he dealt with Sec. 116) as under:

  • “Whether the principle of Sec. 116 of the Transfer of Property Act will apply in regard to agricultural lease in view of Sec.117 Act ? …
  • … But there we may notice that the principle of Sec. 116 would apply even to agricultural leases on the basis of it embodying principles of equity, justice and good conscience. In this connection we may refer to a Bench decision of the Delhi High Court in Amrit Lal v. Mamleshwar (AIR 1973 Del. 75).”

The relevant passage in Amrit Lal v. Mamleshwar (AIR 1973 Del. 75) reads as under:

  • “16. Shri Bindra placed reliance on Section 117 of the Transfer of Property Act which exempts leases for agricultural purposes from the provisions of Chapter V of the Transfer of Property Act. In Anantmal v. Lala, AIR 1964 Raj 88, it was held that the principle underlying Section 116 of the Transfer of Property Act is based upon considerations of equity, justice and good conscience and in the absence of anything to the contrary the provisions are applicable to cases not governed by the Transfer of Property Act. The principles of Section 116 are applicable to leases of agriculture lands. Similarly in Alphanso Pinto v. Thukru Hengsu, AIR 1955 Mad 206, it was held if there is no agreement fixing the terms of a new lease, the terms of the old lease must be deemed to be applicable. Where the tenant holds over after the expiration of the term, he holds subject to all the covenants in the lease which are applicable to the new situation. Therefore, clause 9 must be held to be one of the terms of the tenancy by holding over. The tenancy must be held to be one subject to the covenants in respect of Sardarkhti rights contained in the original lease deed. The rule that principles of equity, justice and good conscience apply to agricultural leases and that the principle contained in Section 116 of the Transfer of Property Act is a principle of equity, justice and good conscience has been enunciated in a number of rulings, for example in 
    • Krishna Shetti v. Gilbert Pinto, 2nd 42 Mad 654 = (AIR 1919 Mad 12),
    • Gangamma v. Phommakka, (1910) 33 Mad 253,
    • Mt. Kesarbai v. Rajabhau Sadasheo Rao, AIR 1944 Nag 94, 
    • Nanjappa Goundan v. Rangaswami Gounda, AIR 1940 Mad 410, 
    • Moore v. Makhan Singh, Air 1919 Pat 254,
    • Eayo George v. Kacki Muthaliyar, AIR 1953 Trav-Co 299, 
    • Bainani Properties Private Ltd. v. M. Gulamali Abdul Hossain and Co., and
    • Namdeo Lokman Lodhi v. Narmadabai, AIR 1953 SC 228.)”

Should Notice Similar to S. 111(g) Necessarily be Issued to Grantees

Notice in writing to the lessee of his intention to determine the lease” is essential under Sec. 111(g) (on their claiming title). Whether it is required to be issued to (i) agricultural tenants and (ii) grantees on forfeiture of tenancy/grant (on their claiming title)?

The answer is, No.

The potential argument in favour ‘notice in writing is essential’ is the following –

  • The notice in writing under Sec. 111(g) of the TP Act embodies a principle of justice, equity and good conscience and therefore there can be no forfeiture unless notice in writing is given to (i) agricultural tenants and (ii) grantees though the statutory provisions of the Transfer of Property Act are not made applicable to such transactions.

But, the following are pointed out (in various decisions) in support of the view that no written notice is needed in cases of (i) agricultural tenants and (ii) grantees –

  • This provision was introduced by 1929 Amendment only.
  • This provision was not in force in English law.
  • Institution of suit itself is a notice to (i) agricultural tenants, (ii) grantees, etc.
  • It is not equitable to argue that a tenant or grantee, who wilfully forfeited the transaction, is entitled for a notice, on principles of equity.

Plantation activity is not a simple “agriculture” activity

There are ever so many decisions of our courts saying that that plantation activity is a business activity and it is not simple “agriculture” activity (that falls under Sec. 117 TP Act). See:

  • AIR 2001 SC 2672,
  • 2016(8) JT 287; 2016 (7) SCALE 4,
  • 2018(1) Ker LT 84,
  • 2016(3) Ker LT 592,
  • 1999(3) Ker LT 300.

Effect of Travancore Govt. Leases after Royal Pattom Proclamations of 1040 and 1061

Now a question arises: What is the impact of 1040 and 1061 (1886) Proclamations over the ‘Government Land Leases’ made after 1061 (1886)? Do such leased lands qualify as “estate” under Article 31A of the Constitution?

The legitimate answer is that the lands leased out (by the Government) after 1061 (1886) do not acquire the rights of ‘permanency of tenure’ or attain the ‘proprietary interest’ conferred by the Pattom Proclamations of 1040 and 1061. If such rights are axiomatically conferred as a matter of course, the result would be that the Government cannot ‘lease’ lands (after the Proclamations), for, the lease character would be lost at the moment it is made.

In Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez v. Albert Fernandez (five Judge Bench), 1971 Ker LT 1, AIR 1971 Ker 168 (Per PT Raman Nayar, CJ, T Krishnamoorthy Iyer, P Unnikrishna Kurup, JJ.), concluded that the land covered by the Royal Proclamations of 1040 and 1061 were “estates” falling under Art. 31A of the Constitution. It was on the finding that the Proclamation “secured permanency of tenure”, and “proprietary interest” in the soil. It was observed as under:

  • “7. It is impossible to accept the contention advanced on behalf of the plaintiff in this case that,even after the Proclamation of 1040, the holders of these lands had no proprietary interest whatsoever in the soil and remained tenants in the strict sense of that term, with only the right of enjoyment, the only difference being that they secured permanency of tenure, the Government still remaining the full and absolute proprietor of the soil.”

Therefore, there is a clear difference between leases made before and after the Proclamations, and the rights conferred by the Proclamations do not apply to leases made after them.

End Notes

Sec. 15 Easement Act

Sec. 15 Easement Act reads as under:

  • “15. Acquisition by prescription: Where …… a right of way or any other easement has been peaceably and openly enjoyed by any person claiming title thereto, as an easement and as of right, without interruption, and for twenty years, the right to such access and use of light or air, support, or other easement, shall be absolute.”

What does “claiming title thereto” refer to?

  • Answer: It is ‘title to the legal right’ to easement.

Peacock in his treatise, “Law Relating to Easements in British India”, Third Edn., at page 608 said as under:

  • “As an easement is not one of the ordinary rights of ownership, it is necessary that either party claiming or relying on an easement should plead the nature of his title thereto so as clearly to show the origin of the right, whether it arises by statutory prescription, or express or implied grant, or the old common law method of a lost grant“.

Quoting Peacock, in Surendrasingh v. Phirosahah, (Sinha C.J. and Hidayatullah, J.), AIR 1953 Nag. 205, it is held as under:

  • “No doubt, the words ‘title thereto‘ refers tile of ‘easement’ claimed; and the word ‘title’ was not used in the general sense now used (that is, absolute ownership) in the Indian Easements Act, 1882.” (Quoted in: Ibrahimkutty Koyakutty v. Abdul Rahumankunju Ibrahimkutty (K.S. Paripoornan, J.), AIR 1993 Ker 91, 1992 (1) Ker LT 775.)

Gale on Easements (15th Edn.),Pages 415, reads as under:

  • “Under the present system of pleading, it is conceived that, whether the section be brought against the servient owner or a stranger, a party cannot safely allege his right to an easement generally, but should state specifically the manner in which he claims title to the easement, whether by grant (actual or lost), prescription at common law, or under the Prescription Act, and in many cases it is advisable to plead, alternatively, a title by all three methods.” (Quoted in: Ibrahimkutty Koyakutty v. Abdul Rahumankunju Ibrahimkutty (K.S. Paripoornan, J.), AIR 1993 Ker 91, 1992 (1) Ker LT 775.)

Mulla – Code of Civil Procedure (14th Edn.) Volume II, at page 986, states the law thus :

  • “Easement — A party claiming or relying on an easement should plead the nature of the title thereto, so as to clearly show the origin of the right, whether it arises by statutory prescription or express or implied grant, or the old common law method of a lost grant.”

Conclusion

Though the word ‘title’ is now generally used to denote absolute ownership, in the Indian Easements Act, 1882, the phrase title thereto refers specifically to the title of an easement.

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How to Write a Will? Requirements of a Valid Will

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Is it a Valid Will?

  • “My house will go to my wife on my death. The plot I have on north of my residential property will go to my daughter.
  • XYZ (signed)
  • Witnesses: 1. HIJK (signed) 2. LMNOP (signed)

Yes, it is valid; even though it does not contain –

  • Address of the person (testator) who wrote the Will (but, it must be identifiable).
  • Addresses of the persons (legatees) to whom the properties are given (but, it must be identifiable).
  • The details of the properties (but, it must be identifiable).
  • Address of the witnesses (but, it must be identifiable).

What are the essentials of a Will?

  • Identity of the person who wrote the Will.
  • Identity of the person to whom the property is given (bequeathed).
  • Identity of the properties.
  • Intention to bequeath (give under the Will).
  • Signature of the executant (testator).
  • Attestation by Two Witnesses, in presence of the testator.

A Will need not be

  • On stamp-paper.
  • Registered.
  • Written in any specified form.
  • With an executor (one who is named to execute the intentions expressed in a Will).

Who can be a Witness?

  • Adult.
  • A beneficiary in the Will should not be an attester (if so, he will lose the benefit under the Will; and that portion will be treated as intestate property – that is, without a Will).

What will invalidate a Will?

  • Incapacity (minor, lunatic, etc.)
  • Force, fraud, etc.
  • Illegibility as to executant, beneficiary, property, etc.
  • Lack of expression – to be a Will.
  • Lack of Signature or mark of the executant, completing the Will.
  • Lack of Attestation by two witnesses (in presence of executant).
  • Execution of a subsequent Will.
  • Subsequent marriage. (See Sec. 69 of the Succession Act, 1925 given below.)

What all are Desirable?

  • Date.
  • Complete details as to executant, beneficiary, property, etc.
  • Circumstance of executing the Will.
  • Reason, if any, for not giving property to all legal heirs (wife/ husband, children, etc.) – if the legatees (to whom property is given under the Will) are some of the legal heirs only.
  • Reason, if any, for not giving property to the legal heirs – if the legatee is not a legal heir.
  • Legible Writing (can be printed before putting signature).
  • Clear and simple language.
  • Registration (at Sub Registrar’s Office).

How to cancel or revoke a Will?

Adopt any one of the following method.

  • By some writing, attested by two witnesses (in the manner in which a Will is executed) declaring an intention to revoke the Will (Sec. 70 of the Succession Act, 1925).
  • By the burning, tearing, or otherwise destroying the same by the testator (Sec. 70 of the Succession Act, 1925).
  • If the Will is a registered one, it is desirable to cancel it by another registered Statement.
  • Simply write another Will (Better to state – earlier Will is cancelled).

Will marriage Revoke Will, automatically

  • Every will shall be revoked by the marriage of the maker. (See Sec. 69 of the Succession Act, 1925 given below.)

Read Blog: How to Prove a Will, in Court?

End Notes:

Will – Attestation under Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act

Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act, 1925 says how Wills have to be executed. It is laid down as under.

Sec. 63(c) of the Indian Succession Act –

  • “63. Execution of unprivileged wills––Every testator, not being a soldier employed in an expedition or engaged in actual warfare, or an airman so employed or engaged, or a mariner at sea, shall execute his will according to the following rules––
  • .(a) …..
  • (b) …..
  • (c) The will shall be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom
    • has seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the will or has seen some other person sign the will, in the presence and by the direction of the testator,
    • or
    • has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark, or of the signature of such other person;
  • and each of the witnesses shall sign the will in the presence of the testator,
    • but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time, and no particular form of attestation shall be necessary.”

It is not Necessary – Witnesses must See Execution of Will

The attestation of a Will, under Sec. 63 of the Succession Act can be made –

  • either by
  • the witnesses who have “seen the testator sign or affix his mark”
  • or by
  • the witnesses who have “received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark”.

That is, both the attesting witnesses need not be present at the time of execution of the Will. And, one witness need not see the other attests the Will. It is fortified by last limb of Sec. 63 Succ. Act.

  • “but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time …..”

Section 69 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925

  • 69. Revocation of will by testator’s marriage – Every will shall be revoked by the marriage of the maker, except a will made in exercise of a power of appointment, when the property over which the power of appointment is exercised would not, in default of such appointment, pass to his or her executor or administrator, or to the person entitled in case of intestacy.
  • Explanation – Where a man is invested with power to determine the disposition of property of which he is not the owner, he is said to have power to appoint such property.

Section 70 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925

  • 70. Revocation of unprivileged Will or codicil — No unprivileged Will or codicil, nor any part thereof, shall be revoked otherwise than by marriage, or by another Will or codicil, or by some writing declaring an intention to revoke the same and executed in the manner in which an unprivileged Will is hereinbefore required to be executed, or by the burning, tearing, or otherwise destroying the same by the testator or by some person in his presence and by his direction with the intention of revoking the same.
  • Illustrations
  • (i) A has made an unprivileged Will. Afterwards, A makes another unprivileged Will which purports to revoke the first. This is a revocation.
  • (ii) A has made an unprivileged Will. Afterwards, A being entitled to make a privileged Will makes a privileged Will, which purports to revoke his unprivileged Will. This is a revocation.

Sec. 71 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925

  • 71. Effect of obliteration, interlineation or alteration in unprivileged Will—No obliteration, interlineation or other alteration made in any unprivileged Will after the execution thereof shall have any effect, except so far as the words or meaning of the Will have been thereby rendered illegible or undiscernible, unless such alteration has been executed in like manner as hereinbefore is required for the execution of the Will: Provided that the Will, as so altered, shall be deemed to be duly executed if the signature of the testator and the subscription of the witnesses is made in the margin or on some other part of the Will opposite or near to such alteration, or at the foot or end of or opposite to a memorandum referring to such alteration, and written at the end or some other part of the Will.

Sec. 74 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925

  • 74. Wording of will — It is not necessary that any technical words or terms of art be used in a Will, but only that the wording be such that the intentions of the testator can be known therefrom.

Sec. 100 of the Evidence Act

  • 100. Saving of provisions of Indian Succession Act relating to wills -Nothing in this Chapter contained shall be taken to affect any of the provisions of the Indian Succession Act, 1865 (10 of 1865) as to the construction of wills

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Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Law on Documents

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Will

Arbitration

Divorce

Negotiable Instruments Act

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Religious issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Witnesses to the Will Need Not See the Execution of the Will

It is not necessary – Attesting witnesses should see the execution of the Will.

Taken from How to Prove a Will, in Court?

Jojy George & Saji Koduvath.

Will – Attestation

The mode of attestation of Wills is given in Sec. 63(c) of the Indian Succession Act, 1925.

Sec. 63(c) reads as under:

  • “63. Execution of unprivileged wills––Every testator, not being a soldier employed in an expedition or engaged in actual warfare, or an airman so employed or engaged, or a mariner at sea, shall execute his will according to the following rules––
  • .(a) …..
  • (b) …..
  • (c) The will shall be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom
    • has seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the will or has seen some other person sign the will, in the presence and by the direction of the testator,
    • or
    • has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark, or of the signature of such other person;
  • and each of the witnesses shall sign the will in the presence of the testator,
    • but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time, and no particular form of attestation shall be necessary.”

Attestation – Not necessary, Witnesses must be present at the same time

The attestation can be –

  • either by
  • each of the witnesses who has seen the testator sign or affix his mark
  • or by
  • the witnesses who “has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark”.

That is, both the attesting witnesses need not be present at the time of execution of the Will. And, one witness need not see the other attests the Will.

It is fortified by the last limb of Sec. 63(c) which reads as under:

  • “but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time….”

If the Will, already executed by the testator (author of the will), is produced before one witness and the testator gives “a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark” (put upon the will) and on that basis the witness attests the Will; and then the testator approaches the second witness and gets the Will attested (by the second witness also) in the same manner, such attestations are also valid and sufficient under Sec. 63(c).

“Personal Acknowledgment of his Signature or Mark”

In Ganesan v. Kalanjiam, (2020)11 SCC 715, the Supreme Court of India (Ashok Bhushan, Naveen Sinha, JJ.) explained as under:

  • “The acknowledgement may assume the form of express words or conduct or both, provided they unequivocally prove an acknowledgement on part of the testator. Where a testator asks a person to attest his Will, it is a reasonable inference that he was admitting that the Will had been executed by him.
  • “There is no express prescription in the statute that the testator must necessarily sign the will in presence of the attesting witnesses only or that the two attesting witnesses must put their signatures on the will simultaneously at the same time in presence of each other and the testator.”

We can find the same view (that in Ganesan v. Kalanjiam) in the following decisions:

  • Ganshamdoss Narayandoss v. Saraswathi Bai, AIR 1925 Mad 861,
  • Ganshamadoss Narayandoss v. Gulab Bi Bai, AIR 1927 Mad 1054 ,
  • Pachigolla Venkatara v. Palepu Venkateswararao, AIR 1956 AP 1,
  • Bishan Devi Khanna v. Pirthi Singh Dhillon, AIR  1963 P&H 66,
  • Chhanga Singh Indar Singh v. Dharam Singh, AIR 1965 Punj 204,
  • Damodhar Bordoloi v. Mrinalini Devi Trust Board, AIR 1999 Gau 53,
  • S. Jagadish v. Dr. S. Kumaraswamy, ILR 2008 Kar 87.

A Large Number of Decisions do not lay down Correct Law

It is clear that the view taken in a large number of decisions do not lay down correct law when they state as under (ignoring the words in Sec. 63 Succession Act, “or has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark”) as held in Benga Behera v. Braja Kishore Nanda, 2007-9 SCC 728) –

  • “A Will is required to be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom has seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the Will.”

In Vikrant Kapila Vs. Pankaja Panda, 2023-6 ALT 37 (SC), it is observed as under:

  • “26. …. It is useful to refer to Gopal Swaroop v. Krishna Murari Mangal, (2010) 14 SCC 266, wherein this Court held that as per the provisions of Sec. 63 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, the due execution of the Will consists of the following:
  • i. The testator should sign or affix his mark to the Will;
  • ii. The testator’s signature or the mark of the testator should be so placed that it should appear that it was intended to give effect to the writing as a Will;
  • iii. Two or more witnesses should attest the Will;
  • iv. Each of the said witnesses must have seen the testator signing or affixing his mark to the Will, and each of them should sign the Will in the presence of the testator.

In Savithri v. Karthyayani Amma, (2007) 11 SCC 621, Supreme Court has held as under:

  • “17. … A will like any other document is to be proved in terms of the provisions of the Succession Act and the Evidence Act. The onus of proving the will is on the propounder. The testamentary capacity of the testator must also be established. Execution of the will by the testator has to be proved. At least one attesting witness is required to be examined for the purpose of proving the execution of the will. It is required to be shown that the will has been signed by the testator with his free will and that at the relevant time he was in sound disposing state of mind and understood the nature and effect of the disposition. It is also required to be established that he has signed the will in the presence of two witnesses who attested his signature in his presence or in the presence of each other. Only when there exists suspicious circumstances, the onus would be on the propounder to explain them to the satisfaction of the court before it can be accepted as genuine.”(Quoted in:  Vikrant Kapila Vs. Pankaja Panda, 2023-6 ALT 37 (SC).

‘Attestation’ as defined in Sec. 3 of the T.P. Act

The word ‘Attestation’ is defined in Sec. 3 of the Transfer of Property Act. It is in pari materia to Succession Act. Sec. 3, TP Act reads as under:

  • Section 3 – Interpretation-clause – In this Act, unless there is something repugnant in the subject or context-
  • “attested”, in relation to an instrument, means and shall be deemed always to have meant attested by two or more witnesses each of whom
    • has seen the executant sign or affix his mark to the instrument, or has seen some other person sign the instrument in the presence and by the direction of the executant,
    • or
    • has received from the executant a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark, or of the signature of such other person,
  • and each of whom has signed the instrument in the presence of the executant;
    • but it shall not be necessary that more than one of such witnesses shall have been present at the same time, and no particular form of attestation shall be necessary.”

Attestation by both witness be proved

In Janaki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, AIR 2003 SC 761, it is held as under:

  • ” The one attesting witness examined, in his evidence has to satisfy the attestation of a Will by him and the other attesting witness in order to prove there was due execution of the Will. …  Where one attesting witness is examined and he fails to prove the attestation of the Will by the other witness there will be  deficiency in meeting the mandatory requirements of Section 68 of the Evidence Act.

In Yumnam Ongbi Tampha Ibema Devi v. Yumnam Joykumar Singh, (2009) 4 SCC 780, it was held as under:

  • “The attesting witness should speak not only about the testator’s signature or affixing his mark to the will but also that each of the witnesses had signed the will in the presence of the testator.”
  • (Followed in: K.S. Dinachandran v. Shyla Joseph on 10 January, 2025, 2025: KER:672)

Attestation by the other witness can be inferred

In Devassykutty v. Visalakshy Amma [2010 KER 23730 : MANU/KE/1244/2010: R.S.A. No.1128/2003 (P. Bhavadasan, J.] held as under:

  •  “It is true that in the case on hand there is no specific statement by P.W.2 that he had seen the other  attesting witness sign the Will in the presence of the testator, but he has stated that the other witness had also signed in the document. That statement by implication and inference shows the attestation by the other witness also.”

Onus on propounder discharged when essential facts just indicated

Our Apex Court in H. Venkatachala Iyengar v. B. N. Thimmajamma, AIR 1959 SC 443, emphasided that the onus on the propounder of a Will could be taken to be discharged ‘on proof of the essential facts just indicated’.

See – How to Write a Will? Requirements of a Valid Will


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Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Law on Documents

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Will

Arbitration

Divorce

Negotiable Instruments Act

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Religious issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

How to Prove a Will, in Court? When Presumptions can be relied on for Proof of a Will?

Jojy George & Saji Koduvath.

Key Takeaways

  • It is not necessary – Attesting witnesses should see the execution of the Will.
  • It is not necessary – Each witness should see the other witnesses attest the Will.
  • It is not necessary – Witnesses should be present at the place of execution of the Will.
  • It is not necessary – ‘Attestation’ by both (all) Witnesses to the Will should be proved.
  • If an attesting witness examined in court turns hostile, another attesting witness need not be examined.
  • If both attesting witnesses died,’execution of the Will need not be proved.
  • In the above situation, execution is presumed from proof of handwriting of one witness and that of the executant.
  • There is no requirement to “Prove the Truth of Contents” of a Will.
  • When execution of a Will is ‘admitted’, it need not be proved.
  • ‘Presumptions’ (alone) are sufficient to prove a will when Sec. 71 Evd. Act is invoked.

Abstract

  • Section 68 of the Evidence Act, 1872 deals with proof documents required by law to be attested (including Wills), when one attesting witness at least is available.
  • Sec. 69 of the Evidence Act says as to proof of documents required by law to be attested (including Wills) when-
    • (i) no attesting witness can be found, and
    • (ii) evidence is available to prove the ‘attestation’ made by at least one attesting witness.
  • Sec. 71 of the Evidence Act says – “If the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document, its execution may be proved by other evidence.”
  • No(express) provision in the Evidence Act, where –
    • no attesting witness is available, as provided under Sec. 68 Evidence Act,
    • and
    • evidence, under Sec. 69 Evidence Act, is also not available (e.g., it being very old – say, 75 years) to prove the handwriting of the attesting witness and the executant.
  • In the above situation also – where Wills cannot be proved in terms of the Sec. 68 and 69 – Wills can be proved by “other evidence” invoking the principles in, Sec. 71 (since Sec. 71 deals with another situation).

Introduction

Proof of documents involves two things.

  • First, Proof of execution.
  • Second, Truth of its contents.

For the purpose of Sec. 67, 68 and 69 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the proof of execution is ‘proof of signature and handwriting’. This requirement as to proof of execution is independent from the requirement as to ‘proof of truth’.

Sec. 67, which lays down the foundational principles as to the proof of documents, does not speak about truth of contents of the documents. Sec. 67 reads as under:

  • 67. Proof of signature and handwriting of person alleged to have signed or written document produced—If a document is alleged to be signed or to have been written wholly or in part by any person, the signature or the handwriting of so much of the document as is alleged to be in that person’s handwriting must be proved to be in his handwriting.

The fundamental principles as to proof of execution a document is that the execution has to be proved by admissible evidence, that is by the ‘evidence of those persons who can vouchsafe for the truth of the facts in issue’ (Ramji Dayawala v. Invest Import: AIR 1981 SC 2085; Narbada Devi Gupta v. Birendra Kumar Jaiswal, 2003-8 SCC 745). But, in the facts and circumstances of each case, the court is at liberty to invoke its wisdom and fill certain gaps in evidence by applying ‘presumption’ (Indian Oxygen Limited v. IR Workmen,  AIR  1969 SC 612; Village Panchayat Nori Madhusudan v. Nori Venkatarama Deekshithulu, 1991 Supp 2 SCC 228).

It is not Necessary – Witnesses must See Execution of Will

The attestation of a Will, under Sec. 63 of the Succession Act can be made –

  • either by
  • the witnesses who have “seen the testator sign or affix his mark”
  • or by
  • the witnesses who havereceived from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark”.

That is, both the attesting witnesses need not be present at the time of execution of the Will. And, one witness need not see the other attests the Will. It is fortified by last limb of Sec. 63 Succ. Act.

  • “but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time….”

Inferences and Presumptions

Elaborate provisions are contained in the Indian Evidence Act for taking inferences and presumptions, on the basis of the facts proved. Our law permits to presume ‘truth’ and ‘due execution’ in this process. ‘Truth of contents’ and ‘due execution’ can also be inferred when a document is admitted in evidence without objection.

But, despite admission, proof as to ‘truth’ of contents of a document is essential, if ‘truth of contents’ is in issue, or in dispute (Ramji Dayawala Vs. Invest Import, AIR 1981 SC 2085).

Read Blog: Effect of Marking Documents Without Objection – Do Contents Stand Proved?

PART I Proof of Wills

Will – Attestation under Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act

Wills have to be executed as laid down in Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act, 1925.

Sec. 63(c) of the Indian Succession Act reads as under:

  • “63. Execution of unprivileged wills––Every testator, not being a soldier employed in an expedition or engaged in actual warfare, or an airman so employed or engaged, or a mariner at sea, shall execute his will according to the following rules––
  • .(a) …..
  • (b) …..
  • (c) The will shall be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom
    • has seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the will or has seen some other person sign the will, in the presence and by the direction of the testator,
    • or
    • has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark, or of the signature of such other person;
  • and each of the witnesses shall sign the will in the presence of the testator,
    • but it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time, and no particular form of attestation shall be necessary.”

‘Attestation’ as defined in Sec. 3 of the T.P. Act

The word ‘Attestation’ is defined in Sec. 3 of the Transfer of Property Act. It is in pari materia to Succession Act. Sec. 3, TP Act reads as under:

Section 3 – Interpretation-clause – In this Act, unless there is something repugnant in the subject or context –

  • attested“, in relation to an instrument, means and shall be deemed always to have meant attested by two or more witnesses each of whom
    • has seen the executant sign or affix his mark to the instrument, or has seen some other person sign the instrument in the presence and by the direction of the executant,
    • or
    • has received from the executant a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark, or of the signature of such other person,
  • and each of whom has signed the instrument in the presence of the executant;
    • but it shall not be necessary that more than one of such witnesses shall have been present at the same time, and no particular form of attestation shall be necessary.”

Modes of Proof of Documents Required By Law To Be Attested.

Section 68 of the Evd. Act provides that the documents required by law to be attested shall not be used in evidence until at least one attesting witness has been examined, if there be

  • (i) an attesting witness alive,
  • (ii) he is subject to the process of court and
  • (iii) he is capable of giving evidence.

Sec. 68 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “68. Proof of execution of document required by law to be attested—If a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution, if there be an attesting witness alive, and subject to the process of the Court and capable of giving evidence:
  • Provided that it shall not be necessary to call an attesting witness in proof of the execution of any document, not being a will, which has been registered in accordance with the provisions of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 (16 of 1908), unless its execution by the person by whom it purports to have been executed is specifically denied.

The proviso lays down that if its execution is not specifically denied by the person by whom it purports to have been executed, it shall not be necessary to call an attesting witness in proof of the execution of any document not being a Will if such document is registered in accordance with the provisions of Indian Registration Act, 1908. That is, for the purpose of proving the Will, the examination of the attesting witness is necessary.

Following documents are required by law to be attested by two or more attesting witnesses.

  1. Will: Sec. 63 of the Succession Act.
  2. Mortgage deed: Sec. 59 of the T P Act.
  3. Gift deed: Sec. 123 of the T P Act.
  4. Bond: Sec.  2(5) of the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.

Sec. 68 and 69 Evidence Act What is laid down?

Sec. 68 of the Evidence Act lays down –

  • for proving documents that require attestation (including Wills) one attesting witness at least has to be called for – for proving
    • the execution.

Sec. 69 of the Evidence Act reads-

  • “69. Proof where no attesting witness found – If no such attesting witness can be found, or if the document purports to have been executed in the United Kingdom, it must be proved that the attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting, and that the signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person.”

Sec. 69 of the Evidence Act lays down that (if attesting witnesses are not found), the will can be proved –

  • (i) by the evidence as to the attestation of one attesting witnessthat it is in his handwriting, and
  • (ii) the signature of the person executed the document – that it is in his handwriting.
  • Note: 1. As regards handwriting of attesting witness, evidence on attestation is required; but in case of the handwriting of the person executing the document, evidence on signature alone (and not execution, as such) is required. It is clear that the wordings of the Section invite more cogent and convincing evidence to attestation, than that of execution.
  • 2. The words in Sec. 69 as to attestation, “in his handwriting“, reduces the burden on “attestation” (See: T. R. Srikantaiah Setty v. Balakrishna, ILR 1999 Kar 2953).

Analysis of Sec. 68 and 69

(i) Sec. 68 requires proof of “execution” by the executant;

  • but, under Sec. 69, “handwriting” of one witness, and that of the executant, alone need be proved (and not “execution” as such). As noted above, the words in Sec. 69 as to attestation, “in his handwriting“, reduces the burden on “attestation“.

(ii) If (at least) one attesting witnesses is alive, he has to be examined, under Sec. 68. The burden is high, when Sec. 68 is invoked – for, “execution” has to be proved.

  • Under Sec. 69, the execution is presumed from the proof of the handwriting of the attesting witness and the executant (See: Mira Bai v. Jai Singh, AIR  1971 Raj 303).

(iii) Sec. 68 and 69 being provide particular modes for proving documents that require attestation, the Presumptions available on a document, by themselves, cannot be called for, for proving  them (unless Sec. 71 can be invoked, as stated below).

Should “Attestation of other Witnesses” be Proved by the Witness (Examined)

If we go by Sec. 68, what is required from the attesting witness (in Sec. 68) is evidence as to “execution” by the executant (alone); and not “attestation of other witnesses”.

Therefore, there would not be any deficiency or shortcoming for not swearing matters like “attestation of other witnesses” (in the chief examination) when the attester of a Will is called for examination in court (though they may be points for cross examination).

  • It is further clear from the following words in Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act –“it shall not be necessary that more than one witness be present at the same time” (when the will is executed).

It is also noteworthy that Sec. 71 allows (if the attesting witness examined in court denies execution of the document and his ‘attestation’) to prove the ‘execution’ by adducing “other evidence”; and Sec. 71 does not require compulsory examination of other attesting witness, if any.

Will Attestation– What be Proved u/s. 63(c) Suc. Act (sans S. 68 & 69 Evid. Act)

As shown above, the attestation of a Will, under Sec. 63 of the Succession Act, can be made either by the witnesses (minimum two) who have “seen the testator sign or affix his mark” or by the witnesses who have “received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark”.  (By virtue of Sec. 68, 69 and 71, attestation by one witness alone need be proved.)

Sec. 68 & 69 Evid. Act are Enabling Provisions

No requirement to “Prove the Truth of Contents” of Documents – It is very important to notice that Sec. 68 and 69 make it clear – there will be no requirement to specifically “prove the truth of contents” of documents that fall under Sec. 68 and 69, Evidence Act (i.e., Will, Bond, Gift and Mortgage); and, proof of its execution alone will be sufficient. This is because the Evidence Act expressly stipulates, in Sec. 68 and 69, as to proving documents by furnishing evidence on “execution” (Sec. 68); and on “attestation” and “signature”,  (that too by proving handwriting – Sec. 69).

Sec. 67, the general provision, directs that for proving a document proof of signature and handwriting of person alleged to have signed or written must be proved. No mode of proof is prescribed in Sec. 67. Therefore, the fundamental principles as to proof of execution a document apply with full vigour as regards Sec. 67; that is the execution has to be proved by admissible evidence – by the ‘evidence of those persons who can vouchsafe for the truth of the facts in issue’ (Ramji Dayawala v. Invest Import: AIR 1981 SC 2085; Narbada Devi Gupta v. Birendra Kumar Jaiswal, 2003-8 SCC 745).

But, Sec. 68 and 69 water-down the full vigour and lays down an enabling ‘mode of proof’ (with respect to documents required by law to be attested). It is a deliberate deviation from Sec. 67, as held in Sumathi Amma v. Kunjuleskhmi Amma, 1964 Ker LT 945. It is held as under:

  • “…  It (Section 67 Evidence Act) only says that facts have to be proved, and, unlike Section 68, does not prescribe any particular mode of proof. ..”

It is also a remarkable and outstanding factor that the special character as to compulsory “attestation by witnesses” is attached to the “four documents” (Will, Bond, Gift and Mortgage) with a view to “prove the truth of contentsby primarily proving ‘attestation’. It is evident that this special characteristic identity is given to these documents considering their unique and exceptional nature.

Further, all the requirements in Sec. 63, Succession Act are not to be categorically proved (in chief examination, by the propounder) by virtue of the enabling provisions in the Evidence Act. It is obvious – it is left for ‘presumption’; and the burden to rebut it is casted on the other side.   

Sec. 68 and 69 do not require –

  • (i) examination of all attesting witnesses.
    • Note: (a) A Will must have been attested by two or more witnesses; but, the evidence of one attesting witness alone need be given, even if he is hostile.
    • (b) Non examination of other attesting witnesses will not call for adverse inference also, if the will is (sufficiently) proved otherwise.
  • (ii) evidence that each witness has seen the testator sign or affix his mark; or has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark.
    • Note: (a) It must be so; but, it need not be proved, positively through the attesting witness examined.
    • (b) It can be a point for cross-examination of the concerned witnesses (by the other side), to disprove proper attestation.
  • (iii) evidence that each of the witnesses have signed the will in the presence of the testator.
    • Note: (a) It must also be so; but, it need not be positively proved.
    • (b) It can also be a point for cross-examination of the concerned witnesses, to disprove proper attestation.

If all legal formalities are complied with and when ex-facie free from suspicion, and the evidence required under Sec. 68 or 69 is furnished, the law permits the court to presume that that the Will has been signed or written by the person whose signatures it bear or in whose handwriting it purports to be.

Attestation by both witness be proved

In Janaki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam (AIR 2003 SC 761), it is held as under:

  • ” The one attesting witness examined, in his evidence has to satisfy the attestation of a Will by him and the other attesting witness in order to prove there was due execution of the Will. …  Where one attesting witness is examined and he fails to prove the attestation of the Will by the other witness there will be  deficiency in meeting the mandatory requirements of Section 68 of the Evidence Act.

In Yumnam Ongbi Tampha Ibema Devi v. Yumnam Joykumar Singh ((2009) 4 SCC 780) it was held as under:

  • “The attesting witness should speak not only about the testator’s signature or affixing his mark to the will but also that each of the witnesses had signed the will in the presence of the testator.”
  • (Followed in: K.S. Dinachandran v. Shyla Joseph on 10 January, 2025, 2025: KER:672)

Attestation by the other witness can be inferred

In Devassykutty v. Visalakshy Amma [2010 KER 23730 : MANU/KE/1244/2010: R.S.A. No.1128/2003 (P. Bhavadasan, J.] held as under:

  •  “It is true that in the case on hand there is no specific statement by P.W.2 that he had seen the other  attesting witness sign the Will in the presence of the testator, but he has stated that the other witness had also signed in the document. That statement by implication and inference shows the attestation by the other witness also.”

Onus on propounder discharged when essential facts just indicated

Our Apex Court in H. Venkatachala Iyengar v. B. N. ThimmajammaAIR 1959 SC 443 emphasided that the onus on the propounder of a Will could be taken to be discharged ‘on proof of the essential facts just indicated’.

Under Sec. 69, “Handwriting”, Not ‘Attestation’ or ‘Execution’, to be Proved

Under Sec. 69, “handwriting” of one witness, and that of the executant, alone need be proved; and not “execution” of the executant or ‘attestation’, as such. As noted above, the words in Sec. 69 as to attestation, “in his handwriting“, reduces the burden on “attestation” (See: Selvasubramaniam v. Subburathinam, 2015-4 Mad LJ 452; V. Kalyanaswamy v. L. Bakthavatsalam, 2020-9 Scale 367).

Presumption play a great role – Execution Presumed from Handwriting

It is clear that presumption play a great role in Sec. 69. That is, under Sec. 69, the execution is presumed from the proof of the handwriting of the attesting witness and the executant.

Witness can be cross examined to negate the presumption

This presumption being a rebuttable one, and when the burden is shifted to others (Babu Singh v. Ram Sahai alias Ram Singh, 2008-14 SCC 754), they have to rebut the presumption, and can cross examine the witness to negate the presumption.

Why great weight to Presumption of due execution and Truth for Will

In ‘Laws of Will in India and Pakistan’, by Mantha Ramamurthi, it is said:

  • “If a will appears on the face of it to have been duly executed and attested in accordance with the requirements of the Act, the maxim “omni a proe sumuntur rite esse acta,” applies, unless it is clearly proved by the attesting witnesses that the Will is not in fact duly executed. The Court of Probate has long been accustomed to give great weight to the presumption of due execution arising from the regularity ex facie of the testamentary paper produced where no suspicion of fraud has occurred.”

After quoting above passage, it is observed in Lalitaben Jayantilal Popat v. Pragnaben Jamnadas Kataria, (2008) 15 SCC 365 as under:

  • “The maxim ‘omni a Proe sumuntur rite esse acta’ is an expression in a short form, of a reasonable probability, and of the propriety in point of law on acting on such probability. The maxim expresses an inference which may reasonably be drawn when an intention to do some formal act is established. In Blake v. Knight Sir Herbert Jenner Fusty observed – Is it absolutely necessary to have positive affirmative testimony by the subscribed witnesses that the Will was actually signed in their presence, or actually acknowledged in their presence? Is it absolutely necessary, under all circumstances that the witnesses should concur in stating that these acts took place? Or is it absolutely necessary, where the witnesses will not swear positively, that the Court should pronounce against the validity of the will. I think these are not absolute requisites to the validity of the will. Consequently, “where the evidence of attesting witnesses is vague or doubtful or even conflicting the Court may take into consideration the circumstances of the case and judge from them collectively whether the requirements of the Statute were complied with; in other words the Court may, on consideration of other evidence or of the whole circumstances of the case, come to the conclusion that their recollection is at fault, that their evidence is of a suspicious character, or that they were wilfully misleading the Court, and accordingly disregard their testimony and pronounce in favour of the will.”
  • (Note: This decision finally accepted the view – ‘Where one attesting witness is examined and he fails to prove the attestation of the will by the other witness there will be deficiency in meeting the mandatory requirements of Section 68 of the Evidence Act’.)

Witnesses to the Will Need Not See the Execution of the Will

If the Will, already executed by the testator (author of the will), is produced before one witnesses and the testator gives “a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark” (put upon the will) and on that basis the witness attests the Will; and then the testator approaches the second witness and gets the Will attested (by the second witness also) in the same manner, such attestations are also valid and sufficient under Sec. 63(c).

In Ganesan v. Kalanjiam, (2020)11 SCC 715, the Supreme Court of India (Ashok Bhushan, Naveen Sinha, JJ.) held as under:

  • “The acknowledgement may assume the form of express words or conduct or both, provided they unequivocally prove an acknowledgement on part of the testator. Where a testator asks a person to attest his Will, it is a reasonable inference that he was admitting that the Will had been executed by him.
  • “There is no express prescription in the statute that the testator must necessarily sign the will in presence of the attesting witnesses only or that the two attesting witnesses must put their signatures on the will simultaneously at the same time in presence of each other and the testator.”

Also see: Ganshamdoss Narayandoss v. Saraswathi Bai, AIR 1925 Mad 861,

  • Ganshamadoss Narayandoss v. Gulab Bi Bai, AIR 1927 Mad 1054 ,
  • Pachigolla Venkatara v. Palepu Venkateswararao, AIR 1956 AP 1
  • Bishan Devi Khanna v. Pirthi Singh Dhillon, AIR  1963 P&H 66,
  • Chhanga Singh Indar Singh v. Dharam Singh, AIR 1965 Punj 204,
  • Damodhar Bordoloi v. Mrinalini Devi Trust Board, AIR 1999 Gau 53,
  • S. Jagadish vs Dr. S. Kumaraswamy, ILR 2008 Kar 87.

It is clear that the view taken in a large number of decisions do not lay down correct law when they state as under (ignoring the words in Sec. 63 Succession Act, “or has received from the testator a personal acknowledgment of his signature or mark”) as held in Benga Behera v. Braja Kishore Nanda, 2007-9 SCC 728) –

  • “A Will is required to be attested by two or more witnesses, each of whom has seen the testator sign or affix his mark to the Will. “

In Vikrant Kapila Vs. Pankaja Panda, 2023-6 ALT 37 (SC), it is observed as under:

  • “26. …. It is useful to refer to Gopal Swaroop v. Krishna Murari Mangal, (2010) 14 SCC 266, wherein this Court held that as per the provisions of Sec. 63 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, the due execution of the Will consists of the following:
  • i. The testator should sign or affix his mark to the Will;
  • ii. The testator’s signature or the mark of the testator should be so placed that it should appear that it was intended to give effect to the writing as a Will;
  • iii. Two or more witnesses should attest the Will;
  • iv. Each of the said witnesses must have seen the testator signing or affixing his mark to the Will, and each of them should sign the Will in the presence of the testator.

In Savithri v. Karthyayani Amma, (2007) 11 SCC 621, Supreme Court has held as under:

  • “17. … A will like any other document is to be proved in terms of the provisions of the Succession Act and the Evidence Act. The onus of proving the will is on the propounder. The testamentary capacity of the testator must also be established. Execution of the will by the testator has to be proved. At least one attesting witness is required to be examined for the purpose of proving the execution of the will. It is required to be shown that the will has been signed by the testator with his free will and that at the relevant time he was in sound disposing state of mind and understood the nature and effect of the disposition. It is also required to be established that he has signed the will in the presence of two witnesses who attested his signature in his presence or in the presence of each other. Only when there exists suspicious circumstances, the onus would be on the propounder to explain them to the satisfaction of the court before it can be accepted as genuine.”(Quoted in:  Vikrant Kapila Vs. Pankaja Panda, 2023-6 ALT 37 (SC).

Should Attestation by “Both” Witnesses be Proved

As stated above, if we go by Ganesan v. Kalanjiam, (2020)11 SCC 715, there is no scope for any doubt – attestation made by “both” attesting witnesses need not be proved; as it is observed that there is no express prescription in the statute that the testator must necessarily sign the will in presence of the attesting witnesses only or that the two attesting witnesses must put their signatures on the will simultaneously at the same time in presence of each other and the testator.

Onus on propounder discharged when essential facts just indicated

Our Apex Court in H. Venkatachala Iyengar v. B. N. Thimmajamma, AIR 1959 SC 443, emphasided that the onus on the propounder of a Will could be taken to be discharged ‘on proof of the essential facts just indicated’.

Burden to Prove Coercion, Undue Influence or Fraud on him who alleges it

Who has the ‘burden of proof’ when a will is resisted with the allegation of coercion, undue influence or fraud? How to deal with such a situation? It is considered in V. Kalyanaswamy v. L. Bakthavatsalam, 2020-9 Scale 367.

In V. Kalyanaswamy v. L. Bakthavatsalam, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “83. Lastly, while the burden to prove the will and to satisfy the conscience of the court that there are no suspicious circumstances or if there are any to explain them is on the propounder of the will, the burden to prove that the will is procured by coercion, undue influence or fraud is on the respondents who have alleged the same.”

It is made clear-

  • The burden to prove that the will is free from suspicious circumstances is on the propounder.
  • If there are suspicious circumstances to explain, the propounder has to explain them.
  • (However), if the respondent alleges that the will is procured by coercion, undue influence or fraud, the burden to prove such allegations is on the respondents.

In Niranjan Umeshchandra Joshi v. Mrudula Jyoti Rao, 2006 (14) SCALE 186,

  • “The burden of proof that the Will has been validly executed and is a genuine document is on the propounder. The propounder is also required to prove that the testator has signed the Will and that he had put his signature out of his own free will having a sound disposition of mind and understood the nature and effect thereof. If sufficient evidence in this behalf is brought on record, the onus of the propounder may be held to have been discharged. But, the onus would be on the applicant to remove the suspicion by leading sufficient and cogent evidence if there exists any. In the case of proof of Will, a signature of a testator alone would not prove the execution thereof, if his mind may appear to be very feeble and debilitated. However, if a defence of fraud, coercion or undue influence is raised, the burden would be on the caveator. [See: Madhukar D. Shende v. Tarabai Shedage,  2002-2 SCC 85 and Sridevi v. Jayaraja Shetty, 2005-8 SCC 784]. Subject to above, proof of a Will does not ordinarily differ from that of proving any other document.” (Quoted in: Savithri  v. Karthyayani Amma, 2007-11 SCC 621)

Should the Second Witness be Examined If the First Witness Turns Hostile

If the attesting witness, called for proving the execution of a document, turns hostile, it is not mandated in Sec. 68 that the evidence of the other attesting witnesses should necessarily be brought-in to prove the document.

If a will appears, on the face of it, to have been duly executed and attested in accordance with law, and the materials available ensures that there is no chance for fraud,the court is at liberty to give due weight to the presumptions granted under law (“omni a proe sumuntur rite esse acta); and the court can take the will as proved and proceed accordingly (See: Lalitaben Jayantilal Popat v. Pragnaben Jamnadas Kataria, (2008) 15 SCC 365).

It is profitable to look Sec. 71, which allows (if the attesting witness examined in court denies execution of the document and his ‘attestation’) to prove the ‘execution’ by adducing “other evidence”; and Sec. 71 does not require compulsory examination of other attesting witness, if any.

Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act Misread

Though the wordings in Sec. 63(c) of the Succession Act read with Sec. 68 and 69 of the Evidence Act do not give rise to another interpretation (that, if the attesting witness examined in court denies execution, the other attesting witnesses should necessarily be brought-in to prove the document), the following decisions and other decisions referred therein (reading the word “execution” as signing by the testator and the attestation by minimum two witnesses) presents an opposite view –

  • Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, (2003) 2 SCC 91,
  • Lalitaben Jayantilal Popat vs Pragnaben Jamnadas Kataria, (2008) 15 SCC 365,
  • V. Kalyanaswamy v. L. Bakthavatsalam, 2020-9 Scale 367.

In Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, (2003) 2 SCC 91, while considering proof of execution of a Will It is held as under:

  • “The one attesting witness examined, in his evidence has to satisfy the attestation of a will by him and the other attesting witness in order to prove there was due execution of the will. If the attesting witness examined besides his attestation does not, in his evidence, satisfy the requirements of attention of the will by other witness also it falls short of attestation of will at least by two witnesses for the simple reason that the execution of the will does not merely mean the signing of it by the testator but it means fulfilling and proof of all the formalities required under Section 63 of the Succession Act. Where one attesting witness examined to prove the will under Section 68 of the Evidence Act fails to prove the due execution of the will then the other available attesting witness has to be called to supplement his evidence to make it complete in all respects. Where one attesting witness is examined and he fails to prove the attestation of the will by the other witness there will be deficiency in meeting the mandatory requirements of Section 68 of the Evidence Act.” (Quoted and followed in: Lalitaben Jayantilal Popat vs Pragnaben Jamnadas Kataria AIR 2009 SC 1389, (2008) 15 SCC 365)

In V. Kalyanaswamy v. L. Bakthavatsalam, 2020-9 Scale 367, it is observed as under:

  • “70. Reverting back to Section 69 of the Evidence Act, we are of the view that the requirement therein would be if the signature of the person executing the document is proved to be in his handwriting, then attestation of one attesting witness is to be proved to be in his handwriting. In other words, in a case covered Under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, the requirement pertinent to Section 68 of the Evidence Act that the attestation by both the witnesses is to be proved by examining at least one attesting witness, is dispensed with. It may be that the proof given by the attesting witness, within the meaning of Section 69 of the Evidence Act, may contain evidence relating to the attestation by the other attesting witness but that is not the same thing as stating it to be the legal requirement under the Section to be that attestation by both the witnesses is to be proved in a case covered by Section 69 of the Evidence Act. In short, in a case covered Under Section 69 of the Evidence Act, what is to be proved as far as the attesting witness is concerned, is, that the attestation of one attesting witness is in his handwriting. The language of the Section is clear and unambiguous. Section 68 of the Evidence Act, as interpreted by this Court, contemplates attestation of both attesting witnesses to be proved. But that is not the requirement in Section 69 of the Evidence Act”.

The Privy Council, in Roda Framroze Mody v. Kanta Varjivandas Saraiya, (1945) 47 BomLR 709, AIR 1946 Bom 12, misread relevant provisions of law and emphasised – if the attesting witnesses had not put their signatures at the same time, it was necessary to prove that (i) both put their signatures on different occasions and (ii) had done so on the acknowledgment of the testator. It is held as under:

  • “Reading Section 63 of the Indian Succession Act with Section 68 of the Evidence Act, it seems to me to be clear that what the person propounding the will have to prove is that the will was duly and validly executed and that must be done by not simply proving that the signature on the will was that of the testator but that the attestations were also properly made as required by Clause (c) of Section 63. No doubt Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act says that it is not necessary to examine both or all the attesting witnesses, but it does not follow therefrom that if one attesting witness only proves that the testator had acknowledged his signature to him, it is not necessary that the acknowledgment by the testator before the other attesting witness need be proved. All that it means is that if two attesting witnesses had signed in each other’s presence, it is not necessary to examine both of them to prove that they had received the acknowledgment from the testator. But if, as allowed under Section 63 as well as under Section 3 of the Transfer of Property Act, the attestations to the testator’s signature were not made at the same time, it is necessary, in my opinion, to prove that both the persons, who put down their attesting signatures on different occasions, had done so on the acknowledgment of the testator.” (Quoted in: Vishnu Ramkrishna Wani v. Nathu Vithal Wani, (1949) 51 BomLR 245, MC Chagla, Gajendragadkar, JJ.; Kannamaml v. Chinnaponnammal, 1997 (I) CTC 222; A. Gomathi v. A. Sangeetha, AIR 2015 Mad 218)

‘Golden rule of Interpretation’ Strong Enough to Deviate from Obdurate View

The legal propositions as to ‘golden rule of interpretation’ is strong enough to deviate from the obdurate view of Their Lordships in the Privy Council and the decisions that followed the Privy Council in this regard (which include very many Supreme Court Decisions).

Duty on the propounder to remove all the suspicious features

In Ramabai Padmakar Patil v. Rukminibai Vishnu Vekhande, (2003) 8 SCC 537, it is pointed out that it is a well affirmed proposition that it is the duty of the propounder of the Will to remove all the suspected features, but there must be real, germane and valid suspicious features and not fantasy of the doubting mind.

When Execution of a Will is Admitted, Should it be Proved?

Section 68 of the Evidence Act, 1872 mandates examination of one attesting witness at least to prove documents required by law to be attested (including Wills). When execution of a Will is ‘Admitted’ by the opposite side, should it be ‘Proved’?

There is difference of opinion.

Following latest decisions assuredly lay down that when execution of the will is ‘admitted’ by the opposite side, it need not be ‘proved’ as required in Sec. 68 (by examining at least one witness).

  • Boomathi v. Murugesan, 2023-2 Mad LJ 684 (DB)
  • P. Radha v. Irudayadoss, 2022 SCCOnline Mad 886
  • Rajeev Gupta v. Prashant Garg, 2022-1 All LJ 435.

Following decisions laid down that even when execution of a will was ‘admitted’ by the opposite side, it must have been ‘proved’ by examining at least one attesting witness.

  • S.R. Srinivas v. S. Padmavathamma, (2010) 5 SCC 274 – It is observed – the execution of a Will can be held to have been proved only when the statutory requirements for proving the Will are satisfied. Admission in the pleadings as to the Will can only be about the “making of the Will” and not the “genuineness of the Will”.
  • Vadakkayil Gopalan v. Vadakkayil Paru, (2013) 3 KerLT 69 –It is observed – proof of the Will by examining at least one witness was necessary (even if the Will has been admitted in the pleadings).
  • Poulose A. V. v. Indira M.R., 2010 (3) KerLT Suppl. 185 : ILR 2010 Ker.388  – It is observed – No distinction is drawn, by Sec. 68, between an admitted Will and a disputed Will in the mode of proof of execution; and therefore, in all cases in which the Will is set up the procedure prescribed in Sec. 68 will have to be followed.
  • Ramesh Verma v. Lajesh Saxena (2017) 1 SCC 257 – It is observed – the mandate of Section 68 of the Evidence Act has to be followed even in a case where the opposite party does not specifically deny the execution of the document in the written statement.
  • Sarada v. Radhamani, 2017 (2) KLT 327. In this decision, rendered in a ‘Refence’ to resolve the dispute in the question we discuss, the Kerala High Court (DB) referred all the above decisions. And, declared the following decisions, as Per Incuriam
    1. Princelal G. v. Prasannakumari, 2009 (3) KerLT Suppl. 1342: ILR 2009 (3) Ker. 221 – It is observed – where the execution of the Will is expressly admitted, neither Section 68 nor its proviso is attracted obliging the propounder of the Will to prove due execution of the Will (for, admitted facts need not be proved: Sec. 58 of the Evidence Act).
    2. Thayyullathil Kunhikannan v. Thayyullathil Kalliani, AIR 1990 Ker.226 – Relying on Order VIII Rule 5 C.P.C. and Sec. 58 of the Indian Evidence Act, it is held that when the execution of the Will is admitted, there will not be any requirement to prove the Will.
  • P. Malliga v. P. Kumaran, 2022 (2) LW 393, (Followed in Ranga Pillai v. Mannar Pillai, 2022, Mad) – It is held by the Madras High Court that a Will shall not be used as evidence until it is proved in the manner prescribed under Section 68 of the Evidence Act. The judge did not agree the view in P. Radha v. Irudayadoss, 2022 SCCOnline Mad 886. (Note: This decision, P. Malliga v. P. Kumaran, is overruled in Boomathi v. Murugesan, 2023-2 Mad LJ 684, DB)

S. 68 to be Followed, Even When the Opp. party does not Deny Execution

Sec. 68 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “68. Proof of execution of document required by law to be attested—If a document is required by law to be attested, it shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution, if there be an attesting witness alive, and subject to the process of the Court and capable of giving evidence:
  • Provided that it shall not be necessary to call an attesting witness in proof of the execution of any document, not being a will, which has been registered in accordance with the provisions of the Indian Registration Act, 1908 (16 of 1908), unless its execution by the person by whom it purports to have been executed is specifically denied.

In Ramesh Verma v. Rajesh Saxena, 2017-1 SCC 257, our Apex Court held as under:

  • “13. A will like any other document is to be proved in terms of the provisions of Sec. 68 of the Evidence Act and the Succession Act, 1925. The propounder of the will is called upon to show by satisfactory evidence that the will was signed by the testator, that the testator at the relevant time was in a sound and disposing state of mind, that he understood the nature and effect of the disposition and put his signature to the document on his own free will and the document shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution. This is the mandate of Sec. 68 of the Evidence Act and the position remains the same even in a case where the opposite party does not specifically deny the execution of the document in the written statement.”

Effect of ‘Admission’ of Execution of Will (by the other side)

It may be pointed out that the Apex Court did not consider in this decision, Ramesh Verma v. Rajesh Saxena – what is the position when the opposite party expressly admit the execution of the document.

Boomathi v. Murugesan, 2023-2 Mad LJ 684 (DB)

It is held in a recent Division Bench decision in Boomathi v. Murugesan, 2023-2 Mad LJ 684, that the position will be different if the Will is ‘categorically’ and ‘clearly’ admitted. The Madras High Court referred Sec. 17 (Admission) and Sec. 58 (Facts admitted need not be proved) and came to the conclusion , Sec. 68 will not be attracted where the Will is “admitted” by the other side. The Division Bench held as under:

  • “23. First and foremost, it is to be borne in mind that before the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Jagdish Chand Sharma Vs. Narain Singh Saini [Dead] through Legal Representatives and Others, reported in 2015 [8] SCC 615, the validity of the Will was a core issue and the Hon’ble Supreme Court  proceeded to discuss the law with regard to proof of a Will in accordance with the statute. In such context, the Hon’ble Supreme Court has held that the position with regard to proof of a Will remains the same even if the opposite party does not specifically deny execution of the same.
  • 24. The above judgment has been followed by learned Single Judges of this Court in  P. Malliga Vs. P. Kumaran reported in 2022 [2] LW 393 and Akkinirajan Vs. Maheswari and Others reported in 2023 [1] LW 72.
  • 25. This Court draws the distinction between ‘specifically denied’, ‘not specifically denied’ and ‘admitted‘. The first two instances, namely, ‘specifically denied’ and ‘not specifically denied’, would fall within one category. Insofar as proof of a Will in both cases in this category, the Will would have to be necessarily proved by the propounder. However, where the opposite party categorically admits to the Will, the position would be certainly different. In India, we follow what is called the system ‘adversarial proceedings’, which is also followed in the British Courts. The foundation of this School is that parties before a Court would have to deal with facts in issue namely facts that are asserted and denied by the parties to the lis and the Court would proceed to adjudicate on such issues. When there is no dispute between the parties on certain matters, the Court would not venture to require proof of such admitted facts.”
  • “33. This Court has applied its mind to the various principles laid down by the Hon’ble  Supreme Court as well as this Court and other High Courts, especially in the context of Sec. 68 of the Indian Evidence Act, proof of a Will where execution is not specifically denied and in cases where the execution is categorically admitted. The ratio laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Ramesh Verma’s case [cited supra] reported in 2017 [1] SCC 257, cannot be a precedent for the proposition where the opposite party clearly admits to the execution of the subject Will as in the instant case. Therefore, we are not in respectful agreement with the judgments in P. Malliga’s case(P. Malliga v. P. Kumaran, 2022 (2) LW 393) andAkkinirajan’s case (Akkinirajan Vs. Maheswari, 2023 [1] LW 72) following the ratio laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Jagdish Chand Sharma’s case. On the contrary, we approve the ratio laid down in P. Radha Vs. Irudayadoss and Others reported in 2022 SCC Online Mad 886 and Vanjiammal and Others Vs. Vidya and Others in the order dtd. 21/4/2017 made in CRP.[PD] No.3659/2013.”

The same view is taken in Rajeev Gupta v. Prashant Garg, 2022-1 All LJ 435. The court held as under:

  • “The admission were in the pleadings of the parties and therefore there was no requirement of proving the will in the present suit. Admittedly, the defendant Nos. 2 to 4/appellants have claimed their title through Ramesh Chand Garg who never disputed the validity of the will rather in the Original Suit No. 458 of 1992, he admitted its validity and therefore, the lower appellate court has rightly decreed the suit and held that the will was neither required to be proved in the present suit nor the filing of original will was necessary.”

Do General Provisions of S. 58 give way to Special Provisions of S. 68

Three views are possible:

  • First: Requirement of calling at lest one witness to prove those documents that requires attestation, remains the same even in a case where the opposite party expressly admit the execution of the document in the written statement.
  • Second: If the Will is (even impliedly) admitted, Sec. 68 need not be invoked.
  • Third: If only the Will is expressly admitted, then only there will be alleviation of burden laid down in Sec. 68.

In the light of the Apex Court decision in Ramesh Verma v. Rajesh Saxena, 2017-1 SCC 257, (that the position – as to proof of documents requires attestation – remains the same even in a case where the opposite party does not specifically deny the execution of the document in the written statement) it appears that the second view stated above (taken in Thayyullathil Kunhikannan v. Thayyullathil Kalliani, AIR 1990 Ker 226) is not sustainable.

But, the proposition of law in the third view above, applied in Boomathi v. Murugesan (supra), and other decisions (that the position – as to proof of documents requires attestation – will be different if the Will is “categorically admitted), sounds good.

Authoritative Judicial Pronouncement is yet to be Arrived

It is also pertinent to note that the Kerala High Court, in Sarada v. Radhamani (supra), pointed out that the general provisions of Sect. 58 of the Evidence Act has ‘to give way to the special provisions’ of Sec. 68 of the Act; and it was remarked that there was no distinction between an ‘admitted Will’ and a ‘disputed Will’ as to the mode of proof.

It appears that the placing the doctrine of ‘specific provisions override general provisions‘ is rational; for, the following words in Sec. 68 places a ‘non-obstante clause’ –

  • “it shall not be used as evidence until one attesting witness at least has been called for the purpose of proving its execution”.

However, it will also be a forceful argument if one says that a section in the Evidence Act cannot be protected from certain fundamental principles of the Evidence Act which include ‘best evidence rule’, ‘admitted facts need not be proved’ etc., unless strong persuasive indications are laid down in the provision concerned. (It is also noteworthy that Sec. 68 does not proceed with a non-obstante clause.) In any event, the scheme of the Evidence Act shows that Chapter III (the beginning Chapter of Part II) which deals with “Facts Need Not be Proved”, is meant to govern the succeeding chapters including the Chapter V that deals with ‘Documentary Evidence’ wherein Sec. 68 is included.

It is also significant – Sec. 58 says that ‘Admitted facts need not be proved’; and Sec. 68 speaks as to “Proof of execution of document required by law to be attested” and that the attesting witness is called “for the purpose of proving its execution”. That is, the question of ‘proof’ under Sec. 68 does not arise if ‘execution of document’ has already been admitted by the other side.

  • Note: Proviso to Sec. 58 enables the court to require proof, despite the admission of the other side, if it finds proper. Proviso to Sec. 58 reads as under:
  • “Provided that the Court may, in its discretion, require the facts admitted to be proved otherwise than by such admissions.”

Therefore, an authoritative judicial pronouncement is yet to be arrived, taking note of various potential contentions in this regard.

PART IIA Will has to be proved like any other document

In Vrindavanibai Sambhaji Mane v. Ramachandra Vithal Ganeshkar, AIR 1995 SC 2086, 1995-5 SCC 215, our Apex Court held as under:

  • “There is also a large body of case law about what are suspicious circumstances surrounding the execution of a Will which require the propounder to explain them to the satisfaction of the Court before the Will can be accepted as genuine. A Will has to be proved like any other document except for the fact that it has to be proved after the death of the testator. Hence, the person executing the document is not there to give testimony. The propounder, in the absence of any suspicious circumstances surrounding the execution of the Will, is required to prove the testamentary capacity and the signature of the testator. Some of the suspicious circumstances of which the Court has taken note are
  • (1) The propounder taking a prominent part in the execution of a Will which confers substantial benefits on him;
  • (2) Shaky signature;
  • (3) A feeble mind which is likely to be influenced;
  • (4) Unfair and unjust disposal of property. Suffice it to say that no such circumstances are present here.”

Presumption (by itself) not sufficient to Prove a Will

The Presumptions available on a document cannot be called for (unless Sec. 71 can be invoked, as stated below) as regards a Will, in view of Sec. 68 and 69 of the Evidence Act.

  • That is, Certificate of Registering Officer (endorsement) is not by itself a proof of the registered Will having been duly executed and attested.
  • The presumption, under Sect. 90, Evidence Act, as to regularity for documents having more than 30 years of age also cannot be imported in proof Wills (unless Sec. 71 can be invoked, as stated below).

Proof of Will – Regn. Certificate u/s. 60 – by itself, NOT Sufficient

Registration of a will or codicil, by itself, will not lead to a presumption as to correctness or regularity of attestation. Where in the facts and circumstances of a given case, if the Registrar of Deeds, by his statement before the court, satisfies the requirement as to attestation by an attesting witness, his evidence would be liable to be appreciated and evaluated like the testimony of any other attesting witness.

The Apex Court observed in Bhagat Ram v. Suresh, AIR 2004 SC 43 (R.C. Lahoti, J.) as under:

  • “The certificate of registration under Section 60 of the Registration Act, 1908 raises a presumption under Section 114 illustration (e) of the Evidence Act that he had regularly performed his duty and therefore the facts spelled out by the endorsements made under Sections 58 and 59 of the Registration Act may be presumed to be correct without formal proof thereof. The duties discharged by the registering officer do not include attestation or verification of attestation of will as required by the rules enacted by Section 63 of the Succession Act. An endorsement by registering officer is not by itself a proof of the will having been duly executed and attested. …”

The Kerala High Court held in Mariyadas v. Benjamin, ILR 2014-4 Ker 471, as under:

  • “If a Will has been registered, that is a circumstance which may, having regard to the circumstances, prove its genuineness. But the mere fact that a Will is registered Will it will not by itself be sufficient to dispel all suspicion regarding it where suspicion exists, without submitting the evidence of registration to a close examination. The bald fact of registration is insufficient, when there are other circumstances creating suspicion on the execution of the document.”

In Ashutosh Samanta v. Ranjan Bala Dasi, AIR 2023 SC 1422, the Supreme Court observed that Wills (which have to be proved in terms of Section 63(c) of the Succession Act 1925 and Section 68 of the Evidence Act, 1872) cannot be proved, only on the basis of their age and the presumption under Sec. 90 which provides for presumption as to regularity of documents having the age more than 30 years. (And it was held, following the earlier decisions on Sec. 71 of the Evidence Act, that in proper cases this enabling provision (Sec. 71) can be invoked, as detailed below.)

In M.B. Ramesh v. K.M. Veeraje Urs, (2013) 7 SCC 490, it is pointed out as under:

  • “.. . As held by this Court in Bharpur Singh v. Shamsher Singh reported in 2009 (3) SCC 687, a presumption regarding documents 30 years old does not apply to a will. A will has to be proved in terms of Section 63(c) of the Succession Act read with Section 68 of the Evidence Act. That takes us to the crucial issue involved in the present case, viz. with respect to the validity and proving of the concerned will. A Will, has to be executed in the manner required by Section 63 of the Succession Act. Section 68 of the Evidence Act requires the will to be proved by examining at least one attesting witness.”

Effect of Not putting Signatures of the testator at the End

In Bishan Devi Khanna v. Pirthi Singh Dhillon, AIR  1963 P&H 66 (Tek Chand, J.), though the testator had signed his name in three places in the will, it did not bear the signatures of the testator at the end. A contention was raised on the execution of the will pointing out that Sec. 63 (b) Succession act had been contravened. The contention, that the will was inchoate, was rejected referring following decisions-

  • In The Goods of R. Porthouse, ILR 24 Cal 784. The will herein was in a printed form. It was omitted to insert the testator’s name and description at the head of the document and to append his signature therefor. He had, however, written his name in the attestation clause and completed the disposition clause bequeathing all his property to his wife and appointing her sole executrix. It was held that this was sufficient.
  • Amarendra Nath v. Kashi Nath, ILR 27 Cal 169. The testator had admitted to the attesting witnesses that the paper which they were attesting was his last will. This was considered a sufficient acknowledgment of testator’s signature to his will even though the witnesses did not see him sign it or observed any signature to the paper which they had attested.
  • In The Goods of, Casmore, (1869) LR 1 P and D 653. This decision was referred for the proposition that a Will would not be rendered invalid if the Court was satisfied that the deceased intended execution of the Will, though he had signed in the attestation clause.
  • In The Goods of Mann, 1942 P. 146, the testatrix did not place any signature on the document. But, the probate was decreed and the signature on the envelope was accepted as the signature on the will.

Read Blog: 30 Years Old Documents and Presumption of Truth of Contents, under Sec. 90 Evidence Act

If Original Will Lost, Secondary Evidence Admissible

In Dhanpat v. Sheo Ram (2020) 16 SCC 209) certified copy of the registered will was produced saying that the original was lost. The Supreme Court observed as under:

  • “There is no cross-examination of any of the witnesses of the defendants in respect of loss of original will. Section 65 of the Evidence Act permits secondary evidence of existence, condition, or contents of a document including the cases where the original has been destroyed or lost. The plaintiff had admitted the execution of the will though it was alleged to be the result of fraud and misrepresentation. The execution of the will was not disputed by the plaintiff but only proof of the will was the subject matter in the suit. Therefore, once the evidence of the defendants is that the original will was lost and certified copy is produced, the defendants have made out sufficient grounds for leading of secondary evidence”.

The Apex Court further observed that there was no need for an application for submitting the secondary evidence.

PART IIIHow to Prove a Will, if NO Proof Possible under Sec. 68 or 69 Evid. Act?

There is no specific provision in the Evidence Act as to proving a Will, where-

  • (a) the attesting witnesses to the Will are dead or not available for examination,
  • and
  • (b) no evidence is available (reasonably not obtainable) to show that the Will was attested (say, 75 years back) in the handwriting of the attesting witnesses, as provided under Sec. 69 Evidence Act?

Sec. 71 of the Evidence Act

Sec. 71 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 71. Proof when attesting witness denies the execution – If the attesting witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document, its execution may be proved by other evidence.”

If the attesting witness called for proving the execution of a document turns hostile, though the ‘best evidence rule’ requires the evidence of the other attesting witness, if he is alive, it is not mandated in Sec. 71 (See contra view – the other witness must be examined – in: Vishnu Ramkrishna Wani v. Nathu Vithal Wani, (1949) 51 BOMLR 245, MC Chagla & Gajendragadkar).

It must be noticed that Sec. 71, as such, cannot be applied when Wills cannot be proved in terms of Sec. 68 and 69; because, Sec. 71 deals with another situation; i.e., ‘witness denies or does not recollect the execution of the document’. (But, the principles in Sec. 71 can be applied in such situations, it being enacted on the rules as to justice, equity and good conscience.)

Therefore, if the execution and attestation of a Will cannot be proved as provided under Sect. 68  and 69 Evidence Act, it is legitimate to say that the principles in the doctrine of ‘Proving Execution by Other Evidence’ in Sec. 71 of the Evidence Act can be invoked to prove the Will – that is the execution by the testator (and not the attestation as provided in Sec. 69, the enabling provision).

In Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, 2003 (2) SCC 91, it is observed, as regards Sec. 71, as under:

  • Section 71 is meant to lend assistance and come to the rescue of a party who had done his best, but driven to a state of helplessness and impossibility cannot be let down without any other means of proving due execution by “other evidence” as well. At the same time Section 71 cannot be read so as to absolve a party of his obligation under Section 68 read with Section 63 of the Act and liberally allow him, at his will or choice to make available or not a necessary witness otherwise available and amenable to the jurisdiction of the court concerned and confer a premium upon his omission or lapse, to enable him to give a go bye to the mandate of law relating to proof of execution of a will.”
  • In Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, our Apex Court not only did not apply Sec. 71, but it found that the Will was not proved (in that case) for not examining the attesting-witness who was available for examination. (Therefore the observations as to Sec. 71 stands as obiter.)

Sec. 71 Misapplied

In M.B. Ramesh v. K.M. Veeraje Urs, (2013) 7 SCC 490it was contended that the evidence of the attesting witness examined in the court was “silent on the issue” as to whether the executant of the will executed the will in the presence of other witness, and whether the other witness also signed as attesting witness in the presence of the executant. Answering the argument, it is held as under:

  • “.. . . Section 71 of the Evidence Act is another connected section “which is permissive and an enabling section permitting a party to lead other evidence in certain circumstances” as observed by this Court in paragraph 11 of Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam reported in 2003 (2) SCC 91 and in a way reduces the rigour of the mandatory provision of Section 68. As held in that judgment Section 71 is meant to lend assistance and come to the rescue of a party who had done his best, but would otherwise be let down if other means of proving due execution by other evidence are not permitted.” (This portion is quoted in: Ashutosh Samanta v. Ranjan Bala Dasi, AIR 2023 SC 1422.)
  • Note:
  • 1. The observation in Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam, 2003 (2) SCC 91, as regards Sec. 71 (that is, Section 71 is meant to lend assistance and come to the rescue of a party who had done his best, but driven to a state of helplessness etc.) is seen misapplied (for three counts) in M.B. Ramesh v. K.M. Veeraje Urs, (2013) 7 SCC 490 –
    • (i) It was not observed in Janki Narayan Bhoir v. Narayan Namdeo Kadam that Sec. 71 could be applied in any situation other than what is stated in Sec. 71;
    • (ii) the observation as regards Sec. 71 in Janki Narayan Bhoir is obiter dictum‘; and
    • (iii) Sec. 71 being deals with another situation, Sec. 71, as such, could not have been applied (though its principles could be).
  • 2. Going by Sec. 68, it appears that there is no requirement for proving attestation made by “both” attesting witnesses. Therefore, there was no “deficiency” (as observed in this decision and in Janki Narayan Bhoir) in the statement of a witness for the “omission” to depose that the signature of the testator on the Will “was placed in the presence of” the other attesting witness.
  • That is, even if the witness was “silent on the issue” as to whether the executant executed the will in the presence of the other witness, and whether the other witness also signed as attesting witness in the presence of the executant, they could not have been raised as “deficiency” (as observed in this decision and in Janki Narayan Bhoir).

When a Will can be Proved on the basis of Presumptions alone ?

As shown above, Sec. 71 (which provides for ‘other evidence’) applies in two circumstances-

  • 1. If the attesting witness of the document denies or does not recollect the execution of the document (as stated in Sec. 71 itself).
  • 2. If the attestation of the document cannot be proved as provided under Sect. 68  and 69 Evidence Act (principles in Sec. 71 is applied).

“Other evidence” in Sec. 71 includes all ‘presumptions’ in the Evidence Act.

Therefore, the propounder of a will is free to rely on ‘presumption on registration’ and presumption available under Sec. 90 as regards 30 years old documents (so also other presumptions, including Sec. 114), when Sec. 71 can be invoked.

  • It must be noticed that the presumptions under Sec. 90 and 114 are rebuttable presumptions; and therefore, the opposite party can show – adducing evidence sufficient to displace the presumption – that it is not proper to rely on presumptions.

PART IVConstruction/Interpretation of a Will

Relevant Provisions in interpretation of a Will

1. Sec. 74 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925

  • 74. Wording of will — It is not necessary that any technical words or terms of art be used in a Will, but only that the wording be such that the intentions of the testator can be known therefrom.

2. Sec. 100 of the Evidence Act

  • 100. Saving of provisions of Indian Succession Act relating to wills -Nothing in this Chapter contained shall be taken to affect any of the provisions of the Indian Succession Act, 1865 (10 of 1865) as to the construction of wills

Cardinal principles in interpretation of a Will are the following:

  • (1) Ascertain the intention of the testator from the words used; the surrounding circumstances can be considered: but only for finding out the intended meaning of the wordsused. (Ram Gopal v. ;Nand Lal, AIR 1951 SC 139; Navneet Lal v. Gokul, AIR 1976 SC 794: Gnanambal Ammal v. T. Raju Ayyar (1950 SCR 949, 955 : AIR 1951 SC 103)
  • (2) In construing the language of the will the court is entitled to put itself into the testator’s armchair (Venkata Narasimha v. Parthasarthy, 41 IA 51: 15 Bom LR 1010; Gnanambal Ammal v. T. Raju Aiyar, AIR 1951 SC 103,)
  • (3) The true intention of the testator has to be gathered by reading the will as a whole. No clause shall be ignored as redundant or contradictory. (Raj Bajrang Bahadur Singh v. Thakurain Bakhtraj Kuer (1953 SCR 232, 240 : AIR 1953 SC 7; Gnanambal Ammal v. T. Raju Aiyar, AIR 1951 SC 103; Ramachandra Shenoy v. Mrs. Hilda Brite, (1964) 2 SCR 722, 735 : AIR 1964 SC 1323; Navneet Lal v. Gokul, AIR 1976 SC 794)
  • (4) If there are two repugnant provisions conferring successive interests, if the first interest created is valid the subsequent interest cannot take effect but a court of construction will proceed to the farthest extent to avoid repugnancy, so that effect could be given as far as possible to every testamentary intention contained in the will. (Ramachandra Shenoy v. Mrs. Hilda Brite, (1964) 2 SCR 722, 735 : AIR 1964 SC 1323; )
  •  (5) The court must accept, if possible, such construction as would give to every expression some effect rather than that which would render any of the expressions inoperative. (Navneet Lal v. Gokul, AIR 1976 SC 794)
  • (6) Where two reasonable constructions possible and one would lead to intestacy, that should be discarded and the construction that in favour of Will shall be accepted. (Pearey Lal v. Rameshwar Das, 1963 Supp 2 SCR 834: AIR 1963 SC 1703)
  • (7) The meaning of every word in an Indian will must always depend upon the setting in which it is placed, the subject to which it is related, and the locality of the testator from which it may receive its true shade of meaning. (Sasiman Chowdhurain v. Shib Narayan Chowdhury,49 IA 25, 35 : 66 IC 193 : 24 Bom LR 576; Musammat Surajmani v. Rahi Nath Ojha, 35 IA 17 : ILR 30 All 84 : 10 Bom LR 59; Navneet Lal v. Gokul, AIR 1976 SC 794)

In Gnanambal Ammal v. T. Raju Aiyar, AIR 1951 SC 103, BK Mukherjea, J., held as under:

  • “The cardinal maxim to be observed by courts in construing a will is to endeavour to ascertain the intentions of the testator. This intention has to be gathered primarily from the language of the document which is to be read as a whole without indulging in any conjecture or speculation as to what the testator would have done if he had been better informed or better advised. In construing the language of the will as the Privy Council observed in Venkata Narasimha v. Parthasarathy, 42 I.A. 51 at p.70.
    • ‘The courts are entitled and bound to bear in mind other matters than merely the words used. They must consider the surrounding circumstances, the position of the testator, ‘his family relationship, the probability that he would use words in a particular sense, and many other things which are often summed up in the somewhat picturesque figure ‘The court is entitled to put itself into the testator’s armchair’ …… But all this is solely as an aid to arriving at a right construction of the will, and to ascertain the meaning of its language when used by that particular testator in that document. So, soon as the construction is settled, the duty of the court is to carry out the intentions as expressed, and none other. The court is in no case justified in adding to testamentary dispositions…… In all cases it must loyally carry out the will as properly construed, and this duty is universal, and is true alike of wills of every nationality and every religion or rank of life.’
  • A question is sometimes raised as to whether in construing a will the court should lean against intestacy. The desire to avoid intestacy was considered by the Privy Council in the case referred to above as a rule based on English necessity and English habits of thought which should not necessarily bind an Indian court. It seems that a presumption against intestacy may be raised if it is justified by the context of the document or the surrounding circumstances; But it can be invoked only when there is undoubted ambiguity in ascertainment of the intentions of the testator. As Lord Justice Romer observed in Re Edwards; Jones v. Jones, [1906]1 Ch. 570 at p. 574:
    • ‘It cannot be that merely with a view to avoiding intestacy you are to do otherwise than construe plain words according to their plain meaning’.”

In Bhura v. Kashi Ram, AIR 1994 SC 1202:  (1994) 2 SCC 111, it is observed as under:

  • “It is settled law that the courts must make all efforts to determine the real intention of the testator by reading the will as a whole and giving effect to the intentions of the testator. Construction, which would advance the intention of the testator has to be preferred and as far as possible effect is required to be given to every disposition contained in the will, unless the law prevents such effect being given to it.”

See – How to Write a Will? Requirements of a Valid Will



END NOTE IPresumptions on REGISTERED Documents

Two presumptions arise from a Registered deed –

  • 1. It is VALIDLY EXECUTED.
  • 2. Its contents are GENUINENE/TRUE.

There is Presumption on a Registered Document – “It is VALIDLY EXECUTED”; that is, Executed in accordance with Law, or it is a Genuine Transaction.

  • Sec. 35, Registration Act, 1908 says that the Registrar allows registration of a document (i) if only he is satisfied as to the identity of the person who executes the document, and (ii) if the executant admits the execution of the document.
  • Presumptions can be invoked in view of the Sec. 58 , 59 and 60 (certificate) of the Registration Act. The presumption of regularity of official acts in Illustration (e) of Section 114 of the Evidence is also attached to a registered deed.
  • There is a presumption – registered document is validly executed –
    • Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608;
    • Abdul Rahim v. Abdul Zabar, AIR 2010 SC 211;
    • Jamila Begum v. Shami Mohd., AIR 2019 SC 72;
    • Manik Majumder v. Dipak Kumar Saha, AIR  2023 SC 506.
  • A registered document carries with it a presumption that it was executed in accordance with law – Bellachi v. Pakeeran, AIR 2009 SC 3293.

In Shiv Ram v. Shiv Charan Singh, AIR 1964 Raj 126, it is observed as under

  • “Where Sec. 35  properly comes into play, an entry made by a public servant in any public or official book in the discharge of his official duty becomes relevant by itself, and no other proof of such entry is required as a matter of law by our Evidence Act, but this, does not exclude the possibility that such an entry may become admissible otherwise if it is properly proved to have been made by a person ordinarily competent to make it.” (Quoted in Mayadhar Nayak vs Sub-Divisional Officer, Jajpur, AIR 1982 Ori 221).

Endorsements Under Sec. 58 of the Registration Act

Under Sec. 58 of the Registration Act the Registrar shall endorse the following particulars on every document admitted to registration:

  1. the date, hour and place of presentation of the document for registration :
  2. the signature and addition of every person admitting the execution of the document, and, if such execution has been admitted by the representative, assign or agent of any person, the signature and addition of such representative, assign or agent;
  3. the signature and addition of every person examined in reference to such document under any or the provisions of this Act, and
  4. any payment of money or delivery of goods made in the presence of the registering officer in reference to the execution of the document, and any admission of receipt of consideration, in whole or in part, made in his presence in reference to such execution.

Such particulars as are referred to in Sections 52 and 58 of the Registration Act are required to be endorsed by Registrar along with his signature and date on document under Sec. 59 and then certified under Section 60. A presumption by reference to Section 114 [Illustration (e)] of the Evidence Act shall arise to the effect that the events contained in the endorsement of registration, were regularly and duly performed and are correctly recorded. … [See: Kunwar Surendra Bahadur Singh v. Thakur Behari Singh, AIR 1989 PC 117].

Sec. 60, Regn. Certificate

Sec. 35 and 60, Registration Act, 1908 read as under:

  • “35. Procedure on admission and denial of execution respectively—(1) (a) If all the persons executing the document appear personally before the registering officer and are personally known to him, or if he be otherwise satisfied that they are the person they represent themselves to be, and if they all admit the execution of the document, or ….”
  • 60. Certificate of registration – (1) After such of the provisions of sections 34, 35, 58 and 59 as apply to any document presented for registration have been complied with, the registering officer shall endorse thereon a certificate containing the word “registered”, together with the number and page of the book in which the document has been copied.
  • (2) Such certificate shall be signed, sealed and dated by the registering officer, and shall then be admissible for the purpose of proving that the document has been duly registered in manner provided by this Act, and that the facts mentioned in the endorsement, referred to in section 59 have occurred as therein mentioned.”

Regn. Certificate, Evidence for Execution; Can be a Mode of Proof u/s. 67

The certificate endorsed on a registered deed by the registering officer is a relevant piece of evidence for proving its execution – Piara v. Fatnu, AIR 1929 Lah 711.

In Kunhamina Umma v. Special Tahsildar, AIR 1977 Ker 41, the Kerala High Court observed that the facts required to be proved under Section 67 Evid. Act could be proved by any kind of evidence, and there was nothing in the section to indicate that the evidence furnished by the registration certificate by virtue of Sub-section (2) of Section 60 of the Registration Act and by the presumption in Illustration (e) of Section 114 of the Evidence Act, were to be excluded. It is held as under:

  • “The Privy Council said in Gangamoy Debi v. Troilukhya Nath  (1906) 33 Ind App 60 = ILR 33 Cal 537 (PC)–‘The registration is a solemn act, to be performed in the presence of a competent official appointed to act as registrar, whose duty it is to attend the parties during the registration and see that the proper persons are present and are competent to act, and are identified to his satisfaction; and all things done before him in his official capacity and verified by his signature will be presumed to be duly and in order‘.
  • 15. On the strength of this observation of the Privy Council and on a consideration of Section 60 of the Registration Act, the Lahore High Court held in Piara v. Fatnu (AIR 1929 Lah 711) that the certificate endorsed on a registered deed by the registering officer is a relevant piece of evidence for proving its execution. … …..
  • 19. The question has been considered in depth by Justice Raman Nair (as he then was) in Sumathi Amma v. Kunjuleskhmi Amma (1964 Ker LT 945). The learned Judge observed (at pages 946 and 947) :
    • “…  It (Section 67 Evidence Act) only says that facts have to be proved, and, unlike Section 68, does not prescribe any particular mode of proof. The facts required to be proved under Section 67 can be proved by any kind of evidence, and there is nothing in the section to indicate that the evidence furnished by the registration certificate by virtue of Sub-section (2) of Section 60 of the Registration Act and by the presumption in Illustration (e) of Section 114 of the Evidence Act, is to be excluded.’
  • We have no hesitation in endorsing the view of the learned Judge as laying down the correct law on the question if we may say so with respect.”

Registered Deeds Presumption on Genuineness of Transaction

It is held in Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608 (SB Sinha,J.), as under:

  • “52. It is well-settled law that there is a presumption of a registered document being validly executed. A registered document would, therefore, prima facie, be valid in law. The onus of proof, thus, would be on a person who questions the same.”

Prem Singh v. Birbal is followed in –

  • Manik Majumder v. Dipak Kumar Saha, AIR  2023 SC 506;
  • Rattan Singh v. Nirmal Gill, AIR  2021 SC 899;
  • Jamila Begum v. Shami Mohd., AIR  2019 SC 72;
  • Vishwanath Bapurao Sabale v. Shalinibai Nagappa Sabale, (2009) 12 SCC 101.

In Vimal Chand Ghevarchand Jain v. Ramakant Eknath Jajoo, (SB Sinha,J.), 2009-5 SCC 713, it is held as under:

  • “13. The deed of sale dated 29.6.1978 was a registered one. It, therefore, carries a presumption that the transaction was a  genuine one…..
  • 15…. The deed of sale being a registered one and apparently containing stipulations of transfer of right, title and interest by the vendor in favour of the vendee, the onus of proof was upon the defendant to show that the said deed was, in fact, not executed or otherwise does not reflect the true nature of transaction..”

The Apex Court observed in Jamila Begum v. Shami Mohd., AIR 2019 SC 72, as under: 

  • “A registered document carries with it a presumption that it was validly executed. It is for the party challenging the genuineness of the transaction to show that the transaction is not valid in law. In Prem Singh and others v. Birbel and others (2006) 5 SCC 353, it was held as under:
  • “27. There is a presumption that a registered document is validly executed. A registered document, therefore, prima facie would be valid in law. The onus of proof, thus, would be on a person who leads evidence to rebut the presumption. In the instant case, Respondent 1 has not been able to rebut the said presumption.” “

In Abdul Rahim v. Abdul Zabar, AIR 2010 SC 211 (SB Sinha,J.), it is held as under:

  • “14. … A registered document carries with it a presumption that it was validly executed. It is for the party questioning the genuineness of the transaction to show that in law the transaction was not valid.”

In Bellachi v. Pakeeran, AIR 2009 SC 3293 (SB Sinha,J.), it is a observed that a registered document carries with it a presumption that it was executed in accordance with law.

In Ishwar Dass Jain v. Sohan Lal, (2000) 1 SCC 434, it is held that a registered document is presumed to be valid unless the presumption thereof is rebutted by strong evidence to the contrary.

Presumption of regularity of official acts would be extended to registration of a document by a sub-registrar as held in Jugraj Singh v. Jaswant Singh, 1970 (2) SCC 386. The sub-registrar would proceed with the registration only on satisfying himself as to the fact that the person who was executing the document was the proper person.

Presumption of Correctness Attached to Endorsements in a Registered Deed

In the split-verdict in Majumder v. Dipak Kumar Saha, AIR 2023 SC 506, BV Nagaratna, J., held as under:

  • “18. … The presumption of correctness attached to endorsement made by the Sub-Registrar is in view of the provisions of Sections 58, 59 and 60 of the Registration Act. This presumption can be rebutted only by strong evidence to the contrary.”

BV Nagaratna, J. referred the following decisions-

  • Ishwar Dass Jain v. Sohan Lal, (2000) 1 SCC 434 (a registered document is presumed to be valid).
  • Chottey Lal v. The Collector of Moradabad,  AIR 1922 PC 279 (presumption of validity of a power of attorney which formed the basis of a registered deed; the sub-registrar being accepted the document for registration, it is prima-facie evidence that the conditions have been satisfied).
  • Jugraj Singh v. Jaswant Singh, 1970 (2) SCC 386 (presumption of regularity of official acts of sub-registrar).
  • Rattan Singh v. Nirmal Gill, AIR 2021 SC 899 (presumption of validity of a general power of attorney and consequently of the sale deed executed – especially of a 30-year old document).
  • Prem Singh v. Birbal , (2006) 5 SCC 353 (when such a presumption arises, the onus would be on a person who challenges such presumption, to successfully rebut it).

The facts spelled out by the endorsements made under Sections 58 and 59 of the Registration Act may be presumed to be correct without formal proof thereof – Bhagat Ram v. Suresh, AIR 2004 SC 43.

In Sulender Singh v. Pritam, 2013-3 HLR 1443, it is held by the Himachal Pradesh High Court that there was a presumption of correctness to the endorsement/ certificate issued by the Sub-Registrar at the time or registration of gift deed (Rewat Ram Sharma versus Munshi Ram, Latest HLJ 2002 (HP) 165) and that the onus to rebut the presumption on a registered deed was heavily on the plaintiff.

END NOTE II Presumptions on 30 Years Old Documents

Sec. 90 Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “90. Presumption as to documents thirty years old:
  • Where any document, purporting or proved to be thirty years old, is produced from any custody which the Court in the particular case considers proper, the Court may presume that the signature and every other part of such document, which purports to be in the handwriting of any particular person, is in that person’s handwriting, and, in the case of a document executed or attested, that it was duly executed and attested by the persons by whom it purports to be executed and attested.
  • Explanation.—Documents are said to be in proper custody if they are in the place in which, and under the care of the person with whom, they would naturally be; but no custody is improper if it is proved to have had a legitimate origin, or if the circumstances of the particular case are such as to render such an origin probable.”
  • This Explanation applies also to section 81. 

Sec. 90 speaks about two things:

  • 1. a document purports to be in the handwriting of any particular person
  • 2. a document purports to be executed or attested

The presumption spoken of in Sec. 90 is the following:

  • handwriting – in that person’s handwriting
  • executed or attested – duly executed and attested.

It was a matter of controversy whether truth or genuineness can be attached to the 30-year-old documents (though not specifically stated in Sec. 90).

Genuineness (Not Truth of Contents) attached to 30-year-old Documents

Under Sec. 90, Not Truth of Contents, but, only presumption of Genuineness of a document (ie. existence or handwriting), is drawn.

In Lakhi Baruah v. Padma Kanta Kalita, (1996) 8 SCC 357, AIR 1996 SC 1253, with regard to admissibility in evidence of thirty years old documents produced from proper custody, it was observed as under:

  • “15. Section 90 of the Evidence Act, 1872 is founded on necessity and convenience because it is extremely difficult and sometimes not possible to lead evidence to prove handwriting, signature  or execution of old documents after lapse of thirty years. In order to obviate such difficulties or improbabilities to prove execution of an old document, Section 90 has been incorporated in the Evidence Act, 1872 which does away with the strict rule of proof of private documents. Presumption of genuineness may be raised if the documents in question is produced from proper custody. It is, however, the discretion of the court to accept the presumption flowing from Section 90. There is, however, no manner of doubt that judicial discretion under Section 90 should not be exercised arbitrarily and not being informed by reasons.”

Read Blog: Proof of Documents & Objections To Admissibility – How & When?

Truth of contents have to be proved

In Union of India v. Ibrahim Uddin, (2012) 8 SCC 148, it was held as under:

  • “Presumption under Section 90 of the Evidence Act in respect of 30 years’ old document coming from proper custody relates to the signature, execution and attestation of a document i.e. to its genuineness but it does not give rise to presumption of correctness of every statement contained in it. The contents of the document are true or it had been acted upon have to be proved like any other fact.”

Contents have to be proved

In Jhasketan Bhoi V. Krushna Bhoi, ILR 2018-2 Cuttack (Orissa) 440. It was held as under:

  • “It is no-doubt clear that Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act if any document is produced from proper custody which is executed 30 years back then the document can be proved by production from proper custody. But that does not mean that the contents of the documents are proved. The contents of the document have to be proved by cogent evidence.”

After reading Sec. 90, the High Court proceeded as under:

  • “When a document is purportedly to be more than 30 years old, if it be produced from what the Court considers to be proper custody, it may be presumed
    • that the signature and every other part of such document, which purports to be in the handwriting of any particular person, is in that person’s handwriting, and
    • that it was duly executed and attested by the person by whom it purports to be executed and attested.
  • Thirty year old document, produced from proper custody, not looking ex facie suspicious, presumption could be drawn in favour of proper execution of the document. It is not necessary that the signatures of the attesting witnesses or of the scribe be proved; if everything was proved there would be no need to presume anything. There can, however, be no presumption as to
    • who is the person, who executed the document was and
    • what authority he had to execute the document, and
    • whether he had the requisite authority, or
    • whether the contents of the document are true.
  • In other words, the execution and attestation of the document is presumed, but the contents have to be proved by some way or other.”

The correct view on Sec. 90 had been expressed in Kunhamina Umma v. Special Tahsildar, AIR 1977 Ker 41, wherein it was observed that this was a matter with the discretion of the court. It also referred to Sec. 114 of the Evidence act. It is held as under:

  • “10. The true scope of Sec. 90 of the Evidence Act is that the section does away with the strict rules of proof which are enforced in the case of private documents, by giving rise to a presumption of genuineness with regard to documents reaching a certain age. If private documents not less than thirty years old are produced from proper custody, and are on their face free from suspicion, the court may presume that they have been signed or written by the person whose signatures they bear or in whose handwriting they purport to be, and that they have been duly attested and executed, if they purport so to be. In other words, documents thirty years old prove themselves–see Sirkar on Evidence 12th Edn. page 727.
  • The section deals with the admissibility of such old documents without proof in the usual manner, but the credit to be given to them depends on the discretion of the court exercised in a judicial manner and the particular circumstances of each case. No doubt, the presumption is permissive and according to the circumstances of each case the court may or may not raise it. It has also been held in certain cases that a sound disposing mind can be presumed under Sec. 90, This is so ‘because of the expression duly executedin the section. The word duly has to be taken to mean execution by a person legally competent to execute the document–see (1) Kottayya v. Karancheti– AIR 1930 Mad 744 (2) Munnalal v. Kshibai — AIR 1947 PC 15; (3) Venkatarama v Bhaskar Rao — AIR 1962 Andh Pra 29.
  • This presumption is fortified by Sec. 114 Evidence Act. Again it may be made clear that it is in the discretion of the court to draw the presumption or not.”

Proper Custody

As regards the ‘proper custody’ in Sec. 90 Evidence Act it is observed in Cheedella Padmavathi v. Cheedella Lakshminarasimha Rao, 2015(5) ALT 634, as under:

  • “The proper custody is in the custody of a person, who might be reasonably and naturally be expected to have possession of them.” 

In Rangaswami v. T.V. Krishnan, 2011-1 CC 832, it is observed that ‘proper custody means custody of an individual connected with deed and its possession does not excite any fraud or suspicion’.

END NOTE III Proof of TRUTH, Invoking Presumptions

S. 114 Permits Presumptions on truth & due execution; Both are Independent

Presumptions under Sec. 114 can be on due execution of a document or truth of its contents. Both can be presumed under Sec. 114. And, both these presumptions are independent also. Presumption as to ‘truth‘ of Contents is dealt with in the (main) section. Illustrations dealt with (mainly) presumptions on due execution.

‘Regularity’ in Illus. (e) is not exactly presumption as to ‘truth‘ of Contents

Illustration (e) of Sec. 114, Evd. Act, demonstrates that presumption as to ‘regularity’ can be invoked on Judicial and official acts, in proper cases. ‘Regularity’ in Illustration (e) is not exactly the presumption as to ‘correctness or truth‘.

For presumption on truth, we have to resort main section, Sec. 114

For such presumption, we have to resort the main section, Sec. 114 – that is, ‘common course of natural events’, ‘human conduct’, etc..

In Inder Singh v. S. Raghbir Singh, AIR 1978 P&H 98, it is observed as under:

  • “The principle is that an official record, kept by a person, upon whom there is a public duty to make entries in it only after satisfying himself of the truth of those entries, is presumed to be correct. Such a document itself is evidence of the truth of its contents unless and until its falsity can be demonstrated by any of the various methods by which the evidentiary value of any public book, register or document may be attacked.”

Do Presumptions as to VALID EXECUTION Import TRUTH of Contents?

Under Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act, court can presume the existence of any fact.

The Indian Evidence Act does not specifically correlate Truth of Contents or “correctness” with ‘presumption’. But, ‘any fact’ stated in Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act (Court may presume the existence of any fact) includes ‘Truth of Contents‘. As shown above, it is clear from the Stroud’s Legal Dictionary that presumption is a probable consequence drawn from facts as to the truth of a fact alleged. It is clear that, in presumption, the existence or truth of a fact, otherwise doubtful, is inferred from certain other proved facts. Here, the Court exercises a process of reasoning and reach a logical conclusion as the most probable position (See: St. of West Bengal Vs. Mir Mohammad Omar, AIR 2000 SC 2988).

In proper cases, the court can infer ‘truth (over and above) presumption as to VALID EXECUTION. Presumption as to VALID EXECUTION  & CORRECTNESS to registration, need not always lead to further Presumption as to ‘truth’ of contents.

  • See: Vimal Chand Ghevarchand Jain v. Ramakant Eknath Jajoo, (2009) 5 SCC 713.

Read Blog: Presumptions on Documents & Truth of Contents

Burden of Proof and Presumption

The party in whom the ‘burden of proof’ rests can rely on ‘registration certificate’ as proof and truth of the contents of the deed. Therefore, the certificate endorsed on a registered deed by the registering officer is a relevant piece of evidence for proving its execution (Piara v. Fatnu, AIR 1929 Lah 711).

As shown above, besides the presumption on a registered document that it is validly executed, there is also a presumption that the “transaction is a genuine one” (Vimal Chand Ghevarchand Jain v. Ramakant Eknath Jajoo, 2009- 5 SCC 713; Jamila Begum v. Shami Mohd., AIR 2019 SC 72) . Thereby the onus of proof, thus, would be on a person who questions the same. And, there will be no requirement to “prove the truth of contents” as regards a Will; and, proof of its execution alone will be sufficient.

END NOTE IV Construction of Wills

Sec. 100 of Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 100. Saving of provisions of Indian Succession Act relating to wills.––Nothing in this Chapter contained shall be taken to affect any of the provisions of the Indian Succession Act, 1865 (10 of 1865) as to the construction of wills

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Easement by Prescription – Grant or ‘Acquiring’ by “Hostile Act”

Jojy George Koduvath.

Abstract

Abstract
•➧  The basis of every right of easement is theoretically a grant.
•➧  In easement by prescription, Easement is ‘acquired’ by ‘adverse/notorious’ user.
•➧ Is there an incongruity?
•➧  The answer would be that the ‘grant’ herein is only an (abstract) “presumption in law”; and virtually, easement by prescription is acquired by hostile and/or notorious acts.

Methods of Acquisition of Easements

The Indian Easements Act, 1882 deals with different methods of acquiring easements. They are (Ramkanya Bai v. Jagdish, AIR 2011 SC 3258) –

  1. easements by grantexpress grant by the owner of the servient heritage
  2. easements of necessity: based on implied grants or reservations made by the owner of a servient heritage at the time of transfers or partitions
  3. easements by prescription: that it is presumed to be acquired by peaceable and open enjoyment, without interruption for twenty years and
  4. customary easements: it is inferred to be acquired by virtue of a local custom.

For easement by prescription, it is not necessary that the user should be exclusive, but the claimant should exercise it under some claim that exists in his own favour, independent of all others.

‘Grant’ in Law

Grant is a generic term to mean ‘transfer’ of rights in immovable property (e.g., sale, gift, lease, easement etc.). It also indicates, present, aid, help etc., and the act of a settlor of trust, or of donor of a charity.

  • But, in judicial parlance, the word ‘grant’ will not manifest the idea of an absolute ‘transfer’ of property; and it stands for a concession, permission, settlement, grant of easement etc. Grant, in its very basic-sense, connotes or imply a contract between two parties.
  • It is also a technical term to denote conditional-transfer of lands by sovereign especially when it is purposefully used to differentiate from ‘transfer’ of property.
  • Grant is more than a licence (which does not create an estate or interest) and less than an outright and unconditional ‘transfer’ of property (similar to sale, dedication, gift etc.).

Characteristics of ‘Grant’

  • Usually it denotes a grant by deed.
  • It can be with or without consideration.
  • Unless specifically specified, it is creation of an ‘interest’ in property. 
  • As long as the conditions are fulfilled, grant is usually irrevocable.
  • Conditions can also be fixed to limit the period of grant.
  • Inferior interest, out of an interest retained by the grantor, e.g. the grant of a lease of land by the person holding the freehold. (Collins Dictionary of Law).

‘Grant’ – Salmond on Jurisprudence

What is ‘grant’ is stated in Salmond’s Jurisprudence, 12th Edition, at pages 338-339, under the heading ‘The Classes of Agreements’, as under:

  • • “…. A contract is an agreement which creates an obligation or a right in Personam between the parties to it. A grant is an agreement which creates a right of any other description; examples being grants of leases, easements, charges, patents, franchises, licences and so forth. An agreement which transfers a right may be termed generically an assignment. On which extinguishes a right is a release, discharge, or surrender.” (Quoted in H. Anraj v. Government of Tamil Nadu  (& Shri Dipak Dhar v. The State of West Bengal), AIR 1986 SC 63: (1986) 1 SCC 414.)

Grant by a Co-owner

Grant effected by a co-owner with the consent of other co-owners, or validated by their approval or ratification, alone will be valid. In proper cases such consent or ratification may be presumed.

Grant of Land by Government

The lands granted continue to be lands belonging to the Government and the grantees did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the granted area under the grant. We can see the ‘conditions’ of deeds under which the grants were made by the Travancore government in the following decisions-

  • State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272
  • Kannan Devan Hills Produce v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301
  • State of Kerala v. The Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co.,  AIR 1998 Ker 267

See also:

  • Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86. This decision gives us “illuminative information as to the concept of ‘jenmom’ as pointed out in Harrisons Malayalam Limited v. State of Kerala, 2018 2 KHC 719; 2018 2 KLT 369 – though this decision was overruled by the larger Bench in Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez Vs. Albert Fernandez, AIR 1971 Ker 168 :1971 KLT 216).

“Basis of Every Right of Easement Is, Theoretically, a Grant”

The origin of all easements is, theoretically, grant by the servient owner. It may be express or implied. It may also be presumed from long user. It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user. In the case of an express grant of easement the limit thereof depends on the words used.”

In Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89, it is held as under:

  • “The basis of every right of easement by whatsoever method it may have been acquired, is theoretically a grant from the servient-owner.
    • It may be expressed, as is mentioned in Sections 8 to 12 of the Act, orit may be implied from the circumstances as in Section 13 of the Act. or it may be presumed from long and continued user for a certain period as in Section 15 of the Act, or
    • it may be inferred from a long and continued practice of user by a certain class of the public in certain locality.” 

Lost Grant

In Easements Act by Dr. Karandikar & Chitaley at Page 425, note 20 (Title by lost grant), it is observed as follows:

  • “(2) The evidence from which a lost grant may be inferred is not very different from the evidence on which a claim for a prescriptive easement may be established.
  • (3) (Drainage system of defendant’s building connected with sewer line of plaintiff’s building – Right claimed by defendant exercised secretly – Held, right was not proved.) The presumption of lost grant may be negatived by showing legal incompetence as regards owner of the servient tenement to grant an easement or a physical incapacity of being obstructed as regard the easement itself or an uncertainty or secrecy of enjoyment putting out of the category of all known easements.
  • (4) Where the plaintiff did make out a case of user from time immemorial in the plaint a decree could be granted on the basis of lost grant.
  • (5) Acquisition of easement by immemorial user based on doctrine of lost grant can be claimed when dominant and servient tenements are held under same landlord.
  • (6) Proof of the origin of right or by such proof of long & uninterrupted usage as in the absence of a documentary title will suffice to establish a prescriptive right.” (Quoted in Varghese v. Jose Mathew, 2014-3 Ker LT 1065).

Halsbury’s Laws – Prescription based on presumed grant

In Halsbury’s Laws of England Vol 16(2) at Page 42, paragraph 76, it is observed as follows:

  • “76. Prescription based on presumed grant. The doctrine of prescription generally is based upon the presumption of a grant, the common law doctrine being that all prescription presupposes a grant once made and validly subsisting, but since lost or destroyed. The other forms of prescription are merely modifications of this doctrine. The presumption in the former instance of such a grant arises under the doctrine of prescription from the fact of enjoyment of the right. It therefore follows that a right claimed by prescription must be such that it could have formed the subject matter of a grant. Nothing which cannot have had a lawful beginning can be claimed by prescription. Recourse can only be had to the doctrine of prescription in cases where a grant of the right is not forthcoming, for prescription has no place if a grant is proved and its terms are known“. (Quoted in Varghese v. Jose Mathew, 2014-3 Ker LT 1065).

Easement is Acquired; Not arise out of ‘Express Permission’

Sec. 12, Easements Act states that an easement is acquired by the owner of an immovable property. It is observed by the Apex Court in Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103, that the claimant of easement (prescription) should plead and prove that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any agreement with the owner of the property over which the right is claimed, as any user with the express permission of the owner will be a licence and not an easement. 

Prescriptive easement is created by adverse user, by the hostile use

It is held in Kantaben Parsottamdas v. Ganshyambhai Ramkrishan Purohit, AIR 2022  Guj  146, as under:

  • “15. It is pertinent to note that the prescriptive easement is created by adverse user, by the hostile use to the title of servient owner, whereas easement of necessity is based upon the grant either express or implied.”

Easement by Prescription – ‘Acquires’ by “Hostile or Notorious Act

Chapsibhai Dhanjibhai Danad vs Purushotram, 1971 AIR 1878, it was pointed out as under:

  • “In Ravachand v. Maniklal (ILR 1946 Bom. 184), it was held that an easement by prescription under ss. 12 and 15 of the Act is in fact an assertion of a hostile claim of certain rights over another man’s property and in order to acquire the easement the person who asserts the hostile claim must prove that he had the consciousness to exercise that hostile claim on a property which is not his own and where no such consciousness is proved he cannot establish a prescriptive acquisition of the fight.”

In Raychand Vanmalidas vs Maneklal Mansukhbhai, (1946) 48 BomLR 25, it was held as under:

  • “In any case it must be shown that the right was enjoyed as an easement, that is, as an assertion of a hostile claim of certain limited rights over somebody else’s property. Such an assertion cannot be held proved without satisfactory proof of the requisite consciousness. Prescriptive easement, as opposed to easement by grant, is always hostile. It is in fact an assertion of a hostile claim of certain rights over another man’s property and as such it resembles in some respects the claim to ownership by adverse possession of property; both are of hostile origin and are, therefore, prescriptive rights obtained by adverse enjoyment for a certain period, the difference being that while in the case of adverse possession the possessor must assert his own ownership, in the case of easement he must assert limited rights of user on a property and acknowledge its ownership in some one else. It must, therefore, follow, in my opinion, that a person who asserts such a hostile claim must prove that he had the consciousness of exercising that hostile claim on a property which is not his own, and where no such consciousness is proved, he cannot prove the prescriptive acquisition of the right”.

Easement by prescription is ‘acquired’ by ‘prescriptive’ user. It should not have been by permission or agreement. In case of easement, law requires pleading and proof – that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any express permission (Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103).

It is held in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 62, that the acquisition of easement by prescription may be classified under the head of implied grant; for, all prescription presupposes a grant.

Easement-by-Prescription – ‘Grant’or Acquisition by “Hostile or Notorious Act

The basis of every right of easement is theoretically a grant from the servient-owner. Grant is presumed in easement by prescription, from long and continued user. Is there incongruity (in easement by prescription) between ‘grant’ (on one part) and ‘acquisition’ of easement by “prescription” which suggests ‘adverse’ and ‘hostile or notorious’ user (on the other part)?

  • The answer would be that the ‘grant’ herein is only a “presumption in law”; and virtually, easement by prescription has to be acquired by hostile and/or notorious acts.

Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v. Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109 lays down the legal position accepted by Indian law, clearly, as under:

  • “The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Read Blog: One year ‘Interruption’ will not affect Prescriptive Easement

Should Date of Beginning of 20 Years be pleaded?

In Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, (2005) 1 SCC 471, it was pointed out as follows:

  • “In order to establish a right by way of prescription to the detriment of the other party, one has to show that the incumbent has been using the land as of right peacefully and openly and without any interruption for the last 20 years. There should be specific pleadings and categorical evidence in general and specifically that since what date to which date one is using the access for the last 20 years.”

Kerala High Court, in Soman Nair v. Manoj Kumar, 2014 (P. Bhavadasan, J.) distinguished the decision Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, observing as under:

  • “12. A reading of the decision reported in Justiniano Antao’s case (cited supra) would reveal that the dictum has to be read in the context of facts of the case. That was a case where the Apex Court found that till 1984, the claimant was using another way and only thereafter the claim over the way through servient tenement was made. A vague assertion had been made in the said case that the pathway has been used for a long time. It was under those circumstances, the Apex Court had occasion to hold as mentioned above.
  • 13. In the case on hand, the definite pleading as could be culled out from the written statement and counter claim is that defendants as well as their predecessors-in-interest have been using the pathway in question for a long time in fact for more than 30 years and this is only means of access  to their property.”

Pappachan v. Alex, ILR 2023-3 Ker 523; 2023-5 KHC 10, distinguished the decision Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, observing as under:

  • “24. In Justiniano Antao (supra) there was no pleading by the plaintiff that she used the pathway in question for a period of 20 years. Holding that in the absence of such a pleading which is elementary and essential to claim a prescriptive easement right, the Apex Court held that the date from which the right of way was started to use should have been pleaded. The pleadings set forth by the appellants in this case certainly constitute sufficient pleadings to claim easement by prescription. It is true that they did not plead as to from which date they started using that pathway. They, however, pleaded that for the last more than 35 years they have been using that pathway. In the light of such a specific pleadings the law laid down in Justiniano Antao [(2005) 1 SCC 471] does not disentitle the appellants from claiming the relief.”

Will Easement of Necessity  (implied grant) Ripen into a Prescriptive Easement?

In other words-

  • Can one claim ‘easement of necessity’ and ‘easement by prescription’ with respect to a (same) way?  
  • Does a way  that started with minimum width (say a foot-path) under the claim ‘easement of necessity’, and continued with a higher width (so that cars can be taken), in the course of time,  for more than 20 years, will yield or bring-in ‘easement by prescription’?

We find answer in negative in Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v, Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109. It is held as under:

  • “10. However, a way of necessity is distinguished from the right of way acquired by prescription and cannot ripen into a prescriptive easement so long as the necessity continues. A way of necessity arises by virtue of conditions entirely different from easement of way created by prescription. The former arises by implication of law out of the necessities of the case and is based upon principle of law which negative the existence of a way by continuous adverse user. The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Conclusion

Easement is a legal right engrossed in the Easement Act. The doctrines propounded in common law as well as fundamental principles of ‘justice, equity and good conscience’ guided the formulation of the substratum of the Act. (These principles being legislated in law, all concerned are bound by the same.) The codified Indian law of Easement enunciates that easement by prescription is ‘acquired’.

Read Blog: Will Easement of Necessity Ripen or Convert into a Prescriptive Easement?


Read Blogs:

Will Easement of Necessity Ripen or Convert into a Prescriptive Easement?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam

Will Easement of Necessity and Prescriptive Easement Co-exist?

In other words-

  • Can easement of necessity be converted into easement by prescription by 20 years user?
  • Can one claim ‘easement of necessity’ and ‘easement by prescription’ with respect to same way?  
  • Does a way  that started with minimum width (say a foot-path) under the claim ‘easement of necessity’, and continued with a higher width (so that cars can be taken), in the course of time,  for more than 20 years, will yield or bring-in ‘easement by prescription’?

‘Easement of necessity’ and ‘easement by prescription’ are mutually exclusive

As regards the question, whether it is possible to co-exist ‘easement of necessity’ and ‘easement by prescription’, the answer is in negative. It is for the following legal principles-

  • Easement of necessity (without which the land cannot be enjoyed) begins out of an implied grant or permission.
  • A prescriptive right cannot begin out of an implied grant or permission. (It arises by act of hostilities.)
  • E. by prescription cannot begin so long as e. of necessity exists or continues.
  • In law, easement of necessity begins out of an ‘implied’ grant; and easement by prescription begins out of an ‘inferred’ grant. Here, ‘implied’ grant implies “permission”; but, ‘inferred’ grant implies only a ‘legal connotation’, and never a “permission”.
  • A prescriptive right, in law, begins only out of an adverse user or on theory of the hostility (Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v, Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109).
  • Easement of necessity of a way will ‘continue’ up to (or, ends on) formation of another access (Section 41 of the Indian Easements Act).
  • The very claim by prescription and that of necessity are inconsistent (Nanjammal v. Marappa Gounder, 1998-1 MLJ 151; Periyanna Gounder v. Komarasami, 2000(1) MLJ 431).
  • The qualitative and quantitative requirement for the different kinds of easements are to a great extent mutually exclusive (Ibrahimkutty v. Abdul Rahumankunju,1992(2) Ker LT 775. See also: Devaki v. K Joshi, 2011, Kerala).
  • It, therefore, follows that a claim of easement of necessity and prescription cannot co-exist. Easement by prescription commences only when easement of necessity ends (Ibrahimkutty v. Abdul Rahumankunju,1992(2) Ker LT 775 . See also: Devaki v. K Joshi, 2011, Kerala).

E. of Necessity cannot ripen into e. by Prescription so long as Necessity Continues

In the light of the afore-stated legal principles, in Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v, Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109 it is held as under:

  • “10. However, a way of necessity is distinguished from the right of way acquired by prescription and cannot ripen into a prescriptive easement so long as the necessity continues. A way of necessity arises by virtue of conditions entirely different from easement of way created by prescription. The former arises by implication of law out of the necessities of the case and is based upon principle of law which negative the existence of a way by continuous adverse user. The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Should Date of Beginning of 20 Years be pleaded?

In Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, (2005) 1 SCC 471, it was pointed out as follows:

  • “In order to establish a right by way of prescription to the detriment of the other party, one has to show that the incumbent has been using the land as of right peacefully and openly and without any interruption for the last 20 years. There should be specific pleadings and categorical evidence in general and specifically that since what date to which date one is using the access for the last 20 years.”

Kerala High Court, in Soman Nair v. Manoj Kumar, 2014 (P. Bhavadasan, J.) distinguished the decision Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, observing as under:

  • “12. A reading of the decision reported in Justiniano Antao’s case (cited supra) would reveal that the dictum has to be read in the context of facts of the case. That was a case where the Apex Court found that till 1984, the claimant was using another way and only thereafter the claim over the way through servient tenement was made. A vague assertion had been made in the said case that the pathway has been used for a long time. It was under those circumstances, the Apex Court had occasion to hold as mentioned above.
  • 13. In the case on hand, the definite pleading as could be culled out from the written statement and counter claim is that defendants as well as their predecessors-in-interest have been using the pathway in question for a long time in fact for more than 30 years and this is only means of access  to their property.”

Pappachan v. Alex, ILR 2023-3 Ker 523; 2023-5 KHC 10, distinguished the decision Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, observing as under:

  • “24. In Justiniano Antao (supra) there was no pleading by the plaintiff that she used the pathway in question for a period of 20 years. Holding that in the absence of such a pleading which is elementary and essential to claim a prescriptive easement right, the Apex Court held that the date from which the right of way was started to use should have been pleaded. The pleadings set forth by the appellants in this case certainly constitute sufficient pleadings to claim easement by prescription. It is true that they did not plead as to from which date they started using that pathway. They, however, pleaded that for the last more than 35 years they have been using that pathway. In the light of such a specific pleadings the law laid down in Justiniano Antao [(2005) 1 SCC 471] does not disentitle the appellants from claiming the relief.”

Read Blogs:

Prescriptive Rights in Easements and Adverse Possession – Inchoate until Upheld by a Competent Court

Jojy George Koduvath, Kottayam

Contents

  • Introduction
  • PART I – Easement in Law
  • PART II – Adverse Possession
  • PART III – Prescriptive Rights – Inchoate until upheld by courts

Introduction

  • Application of ‘Prescriptive Rights’ arise in two main branches of law-
    • 1. In ‘easement by prescription’ and
    • 2. In claims on ‘adverse possession’.
  • Prescriptive Rights are Inchoate until Title thereof is Upheld by a Competent Court.
  • Declaration is necessary for claiming rights on Adverse Possession; but, a declaration is not necessary for claiming rights on easement.

PART I

“An Easement is a Right

  • Easement is a right possessed by the owner of a land (dominant land),
    • to use the land of another (servient land),
    • for the beneficial enjoyment of the (dominant) land.

Easement Does Not Confer Ownership or Possession

  • No Ownership is bestowed in the (servient) land (AIR 2004 All 359; AIR 1925 Bom 335).
  • No Possession obtained in the (servient) land. (2011 (2) KLT 605; AIR 1925 Bom 335).  
  • No Interest is created in the (servient) land. (2003 (1) KLT 320; AIR 1954 All 393).

Easement (सुखाधिकार) is Well Recognised; And Circumscribed by Law

  • Easement is a limited right to ‘use’or ‘enjoy‘ another’s land.
  • It is to do, or to prevent to do, some specific thing.
  • It is to be exercised in a way least onerous to ‘another’s land’.
  • It is not a right to build and enjoy.
  • The right gained cannot be enlarged or increased.
    • That is, an easement of way to a particular (dominant) property cannot be extended to another property by the dominant owner; an easement for residential purpose cannot be enlarged (or increased) for an industrial purpose.
  • Servient owner can use his land in any manner (without disturbing enjoyment of the easement).

According to ‘Katiyar on Easements’:                                                                   

  • Easement is not a right to land or exclude owner.
  • It is not a right to permanent occupation. 
  • It does not confer exclusive right of user/enjoyment.
  • And, it is not a corporeal interest in land.

Easement – Definition under the Indian Easements Act

SECTION 4 of the Indian Easements Act defines Easements as under:

  • “An easement is a right
  • which the owner or occupier of certain land possesses,
    • as such,
  • for the beneficial enjoyment of that land 
  • to do and continue to do something, or to prevent and continue to prevent something being done,
  • in or upon, or in respect of, certain other land not his own.”

Acquisition of Easements – “Basis of Every Right of Easement is Grant”

The Indian Easements Act, 1882 refers to the different methods by which easements are acquired. They are pointed out (Ramkanya Bai v. Jagdish, AIR 2011 SC 3258) to be the following:

  1. easements by grant: express grant by the owner of the servient heritage
  2. easements of necessity: based on implied grants or reservations made by the owner of a servient heritage at the time of transfers or partitions
  3. easements by prescription: it is presumed that it is acquired by peaceable and open enjoyment, without interruption for twenty years and
  4. customary easements: it is inferred that it is acquired by virtue of a local custom.

For easement by prescription, it is not necessary that the user should be exclusive, but the claimant should exercise it under some claim existing in his own favour independently of all others.

The origin of all easements is, theoretically, grant by the servient owner. It may be express or implied. It may also be presumed from long user. It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user. In the case of an express grant of easement the limit thereof depends on the words used.”

In Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89, it is held as under:

The basis of every right of easement is theoretically a ‘grant’ from the servient-owner.

  • It may be expressed, as in Sections 8 to 12 of the Act; or
  • it may be implied from the circumstances as in Section 13 of the Act; or
  • it may be presumed from long and continued user for a certain period as in Section 15 of the Act; or
  • it may be inferred from a long and continued practice of user by a certain class of the public in certain locality.

For easement by prescription, it is not necessary that the user should be exclusive, but the claimant should exercise it under some claim existing in his own favour independently of all others.

Salient Limitations of Easement under the Indian Easements Act

  • The owner of a land only ‘uses’or ‘enjoys‘ another’s land (Sec. 31)
  • Only ‘enjoyment’ of soil or things ‘subsisting’ (Explanation in Sec. 4).
  • Limited enjoyment of (a) land & (b) advantages from its situation: S. 7
  • Right be exercised in a way least onerous to ‘another’s land’: Sec. 22
  • Secure full enjoyment; cause as little inconvenience: S. 24: 2017-2 KLT 63

It is Not a right to:                                            

  • tend to total destruction of servient tenement: S. 17 (2003 (1) KLT320)
  • make additional burden: S. 23
  • make constructions in, or cultivate upon: (2003 (1) KLT 320).
  • prevent servient owner to use: S. 27 : 2003 (1) KLT 320
  • enlarge purpose of, or accustomed, user: S. 28
  • substantially increase an easement: S. 29
  • prevent servient owner from obstructing excessive  ‘user’ of servient land – as ‘enjoyment of easement’: S. 31
  • increase burden by making permanent change in do. tent: S. 43
  • capable of forming grant – No easement, if Not capable of forming grant (without document or registration): 1987 (2) KLT 1037.

No easement if:

  • right claimed is incidents of ownership.
  • servient property belongs to him. Easement is a right with conscious knowledge that the servient property does not belong to him. AIR 1966 Raj 265. It must also be with proper animus as to easement: AIR 1973 Mad 173.

Read Blog: Easement Simplified

Easement by Prescription is Acquired; not arise out of ‘Express Permission’

Sec. 12, Easements Act states that an easement is acquired by the owner of an immovable property. It is observed by the Apex Court in Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103, that the claimant of easement (by prescription) should plead and prove that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any agreement with the owner of the property over which the right is claimed, as any user with the express permission of the owner will be a licence and not an easement. 

Prescriptive easement is created by adverse user, by the hostile use

It is held in Kantaben Parsottamdas v. Ganshyambhai Ramkrishan Purohit, AIR 2022  Guj  146, as under:

  • “15. It is pertinent to note that the prescriptive easement is created by adverse user, by the hostile use to the title of servient owner, whereas easement of necessity is based upon the grant either express or implied.”

PART II

Adverse Possession – ‘Evolving’ Concept

Adverse possession being essentially a judge-made law, and not exhaustively defined in any statute, the concept of adverse possession has been ‘evolving’. It is interesting to note that there were divergent views even with respect to the very fundamentals of ‘adverse possession’.

Earlier view – Inaction of true-owner matters (not overt-acts of trespasser) 

At one time it was considered that inaction/acquiescence of the true owner for 12 years brings-in adverse possession. Because,

  • Article 65, which speaks of as to limitation of suits (to be filed by the plaintiffs) does not specifically speak as to (i)  intention to dispossess title owner or (ii) knowledge on the part of trespasser as to who is the true owner.
  • “Nec vi, nec clam, nec precario” does not refer to (or speak as to) ‘hostile’ possession
  • “Animus possidendi” also does not say – hostile possession.
  • Inaction, acquiescence etc. of true owner are the material considerations – to become a ‘possession’ adverse to plaintiff.
  • Therefore, to attract adverse possession the trespasser need not know the true owner.

Philosophy of the earlier view can be seen from Amrendra Pratap Singh v. Tej Behadur (Para 22 – AIR 2004 SC 3782)

  • “What is adverse possession? ………The process of acquisition of title by adverse possession springs into action essentially by default or inaction of the owner. ……… The law does not intend to confer any premium on the wrong doing of a person in wrongful possession; it pronounces the penalty of extinction of title on the person who though entitled to assert his right and remove the wrong doer and re-enter into possession, has defaulted and remained inactive for a period of 12 years, which the law considers reasonable for attracting the said penalty. ………..”

Present view – Give prominence to overt and adverse acts of trespasser. 

Following are the important decisions to see the present view on adverse possession:

  1. Karnataka Board of Wakaf v. Govt of India, AIR 2004 SC 2096
  2. T. Anjanappa v. Somalingappa, (2006) 7 SCC 570]
  3. PT Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, AIR 2007 SC 1753
  4. Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit Kaur,AIR 2019 SC 3827: (2019) 8 SCC 729

PT Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, AIR 2007 SC 1753, is the latest decision of the Supreme Court that discussed various views on adverse possession. It is observed in this decision as under:

  • “Adverse possession in one sense is based on the theory or presumption that the owner has abandoned#* the property to the adverse possessor on the acquiescence of the owner to the hostile acts and claims of the person in possession. It follows that sound qualities of a typical adverse possession lie in it being open, continuous and hostile.”
  • Thus, there must be intention to dispossess. And it needs to be open and hostile enough to bring the same to the knowledge and plaintiff has an opportunity to object.

Thereafter it was emphasised as under:

  • “Therefore, to assess a claim of adverse possession, two-pronged enquiry is required:
  • 1. Application of limitation provision thereby jurisprudentially “willful neglect” element on part of the owner established. Successful application in this regard distances the title of the land from the paper-owner.
  • 2. Specific Positive intention to dispossess on the part of the adverse possessor effectively shifts the title already distanced from the paper owner, to the adverse possessor. Right thereby accrues in favour of adverse possessor as intent to dispossess is an express statement of urgency and intention in the upkeep of the property.”

Read Blog: Adverse Possession: An Evolving Concept

U.N. Mitra, in the “Law of Limitation and Prescription” (Tagore Law Lectures – 12th Edition, Vol.2, Page 1430) it is stated as under:

  • “A squatter is one who settles on land without title or with a view to acquiring title. He is a person who settles or locate on land enclosed or unenclosed with no bona fide claim or colour of title and without consent of the owner. He is merely an intruder and no matter how long he may continue there, no right in law vests in him. A squatter who does not set up a claim of right cannot plead adverse possession. No length of squatting possession would operate as a good or valid defence in a suit for possession by the true owner. A mere squatter or intruder who does not deny the title of the true owner or set up any right in himself cannot claim to be in adverse possession. ………” (Quoted in: K.J. Abraham v. Mrs. Mariamma Itty, ILR 2016-3 Ker 98)

In a nutshell, adverse possession arises from:

  1. acquiescence of the owner to the hostile acts; and
  2. hostile acts of the trespasser.

PART III

Prescriptive Rights – Inchoate until the title is upheld by a competent court

No doubt, it is true, one can acquire right of easement or adverse possession by prescription. But, prescriptive rights are said to be inchoate (started; but, not full-blown) until the such title is declared or upheld by a competent court.

It was observed in Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227, that the result of the Easements Act and the similar provisions of the Limitation Act was that a right of easement could not be said to be perfected until the right was declared by a decree of court.

  • Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227 is referred to in:
  • Nachiparayan v. Narayana Goundan, (1920): 60 Ind Cas 171, (1920) 39 MLJ 574;
  • Arjuna Udayar v. Manuswamy Naicker, 1999-1 CurCC 97.
  • See also: Tradesh and Miners, Ltd v. Dhirendra Nath Banerjee, AIR 1944 Pat 261.

In Siti Kantapal v. Radha Gobindaen, AIR 1929 Cal 542, it was held as under:

  • “It has been authoritatively held that a tie to easement is not complete merely upon the effluxion of the period mentioned in the Statute viz., 20 years and that however long the period of actual enjoyment may be, no absolute or indefeasible right can be acquired until the right is brought in question in some suit, and until it is so brought in question, the right is inchoate only and in order to establish it when brought in question, the enjoyment relied on, must be an enjoyment for 20 years up to within 2 years of the institution of the suit.” (Quoted in – D. Ramanatha Gupta vs S. Razaack, AIR 1982 Kant 314.)

In Ramanunni Vaidyar v. Govindankutty Nair, 1998(2) Ker LT 47, it is found that a person who has not acquired or perfected a right cannot maintain an action against the owner of the land over which the right is claimed. It is held as under:

  • In my view, on the basis of an inchoate right or a right which has not ripened into an easement by prescription, but is merely one of user, no relief can be granted to the user of them as against the owner of that land. In other words, a right, properietory or otherwise, has to be shown for obtaining relief (Krishna Pillai v.Kunju Pillai 1990 (1) KLT 136, referred to).

S. 27,  Lim. Act Gives Substantive Right – One Can Seek Declaration and Recovery

Generally speaking, the Limitation Act only bars the remedy but doesn’t destroy the right to which the remedy relates to. The exception to the general rule is contained in Section 27 of the Limitation Act, 1963.

Sec. 27 of the Limitation Act speaks that at the determination of the period “hereby limited to any person for instituting a suit for possession of any property”, his right to such property shall be extinguished.

The Limitation Act is an Act of repose. “Adverse possession statutes, like other statutes of limitation, rest on a public policy that do not promote litigation and aim at the repose of conditions that the parties have suffered to remain unquestioned long enough to indicate their acquiescence.” (See: PT Munichikkanna Reddy and others v. Revamma, (2007) 6 SCC 59: AIR 2007 SC 1753)

Adverse possession confers title under Sec. 27 (by necessary implication, because extinguished title of real owner comes to vest in wrongdoer – because, rights thereon had already been lost to the true owner, and passed over to the ‘possessory/adverse’ owner).

Therefore it is clear that Sec. 27 is a provision in the Limitation Act that gives a substantial right to a party. In view of Sec. 27 one can seek declaration of title by adverse possession and consequential injunction or recovery. That is why it is held in Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit Kaur,  AIR 2019 SC 3827: (2019) 8 SCC 729, that the person acquiring title by adverse possession can use it as a sword.

Plea of title and adverse possession – Whether Mutually Contradictory?

In Government of Kerala v. Joseph, AIR 2023 SC 3988, it is held as under: 

  • “21.9 Claim of independent title and adverse possession at the same time amount to contradictory pleas. The case of Annasaheb Bapusaheb Patil v. Balwant, (1995) 2 SCC 543 elaborated this principle as:
  • “15. Where possession can be referred to a lawful title, it will not be considered to be adverse. The reason being that a person whose possession can be referred to a lawful title will not be permitted to show that his possession was hostile to another’s title. One who holds possession on behalf of another, does not by mere denial of that other’s title make his possession adverse so as to give himself the benefit of the statute of limitation. Therefore, a person who enters into possession having a lawful title, cannot divest another of that title by pretending that he had no title at all.”
  • This principle was upheld in the case of Mohan Lal v. Mirza Abdul Gaffar (AIR 1996 SC 910, 1996 1 SCC 639 – two Judge Bench) –
  • “4. As regards the first plea, it is inconsistent with the second plea. Having come into possession under the agreement, he must disclaim his right thereunder and plead and prove assertion of his independent hostile adverse possession to the knowledge of the transferor or his successor in title or interest and that the latter had acquiesced to his illegal possession during the entire period of 12 years, i.e., up to completing the period of his title by prescription nec vi, nec clam, nec precario. Since the appellant’s claim is founded on Section 53-A, it goes without saying that he admits by implication that he came into possession of the land lawfully under the agreement and continued to remain in possession till date of the suit. Thereby the plea of adverse possession is not available to the appellant.”
  • The Court in Uttam Chand (Sri Uttam Chand v.  Nathu Ram AIR 2020 SC 461) has reiterated this principle of adverse possession.”

(Note: Mutually destructive plea is impermissible: (2006) 12  SCC 233, AIR 2009 SC 2355).

Is declaration necessary for claiming Easement?

No.

Sec. 35 Easement Act allows to file a suit if the easement is disturbed (without making ground thereof by establishing the right by a ‘declaration’). See: Unnikrishnan v. Ponnu Ammal: AIR 1999 Ker 405.

Sec. 35 Easement Act reads as under:

  • 35. Injunction to restrain disturbance – Subject to the provisions of the Specific Relief Act, 1877 (1 of 1877)1, sections 52 to 57 (both inclusive), an injunction may be granted to restrain the disturbance of an easement
    • if the easement is actually disturbed – when compensation for such disturbance might be recovered under this Chapter;
    • if the disturbance is only threatened or intended – when the act threatened or intended must necessarily, if performed, disturb the easement.

Is declaration necessary for claiming Adverse Possession?

Yes.

Declaration is, mainly, to make clear what is doubtful – as to legal character and title. ILR 1970-2 (Del) 433: Eg. Suit by trespasser claiming adverse possession: Darshan Kumari v. Kaushalya Devi: 1990 JKLR 208; 1991 Kash LJ 1 (R.P. Sethi, J) for dispelling cloud: AIR 1953 (Gau) 162.

Declaration is held to be needed in the following circumstances:

  1. For establishing or restoring the deprived rights or as introductory/ preliminary to grant (1) Injunction or (2) Recovery (Mohd. Manjural Haque v. Bisseswara Banerjee, AIR 1943 Cal 361; Unnikrishnan v. Ponnu Ammal: 1999-1 KLT 298: AIR 1999 Ker 405)
  2. When serious denial or cloud on title (or right): Anathula: AIR 2008 SC 2033
  3. Asserted title or civil right is not clear, simple and straight-forward; or, not well-established (lawful possession). Make clear what is doubtful – as to legal character and title. ILR 1970-2 (Del) 433: Eg. Suit by trespasser claiming adverse possession: Darshan Kumari v. Kaushalya Devi: 1990 JKLR 208; 1991 Kash LJ 1 (R.P. Sethi, J) for dispelling cloud: AIR 1953 (Gau) 162.
  4. Complicated or complex questions of fact and law to be ‘adjudicated’ (Anathula: 2008 SC 2033)
  5. Insurmountable obstacle – Md. Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Raifunnisa : (1996) 7 SCC 767; Chellakannuv. Kolanji (R. Banumathi, J.), AIR 2005 Mad 405.
  6. When the defendant raises a genuine dispute with regard to title and when he raises a cloud over the title of the plaintiff: Jharkhand State Housing Board v. Didar Singh , (2019) 17 SCC 692 . Referred to in: Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji vs Maniben Jagmalbhai: 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258.
  7. When a title dispute exists; and plaintiff himself elaborated the same in the plaint. A. Subramanian v. R. Pannerselvam, AIR 2021 SC 821.
  8. In Sudhakara Reddy v. Lakshmamma, 2014 (4) ALT 404, 2011 (4) ALD 325 (DB), the High Court found fault with the lower courts for framing an issue so as to embrace a declaration (as to cancellation of a deed) in the suit seeking injunction simpliciter.

Should Date of Beginning of 20 Years be pleaded?

In Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, (2005) 1 SCC 471, it was pointed out as follows:

  • “In order to establish a right by way of prescription to the detriment of the other party, one has to show that the incumbent has been using the land as of right peacefully and openly and without any interruption for the last 20 years. There should be specific pleadings and categorical evidence in general and specifically that since what date to which date one is using the access for the last 20 years.”

Kerala High Court, in Soman Nair v. Manoj Kumar, 2014 (P. Bhavadasan, J.) distinguished the decision Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, observing as under:

  • “12. A reading of the decision reported in Justiniano Antao’s case (cited supra) would reveal that the dictum has to be read in the context of facts of the case. That was a case where the Apex Court found that till 1984, the claimant was using another way and only thereafter the claim over the way through servient tenement was made. A vague assertion had been made in the said case that the pathway has been used for a long time. It was under those circumstances, the Apex Court had occasion to hold as mentioned above.
  • 13. In the case on hand, the definite pleading as could be culled out from the written statement and counter claim is that defendants as well as their predecessors-in-interest have been using the pathway in question for a long time in fact for more than 30 years and this is only means of access  to their property.”

Pappachan v. Alex, ILR 2023-3 Ker 523; 2023-5 KHC 10, distinguished the decision Justiniano Antao v. Bernadette B. Pereira, observing as under:

  • “24. In Justiniano Antao (supra) there was no pleading by the plaintiff that she used the pathway in question for a period of 20 years. Holding that in the absence of such a pleading which is elementary and essential to claim a prescriptive easement right, the Apex Court held that the date from which the right of way was started to use should have been pleaded. The pleadings set forth by the appellants in this case certainly constitute sufficient pleadings to claim easement by prescription. It is true that they did not plead as to from which date they started using that pathway. They, however, pleaded that for the last more than 35 years they have been using that pathway. In the light of such a specific pleadings the law laid down in Justiniano Antao [(2005) 1 SCC 471] does not disentitle the appellants from claiming the relief.”

Dominant Owner  Cannot Dispute The Title Of The Servient Owner

It is trite law that the dominant owner  cannot dispute the title of the servient owner (Reghuprasad v. M.  Raghunathan, AIR 2020 Ker 16). 

In Omana v. Reji Kurian, AIR 2022 Ker 91, it is held (K. Babu, J.) as under:

  • “19. Yet another aspect that requires consideration is that the pleadings of the defendants in the written statement go in the line, denying the title of the plaintiff over the ‘B’ schedule way. One of the fundamental ingredients in a claim of easement is the admission of the title of the servient owner by the dominant owner. On this ground alone, the claim of the defendants over plaint ‘B’ schedule property by way of easement by prescription must fail.”

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End Notes:

When Injunction granted Without Declaration

  • Where title claimed by the defendant is Nullity, or Ab-initio void.
  • No serious cloud, but trespasser without any claim to title or an interloper without any apparent title, merely denies the plaintiff’s title. 
  • Established custom/customary-rights (Eg. Village pathway, Marumakkathayam) and suits on  settled common law propositions (right of access to the adjoining land from the highways).
  • By virtue of enacted provisions of law (Sp. Relief Act, Easements Act, Contract Act etc.)

Persons having clear title and possession suing for injunction, should not be driven to the costlier and more cumbersome remedy of a suit for declaration. (Anathula: 2008 SC 2033).

When Injunction is granted without declaration:

Relevant ActWhen Injunction or Recovery Granted Without Declaration
Sp. Relief Act
Sec. 34
1. Title: well established; clear,simple and straight-forward; or settled right (lawful possession) or Well established possession
2. No Substantial questions of fact and law exists (2017 -7 MLJ 627; 2005-4 MLJ 258): Unnikrishnan v. Ponnu Ammal: AIR 1999 Ker 405.
3. No serious denial or cloud(not any apparent defect) on title (or right):   Anathula: AIR 2008 SC 2033. (Such as settled or lawful possession: Anathula: AIR 2008 SC 2033; infringement of trade mark or copyright: 2004-3 SCC 90).
4. Void acts: 2000 SC 1099; 2009-4 KLT 840; (2002) 9 SCC 28; AIR 1977 SC 1718; 2013 SC 1226
5. Fraud on character of a document (not contents): Premsingh v. Birbal: (2006) 5 SCC 353
Sp. Relief Act
Sec. 38
Particular instances specified in Sec. 38 (2) & (3) of the Sp. Rlf. Act
1. Breach of Contractual obligations(including Bylaw provisions)
2. Trustee invades plaintiff’s right.                
3. No standard for ascertaining damages.
4. Compensation in money would not be adequate relief.
5. Necessary to prevent multiplicity of judicial proceedings.
SR Act: Sec. 41(h)Fiduciary obligation (attached to trust): 41(h).
..No lis (no dispute for defendant): 2010-168 DLT 132
Evd. Act, S. 57Facts judicially noticeable: Evd. Act, S. 57
Ease-ments
Act
Sec. 35
35. Injunction to restrain disturbance – Subject to the provisions of the Specific Relief Act, 1877 (1 of 1877)1, sections 52 to 57 (both inclusive), an injunction may be granted to restrain the disturbance of an easement-
(a) if the easement is actually disturbed – when compensation for such disturbance might be recovered under this Chapter;
(b) if the disturbance is only threatened or intended – when the act threatened or intended must necessarily, if performed, disturb the easement. (See: Unnikrishnan v. Ponnu Ammal: AIR 1999 Ker 405)
Contract Act
Sec. 74
Law confers a right; or, Right arises under an Act. (Eg. with expression “shall be void”):(2015)7 SCC 601; 2003 SC 4102 Sec. 74 Contract Act: while resisting a claim of return of advance or to support forfeiture of earnest money, the defendant can resist it without a counter claim. In Kailash Nath Associates v. Delhi Development Authority (2015) 4 SCC 136, it is held: “The Section applies whether a person is a plaintiff or a defendant in a suit.”
Common LawEstablished custom/customary-rights. Eg. Village pathway, Marumakkathayam. It is pointed out in KVK Janardhanan v. State of TN, AIR 1995 Mad 179, that it is a settled proposition –
“In a case of a public road or a cart track every public has got a right of access to the adjoining land. There is no need to ask for a declaration and if there is any obstruction they can ask for the relief of a mandatory injunction.”
Consti-tutionConstitutional right: Art. 19, 21, 300A etc.
Evd. ActEstoppel against defendant S. 115, 116 (tenant), 117 (licencee) Evd. Act
..Acquiescence against defendant
..Already declared (in earlier civil case).

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Read in this Cluster  (Click on the topic):

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Law on Documents

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Will

Arbitration

Divorce

Negotiable Instruments Act

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Religious issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Family Settlement or Family Arrangement in Law

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam

Abstract

  • Perquisites of Family Settlement or Family Arrangement are the following-
    • It must be to settle disputes among family members (and it is not applicable to dealings between strangers); or for maintaining the interest and peace of the members of the family.
    • It must be for fair distribution of property.
    • The parties thereto must have been entered into voluntarily.
  • Distinctive characteristics of Family Settlement or Family Arrangement-
    • Oral family settlement is valid.
    • Only those who have an antecedent title, claim, or interest in the property can enter into a family settlement.
    • If it does not create or extinguish rights, registration is not mandatory.
    • Family Arrangement would operate as an estoppel
  • Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, (1976) 3 SCC 119: AIR 1976 SC 807 is considered, in the subsequent decisions, as the leading Supreme Court decision that authoritatively laid down the essentials of Family Settlement or Family Arrangement.
  • In Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit Kaur, [2020] 9 SCC 706, it is held that it is not open to resile from the Family Settlement and the parties are estopped from contending to the contrary.

1. Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, the leading decision

It is held in Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, 1976-3 SCC 119, as under:

  • “10. In other words to put the binding effect and the essentials of a family settlement in a concretized form, the matter may be reduced into the form of the following propositions:
  • .(1) The family settlement must be a bona fide one so as to resolve family disputes and rival claims by a fair and equitable division or allotment of properties between the various members of the family;
  • .(2) The said settlement must be voluntary and should not be induced by fraud, coercion or undue influence;
  • .(3) The family arrangements may be even oral in which case no registration is necessary;
  • .(4) It is well settled that registration would be necessary only if the terms of the family arrangement are reduced into writing. Here also, a distinction should be made between a document containing the terms and recitals of a family arrangement made under the document and a mere memorandum prepared after the family arrangement had already been made either for the purpose of the record or for information of the Court for making necessary mutation. In such a case the memorandum itself does not create or extinguish any rights in immoveable properties and therefore does not fall within the mischief of Section 17(2) [Section 17(1)(b)?] of the Registration Act and is, therefore, not compulsorily registrable;
  • .(5) The members who may be parties to the family arrangement must have some antecedent title, claim or interest even a possible claim in the property which is acknowledged by the parties to the settlement. Even if one of the parties to the settlement has no title but under the arrangement the other party relinquishes all its claims or titles in favour of such a person and acknowledges him to be the sole owner, then the antecedent title must be assumed and the family arrangement will be upheld, and the Courts will find no difficulty in giving assent to the same;
  • .(6) Even if bona fide disputes, present or possible, which may not involve legal claims are settled by a bona fide family arrangement which is fair and equitable the family arrangement is final and binding on the parties to the settlement.” ( Quoted in: K Arumuga Velaiah v. P R Ramasamy, 2023-3 SCC 757)

Finally it was held as under:

  • “We would, therefore, return the reference with a statement of the following general propositions:
    • With reference to the first question:
  • (1) A family arrangement can be made orally.
  • (2) If made orally, there being no document, no question of registration arises.
    • With reference to the second question:
  • (3) If though it could have been made orally, it was in fact reduced to the form of a “document”, registration (when the value is Rs. 100 and upwards) is necessary.
  • (4) Whether the terms have been “reduced to the form of a document” is a question of fact in each case to be determined upon a consideration of the nature and phraseology of the writing and the circumstances in which and the purpose with which it was written.
  • (5) If the terms were not “reduced to the form of a document”, registration was not necessary ( even though the value is Rs. 100 or upwards); and, while the writing cannot be used as a document of title, it can be used as a piece of evidence for what it may be worth, e.g., as corroborative of other evidence or as an admission of the transaction or as showing or explaining conduct.
  • (6) If the terms were “reduced to the form of a document” and, though the value was Rs. 100 or upwards, it was not registered, the absence of registration makes the document inadmissible in evidence and is fatal to proof of the arrangement embodied in the document.
    • With reference to the third question:
  • (7) Where it has been found that there is not legally binding oral family arrangement, or that the arrangement, though reduced to writing with the intention that the document should be the document of title, cannot be proved for want of registration, and where no question of estoppel arises, the mere facts that mutation has taken place and that possession has been taken cannot remedy, by virtue of what is known to English law as the doctrine of “part performance”, the absence of registration.”

Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, 1976-3 SCC 119, is referred to in the following decisions:

  • K.  Arumuga Velaiah v. P. R.  Ramasamy, 2022-3 SCC 757
  • S.  Kuldeep Singh v. S.  Prithpal Singh, AIR 2022 SC 3967
  • Ripudaman Singh v. Tikka Maheshwar Chand, 2021-7 SCC 446
  • Khushi Ram v. Nawal Singh, AIR 2021 SC 1117
  • Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma, AIR 2020 SC 3717; 2020-9 SCC 1
  • Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit Kaur, AIR 2020 SC 3799; 2020-9 SCC 706

2. Family Arrangement is binding and operate as an Estoppel

It is held in Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, 1976-3 SCC 119, as under:

  • “The principle that there is no estoppel against the statute does not apply to the present case. Assuming, however, that the said document was compulsorily registrable the Courts have generally held that a family arrangement being binding on the parties to it would operate as an estoppel by preventing the parties after having taken advantage under the arrangement to resile from the same or try to revoke it.” (quoted and followed in Ravinder Kaur Grewal and Ors. v. Manjit Kaur and Ors., [2020] 9 SCC 706).

After referring various previous decisions [#] it was emphasised in Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, 1976-3 SCC 119, fixing the legal position, as under:

  • “This Court has also clearly laid down that a family arrangement being binding on the parties to the arrangement clearly operates as an estoppel so as to preclude any of the parties who have taken advantage under the agreement from revoking or challenging the same.” (followed in K Arumuga Velaiah v. PR Ramasamy, 2023-3 SCC 757)
    • [#] Ramgopal v. Tulshi Ram, AIR 1928 All 641,
    • Sitala Baksh Singh v. Jang Bahadur Singh, AIR 1933 Oudh 347,
    • Kalawati v. Sri Krlshna Prasad, ILR 19 Lucknow 57,
    • Bakhtawar v. Sunder Lal, AIR 1926 All. 173,
    • Awadh Narain Singh v. Narain Mishra, AIR 1962 Pat 400.

3. “Family” be understood in a wider sense

In Khushi Ram v. Nawal Singh, AIR 2021 SC 1117, it is observed as under:

  • “23. A Three Judge Bench in the celebrated judgment of this Court in kale and Ors. Vs. deputy director of Consolidation and Ors., (1976) 3 SCC 119, had elaborately considered all contours of the family settlement. This Court laid down that term “family” has to be understood in a wider sense so as to include within its fold not only close relations or legal heirs but even those persons who may have some sort of antecedent title, a semblance of a claim or even if they have a spes successionis.”

4. Does Family Arrangement Requires Registration

It is further held in K Arumuga Velaiah v. P R Ramasamy, 2023-3 SCC 757 as under:

  • “Ultimately, this Court held (in Kale v. Deputy Director of Consolidation) that the family arrangement in the nature of a compromise which was considered in that case did not require registration. It was further held that since the existence of the family arrangement was admitted in that case, the same was binding on the principle of estoppel. Also, even if the family arrangement could not be registered it could be used for collateral purpose, i.e. to show the nature and character of possession of the parties in pursuance of the family settlement and also for the purpose of applying the rule of estoppel which flowed from the conduct of the parties, who, having taken benefit under the settlement for seven years, later tried to resile from the settlement.”

Finally, on the facts of the case, referring previous decisions[#] it is held in K Arumuga Velaiah v. P R Ramasamy, 2023-3 SCC 757 as under:

  • “On a perusal of the award which is in the form of a resolution, it is clear that there was no right created in any specific item or asset of the joint family properties in any person but the parties resolved to take certain actions in pursuance of a family arrangement. Therefore under Annexure P­10 (Ex. B­13) there was no right created in favour of any party in any specific item of joint family property. The said document which has been styled as an award is, in our view, only a memorandum of understanding/family arrangement to be acted upon in future. Hence, in our considered view, the said document did not create rights in specific properties or assets of the family, in favour of specific persons. Therefore, the same did not require registration under section 17(1)(e) of the Act. The said document was in the nature of a document envisaged under section 17(2)(v) of the Act.”
    • [#] Bhoop Singh v. Ram Singh Major, 1995-5 SCC 709, and
    • Ravinder Kaur Grewalv. Manjit Kaur, 2020-9 SCC 706,
    • Ripudaman Singh v. Tikka Maheshwar Chand, 2021-7 SCC 446.

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Read in this Cluster  (Click on the topic):

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Law on Documents

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Will

Arbitration

Divorce

Negotiable Instruments Act

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Religious issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India