Vested interest and Contingent Interest

An Inquisition under Transfer of Property Act.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam

Section 19 & 21, TP Act

Section 19 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • 19. Vested interest.- Where, on a transfer of property , an interest therein is created in favour of a person without specifying the time when it is to take effect, or in terms specifying it is to take effect forthwith or on the happening of an event which must happen, such interest is vested, unless a contrary intention appears from the terms of the transfer.
  • A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession.
  • Explanation.- An intention that an interest shall not be vested is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the enjoyment thereof is postponed, or whereby a prior interest in the same property is given or reserved to some other person, or whereby income arising from the property is directed to be accumulated until the time of enjoyment arrives, or from a provision that if a particular event shall happen the interest shall pass to another person.”

Section 21 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • 21. Contingent interest.- Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, or if a specified uncertain event shall not happen, such person thereby acquires a contingent interest in the property. Such interest becomes a vested interest, in the former case, on the happening of the event, in the latter, when the happening of the event becomes impossible.”

See Blog for detailed analysis: Transfer of Property with Conditions & Contingent Interests

Instances of ‘vested rightand that on ‘condition’

Usually (absolute) vested right is invested in the following two circumstances:

  • Allow to enjoy property, absolutely, on attaining majority.
  • Absolutely giving property to one, subject to a right to enjoy for life of another.

Section 119 and 120  of the Indian Succession Act speaks about vesting of legacy.

Section 119  of the Indian Succession Act reads as follows:

  • “119. Date of vesting of legacy when payment or possession postponed – Whereby the terms of a bequest the legatee is not entitled to immediate possession of the thing bequeathed, a right to receive it at the proper time shall, unless a contrary intention appears by the will, become vested in the legatee on the testator’s death, and shall pass to the legatee’s representatives if he dies before that time and without having received the legacy, and in such cases the legacy is from the testator’s death said to be vested in interest.
  • Explanation : An intention that a legacy to any person shall not become vested in interest in him is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the payment or possession of the thing bequeathed is postponed, or whereby a prior interest therein is bequeathed to some  other person, or whereby the income arising from the fund bequeathed is directed to be accumulated until the time of payment arrives, or from a provision that, if a particular event shall happen, the legacy shall go over to another person”.

Section 120 of the Indian Succession Act reads as follows:

  • “120. Date of vesting when legacy contingent upon specified uncertain event. – (1) A legacy bequeathed in case a specified uncertain event shall happen does not vest until that event happens.
  • (2) A legacy bequeathed in case a specified uncertain event shall not happen does not vest until the happening of that event becomes impossible.
  • (3) In either case, until the condition has been fulfilled, the interest of the legatee is called contingent.
  • Exception. Where a fund is bequeathed to any person upon his attaining a particular age, and the will also gives to him absolutely the income to arise from the fund before he reaches that age, or directs the income, or so much of it as may be necessary, to be applied for his benefit, the bequest of the fund is not contingent.”

Even in cases of ‘Contingent interest’, Interest in praesenti may be created

In transfers with ‘contingent interest’, though the interest would take effect only after satisfying the condition, the transfer becomes effective immediately. Therefore, the interest created may be in praesenti with the condition; and on satisfying the condition, it becomes a vested interest.

In Arumugham Chettiar v. A. Vallinayagam Pillai, (1975) 2 MLJ 46, the point considered was whether ‘absolute’ rights had been given to Sivagnanathammal in the will so that subsequent direction in the will that the property will go to sons of Sivagnanathammal was repugnant and it could not at all be sustained. The Madras High Court held as under:

  • “I have been taken through Exhibit A-2 the will dated 12th June, 1931 created by Thiruvengadathammal. It is clear from paragraph 6 of the will that the suit properties have been absolutely given to the sons of Sivagnanathammal with a right to Sivagnanathammal to enjoy for life only the income from the properties without in any way encumbering the same. Thus, it is clear that the argument advanced by T.R. Mani as though absolute right has been given to Sivagnanathammal and that the subsequent direction in the will is repugnant, cannot at all be sustained.”

The court observed that a vested right being created absolutely on Surianarayana Chettiar, it was not ‘expectancy of succession by survivorship or other merely contingent or possible right or interest‘.



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Transfer of Property with Conditions & Contingent Interests

An Inquisition based on the Provisions of Transfer of Property Act.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Inquisition in a Nutshell

Inquisition (TP Act)Provision
TP Act
Answer in Nutshell
Can a property be transferred with conditions?Sec. 10Yes.
What all conditions will be void?Sec. 10 & 11Sec. 10Conditions that are ‘absolutely restraining‘ disposal of (his) interest.
Sec. 11 – Enjoyment ‘in a particular manner’.
What is ‘absolute restraint’?Sec. 10Absolutely restraining disposal of his interest.
What is the effect of ‘absolute restraint’?Sec. 10Condition, void.
What is the effect of ‘terms’ for enjoyment ‘in a particular manner’?Sec. 11Terms can be ignored.
What is Vested Interest?Sec. 19Interest is created ‘in praesenti‘.
What is Contingent Interest?Sec. 21Interest takes effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event.
What is Vested Remainder ?No provision in TP ActCreation of future interests .
What is Contingent Remainder?No provision in TP ActFuture interest created takes effect on termination of an estate.
What is preemption?.Right of Substitution – to rub out vendee’s name and substitute the preemptor’s name.

Law on Restrictions in Transfer of Property

Section 10 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • “10. Condition restraining alienation: Where property is transferred subject to a condition or limitation absolutely restraining the transferee or any person claiming under him from parting with or disposing of his interest in the property, the condition or limitation is void, except in the case of a lease where the condition is for the benefit of the lessor or those claiming under him:provided that property may be transferred to or for the benefit of a women (not being a Hindu, Muhammadan or Buddhist), so that she shall not have power during her marriage to transfer or charge the same or her beneficial interest therein.”

Section 11 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • 11. Restriction repugnant to interest created– Where transfer of property, an interest therein is created absolutely in favour of any person, but the terms of the transfer direct that such interest shall be applied or enjoyed by him in a particular manner, he shall be entitled to receive and dispose of such interest as if there were no such direction.
  • Where any such direction has been made in respect of one piece of immoveable property for the purpose of securing the beneficial enjoyment of another piece of such property, nothing in this section shall be deemed to affect any right which the transferor may have to enforce such direction or any remedy which he may have in respect of a breach thereof.

Section 19 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • 19. Vested interest.- Where, on a transfer of property , an interest therein is created in favour of a person without specifying the time when it is to take effect, or in terms specifying it is to take effect forthwith or on the happening of an event which must happen, such interest is vested, unless a contrary intention appears from the terms of the transfer.
  • A vested interest is not defeated by the death of the transferee before he obtains possession.
  • Explanation.- An intention that an interest shall not be vested is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the enjoyment thereof is postponed, or whereby a prior interest in the same property is given or reserved to some other person, or whereby income arising from the property is directed to be accumulated until the time of enjoyment arrives, or from a provision that if a particular event shall happen the interest shall pass to another person.”

Section 21 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • 21. Contingent interest.- Where, on a transfer of property, an interest therein is created in favour of a person to take effect only on the happening of a specified uncertain event, or if a specified uncertain event shall not happen, such person thereby acquires a contingent interest in the property. Such interest becomes a vested interest, in the former case, on the happening of the event, in the latter, when the happening of the event becomes impossible.”

PART – 1

Section 10 and 11, TP Act

Section 10 TP ActInstances of “Absolute Restraint” 

  • Sale or gift (transfer) – direction – transferee should not sell (absolute restraint) – void.
  • Sale or gift (transfer) – direction – transferee should sell to a particular person alone (in-effect absolute restraint) – void.
  • Sale or gift (transfer) – direction – transferee should not sell outside family (in-effect absolute restraint) – void.
  • Sale or gift (transfer) – direction – transferee should not sell for 3 years (reasonable restraint) valid.
  • Zoroastrian Housing Society – not be sold other than Zoroastrians – (reasonable restraint) valid.

In Gayasi Ram v. Shahabuddin, AIR 1935 All 493, the sale deed contained a clause that the vendee shall not transfer the house by mortgage, gift or sell to any one except the vendor or his heirs and if in contravention of the clause, the property is sold the vendor or his heir would have a right to get back the house by paying Rs. 175/- and if the property was to be sold in court auction sale, the sale would be invalid. The sale consideration for the house was Rs. 150/-. It was held (relying on Dal Singh v. Khub Chand, AIR 1921 All 97, Asghari Begam v. Maula Bakhsh, AIR 1929 All 381, and Gomti Singh v. Anari Kuar, AIR 1929 All 492) that this impugned clause in a sale between strangers was an absolute restraint on alienation; and therefore the same was void, in view of Section 10 of Transfer of Property Act; and that in such cases question of pre-emption did not arise. (See also: Manohar Shivram Swami v. Mahadeo Guruling Swami, AIR 1988 Bom 116)

In Trichinopoly Varthaga Sangam Ltd. v. T. N. Shanmughasundaram, AIR 1939 Mad. 769, the Clause in the Partition deed – the property should not be sold to any stranger; and lease only to brothers or their heirs for a sum not exceeding Rs. 1000/-. The court found that there was “no obligation” for a member to buy “even at Rs. 1000/-“. Hence it was held – Restriction is ‘absolute’, and hence, void. (See also: Rosher v. Rosher, (1884) 26 Ch D 801).  

Similarly, it was held in Manohar Shivram Swami v. Mahadeo Guruling Swami, AIR 2008 Bom 116, that the condition in the Sale Deed prohibiting sale ‘outside family’ was void – as it was absolute restraint.

Reasonable Restraint is Allowed in Law

The words ‘absolute restraint‘ in Sec. 10 of the TP Act makes it clear that ‘reasonable restraint’ is allowed in law. Hence, it is clear that the cases in this subject has to be dealt with on the facts of each case.

Therefore, it is not possible to place a hard and fast rule on the validity of the restrictions of enjoyment for a particular period, enjoyment in a particular manner, restrictions on transfer etc. In Renand v. Tourangeaon, (1867) LR 2 PC 4, it was held that a condition prohibiting transfer the property for twenty years was held to be an absolute restraint and hence void. But it was opined that if it were for a period of 3 years, it would have been a partial restraint and valid. This decision is referred to in Athmaram Rao v. Shanthan Phawar (2018 Madras High Court).

Our Apex Court held in Zoroastrian Co-operative Housing Society Ltd. v. District Registrar, Co-operative Societies (Urban ), AIR 2005 SC 2306, that in the matter of a Housing Society, the restriction imposed in the light of the byelaws of the Society that the property should not be sod to others, other than Zoroastrians, was a valid condition.

Section 11, TP Act

Instances of ‘Absolute Transfer‘ & ‘enjoyment in a particular manner’ (Similar provision in Section 138 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925)

  • Absolute sale or gift – direction – transferee should reside there – invalid.
  • Absolute sale or gift – direction – transferee should not cut trees – invalid.
  • Sale or gift – subject to a condition – transferee should reside there or look after transferor – valid. See Notes below under the Head: PART – 4 : Reconciliation of Apparent Inconsistent Provisions’ and ‘Harmonious interpretation’
  • Life interest alone created – direction – assignee should not cut trees –valid.

In Bhavani Amma Kanakadevi v. CSI, Dakshina Kerala Maha Idavaka, AIR 2008 Kerala 38, the question came for consideration was whether a provision in a sale deed that in the event of failure to construct a private college in the property sold thereunder, the property shall be re-conveyed by the vendee to the vendor for the same sale consideration is barred under the provisions of Sections 10 or 11 of Transfer of Property Act. Observing that (though) Ext.A2 did not contain a specific clause prohibiting respondent from alienating the property to third parties, the implied clause – that in the event of failure to construct a college, the property shall be reconveyed to the assignor at the same price – shut out any other option. The High Court held that it was an absolute restraint on the right of respondent to deal with the property including alienation, which was void as provided under Section 10. 

The court referred to the following decisions:

  • Jatru Pahan v. Mahatma Ambikajit Prasad ( AIR 1957 Patna 570),
  • Gayasi Ram v. Shahabuddin (AIR 1935 All. 493)
  • Manohar Shivram Swami v. Mahadeo Guruling Swami (AIR 1988 Bombay 116)
  • Fatima v. Saraswathi Amma (AIR 1986 Kearla 56).
  • Thomas v. AA Henry, 2008(2) KLT 63, ILR 2008(2) Ker. 12
  • Trichinopoly Varthaga Sangam Ltd. v. T. N. Shanmughasundaram, AIR 1939 Mad. 769.

Rule against Perpetuity

Read Blog: Rule Against Perpetuity – Simplified

PART – 2

Section 19 & 21, TP ActVested interest and Contingent interest.

Instances of ‘vested rightand that on ‘condition’

Usually (absolute) vested right is invested in the following two circumstances:

  • Allow to enjoy property, absolutely, on attaining majority.
  • Absolutely giving property to one, subject to a right to enjoy for life of another.

Section 119 and 120  of the Indian Succession Act speaks about vesting of legacy.

Section 119  of the Indian Succession Act reads as follows:

  • “119. Date of vesting of legacy when payment or possession postponed – Whereby the terms of a bequest the legatee is not entitled to immediate possession of the thing bequeathed, a right to receive it at the proper time shall, unless a contrary intention appears by the will, become vested in the legatee on the testator’s death, and shall pass to the legatee’s representatives if he dies before that time and without having received the legacy, and in such cases the legacy is from the testator’s death said to be vested in interest.
  • Explanation : An intention that a legacy to any person shall not become vested in interest in him is not to be inferred merely from a provision whereby the payment or possession of the thing bequeathed is postponed, or whereby a prior interest therein is bequeathed to some  other person, or whereby the income arising from the fund bequeathed is directed to be accumulated until the time of payment arrives, or from a provision that, if a particular event shall happen, the legacy shall go over to another person”.

Section 120 of the Indian Succession Act reads as follows:

  • “120. Date of vesting when legacy contingent upon specified uncertain event. – (1) A legacy bequeathed in case a specified uncertain event shall happen does not vest until that event happens.
  • (2) A legacy bequeathed in case a specified uncertain event shall not happen does not vest until the happening of that event becomes impossible.
  • (3) In either case, until the condition has been fulfilled, the interest of the legatee is called contingent.
  • Exception. Where a fund is bequeathed to any person upon his attaining a particular age, and the will also gives to him absolutely the income to arise from the fund before he reaches that age, or directs the income, or so much of it as may be necessary, to be applied for his benefit, the bequest of the fund is not contingent.”

Even in cases of ‘Contingent interest’, Interest in praesenti may be created

In transfers with ‘contingent interest’, though the interest would take effect only after satisfying the condition, the transfer becomes effective immediately. Therefore, the interest created may be in praesenti with the condition; and on satisfying the condition, it becomes a vested interest.

In Arumugham Chettiar v. A. Vallinayagam Pillai, (1975) 2 MLJ 46, the point considered was whether ‘absolute’ rights had been given to Sivagnanathammal in the will so that subsequent direction in the will that the property will go to sons of Sivagnanathammal was repugnant and it could not at all be sustained. The Madras High Court held as under:

  • “I have been taken through Exhibit A-2 the will dated 12th June, 1931 created by Thiruvengadathammal. It is clear from paragraph 6 of the will that the suit properties have been absolutely given to the sons of Sivagnanathammal with a right to Sivagnanathammal to enjoy for life only the income from the properties without in any way encumbering the same. Thus, it is clear that the argument advanced by T.R. Mani as though absolute right has been given to Sivagnanathammal and that the subsequent direction in the will is repugnant, cannot at all be sustained.”

The court observed that a vested right being created absolutely on Surianarayana Chettiar, it was not ‘expectancy of succession by survivorship or other merely contingent or possible right or interest‘.

Death of a life-tenant is not a contingency but an event certain

The Madras High Court in Ernest William Adams v. Mrs. H. S. F. Gray, AIR 1925 Mad 599 held as under:

  • “It is perfectly clear from all the text-books and the decided cases that if a bequest is to a person for life and after his death to his children, the bequest becomes vested in each child as and when he or she is born and the vesting is not postponed till the death of the life tenant. The expression after his death is taken to indicate merely the time when the gift over becomes reduced to possession and not the time when the right to such possession and not the time when the right to such possession vest. . . . . . The principle underlying this rule is that no contingency is imported by the mere fact that the legacy is given after a life-estate in the property bequeathed. As nothing is more certain than that every person who lives must due, the death of a life tenant is an event not contingent but certain; and therefore a gift on the death of a life-tenant is a bequest to take effect not on a contingency but on an event certain to happen. . . ” (Quoted in: Chilamakuri Chinna Pullappa VS Guruka Chinna Bayanna, AIR 1962 AP 554)

PART – 3

Legal Remainders: Vested Remainder and Contingent Remainder

What is ‘Legal Remainder’ is explained in “Modern Law of Real Property” by Chesire, Twelfth Edition as under:

  • Legal Remainders. Common law permitted future interests, called remainders, to be carved out of a legal estate, though as we shall see presently, there were several restrictive rules which had to be observed. If a stellar decided to create two or more successive estates in his land, and drafted the desired limitations in one instrument, as for instance by a fulfilment to A for life and then to B, for life and then to C, in fee simple, the first estate which preceded the next following remainder was called the “particular estate” and those which followed were denominated “remainders”. (Quoted in Bomi Munchershaw Mistry v. Kesharwani Co-Operative Housing Society, 1993 (2) BomCR 329.)

Vested Remainder and Contingent Remainder in TP Act

Transfer of Property Act does not specifically speak about ‘Legal Remainder’. But, the illustrations in Sections 13, 24, 27 and 126 (mentioned below) clearly lay down this right. Indian courts apply the doctrine of ‘legal remainder’, inasmuch it hold – both the reversioner (future right that accrues by operation of law) and the legal remainder (future right that accrues by act of persons – executing documents) have the right to protect their (future) right, through court [Yellarayhala Surayya v. Yellaraghahs Subbamma, (1920) ILR 43 Mad 4].

Can a property be ‘transferred’ (successively) to one, and after his death (or on happening an event) to another?

Yes. It is clear from the following illustrations in the TP Act.

No.Sec.Illustration
 113. Transfer for benefit of unborn person  A transfers property of which he is the owner to B in trust for A and his intended wife successively for their lives, and, after the death of the survivor, for the eldest son of the intended marriage for life, and after his death for A’s second son. The interest so created for the benefit of the eldest son does not take effect, because it does not extend to the whole of A’s remaining interest in the property.
 224. Transfer to such of certain persons as survive at some period not specifiedA transfers property to B for life, and after his death to C and D, equally to be divided between them, or to the survivor of them. C dies during the life of B. D survives B. At B’s death the property passes to D.
 327. Conditional transfer to one person coupled with transfer to another on failure of prior dispositionA transfers property to his wife; but, in case she should die in his life-time, transfer to B that which he had transferred to her. A and his wife perish together, under circumstances which make it impossible to prove that she died before him. The disposition in favour of B does not take effect.
4126. When gift may be suspended or revoked.A gives a field to B, reserving to himself, with B’s assent, the right to take back the field in case B and his descendants die before A. B dies without descendants in A’s lifetime. A may take back the field.
  • Note: Illustration in Sec. 24 given above lays down ‘Vested Remainder‘; and that in Sec. 27 lays down lays down an instance of ‘Contingent Remainder‘ (though our TP Act does not expressly say as to vested remainder and contingent remainder)

Vested Remainder

Example – A transfers property to his wife; but, in case she should die in his life-time, transfer to B …. (Illustration in Sec. 27, TP Act)

  • A ‘vested remainder’ has to satisfy following ingredients:
    • (i) the person to whom the property is given must be a living person,
    • (ii) the estate must be (when the transfer is effected) with another,
    • (iii) the (actual) transfer is to take effect as soon as the estate with whom its remained (when the transfer is effected) is terminated,
    • (iv) the person in enjoyment (when the transfer is effected) holds the property subject to the rights of ‘vested remainder’ (in other words, it is one which is ready from its commencement to its end).

In Law of Property by Strahan – 4th Edition at page 152, it is observed as follows:

  • A vested remainder is a remainder of the more ancient kind, that is, one of the owner which is living and ascertained, and which is an actual estate in the land, complete in interest though deferred to the precedent estate in enjoyment. Being complete, it is ready, and must continue ready, from its commencement as a vested remainder till its expiration in natural course, to come into possession immediately on the determination of the preceding interest, the existence of which is the  only thing which prevents it being complete not merely in interest, but also in enjoyment. It is true it may fail, or, rather, determine before the period arrives, when it would vest in possession, but such determination must arise from its own natural expiration, not from any outside event or contingency.
  • Thus, take a limitation to A. for life and then to B. for life – B. being a living person. If B. predeceases A., his life estate will never become an interest in possession; but as long as B. lives, his estate is ready to come into possession the moment A.’s life estate determines.” (quoted in Nikhil v. Sarojini (2014-3 Ker LT SN 36)

In Law of Property by GC Venkata Subbarao – 2nd Edition, at page 130, it is observed as under:

  • Vested Remainder is Heritable.- Vested remainders and reversions are treated as future interests only for the reason that they do not carry immediate possession of the property. They are for all practical purposes present proprietary interests. As such they are heritable. Even if the person entitled to the vested remainder dies before the determination of the particular estate, his interest does not lapse but is transmitted to his heir. Of course, if the remainderman’s estate is a life-estate this rule can have no application. Where, he has an estate of inheritance, notwithstanding his death, before the estate falls in possession, his representative in interest can claim possession as soon as it becomes vacant by the expiration of the precedent interests. In this respect the vested estate resembles the reversion which is also a heritable or transmissible interest in property.” (quoted in Nikhil v. Sarojini (2014-3 Ker LT SN 36)

Contingent Remainder

Example – A transfers property to his wife; but, in case she should die in his life-time, transfer to B ….. (Illustration in Sec. 27, TP Act)

The principle of ‘Contingent Remainder’ is seen applied extensively, in India. It is usually applied in the following instances:

  1. Property is given to A for life; then to B, if A dies unmarried.
  2. Property is given to A (with saleable rights), then to B if property (or any part) remains unsold/un-transferred by A.
  • A ‘contingent remainder’ must have the following ingredients:
    • (i) the person to whom the property has to reach, finally, must be a living person,
    • (ii) the estate must be (when the transfer is effected) with another,
    • (iii) there will be a chance only to get the property to the (final) transferee; the transfer being contingent upon the stipulations or conditions (in other words, it is one which is not ready from its commencement to its end),
    • (iv) the (actual) transfer takes effect
      • (a) only on satisfying the conditions, and
      • (b) as soon as the estate with whom it is remained is terminated.

It is clearly laid down in Nikhil v. Sarojini (2014-3 Ker LT SN 36) it is observed in Para 32, 38 and 41 as under:

  • “32. The principle that can be carved out from the above literature is that a vested remainder is one which is ready from its commencement to its end, to take effect as soon as a particular estate shall determine. … … In the case of vested interest, the distribution is predetermined while in contingent interest, it may or may not. A contingent remainder is one which is not ready from its commencement to its end and it is to take effect as soon as particular estate is terminated.”
  • “38. In the decision reported in Narayani v. Sreedharan (2011(4) K.L.T. SN 107) it is held as follows:
  • “Even if by a document, the property which exclusively belongs to the executant is settled in favour of another, retaining his life interest in the property and providing that on his death the other would get absolute right in the property, it cannot be said that there was no transfer of interest in praesenti because of the retention of the life interest of the executant as there was divesting of the rights of the executant, except his life interest.”
  • “41. … But certain propositions emerge from a reading of the above decisions (Namburi Basava Subrahmanyam v. Alapati Hymavathi, 1996 Ker HC 1200, Kokilambal v. N. Raman. AIR 2005 SC 2468) and they are ;
    • i) There is no straight jacket formula to ascertain the nature of interest created.
    • ii) Each case depends upon the facts of that case and the deed that comes up for interpretation.
    • iii) Merely because the enjoyment or possession is postponed by itself is not a ground to hold that no vested interest is created.
    • iv) If interest in praesenti is created with condition, the transfer becomes effective immediately. But the interest is to take effect after the condition is satisfied, then it becomes a contingent (sic – vested) interest.”

PART – 4

Reconciliation of Apparent Inconsistent Provisions’ and ‘Harmonious interpretation

Section 11 of Transfer of Properties Act makes it clear that where a property is transferred absolutely, subsequent restraints are invalid. Therefore, the questions in such matters would be (i) whether the transfer effected stands ‘absolute’ or not and (ii) whether the restriction brings-up is one that canvases the section or not.

Section 11 of Transfer of Properties Act reads as under:

  • 11. Restriction repugnant to interest created– Where transfer of property, an interest therein is created absolutely in favour of any person, but the terms of the transfer direct that such interest shall be applied or enjoyed by him in a particular manner, he shall be entitled to receive and dispose of such interest as if there were no such direction.
  • Where any such direction has been made in respect of one piece of immoveable property for the purpose of securing the beneficial enjoyment of another piece of such property, nothing in this section shall be deemed to affect any right which the transferor may have to enforce such direction or any remedy which he may have in respect of a breach thereof.

‘Irreconcilable/Inconsistent’ clauses in a Will

Section 88 of the Indian Succession Act says:

  • “88. The last of two inconsistent clauses prevails.–Where two clauses of gifts in a Will are irreconcilable, so that they cannot possibly stand together, the last shall prevail.

The Illustrations given in this Section make it clear what is an ‘inconsistent clause‘. It reads as under:

  • (i) The testator by the first clause of his Will leaves his estate of Ramnagar “to A”, and by the last clause of his Will leaves to “to B and not to A”. B will have it.
  • (ii) If a man, at the commencement of his Will gives his house to A, and at the close of it directs that his house shall be sold and the proceeds invested for the benefit of B, the latter disposition will prevail.”

Section 138 of Indian Succession Act, which reads as under:

  • Direction that fund be employed in particular manner following absolute bequest of same to or for benefit of any person.
  • Where a fund is bequeathed absolutely to or for the benefit of any person, but the will contains a direction that it shall be applied or enjoyed in a particular manner, the legatee shall be entitled to receive the fund as if the will had contained no such direction.”

From the above, it comes out that when a Will is construed, it must be considered:

  • Whether ‘on a whole-reading‘, there is irreconcilable inconsistency between two provisions (as stated in the illustration of Sec. 88 – the last of two inconsistent clauses prevails – in earlier clause property was given to A; latter clause, to B) so that harmonious interpretation is not possible?
  • Contingent transfers are legal and valid. Example – A transfers property to his wife; but, in case she should die in his life-time, transfer to B (Illustration in Sec. 27, TP Act)
  • Under Sec. 11 of the TP Act also, the latter condition is taken into consideration if only there is an ‘absolute‘ transfer. Under Sec. 11 of the TP Act (which reads: 11. Restriction repugnant to interest created– Where transfer of property, an interest therein is created absolutely in favour of any person, but the terms of the transfer direct that such interest shall be applied or enjoyed by him in a particular manner, …. ) the earlier ‘irreconcilable’ clause will prevail.
  • An attempt should always be made to read the two parts of the document harmoniously, if possible. It is only when this is not possible, e.g, where an absolute title is given is in clear and unambiguous terms and the later provisions trench on the same, that the later provisions have to be held to be void. (Ramkishore Lal v. Kamal Narain, AIR 1963 SC 890.)

In K. S.  Palanisami v. Hindu Community Citizens of Gobichettipalayam, AIR 2017  SC 1473 it is held as under:

  • “41. The above in plain words provides that on the death of any of the spouse, survivor shall enjoy the entire properties absolutely with all the rights. What is the connotation of words ‘absolutely with all the rights?’, whether the above provision in the Will can be read as only life estate i.e. right of enjoyment and receiving of rent, income or absolute right indicates the exercise of all the rights including the right of alienation.”
  • 42. The High Court after noticing the contention of Learned Counsel for the defendants formed the opinion that expression ‘absolutely’ should be read to mean that the surviving testator, namely, Rangammal would have only the life interest.
  • “57. We, thus, are of the view that giving absolute right to the survivor during his lifetime to deal with the properties in no manner cannot be said to be right given in disregard of object of trust. The charitable purpose of the Will is not lost even if survivor is given absolute right. The obligation of survivor to act in furtherance of object as agreed by both the testators survives and binds the survivor. Although the Will was irrevocable after the death of survivor but the Will expressly granted absolute right to survivor.
  • 58. In view of the foregoing discussion, we endorse the view of High Court that the Will dated 27.9.1968 was a joint and mutual Will, but with a rider that said joint and mutual Will was with an express condition that survivor shall have absolute right to deal with the property keeping the object of trust alive.”

Followed in : Prabhakumari v. S.  Mohanarajan 2021-4 Ker HC 514

Discordant Knots

It is a serious question – whether the observation in the following decisions as to ‘conflict between the earlier clause and the later clauses’ stands unsusceptible to (i) the doctrine of ‘harmonious interpretation’ and (ii) the following illustration in Sec. 27 of the TP Act: A transfers property to his wife; but, in case she should die in his life-time, transfer to B

The decisions are:

  • Mauleshwar Mani v. Jagdish Prasad, AIR 2002 SC 727
  • Sadaram Suryanarayana v.  Kalla Surya Kantham, AIR 2011 SC 294
  • Madhuri Ghosh v. Debobroto Dutta, AIR 2016 SC 5242.

I. In Mauleshwar Mani v. Jagdish Prasad, AIR 2002 SC 727 (two Judge Bench) considered a will containing the following provision –

  • “The first part of the Will provided that after the death of the testator or author of the Will, his wife whose name is Smt. Sona Devi would be entitled to the entire assets and properties of Jamuna Prasad with the right of transfer.
  • The second part of the Will is that after the death of Smt. Sona Devi nine sons of daughters’ would inherit the property.”

The Apex Court held that latter clause will not take effect observing as under:

  • “Where a testator having conferred an absolute right on anyone, the subsequent bequest for the same property in favour of other persons would be repugnant to the first bequest in the will and has to be held invalid.”

The Apex Court referred to Radha Sundar Dutta v. Mohd. Jahadur Rahim, AIR 1959 SC 24, wherein it was held that where there was conflict between the earlier clause and the later clauses and it was not possible to give effect to all of them, then the rule of construction was well established that it was the earlier clause that must override the later clauses and not vice versa. It was also pointed out that in Rameshwar Bakhsh Singh v. Balraj Kuar, (1935) 37 Bom LR 862, it was laid down that where an absolute estate was created by a will in favour of devisee, the clauses in the will which were repugnant to such absolute estate could not cut down the estate; but they must be held to be invalid. The Court held:

  • “In Ramkishorelal and another vs. Kamalnarayan, 1963 Suppl. (2) SCR 417, AIR 1963 SC 890, it was held that in a disposition of properties, if there is a clear conflict between what is said in one part of the document and in another where in an earlier part of the document some property is given absolutely to one person but later on, other directions about the same property are given which conflict with and take away from the absolute title given in the earlier portion, in such a conflict the earlier disposition of absolute title should prevail and the later directions of disposition should be disregarded. In Radha Sundar Dutta Vs. Mohd. Jahadur Rahim & others (AIR 1959 SC 24 ), it was held where there is conflict between the earlier clause and the later clauses and it is not possible to give effect to all of them, then the rule of construction is well established that it is the earlier clause that must override the later clauses and not vice versa.” 

II. In Sadaram Suryanarayana v.  Kalla Surya Kantham, AIR 2011 SC 294, the two Judge Bench had to find whether the following clause in the will expressed an unequivocal intention of the Testatrix to make an absolute bequest in favour of her daughters. The relevant clause read as under:

  • “2nd item … shall devolve to my 2nd daughter …  and the Western wing 2 rooms shall devolve upon my elder daughter … with absolute rights of Sale, Gift, Mortgage etc., and this will come into force after my demise. After demise of my daughters the retained and remaining property shall devolve upon their female children only.”

Referring (i) Mauleshwar Mani v. Jagdish Prasad (supra – AIR 2002 SC 727) (ii) Ramki shore lal v. Kamalnarayan (supra – AIR 1963 SC 890) and (ii) Radha Sundar Dutta v. Mohd. Jahadur Rahimheld (supra – AIR 1959 SC 24), it is held in Sadaram Suryanarayana v.  Kalla Surya Kantham, AIR 2011 SC 294, as under:

  • “We are, on the contrary, dealing with a case where the intention of the Testatrix to make an absolute bequest in favour of her daughters is unequivocal. Secondly, the expression “after demise of my daughters the retained and remaining properties shall devolve on their female children only” does not stricto sensu amount to a bequest contrary to the one made earlier in favour of the daughters of the Testatrix. The expression extracted above does not detract from the absolute nature of the bequest in favour of the daughters. All that the Testatrix intended to achieve by the latter part of clause 6 was the devolution upon their female offsprings all such property as remained available in the hands of the legatees at the time of their demise. There would obviously be no devolution of any such property upon the female offsprings in terms of the said clause if the legatees decided to sell or gift the property bequeathed to them as indeed they had every right to do under the terms of the bequest. Seen thus, there is no real conflict between the absolute bequest which the first part of clause 6 of the Will makes and the second part of the said clause which deals with devolution of what and if at all anything that remains in the hands of the legatees.”

III.  Madhuri Ghosh v. Debobroto Dutta AIR 2016 SC 5242 (Two Judge Bench): The testator bequeathed his property jointly to his wife and daughter. It was provided that in the event of the death of his wife the property would stand vested with the daughter as “exclusive owner”; and, in the event of the death of his daughter the property would stand vested with the wife as “exclusive owner”.  Thereafter, it was provided that various other lineal descendants would become owners of specified parts of the property. The Apex Court held that the will provided for ‘absolute’ bequest and not ‘limited interest’. Therefore, the direction that the lineal descendants would become owners of specified parts had no effect. The Court relied on Mauleshwar Mani v. Jagdish Prasad (2002) 2 SCC 468.

Analysis of the Above Three Decisions

Following doubts, legitimately, come up for Consideration:

  1. The common law in India requires reading the whole document, and give effect to the provisions on a harmonious interpretation. The apparent conflict mooted in the above cases can be harmonised on reading the document as a whole.
  2. Illustrations in Sections 24 and 27 make it clear that Indian law recognises ‘vested remainder’ and ‘contingent remainder‘. (See illustrations given in these Sections.)
  3. It is also beyond doubt that such a transfer is not hit by Sec. 10 and 11 of the TP Act; inasmuch as Sec. 10 and 11 cumber only when ‘conditions’ impose ‘Absolute Restraint’ or ‘Enjoyment in a Particular Manner’. It does not invite Sec. 138 of the Indian Succession Act also, for the same reasons.
  4. Following decisions relied on in Mauleshwar Mani v. Jagdish Prasad, AIR 2002 SC 727 (and the subsequent decisions followed it) were not applicable in the fact-situation (that emerged) inasmuch as they dealt with independent earlier transfers; and not two parts of the same deed. The decisions are:
    1. Ramkishore lal v. Kamalnarayan, AIR 1963 SC 890 (Constitution Bench)
    2. Radha Sundar Dutta v. Mohd. Jahadur Rahim, AIR 1959 SC 24 (three judge bench)
  5. It is noteworthy that the Apex Court (in Mauleshwar Mani – in the matter of a Will) considered cases (Ramkishore lal and Radha Sundar Dutta) in which Sec. 11, TP Act is attracted- for Sec. 138 of the Indian Succession Act is pari materia to Sec. 11 of the TP Act.
  6. In K. S.  Palanisami v. Hindu Community Citizens of Gobichettipalayam, AIR 2017  SC 1473 (Ashok Bushan, J.) the joint Will executed by a couple created a Trust; but, it had been indicated that after the death of one of the spouse, the other (survivor) had Absolute right to deal with the property and there was no embargo on the right of survivor to dispose of the same.  Certain alienations were made by the wife after death of the husband. Our apex Court held as under:
    • “49. The intention in testamentary disposition has to be primarily found out from the actual words used in the Will. The court is not entitled to ignore clear words or add something of its own or dilute the meaning of any clear word used in the Will. The solemn duty of the court is to find out the intention of testator and thereafter to give effect to such intention.
    • 57. We, thus, are of the view that giving absolute right to the survivor during his lifetime to deal with the properties in no manner cannot be said to be right given in disregard of object of trust. The charitable purpose of the Will is not lost even if survivor is given absolute right.”

Why Ramkishore lal and Radha Sundar Dutta Do Not Apply

In Ramkishore lal v. Kamalnarayan, AIR 1963 SC 890 (Constitution Bench), dealt with the matter of a partition-award and the question arose was as to independent earlier dedication of property to a temple. It was held as under:

  • “We are inclined to agree with the contention of the learned Attorney-General that Mr. Bagchi’s award gives the property to Ramsaran Lal absolutely with only a charge on the property for the expenses of the temple and did not make an absolute dedication of the village to the temple. We are of opinion however that Mr. Bagchi’s award can have no legal effect in respect of the dedication already made. Once an absolute dedication of the property had been made in December 1896 in favour of Shri Ramchandra Swamy temple the former owners of the property had no legal authority to go behind that dedication.”

Similarly, in Radha Sundar Dutta v. Mohd. Jahadur Rahim, AIR 1959 SC 24 (three judge bench), considered was an independent earlier grant. It was held as under:

  • “But it is open to the parties to agree that the Chaukidari Chakaran lands should form a new and distinct Patni, and the result of such an agreement will be that while the grantee will hold those lands in Patni right, that is to say, the tenure will be permanent, heritable and alienable so far as his liability to pay jama and the corresponding right of the Zamindar to sell it under the Regulation if there is any default in the payment thereof are concerned, the now grant will be an entity by itself independent of the original Patni.”

‘Reconciliation of Apparent Inconsistent Provisions’ and ‘Repugnant Provisions’

As stated already, if only there is irreconcilable inconsistency between two provisions (as stated in the illustration of Sec. 88 – that is, in earlier clause, property was given to A; latter clause, to B – whereby a harmonious interpretation is not possible) then only the principle, ‘once granted cannot next be taken away‘ (or, the last of two inconsistent clauses prevails), be applied. It is emphasised by our Supreme Court (Constitution Bench consisting of BP Sinha (CJ), KC Das Gupta, PB Gajendragadkar, KN Wanchoo, JC Shah, JJ.) in  Ramkishore Lal v. Kamal Narain, AIR 1963 SC 890, as under:

  • “Sometimes it happens in the case of documents as regards disposition of properties, whether they are testamentary or non-testamentary instruments, that there is a clear conflict between what is said in one part of the document and in another. A familiar instance of this is where in an earlier part of the document some property is given absolutely to one person but later on, other directions about the same property are given which conflict with and take away from the absolute title given in the earlier portion. What is to be done where this happens? It is well settled that in case of such a conflict the earlier disposition of absolute title should prevail and the later directions of disposition should be disregarded as unsuccessful attempts to restrict the title already given (See: Sahebzada Mohd. Kamgar Shah v. Jagdish Chandra Deo Dhabal Deo, (1960) 3 SCR 604. It is clear, however, that an attempt should always be made to read the two parts of the document harmoniously, if possible. It is only when this is not possible, e.g, where an absolute title is given is in clear and unambiguous terms and the later provisions trench on the same, that the later provisions have to be held to be void.” (quoted in : H B Yeshwant Rao Ghorpade v. The Commissioner of Wealth Tax, Bangalore, AIR 1967 SC 135)

In Ramachandra Shenoy v. Mrs. Hilda Brite, AIR 1964 SC 1323, our Apex Court (N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, S.K. Das, A.K. Sarkar, JJ) observed with respect to a will as under:

  • 5. If the said Julia does not marry or if she has no issues, the said Julia should enjoy the said property up to her death and thereafter this property of mine should be enjoyed by my eldest daughter, Severina Obina Coelho and after her by her male descendants with permanent rights”.
  • “It is one of the cardinal principles of construction of wills that to the extent that it is legally possible effect should be given to every disposition contained in the will unless the law prevents effect being given to it. Of course, if there are two repugnant provisions conferring successive interest, if the first interest created is valid the subsequent interest cannot take effect but a Court of construction will proceed to the farthest extent to avoid repugnancy, so that effect could be given as far as possible to every testamentary intention contained in the will. It if for this reason that where there is a bequest to A even though it be in terms apparently absolute followed by a gift of the same to B absolutely “on” or “after” or “at” A’s death, A is prima facie held to take a life interest and B an interest in remainder, the apparently absolute interest of A being cut down to accommodate the interest created in favour of B.”

It is held in Navneet Lal alias Rangi v. Gokul, AIR 1976 SC 794, as under:

  • “It is one of the cardinal principles of construction of wills that to the extent that it is legally possible effect should be given to every disposition contained in the will unless the law prevents effect being given to it. Of course, if there are two repugnant provisions conferring successive interests, if the first interest created is valid the subsequent interest cannot take effect but a Court of construction will proceed to the farthest extent to avoid repugnancy, so that effect could be given as far as possible to every testamentary intention contained in the will.”

In K. S.  Palanisami v. Hindu Community Citizens of Gobichettipalayam, AIR 2017  SC 1473 (Ashok Bushan, J.), Palaniappa Chettiar and his wife by registered Will created a Trust. The Will indicated that after the death of one of the testators, the survivor had Absolute right to deal with the property and there was no embargo on the right of survivor to dispose of the same.  Certain alienations were made by Rangammal after death of Palaniappa Chettiar.  Relying on Navneet Lal alias Rangi v. Gokul, AIR 1976 SC 794 it is held that the solemn duty of the court is to find out the intention of testator and thereafter to give effect to such intention. The Court held as under:

  • “57. We, thus, are of the view that giving absolute right to the survivor during his lifetime to deal with the properties in no manner cannot be said to be right given in disregard of object of trust. The charitable purpose of the Will is not lost even if survivor is given absolute right. The obligation of survivor to act in furtherance of object as agreed by both the testators survives and binds the survivor. Although the Will was irrevocable after the death of survivor but the Will expressly granted absolute right to survivor.”

PART – 5

Absolute‘ Transfer/Bequest alone attracts S. 11 TP Act & S. 138 Sucn. Act

  • (S. 11 TP Act & S. 138 Succession Act are Pari Materia. The doctrine of Pari Materia is a useful tool employed in interpretation of statutes that reign to gain same objective. See: Ahmedabad Private Primary Teachers’ Association v. Administrative Officer, 2004-1 SCC 755)

Sec. 11 of the TP Act (Restriction repugnant to Absolute interest created) cautions that the terms, in an absolute transfer, that direct enjoyment of interest in a particular manner, is invalid. It reads:

  • “Where transfer of property, an interest therein is created absolutely in favour of any person, but the terms of the transfer direct that such interest shall be applied or enjoyed by him in a particular manner, he shall be entitled to receive and dispose of such interest as if there were no such direction.”

S. 138 of the Succession Act says the same thing as under:

  • “Where a fund is bequeathed absolutely to or for the benefit of any person, but the will contains a direction that it shall be applied or enjoyed in a particular manner, the legatee shall be entitled to receive the fund as if the will had contained no such direction.”

The law on this point is eruditely explained in Rajinder Singh Chowdhary v. Sardar Manjit Singh Chowdhary, AIR 2002 Del 135 (Vijender Jain, J.). The facts of the case, in a nutshell, are the following:

  • (a)  The father of the parties executed a Will bequeathing all his properties in favour of his wife ‘as the sole and absolute (in the sense, saleable) owner with full powers of disposal in any manner she likes’.
  • (b) The will further provided how the properties were to be distributed ‘in case she expires intestate and without disposing of the properties’.
  • (c) The mother died intestate.
  • It was contended by the plaintiff that the bequest to the mother was ‘absolute and anything which was repugnant to the absolute bequest was void and inconsequential under Section 138 of Indian Succession Act.
  • Plaintiffs relied on
    • Gopala Menon v. Sivaraman Nair, AIR 1979 SC 1345
    • Lalit Mohan Mondal v. Profulla Kumar Mondal, AIR 1982 Cal 52.
    • Shantilal babubhai v. Bai Chhani, AIR 1973 Gujarat 146,
  • The defendants contended that will had to be read as a whole and different parts of the will should be considered harmoniously. The defendants further contended that provision of Section 138 of the Act was not applicable to the present case and further contended that even if there was inconsistency, Section 88 of the Indian succession Act saves such inconsistency as the last clause prevails.  Section 88 of the Indian succession Act reads:  “The last of two inconsistent clauses prevails. Where two clauses of gifts in a will are irreconcilable, so that they cannot possibly stand together, the last shall prevail.”
  • Defendants relied on following decisions:
    • Gopala Menon v. Sivaraman Nair, (1981) 3 SCC 586
    • Lt. Col. Kanwaljet Singh Chowdhary v. Chowdhary Harnam Singhand, 60 (1995) DLT 827.

Finally the court held as under:

  • “The principles enunciated in Gopala Menon s case (supra), Shantilal Babubhai (supra) and Lalit Mohan Mondal s case (supra) are well established principles that once a bequest has been made which is absolute and anything which is inconsistent would be repugnant and that has to be ignored.
  • But can it be said that the present case while interpreting the will at hand in view of the concern and anxiety of the testator with regard to his two sons and his intention to bequeath the property after the demise of Smt. Ved Kaur and words which are used signifying the concern and well being of aforesaid two sons are superfluous it is in this context court has to see as to whether bequest made in favour of Smt. Ved Kaur was absolute?
  • The answer is in the negative.
  • From the well laid down principle regarding interpretation of will and harmonious construction of the same, I hold that what was intended by the testator was to create a life estate in favour of Smt. Ved Kaur and not an absolute interest. The issue is answered accordingly.”

Inconsistency’ and ‘absolute transfer’

‘Inconsistency’ and ‘absolute transfer’ are explained in Sec. 88 of the Indian Succession Act. First illustration reads as under:

  • “The testator by the first clause of his Will leaves his estate of Ramnagar “to A”, and by the last clause of his Will leaves to “to B and not to A”. B will have it.”

Theory of ‘Dominant Intention’

The will considered in Ramasreenivasa Iyengar v. Padmasani Ammal, (1973) 1 MLJ 34, provided that the two daughters of the testator should take the properties in equal shares with absolute (in the sense, saleable) rights, but the share of the lady without issues would, however, after her death, be taken by the daughter with issues along with her children. It was found that the testator intended only a life estate if no issue to anyone. It was held that the dominant intention was to preserve the estate to his grandchildren.

Deeds must be read as a whole

House of Lords (Lord Davey) in North-Eastern Railway Company v. Hastings, (1900) AC 260, held as under:

  • “The deed must be read as a whole in order to ascertain the true meaning of its several clauses, and the words of each clause should be so interpreted as to bring them into harmony with the other provisions of the deed if that interpretation does no violence to the meaning of which they are naturally susceptible.”

After quoting the House of Lords, our Supreme Court held in Provash Chandra Dalui v. Biswanath Banerjee, AIR 1989 SC 1834, as under:

  • “In construing a contract the Court must look at the words used in the contract unless they are such that one may suspect that they do not convey the intention correctly. If the words are clear, there is very little the Court can do about it. In the construction of a written instrument’ it is legitimate in order to ascertain the true meaning of the words used and if that be doubtful it is legitimate to have regard to the circumstances surrounding their creation and the subject matter to which it was designed and intended they should apply.”

After referring Namburi Basava Subrahmanyam v. Alapati Hymavathi, 1996 Ker HC 1200, and Kokilambal v. N. Raman. AIR 2005 SC 2468, it is observed in Nikhil v. Sarojini (2014-3 Ker LT SN 36) that there is no straight jacket formula to ascertain the nature of interest created and that each case depends upon the facts of that case and the deed that comes up for interpretation.

If onlyAbsolute Transfer’ or ‘Irreconcilable Inconsistency’, the doctrine ‘once granted cannot be taken away’, applied

Same principles as to ‘irreconcilable inconsistency’ apply to ‘absolute’ transfer, when the doctrine, ‘once granted cannot next be taken away’, is applied.

The Supreme Court has explained in Sahebzeda Mohammad Kamgarh Singh v. Jagdish Chandra Deo Dhabal Deb, AIR 1960 SC 953, that if only there is irreconcilable inconsistency between two provisions (as stated in the illustration of Sec. 88 – that is, in earlier clause, property was given to A; latter clause, to B – whereby a harmonious interpretation is not possible) then only the principle, ‘once granted cannot next be taken away‘, be applied.

  • “The task being to ascertain the intention of the parties, the cases have laid down that that intention has to be gathered by the words used by the parties themselves. In doing so the parties must be presumed to have used the words in their strict grammatical sense. If and when the parties have first expressed themselves in one way and then go on saying something, which is irreconcilable with what has gone before, the courts have evolved the principle on the theory that what once had been granted cannot next be taken away, that the clear disposition by an earlier clause will not be allowed to be out down by later clause. Where there is ambiguity it is the duty of the Court to look at all the parts of the document to ascertain what was really intended by the parties. But even here the rule has to be borne in mind that the document being the grantor’s document it has to be interpreted strictly against him and in favour of the grantee.”

PART – 6

Absolute‘ Transfer with stipulation: ‘if property remains’ on death of transferee, it will go to another – If Valid?

Yes.

Following important points gain consideration in this regard:

  1. In Indian practice, though the words used in the deeds might be ‘absolute transfer’, on a true construction, on a reading of entire document, it might only be a salable/transferable right during life time; and the left-over property might be given to another.
  2. The common law in India requires reading the whole document altogether, and give effect to the document on a harmonious interpretation, rather than giving effect to the legal terms used in a deed.
  3. Illustrations in Sections 24 and 27 of the TP Act make it clear that Indian law recognises ‘vested remainder‘ and ‘contingent remainder‘ (as detailed in the notes above).
  4. It is also beyond doubt that such a transfer is not hit by Sec. 10 and 11 of the TP Act; inasmuch as Sec. 10 and 11 cumber only when ‘conditions’ impose ‘Absolute Restraint’ or ‘Enjoyment in a Particular Manner’.
  5. First illustration in Sec. 88 of the Indian Succession Act reads as under:
    • “The testator by the first clause of his Will leaves his estate of Ramnagar “to A”, and by the last clause of his Will leaves to “to B and not to A”. B will have it.”

Various court decisions make it clear that one can validly transfer or bequeath a property to another, with absolute (in the sense, saleable) rights, with the stipulation that after that (first) transferee’s lifetime, if whole or any part remains, it (contingent remainder) may go to another.

In K. S.  Palanisami v. Hindu Community Citizens of Gobichettipalayam, AIR 2017  SC 1473 (Ashok Bushan, J.), Palaniappa Chettiar and his wife by registered Will created a Trust. The Will indicated that after the death of one of the testators, the survivor had Absolute right to deal with the property and there was no embargo on the right of survivor to dispose of the same.  Certain alienations were made by Rangammal after death of Palaniappa Chettiar.  It is held as under:

  • “49. The intention in testamentary disposition has to be primarily found out from the actual words used in the Will. The court is not entitled to ignore clear words or add something of its own or dilute the meaning of any clear word used in the Will. The solemn duty of the court is to find out the intention of testator and thereafter to give effect to such intention. On the reading of the Will, the intendment of testator/testatrix is clear that survivor shall have absolute right of enjoyment of properties. There is no reason not to give effect to said intendment on the ground that the testator and testatrix have mutually intended to set apart the property for charity and holding that survivor shall have right of disposition be not in the interest of the trust.”

Other Erudite Decisions on the Topic

In Sanford v. Sanford, (1901) 1 Ch. 939, the gift to the wife conferred a power of disposal limited explicitly to her lifetime. But, the gift-over to son was of a quite absolute estate. The gift did not include a power of disposition by will, but allowed power of disposition inter vivos. It was provided in the gift deed that if any property remained at her death it was to pass ‘from father to son, from generation to generation’.   Therefore, it was held that the widow was conferred with only a limited right; and the gift-over, which was ‘the will of the testator’ was to ‘settle its destination’. (This decision is referred to in Nataraja Mudaliar v. Panduranga Mudaliar, 1976-2 MLJ 381.)

In Nataraja Mudaliar v. Panduranga Mudaliar, (1976) 2 MLJ 381, the Madras High Court rendered a well-read decision in this topic. The facts of this case, in a nutshell, are as under:

  • (i) The settlement deed considered in the case provided:
  • (a)  the wife of the settlor should enjoy the properties with absolute (in the sense, saleable) rights.
  • (b) the respondent should take the properties remained at the time of her death, with absolute rights.
  • (ii) the appellant contended that the clause providing for the respondent taking absolutely such of the properties as at the time of the death of the settler’s wife was repugnant to the earlier clause conferring an absolute estate on her, and has, therefore, to be ignored as void.
  • (iii) the respondent contended that if the settlement deed had to be read as a whole  and the effect would be:
    • there was no absolute transfer to the wife of the settler as stated in Sec. 11 of the TP Act.

It is seen that the High Court accepted the contentions of the respondent that the settlement deed was to be read as a whole and that the respondent had taken absolutely such of the properties covered by the settlement deed as remained undisposed of by the settlee, the wife of the settlor; as she had only a right to enjoy the properties with absolute (in the sense, saleable) powers of disposal during her lifetime. The clause as to acquiring property by respondent was not repugnant and void.

The High Court relied on the following cases. The facts of these were ‘very near’ to the facts of that case.

  • Thayalai Achi v. Kannammal, AIR 1935 Mad 704,
  • S.M. Hara Kumari v. Mohim Chandra Sarkar, (1908) 12 CWN 412,
  • Anantnasayana v. Kondappe AIR 1940 Mad 479,
  • Lakshmi Ammal v. Allauddin Sahib, AIR 1962 Mad 247,
  • Ramasreenivasa Iyengar v. Padmasani Ammal, (1973) 1 MLJ 34.

In Lakshmi Ammal v. Allauddin Sahib, AIR 1962 Mad 247, it was held, as regards a Will, as under:

  • “After giving an absolute estate to his wife over the two items of scheduled properties, he provided that these scheduled properties, after the wife’s lifetime should devolve – item 1 on the first daughter and item 2 on the second daughter – who would have absolute rights. When the testator took care to indicate that the properties without any distinction even after his wife’s lifetime should go to each of the daughters, it should be presumed that it was clearly in his mind that the wife’s estate was only to be a limited estate or life estate, and not an absolute one.” (Quoted in: Nataraja Mudaliar v. Panduranga Mudaliar, (1976) 2 MLJ 381).

PART – 7

What is Preemption, in Law?

See Blog: Preemption is a Very Weak Right

In law, preemption is the right of a person to (re)purchase an immovable property (which has been sold to another) without a regular sale deed – but, merely by substituting the name of (re)purchaser in the sale deed.

In Audh Bihari Singh v. Gajadhar, AIR 1954 SC 417, our Apex Court (BK Mukherjea, J.) accepted the actual practice as to pre-emption explained in the decision, Govinda Dayal v. Inayatulla, ILR 7 A1l 775, which reads as under:

  • “It (right of pre-emption) is simply a right of substitution entitling the preemptor by means of a legal incident to which the sale itself was subject, to stand in the shoes of the vendee, in respect of the rights and obligations arising from the sale under which he has derived his title. It is in effect, as if in a sale deed, the vendee’s name was rubbed out and the pre- emptors’s name was substituted in his place.”


Read in this Cluster:

Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Land Laws

Evidence Act – General

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act

Will

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

INJUNCTION is a ‘Possessory Remedy’ in Indian Law

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Introspection

  • Divergent views exist as to injunction against “true owner”.
    • One view is that no injunction can be passed in a suit filed by the person in unlawful possession (against the true owner).
      • See: Prahladji Chenaji v. Maniben Jagmalbhai, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258 (Two Judge Bench).
    • The other view is that a trespasser also is entitled for injunction (even against the true owner), for, he cannot be evicted otherwise than on “due process of law” (by the true owner).
      • See: Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, 2004-1 SCC 769 (Three Judge Bench).
  • Legal principles have to be evolved and an authoritative judicial pronouncement has to be penned-down taking note of conflicting views on this subject and laying down cogent and rationale reasoning.

Nutshell of the Contents

  • Possession is a substantive right.
  • It is heritable and transferable.
  • Courts protect settled possession.
  • Injunction is a possessory remedy.
  • It is not necessary for the person claiming injunction, to prove his title.
  • It would suffice if he can prove his lawful possession and that his possession is invaded or threatened to be invaded (Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, 2004-1 SCC 769).
  • Usually, Injunction is not ordered against a true owner.
  • It is not passed to favour a trespasser or a person in unlawful possession.
  • Person in ‘lawful possession’ may get injunction even against true owner – not to disposes, except in due process of law; But, Not After Cancellation (by Court) of the Sale Deed he relied (2022 SCC OnLine SC 258).

Possession is a Substantive Right

  • Possession by itself is a substantive right recognised by law. It is heritable and transferable.
    • Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179;
    • Phirayalal Kapur v. Jia Rani, AIR 1973 Delhi 186;
    • Nallammal v. Ayisha Beevi, 2017-5 Mad LJ 864). 

Injunction is a Possessory Remedy

  • It is trite law that courts protect settled possession. It is trite law that courts protect settled possession. Person claiming injunction, need to prove Lawful Possession only.
    • Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813
    • Aarthiv. Aruna Gautham. 2015 -1 RCR (Civil) 160,
    • Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, 2004-1 SCC 769.
    • Krishna Ram Mahale v. Shobha Venkat Rao, (1989) 4 SCC 131
    • Munshi Ram v. Delhi Administration, (1968) 2 SCR 455,
    • Puran Singh v. The State of Punjab, (1975) 4 SCC 518
    • Ram Rattan v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (1977) 1 SCC 188.
  • But, an injunction cannot be issued against a true owner or title holder, and in favour of a trespasser or a person in unlawful possession.
    • See: Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji vs Maniben Jagmalbhai: 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258.
    • Ladies Corner, Bangalore vs State of Karnataka, ILR 1987 Kar 1710, 1987 (1) KarLJ 402.
    • Patil Exhibitors (Pvt.) Ltd. vs The Corporation of The City (M Venikatachaliah, J.) : AIR 1986 Kar 194, ILR 1985 Kar 3700, 1985 (2) KarLJ 533.
    • Chetak Constructions Vs. Om Prakash, AIR 2003 MP 145

Rame Gowda Case – Person claiming injunction, Need to prove Lawful Possession only

The law on these subjects are clearly laid down in Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, 2004-1 SCC 769. Following were the fact situation of the case:

  • The suit filed by the plaintiff was based on his title.
  • Declaration of title was not sought for though it was in dispute.
  • The defendant contended that (i) the suit being based on title and (ii) the plaintiff failed in proving his title, the suit should be dismissed without regard to (a) the fact that the plaintiff was in possession and (b) ‘whether the defendant had succeeded in proving his title or not’.

Our Apex Court held that there was no merit in the contentions of the defendant and observed that no one would be permitted to take the law in his own hands and to dispossess a person in actual possession without having recourse to a court, as the law respects possession even if there is no title to support it.

Finally it was held that it was not necessary for the person claiming injunction, to prove his title to the suit land, and it would suffice if he proved that he was in lawful possession of the same and that his possession was invaded or threatened to be invaded by a person who has no title thereof. Our Apex Court held as under:

  • Salmond states in Jurisprudence (Twelfth Edition),
    • “few relationships are as vital to man as that of possession, and we may expect any system of law, however primitive, to provide rules for its protection. . . . . . . Law must provide for the safeguarding of possession. Human nature being what it is, men are tempted to prefer their own selfish and immediate interests to the wide and long-term interests of society in general. But since an attack on a man’s possession is an attack on something which may be essential to him, it becomes almost tantamount to an assault on the man himself; and the possessor may well be stirred to defend himself with force. The result is violence, chaos and disorder.” (at pp. 265, 266).
    • “In English Law possession is a good title of right against anyone who cannot show a better. A wrongful possessor has the rights of an owner with respect to all persons except earlier possessors and except the true owner himself. Many other legal systems, however, go much further than this, and treat possession as a provisional or temporary title even against the true owner himself. Even a wrongdoer, who is deprived of his possession, can recover it from any person whatever, simply on the ground of his possession. Even the true owner, who takes his own, may be forced in this way to restore it to the wrongdoer, and will not be permitted to set up his own superior title to it. He must first give up possession, and then proceed in due course of law for the recovery of the thing on the ground of his ownership. The intention of the law is that every possessor shall be entitled to retain and recover his possession, until deprived of it by a judgment according to law.” (Salmond, ibid, pp. 294-295)
    • “Legal remedies thus appointed for the protection of possession even against ownership are called possessory, while those available for the protection of ownership itself may be distinguished as proprietary. In the modern and medieval civil law the distinction is expressed by the contrasted terms petitorium (a proprietary suit) and possessorium (a possessory suit).” (Salmond, ibid, p.295)
  • The law in India, as it has developed, accords with the jurisprudential thought as propounded by Salmond. In Midnapur Zamindary Co. Ltd. Vs. Kumar Naresh Narayan Roy and Ors. 1924 PC 144, Sir John Edge summed up the Indian law by stating that in India persons are not permitted to take forcible possession; they must obtain such possession as they are entitled to through a Court.
  • The thought has prevailed incessantly, till date, the last and latest one in the chain of decisions being Ramesh Chand Ardawatiya Vs. Anil Panjwani  (2003) 7 SCC 350. In-between, to quote a few out of severals, in Lallu Yeshwant Singh (dead) by his legal representative Vs. Rao Jagdish Singh and others  (1968) 2 SCR 203, this Court has held that a landlord did commit trespass when he forcibly entered his own land in the possession of a tenant whose tenancy has expired. The Court turned down the submission that under the general law applicable to a lessor and a lessee there was no rule or principle which made it obligatory for the lessor to resort to Court and obtain an order for possession before he could eject the lessee. The court quoted with approval the law as stated by a Full Bench of Allahabad High Court in Yar Mohammad Vs. Lakshmi Das (AIR 1959 All. 1,4),
    • “Law respects possession even if there is no title to support it. It will not permit any person to take the law in his own hands and to dispossess a person in actual possession without having recourse to a court. No person can be allowed to become a judge in his own cause.”
  • In the oft- quoted case of Nair Service Society Ltd. Vs. K.C. Alexander and Ors. (1968) 3 SCR 163, this Court held that a person in possession of land in assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner. When the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides. The court quoted Loft’s maxim  ‘Possessio contra omnes valet praeter eur cui ius sit possessionis (He that hath possession hath right against all but him that hath the very right)’ and said,
    • “A defendant in such a case must show in himself or his predecessor a valid legal title, or probably a possession prior to the plaintiff’s and thus be able to raise a presumption prior in time”. 
  • In M.C. Chockalingam and Ors. Vs. V. Manickavasagam and Ors. (1974) 1 SCC 48, this Court held that the law forbids forcible dispossession, even with the best of title. In Krishna Ram Mahale (dead) by his Lrs. Vs. Mrs. Shobha Venkat Rao (1989) 4 SCC 131, it was held that where a person is in settled possession of property, even on the assumption that he had no right to remain on the property, he cannot be dispossessed by the owner of the property except by recourse to law. In Nagar Palika, Jind Vs. Jagat Singh, Advocate  (1995) 3 SCC 426, this Court held that disputed questions of title are to be decided by due process of law, but the peaceful possession is to be protected from the trespasser without regard to the question of the origin of the possession. When the defendant fails in proving his title to the suit land the plaintiff can succeed in securing a decree for possession on the basis of his prior possession against the defendant who has dispossessed him. Such a suit will be founded on the averment of previous possession of the plaintiff and dispossession by the defendant.
  • It is thus clear that so far as the Indian law is concerned the person in peaceful possession is entitled to retain his possession and in order to protect such possession he may even use reasonable force to keep out a trespasser. A rightful owner who has been wrongfully dispossessed of land may retake possession if he can do so peacefully and without the use of unreasonable force. If the trespasser is in settled possession of the property belonging to the rightful owner, the rightful owner shall have to take recourse to law; he cannot take the law in his own hands and evict the trespasser or interfere with his possession. The law will come to the aid of a person in peaceful and settled possession by injuncting even a rightful owner from using force or taking law in his own hands, and also by restoring him in possession even from the rightful owner (of course subject to the law of limitation), if the latter has dispossessed the prior possessor by use of force. In the absence of proof of better title, possession or prior peaceful settled possession is itself evidence of title. Law presumes the possession to go with the title unless rebutted. The owner of any property may prevent even by using reasonable force a trespasser from an attempted trespass, when it is in the process of being committed, or is of a flimsy character, or recurring, intermittent, stray or casual in nature, or has just been committed, while the rightful owner did not have enough time to have recourse to law. In the last of he cases, the possession of the trespasser, just entered into would not be called as one acquiesced to by the true owner.
  • It is the settled possession or effective possession of a person without title which would entitle him to protect his possession even as against the true owner. The concept of settled possession and the right of the possessor to protect his possession against the owner has come to be settled by a catena of decisions.
  • Illustratively, we may refer to Munshi Ram and Ors. Vs. Delhi Administration  (1968) 2 SCR 455, Puran Singh and Ors. Vs. The State of Punjab  (1975) 4 SCC 518 and Ram Rattan and Ors. Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh  (1977) 1 SCC 188. The authorities need not be multiplied.
  • In Munshi Ram & Ors.’s case (supra), it was held that no one, including the true owner, has a right to dispossess the trespasser by force if the trespasser is in settled possession of the land and in such a case unless he is evicted in the due course of law, he is entitled to defend his possession even against the rightful owner. But merely stray or even intermittent acts of trespass do not give such a right against the true owner. The possession which a trespasser is entitled to defend against the rightful owner must be settled possession, extending over a sufficiently long period of time and acquiesced to by the true owner. A casual act of possession would not have the effect of interrupting the possession of the rightful owner. The rightful owner may re-enter and reinstate himself provided he does not use more force than is necessary. Such entry will be viewed only as resistance to an intrusion upon his possession which has never been lost. A stray act of trespass, or a possession which has not matured into settled possession, can be obstructed or removed by the true owner even by using necessary force. In Puran Singh and Ors.’s case (supra), the Court clarified that it is difficult to lay down any hard and fast rule as to when the possession of a trespasser can mature into settled possession. The ‘settled possession’ must be (i) effective, (ii) undisturbed, and (iii) to the knowledge of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser. The phrase ‘settled possession’ does not carry any special charm or magic in it; nor is it a ritualistic formula which can be confined in a strait-jacket. An occupation of the property by a person as an agent or a servant acting at the instance of the owner will not amount to actual physical possession. The court laid down the following tests which may be adopted as a working rule for determining the attributes of ‘settled possession’:
    • i) that the trespasser must be in actual physical possession of the property over a sufficiently long period;
    • ii) that the possession must be to the knowledge (either express or implied) of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser and which contains an element of animus possidendi. The nature of possession of the trespasser would, however, be a matter to be decided on the facts and circumstances of each case;
    • iii) the process of dispossession of the true owner by the trespasser must be complete and final and must be acquiesced to by the true owner; and
    • iv) that one of the usual tests to determine the quality of settled possession, in the case of culturable land, would be whether or not the trespasser, after having taken possession, had grown any crop. If the crop had been grown by the trespasser, then even the true owner has no right to destroy the crop grown by the trespasser and take forcible possession.
  • In the cases of Munshi Ram and Ors. (supra) and Puran Singh and Ors. (supra), the Court has approved the statement of law made in Horam Vs. Rex  AIR 1949 Allahabad 564, wherein a distinction was drawn between the trespasser in the process of acquiring possession and the trespasser who had already accomplished or completed his possession wherein the true owner may be treated to have acquiesced in; while the former can be obstructed and turned out by the true owner even by using reasonable force, the latter, may be dispossessed by the true owner only by having recourse to the due process of law for re-acquiring possession over his property.
  • In the present case the Court has found the plaintiff as having failed in proving his title. Nevertheless, he has been found to be in settled possession of the property. Even the defendant failed in proving his title over the disputed land so as to substantiate his entitlement to evict the plaintiff. The Trial Court therefore left the question of title open and proceeded to determine the suit on the basis of possession, protecting the established possession and restraining the attempted interference therewith. The Trial Court and the High Court have rightly decided the suit. It is still open to the defendant-appellant to file a suit based on his title against the plaintiff-respondent and evict the latter on the former establishing his better right to possess the property.”

Finally, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In Kallappa Rama Londa’s case, the learned Single Judge has upheld the maintainability of a suit merely seeking injunction, without declaration of title, and on dealing with several decided cases the learned Judge has agreed with the proposition that where the suit for declaration of title and injunction is filed and the title is not clear, the question of title will have to be kept open without denying the plaintiff’s claim for injunction in view of the fact that the plaintiff has been in possession and there is nothing to show that the plaintiff has gained possession by any unfair means just prior to the suit. That is the correct position of law. In Fakirbhai Bhagwandas and Anr. Vs. Maganlal Haribhai and Anr. AIR 1951 Bombay 380 a Division Bench spoke through Bhagwati, J. (as his Lordship then was), and held that it is not necessary for the person claiming injunction to prove his title to the suit land. It would suffice if he proves that he was in lawful possession of the same and that his possession was invaded or threatened to be invaded by a person who has no title thereof. We respectfully agree with the view so taken.” 

In Kantappa v. Krishnabai, AIR 1995 Kant 213, a decision of the Division Bench of Karnataka High Court (consisting of M.N. Venkatachaliah and N.R. Kudoor, JJ.), has held as under:

  • “An intending transferee under a contract for sale of immovable property, who is put in possession of the properly in part performance of the contract, can as a plaintiff bring an action for the possessory remedy of an injunction in protection of his possession against the transferor”. (Quoted in Chetak Constructions Vs. Om Prakash, AIR 2003 MP 145)

CHANGE IN THE VIEW OF THE APEX COURT

  • A person may get injunction against true owner – not to disposes, except in due process of law, If in ‘lawful possession’;
  • But, Not After Cancellation of the Sale Deed (by Court) he relied on.

Our Apex Court held in Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji vs Maniben Jagmalbhai: 2022-2 RCR (Civil) 395; 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258 (M.R. Shah, B.V. Nagarathna, JJ.) as under:

  • “9.3 In the case of A. Subramanian Vs. R. Pannerselvam, (2021) 3 SCC 675, it is observed by this Court that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner. Therefore, the plaintiff is not entitled to any injunction and/or protect his possession against the rightful owner, more particularly, when he fails to get the declaratory relief and the dispute with respect to the title comes to an end.
  • 10. Now, so far as the reliance placed upon the decision of this Court in the case of Anathula Sudhakar (supra) by the learned Advocate appearing on behalf of the original plaintiff in support of his submission that in a suit for permanent injunction to restrain the defendant to interfere with the plaintiff’s possession, the only thing the plaintiff will have to establish is that as on the date of the suit, he was in lawful possession of the suit property and the defendant has tried to interfere or disturb his possession is concerned, what is observed by this Court in paragraph 15 is the “lawful possession” of the plaintiff. In the present case the plaintiff, who has failed to get any declaratory relief and the defendant No.1 is held to be a true and absolute owner on the basis of the registered sale deed on payment of full sale consideration thereafter the plaintiff’s possession cannot be said to be “lawful possession”. Therefore, the plaintiff is not entitled to any permanent injunction against the true owner in the instant case.
  • “11.1 … Where once a suit is held not maintainable, no relief of injunction can be granted. Injunction may be granted even against the true owner of the property, only when the person seeking the relief is in lawful possession and enjoyment of the property and also legally entitled to be in possession, not to disposes him, except in due process of law.
  • 12. Now, so far as the submission on behalf of the plaintiff that even if the plaintiff failed to get the declaratory relief and relief for cancellation of registered sale deed and her suit for the said reliefs came to be dismissed and the plaintiff is found to be in possession and therefore, the only remedy available to the defendant No.1 would be to file a substantive suit to get back the possession is noticed only to be rejected outright. It is the contention on behalf of the plaintiff that once the plaintiff is found to be in possession, her possession cannot be disturbed except in due process of law and the defendant No.1 though may be the true owner has to file a substantive suit for recovery of possession. While considering the aforesaid submission, the decision of this Court in the case of Maria Margarida Sequeira Fernandes Vs. Erasmo Jack de Sequeira, (2012) 5 SCC 370 is required to be referred to. What is meant by due process of law has been explained by this court in paragraph 79, which reads as under:-
    • “79. Due process of law means that nobody ought to be condemned unheard. The due process of law means a person in settled possession will not be dispossessed except by due process of law. Due process means an opportunity to the defendant to file pleadings including written statement and documents before the court of law.
    • It does not mean the whole trial. Due process of law is satisfied the moment rights of the parties are adjudicated upon by a competent court.”
  • In the said decision, this Court has approved the following findings of the High Court of Delhi in Thomas Cook (India) Ltd. Vs. Hotel Imperial (2006) 88 DRJ 545:-
    • “28. The expressions ‘due process of law’, ‘due course of law’ and ‘recourse to law’ have been interchangeably used in the decisions referred to above which say that the settled possession of even a person in unlawful possession cannot be disturbed ‘forcibly’ by the true owner taking law in his own hands. All these expressions, however, mean the same thing—ejectment from settled possession can only be had by recourse to a court of law.
    • Clearly, ‘due process of law’ or ‘due course of law’, here, simply mean that a person in settled possession cannot  be ejected without a court of law having adjudicated upon his rights qua the true owner.
    • Now, this ‘due process’ or ‘due course’ condition is satisfied the moment the rights of the parties are adjudicated upon by a court of competent jurisdiction. It does not matter who brought the action to court. It could be the owner in an action for enforcement of his right to eject the person in unlawful possession. It could be the person who is sought to be ejected, in an action preventing the owner from ejecting him. Whether the action is for enforcement of a right (recovery of possession) or protection of a right (injunction against dispossession), is not of much consequence. What is important is that in either event it is an action before the court and the court adjudicates upon it. If that is done then, the ‘bare minimum’ requirement of ‘due process’ or ‘due course’ of law would stand satisfied as recourse to law would have been taken. In this context, when a party approaches a court seeking a protective remedy such as an injunction and it fails in setting up a good case, can it then say that the other party must now institute an action in a court of law for enforcing his rights i.e. for taking back something from the first party who holds it unlawfully, and, till such time, the court hearing the injunction action must grant an injunction anyway? I would think not. In any event, the ‘recourse to law’ stipulation stands satisfied when a judicial determination is made with regard to the first party’s protective action. Thus, in the present case, the plaintiff’s failure to make out a case for an injunction does not mean that its consequent cessation of user of the said two rooms would have been brought about without recourse to law.”
  • 12.1 Applying the law laid down by this Court in the aforesaid decision to the facts of the case on hand and once the rights of the parties are adjudicated and the defendant No.1 is held to be the true owner on the basis of the registered sale deed and on payment of full sale consideration, it can be said that due process of law has been followed and thereafter the plaintiff is not entitled to any permanent injunction against the true owner.
  • 13. In view of the above discussion and for the reasons stated above, all the Courts below have erred in granting permanent injunction in favour of the plaintiff and against the defendant No.1, who is the true owner. After having held that the plaintiff had no title and after dismissing the suit qua the cancellation of the registered sale deed and the declaration, the plaintiff is not entitled to relief of permanent injunction against defendant No.1 – the true owner.”
    • Note: It is not specifically stated in this decision (Prahladji Chenaji v. Maniben Jagmalbhai) that one can resume possession using force.

Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act

Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act allows one to file a suit for recovery of property, on the strength of his prior possession, if he had lost his possession within 6 months of the suit. In such a case, he need not prove his title; and he can succeed on establishing that he has been dispossessed otherwise than in accordance with law within six months.

Sec. 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 reads as under:

  • 6. Suit by person dispossessed of immovable property.
  • (1) If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit.
  • (2) No suit under this section shall be brought
    • (a) after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession; or
    • (b) against the Government.
  • (3) No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section, nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed.
  • (4) Nothing in this section shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to such property and to recover possession thereof.

If Title not Perfected by Adver. Posn, Can one eject a Trespasser After 6 Months

High Courts differ, as pointed out in Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179.

Now it is settled that if one fails to exercise his option by filing a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act within six months, he is at liberty to file a suit to recover his possession (with or without declaration) by a regular suit for recovery of possession. It can be based on title or on his possession in assumed or presumed character of ownership (even if title not perfected by doctrine of adverse possession) on the principle that possession is good title against all the world but the rightful owner.

The law on this matter is laid down in detail in Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179. It is observed as under:

  • 6. Possession by itself is a substantive right recognised by law and has legal incidents attached to it apart from ownership. Even before the acquisition of statutory title by adverse possession for the requisite period under the Limitation Act, the possessory owner has well defined rights in property. It is now settled beyond all dispute that this interest is heritable, devisable and transferable. This interest is referred to as possessory title as distinct from proprietary title. A person having such interest must be allowed to enforce those rights against all the world except those who have a better title or better right than himself.
  • Salmond on Jurisprudence, Eleventh edition, observes at page 345 :
    • “In English law possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better. A wrongful possessor has the rights of an owner with respect to all persons except earlier possessors and except the true owner himself.”
  • and at pages 473 and 474 it is observed:
    • “On the other hand, the thing of which possession is taken may already be the property of some one else. In this case the title acquired by possession is good, indeed, against all third persons, but is of no validity at all against the true owner. Possession, even when consciously wrongful, is allowed as a title of right against all persons who cannot show a better, because a prior title in themselves. Save with respect to the rights of the original proprietor, my rights to the watch in my pocket are much the same whether. I bought it honestly, or found it, or abstracted it from the pocket of some one else. If it is stolen from me, the law will help me to the recovery of it. I can effectually sell it, lend it, give it away, or bequeath it, and it will go on my death intestate to my next of kin. Whoever acquires it from me, however, acquires in general nothing save my limited and imperfect title to it, and holds if, as I do, subject to the superior claims of the original owner.
    • XX XX XX
    • If a possessory owner is wrongfully deprived of the thing by a person other than the true owner he can recover it. For the defendant cannot set up as a defence his own possessory title since it is later than and consequently inferior to, the possessory title of the plaintiff. Nor can he set up as a defence the title of the true owner–the jus tertii as it is called; the plaintiff has a better, because an earlier, title than the defendant, and it is irrelevant that the title of some other person, not a party to the suit, is better still. The expediency of this doctrine of possessory ownership is clear. Were it not for such a rule, force and fraud would be left to determine all disputes as to possession, between persons of whom neither could show an unimpeachable title to the thing as the true owner of it.”
  • Pollock & Wright in their book ‘Possession in the Common Law’ expressed themselves thus at page 91:
    • Existing possession, however acquired, is protected against any interference by a mere wrongdoer; and the wrongdoer cannot defend himself by showing a better title than the plaintiff’s in some third person though or under whom he docs not himself claim or justify. ‘Any possession is a legal possession‘–i.e. lawful and maintainable–against a wrong doer.”
  • and at page 95:
    • “It would be possible at first sight to suppose that, as between a succession of independent occupiers who were all wrongdoers as against the true owner, the law must be indifferent, with the result of conferring an absolute title upon the person who happens to he in possession when the time of limitation expires. Reflection, however, shows this to be contrary to the reason and principles of the law. Possession being once admitted to be a root of title, every possession must create a title which, as against all subsequent intruders, has all the incidents and advantages of a true title. In the language of the modern authorities, ‘Possession is good title‘– nothing less–‘against all but the true owner‘.”
  • 7. The English doctrine of possessory title is expressed in the following terms by Cockburn, C. J., in Asher v. Whitelock, (1865) 35 LJQB 17:
    • “I take it to be established by authority that possession is good against all the world except the person who can show a better title than the one in possession Doe d Hughes v. Dyeball, (1829 Moo & M 346) shews that possession, even for a year, is sufficient against a mere subsequent possession. The whole law of disseisin was founded upon the principle that the desseisin gives title to the disorder against all the world but the disseisee.”
  • 8. Their Lordships of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council in Perry v. Clissold, 1907 AC 73 at p. 79 decided:
    • “It cannot be disputed that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner. And if the rightful owner does not come forward and assert his title by process of law within the period prescribed by the provisions of the Statute of Limitations applicable to the case, his right is for ever extinguished, and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.”
  • 9. The above is certainly the doctrine of English Law. The rule of English Law that possession is good title against all but the true owner has been adopted by the decisions of the Indian High Courts and also by the decisions of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Councilin the Indian cases. In Khajah Enaetoollah Chowdhry v. Kishen Soondur Surma, (1867) 8 Suth WR 386 at pp. 387 and 388, Dwarkanath Mitter, J. posed the question thus:
    • ”Can the Civil Courts give a decree for immovable property on the bare ground of illegal dispossession in a suit brought after six months from the date of such dispossession, it being borne in mind, however, that the defendant has failed to prove his own title to the same?”
  • and answered the same in the following terms:
    • But we do not see any reason why a mere wrongful dispossess or should require proof from his adversary of anything beyond the illegal dispossession complained of. He himself has not got and never had any title to the land. The act of dispossession committed by him has been entirely without any sanction from law. Justice and equity require that he should be compelled to restore the party wronged by him to the same position which the latter enjoyed before the dale of the illegal ejectment. To adopt the contrary view appears to us to be tantamount to holding out a premium in favour of wrong and violence”
  • and in Hari v. Dhondi, (1906) 8 Bom LR 96 Sir Lawrence Jenkins, C. J. said:
    • Possession is evidence of ownership, and is itself the foundation of a right to possession.”
  • and Subramania Ayyar, J. in Mustapha Saheb v. Santha Pillai, (1900) ILR 23 Mad 179 at p. 182 said:
    • “that the rule of law that a party ousted by a person who has no better right is, with reference to the person so ousting, entitled to recover by virtue of the possession he had held before the ouster even though that “possession was without any title” is so firmly established as to render a lengthened discussion about it quite superfluous.”
  • 10. In Sundar v. Parbati, (1890) ILR 12 All 61 (PC) decided by their Lordships of the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council, the suit was for partition and recovery of possession filed by the junior widow of a deceased Hindu against the senior widow who denied the junior widow’s right to separate possession and contended that she was entitled to manage the whole estate. The Subordinate Judge decreed the plaintiff’s suit. A Bench of the Allahabad High Court reversed the decree of the Subordinate Judge and dismissed the suit. Lord Watson delivering the Judgment of the hoard, observed at page 57:
    • “If it were necessary to determine the point, their Lordships would probably have little difficulty in accepting the opinion of the High Court that a Hindu Brahman cannot lawfully adopt his own sister’s son. But apart from that question, and also from any question touching the legal effect of Baldeo Sahai’s will the fact of joint possession by the two widows of the estates which belonged to the testator, ever since the death of Premsukh in 1879, appears to them to be sufficient for disposing of this suit in favour of the appellant. Their Lordships are at a loss to understand, at all event to appreciate, the grounds upon which the Chief Justice endeavours to differentiate between the authorities which he cites, the import of which he correctly states, and the position of the parties to this action. Their possession was lawfully attained, in this sense, that it was not procured by force or fraud, but peaceably, no one interested opposing. In these circumstances, it does not admit of doubt that they were entitled to maintain their possession against all coiners except the heirs of Premsukh or of Baldco Sahai, one or other of whom (it is unnecessary to say which) is the only person who can plead a preferable title. But neither of these possible claimants is in the field, and the widows have therefore, each of them, an estate or interest in respect of her possession, which cannot be impaired by the circumstance that they may have ascribed their possession to one or more other titles which do not belong to them. It is impossible to hold that a joint estate is not also partible; and their Lordships will therefore humbly advise Her Majesty that the judgment of the High Court ought to be reversed, and that of the Subordinate Judge restored.”
  • The above principle was reiterated by their Lordships of the Judicial Committee in Ismail Ariff v. Mahomed Ghous, (1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC). At page 843 their Lordships observed:
    • “It appears to their Lordships that there is here a misapprehension of the nature of the plaintiff’s case upon the facts stated in the judgment. The possession of the plaintiff was sufficient evidence of title as owner against the defendant. By Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act (Act 1 of 1877), if the plaintiff had been dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law, he could, by a suit instituted within six months from the date of the dispossession, have recovered possession, notwithstanding any other title that might be set up in such suit. If he could thus recover possession from a person who might be able to prove a title, it is certainly right and just that he should be able, against a person who has no title and is a mere wrongdoer, to obtain a declaration of title as owner, and an injunction to restrain the wrong-doer from interfering with his possession. Die Appellate Court, in accordance with the judgment above quoted, has dismissed the suit. Consequently, the defendant may continue to wilfully, improperly and illegally interferes with the plaintiff’s possession, as the learned Judge say he has done, and the plaintiff has no remedy. Their Lordships are of opinion that the suit should not have been dismissed; and that the plaintiff was entitled in it to a declaration of his title to the land.”
  • The principle underlying the rule that possession is a good title against all the world except the person who can show a better title is staled thus in Narayana Row v. Dharma-char, (1903) ILR 26 Mad 514 at p. 518:
    • “The principle underlying the rule of law in question seems to be that acquisition of title by operation of the law of limitation being a lawful mode of acquiring title, the person in peaceable possession is entitled to maintain such possession against all but the true owner and that therefore a third party who has no better title than the person in possession has no right to invade upon the possession of the latter and interrupt or arrest his lawful acquisition of title by his continuing to remain in possession for the statutory period. It is the true owner alone that is entitled to assert his title as against the person wrongfully in possession, and prevent such wrongful possession ripening into prescriptive title. But a third party who without deriving title under the true owner and without his authority, interrupts such possession before it has ripened into prescriptive title, is a trespasser, not only against the true owner, but also against the party actually in possession; and, subject to the law of limitation, either of them is entitled to maintain a suit in ejectment against such intruder as a trespasser.”
  • 11. We are therefore of the view that a person in juridical possession, if dispossessed by a trespasser without title, can recover possession on the sole ground of his prior possession even beyond six months from the date of dispossession and this is enough to dispose of the second appeal.
  • 12. But the learned advocate for the appellant relying on the decision in Nisa Chand Gaita v. Kanchiram Bagani, (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 submitted that mere previous possession for any period short of the statutory period of twelve years will not entitle a plaintiff to a decree for recovery of possession in a suit brought more than six months after dispossession, even if the defendant could not establish any title to the disputed land. The point which arose for decision in (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 was whether the plaintiff is entitled to a decree merely upon proof of previous possession for a period less than twelve years, on the ground that the defendant has established no title, the suit having been brought more than six months after the date of dispossession. (1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) was distinguished thus:
    • “There (in 1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) the plaintiff was in possession when he brought his suit, whereas in the present case the plaintiff is out of possession. What the plaintiff asked for in the case of Ismail Ariff v. Mahomed Ghous (1893-20 Cal 834 PC) was a decree declaring his right, and an injunction restraining the defendant from disturbing his possession; what the plaintiff asks for in this case is only recovery of possession; and what was said by their Lordships of the Judicial Committee with reference to the plaintiff’s right to obtain this relief is to be found in the following passage of their judgment:
    • “It appears to their Lordships that there is here a misapprehension of the nature of the plaintiff’s case upon the facts stated in the judgment. The possession of the plaintiff was sufficient evidence of title as owner against the defendant. By Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act (1 of 1877), if the plaintiff had been dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law, he could by a suit instituted within six months from the date of the dispossession, have recovered possession, notwithstanding any other title that might be set up in such suit. If he could thus recover possession from a person who might be able to prove a title, it is certainly right and just that he should he able, against a person who has no title and is a mere wrongdoer, to obtain a declaration of title as owner, and an injunction to restrain the wrong-doer from interfering with his possession.”
    • This shows, as we understand the judgment, that the reason for their Lordships’ decision was this that as the plaintiff, had his position been rendered somewhat worse by his being dispossessed, could, by instituting a suit within six months for recovery of possession under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, have recovered possession even as against a person who might establish a better title, it was only right and just that if he brought his suit before he was dispossessed he could be declared entitled to retain possession as against a mere wrong-doer, and should obtain an injunction restraining the wrong-doer from interfering with his possession. But, though that was so in the case of a plaintiff who was in possession, and had, therefore, a possibility open to him of being restored to possession upon mere proof of possession, by instituting a suit under section 9 of the Specific Relief Act upon being dis-possessed, it does not follow that it should be so in the case of a plaintiff who had been in possession, and allowed more than six months to elapse after his dispossession, and therefore, lost the possibility of recovering possession, by a suit under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, upon mere proof of previous possession.”
  • 13. Distinguishing (1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) in the above manner, the Calcutta High Court in (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 sought support for the dictum in the following observations of the Privy Council in J. P. Wise v. Ameerunnissa Khatoon, (1879-80) 7 Ind App 73 at p. 80 (PC):
    • “It is quite clear that the plaintiffs have failed to make out a title. The Defendants were put into possession by the Government, who were entitled to the lands, and they were ordered by the Magistrate under the Code of Criminal Procedure to be retained in possession. If the Plaintiffs had wished to contend that the Defendants had been wrongfully put into possession and that the Plaintiffs were entitled to recover on the strength of their previous possession without entering into a question of title at all, they ought to have brought their action within six months under Section 15 of Act XIV of 1859; but they did not do so. The High Court, with reference to this point say (and in their Lordships’ opinion, correctly say) : “Further, de facto possession having been given to the Defendants under Section 318 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, in accordance with the Deputy Collector’s award, the plaintiff will not be entitled to a decree until and unless he can show a better title to these lands than the Defendants. The fact that the Plaintiffs’ posses sion as regards B, C, and D was confirmed under Act IV of 1840, and that the defendants Nos. 2 and 3 unsuccessfully endeavoured to dis-turb them by regular suit, does not bar the right of Government. Section 2 of Act IV of 1840 only affects persons concerned in the dispute. If Kalkini-hud belonged to a private individual he might have reduced into his own possession lands which had accreted to the estate and which undoubtedly were his. But lands to which he is unable to make out a title cannot he recovered on the ground of previous possession merely, except in a suit under Section 15 of Act XIV of 1859, which must be brought within six months from the time of that dispossession.”
  • The Calcutta High Court on an interpretation of (1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) and (1879 80) 7 Ind App 73 (PC) has therefore taken the view that Section 9 of the Act operates as a bar to the institution of suits in which the claim for possession of any immovable property is based on anything but proprietary title.
  • 14. On the other hand, the decision in (1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) was relied on by the other High Courts for the position that possessory title can be made the foundation for suits in ejectment filed after six months from the date of dispossession against trespassers who have no title.
  • 15. The effective answer to the basis of the decision of the Calcutta High Court in (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 has been furnished by Subra-mania Ayyar and O’ Farrell JJ. in (1900) ILR 23 Mad 179 at p. 183. Subramania Ayyar, J. at page 183 observed:
    • “And with reference to the grounds on which decision in (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 seems to rest, it is necessary to make but two observations. The first is that Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act cannot possibly be held to take away any remedy available with reference to the well-recognised doctrine expressed in Pollock and Wright on Possession thus:–Possession in law is a substantive right or interest which exists and has legal incidents and advantages apart from the true owners title, (at page 19). The second observation is that in (1879-80) 7 Ind App 73 (PC) relied on in (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 the defendant had a better right than the plaintiff, since the possession of the former was authorised by the Government whose properly the land in dispute was and consequently nothing said by their Lordships in a case wherein such were the facts can rightly be con-strued as intended to lay down the law differently from what it bad been all along understood to be.” and O’ Farrell, J. observed:
    • “All the dictum of the Privy Council in (1879-80) 7 Ind App 73 (PC) appears to amount to is this, that where a plaintiff in possession without any title seeks to recover possession of which be has been forcibly deprived by a defendant having a good title, he can only do so under the provisions of Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act and not otherwise.”
  • 16. The Madras High Court again in (1903) ILR 26 Mad 514 relying on (1893 ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) took the view that Section 9 of the Act is in no way inconsistent with the position that as against a wrong-doer, prior possession of the plaintiff in an action of ejectment is sufficient title, even if a suit is brought more than six months after the date of dispossession and the wrong-doer cannot successfully resist the suit by showing that the title and right to possession are in a third person, and a plea of jus tertii is no defence unless the defendant can show that the act complained of was done by authority of the true owner and it is immaterial however short or recent the plaintiff’s possession was. The only effect of Section 9 of the Act is that if a summary suit be brought within the time prescribed by that Section, the plaintiff therein who was dispossessed otherwise than in due course of law will be entitled to be reinstated even if the defendant who thus dispossessed him be the true owner or a person authorised by or claiming under him, but a decree in such a suit will not have the force of res judicata on the question of title.
  • 17. We are in respectful agreement with the observations in (1900) ILR 23 Mad 179 and hold that the decision in (1899) ILR 26 Cal 579 has proceeded on an incorrect interpretation of the decisions in (1893) ILR 20 Cal 834 (PC) and (1879-80) 7 Ind App 73 (PC):
  • 18. There remains only to consider the decision of Mr. Justice Raman Nayar in Vasudeva Kurup v. Ammini Amma 1964 Ker LT 468 where it was held that a person in possession without title is entitled to remain in possession even as against the lawful owner until evicted in due course of law and is therefore entitled to get an order of injunction restraining the true owner from disturbing his possession. The right of a person in possession without title to get an injunction on the basis of possessory title against the true owner is not a point arising in the second appeal and we are not expressing any opinion on that aspect. The point decided in 1964 Ker L. T. 468 has no direct bearing on the question to be decided in the second appeal except that possessory title is recognised as the foundation of a claim for maintaining one’s possession. This only sup ports the view we are taking in this appeal.”

‘Possession is good against all but the True Owner’ & Sec. 6 of the Sp. Relief Act

The principle ‘Possession is Good against all but the True Owner’ is declared in Parry v. Clissold, (1907) AC 73. In this decision it was also pointed out that if the rightful owner did not come forward and assert his title within the period of limitation, his right would be extinguished and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.

The Supreme Court of India while accepting this principle in Nair Service Society Ltd. vs. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, pointed out that the law in India allows a plaintiff to maintain a possessory suit under Sec. 9 (preset Sec. 6) of the Specific Relief Act. Such a suit can be filed against a title holder, if he had dispossessed the plaintiff ‘otherwise than in due course of law’.

In Nair Service Society Ltd. vs. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, it is observed as under:

  • “17. … To express our meaning we may begin by reading 1907 AC 73 (Perry V. Clissold), to discover if the principle that possession is good against all but the true owner has in any way been departed from.
  • 1907 AC 73 reaffirmed the principle by stating quite clearly:
    • “It cannot be disputed that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner. And if the rightful owner does not come forward and assert his title by the process of law within the period prescribed by the provisions of the statute of Limitation applicable to the case, his right is for ever extinguished and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.”
  • Therefore, the plaintiff who was peaceably in possession was entitled to remain in possession and only the State could evict him. The action of the Society was a violent invasion of his possession and in the law as it stands in India the plaintiff could maintain a possessory suit under the provisions of the Specific Relief Act in which title would be immaterial or a suit for possession within 12 years in which the question of title could be raised.”

In Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813, our Apex Court explained the principle ‘possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better’ as under:

  • “9. The law in India, as it has developed, accords with jurisprudential thought as propounded by luminaries like Salmond. Salmond on Jurisprudence states:­
    • “These two concepts of ownership and possession, therefore, may be used to distinguish between the de facto possessor of an object and its de jure owner, between the man who actually has it and the man who ought to have it. They serve also to contract the position of one whose rights are ultimate, permanent and residual with that of one whose rights are only of a temporary nature.
    • x x x x x
    • In English law possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better. A wrongful possessor has the rights of an owner with respect to all persons except earlier possessors and except the true owner himself. Many other legal systems, however, go much further than this, and treat possession as a provisional or temporary title even against the true owner himself. Even a wrongdoer, who is deprived of his possession, can recover it from any person whatever, simply on the ground of his possession. Even the true owner, who takes his own, may be forced in this way to  restore it to the wrongdoer, and will not be permitted to set up his own superior title to it. He must first give up possession, and then proceed in due course of law for the recovery of the thing on the ground of his ownership. The intention of the law is that every possessor shall be entitled to retain and recover his possession, until deprived of it by a judgment according to law.
    • Legal remedies thus appointed for the protection of possession even against ownership are called possessory, while those available for the protection of ownership itself may be distinguished as proprietary. In the modern and medieval civil law the distinction is expressed by the contrasted terms petitorium (a proprietary suit) and possessorium (a possessory suit).”
  • 10. As far back as 1924, in the case of Midnapur Zamindary Co. Ltd. v. Naresh Narayan Roy, AIR 1924 PC 144, the learned Judge observed that in India, persons are not permitted to take forcible possession; they must obtain such possession as they are entitled to through a court. Later, in the case of Nair Service Society Ltd. v. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, this Court ruled that when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides. It was further held that if Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, 1877 (corresponding to the present Section6) is employed, the plaintiff need not prove title and the title of the defendant does not avail him. When, however, the period of six months has passed, questions of title can be raised by the defendant, and if he does so the plaintiff must establish a better title or fail. In other words, such a right is only restricted to possession in a suit under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act (corresponding to the present Section 6) but does not bar a suit on prior possession within 12 years from the date of dispossession, and title need not be proved unless the defendant can provide one.
  • 11. It was also observed by this Court in Nair Service Society Ltd. (supra) that a person in possession of land in assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against the entire world except the rightful owner. In such a case, the defendant must show in himself or his predecessor a valid legal title and probably a possession prior to the plaintiff’s, and thus be able to raise a presumption prior in time.”

Settled Possession and Established Possession

In A. Subramanian v. R. Pannerselvam, AIR 2021 SC 821, the Supreme Court held that even a trespasser, who is in established possession of the property could obtain injunction. But, it was cautioned that the matter would be different, if the plaintiff himself elaborated in the plaint about title dispute and fails to make a prayer for declaration of title along with injunction relief.

In Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813, it was pointed out in a case where there was no document to prove settled possession that ‘merely on doubtful material and cursory evidence, it cannot be held that the plaintiff was ever in possession of the property, and that too in settled possession’. It held further as under:

  • “13. The crux of the matter is that a person who asserts possessory title over a particular property will have to show that he is under settled or established possession of the said property. But merely stray or intermittent acts of trespass do not give such a right against the true owner. Settled possession means such possession over the property which has existed for a sufficiently long period of time, and has been acquiesced to by the true owner. A casual act of possession does not have the effect of interrupting the possession of the rightful owner. A stray act of trespass, or a possession which has not matured into settled possession, can be obstructed or removed by the true owner even by using necessary force. Settled possession must be (i) effective,(ii) undisturbed, and (iii) to the knowledge of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser. There cannot be a straitjacket formula to determine settled possession. Occupation of a property by a person as an agent or a servant acting at the instance of the owner will not amount to actual legal possession. The possession should contain an element of animus possidendi. The nature of possession of the trespasser is to be decided based on the facts and circumstances of each case.”

Possessory title

In Somnath Barman v. Dr. S. P. Raju, AIR 1970 SC 846, 1969-3 SCC 129 (KS Hegde & JC Shah, JJ.), it was observed as under:

  • “In our opinion the possession of the plaintiff prior to 1945 is a good title against all but the true owner. The defendants who are mere trespassers cannot defeat the plaintiff’s lawful possession by ousting him from the suit property. Possessory title is a good title as against everybody other than the lawful owner. In Ismail’ Ariff v. Mohamed Ghouse(I.L.R.20 1.A.99), the Judicial Committee came to the conclusion that a person having possessory title can get a declaration that he was the owner of the land in suit and an injunction restraining the defendant from interfering with his possession. Therein it was observed that the, possession of the plaintiff was a sufficient evidence of title as owner against the defendant.”

Possession is Good Title

In Somnath Barman v. Dr. S. P. Raju AIR 1970 SC 846, 1969-3 SCC 129 our Apex Court relied on Narayana Row v. Dharmachar, ILR XXVI Mad. 514, where the Madras High Court consisting of Bhashyam Ayyangar and Moore, JJ., held that possession was, under the Indian, as under the English law, good title against all but the true owner. 

A Trespasser Cannot Resist Recovery Showing Title in a Third Person

A trespasser on a property in possession of another cannot successfully resist the suit by showing that the title and right to possession are in a third person. Our Apex Court, in Somnath Barman v. Dr. SP Raju, AIR 1970 SC 846, 1969-3 SCC 129,  approved the above view following the following decisions:

  • Krishnarav Yashvant v. Vasudev Apaji Ghotikat, ILR 8, Bom. 371;
  • Umrao Singh v. Ramji Das, ILR 36 All. 51;
  • Wali Ahmad Khan v. Ahjudhia Khandu, ILR XIII All 537;
  • Subodh Gopal Bose v. Province of Bihar, AIR 1950 Pat. 222;
  • Narayana Row v. Dharmachar, ILR XXVI Mad. 514.

The Apex Court, in Somnath Barman v. Dr. SP Raju, AIR 1970 SC 846, 1969-3 SCC 129, held that the contrary view taken by the Calcutta High Court in the following decisions were incorrect –

  • Debi Churn Boldo v. Issur- Chunder Manjee(ILR IX Cal. 39),
  • Ertaza Hossein and Anr. v. Bany Mistry(ILR IX Cal. 130.) 
  • Puremeshur Chowdhry and Ors. v. Brijo Lall Chowdhry(ILR XVII Cal. 256;
  • Nisa Chana Goita and Ors. v. Kanchiram Bagani, ILR XXVI Cal. 579.

See Blog (Click): When ‘Possession Follows Title’; ‘Title Follows Possession’?

Mandatory Injunction – To Preserve Status Quo of the Last Non-Contested Status

Dorab Cawasji Warden v. Coomi Sorab Warden, AIR  1990 SC 867 : (1990) 2 SCC 117, is the laudable decision on interim mandatory injunction. It is laid down in this decision that interlocutory mandatory injunctions are granted to:

  • (i) preserve or restore the status quo ante, of the last non-contested status which preceded the pending controversy, or
  • (ii) to compel the undoing of those acts that have been illegally done, or
  • (iii) the restoration of that which was wrongfully taken from the party complaining.

It is also pointed out that the court would consider the prospect of granting of a mandatory injunction finally, after trial; and delineated that a fresh state of affairs cannot be allowed to be created by the grant of such an injunction.

Read Blog: The Law and Principles of Mandatory Injunction

Gratuitous Possession – Owner can Reclaim Even Without Knowledge of the Other

In Anima Mallick v. Ajoy Kumar Roy, (2000) 4 SCC 119, our Apex Court held that where the sister gave possession as gratuitous to her brother, the sister could reclaim such possession even without knowledge of the brother; and that ‘no one acquires title to the property if he or she was allowed to stay in the premises gratuitously. Even by long possession of years or decades such person would not acquire any right or interest in the said property. (Relied on in Maria Margadia Sequeria v. Erasmo Jack De Sequeria 2012 (5) SCC 370, Indore Development Authority v. Manoharlal, (2020) 8 SCC 129; AIR 2020 SC 1496.)

Person in possession can use Reasonable Force to keep out a Trespasser

In Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, (2004) 1 SCC 769, our Apex Court Court, observed as under:­ 

  • “8. It is thus clear that so far as the Indian law is concerned the person in peaceful possession is entitled to retain his possession and in order to protect such possession he may even use reasonable force to keep out a trespasser. A rightful owner who has been wrongfully dispossessed of land may retake possession if he can do so peacefully and without the use of unreasonable force. If the trespasser is in settled possession of the property belonging to the rightful owner, the rightful owner shall have to take recourse to law; he cannot take the law in his own hands and evict the trespasser or interfere with his possession. The law will come to the aid of a person in peaceful and settled possession by injuncting even a rightful owner from using force or taking law in his own hands, and also by restoring him in possession even from the rightful owner (of course subject to the law of limitation), if the latter has dispossessed the prior possessor by use of force. In the absence of proof of better title, possession or prior peaceful settled possession is itself evidence of title. Law presumes the possession to go with the title unless rebutted. The owner of any property may prevent even by using reasonable force a trespasser from an attempted trespass, when it is in the process of being committed, or is of a flimsy character, or recurring, intermittent, stray or casual in nature, or has just been committed, while the rightful owner did not have enough time to have recourse to law. In the last of the cases, the possession of the trespasser, just entered into would not be called as one acquiesced to by the true owner.”

See Blog (Click): Civil Rights and Jurisdiction of Civil Courts

Possession Follows Title and Adverse Possession

It is held in MS Jagadambal v. Southern Indian Education Trust, 1988 (Supp) SCC 144 that the possession continues with the title holder unless and until the defendant acquires title by adverse possession (possession follows title). In LN Aswathama v. P Prakash, 2009-13 SCC 229, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In law, possession follows title. The plaintiffs having established title to the suit property, will be entitled to decree for possession, unless their right to the suit property was extinguished, by reason of defendant being in adverse possession for a period of twelve years prior to the suit.”

Adverse Possession Inchoate until title is upheld by a Competent Court

One can acquire right of easement and adverse possession by prescription. But, prescriptive rights are said to be inchoate (started; but, not full-blown) until the such title is upheld by a competent court. It was observed in Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227, that the result of the Easements Act and the similar provisions of the Limitation Act was that a right of easement could not be said to be perfected until the right was declared by a decree of court. See also:

  • Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227 is referred to in: Nachiparayan v. Narayana Goundan, (1920): 60 Ind Cas 171, (1920) 39 MLJ 574; Arjuna Udayar v. Manuswamy Naicker, 1999-1 CurCC 97;
  • D. Ramanatha Gupta vs S. Razaack, AIR 1982 Kant 314..
  • See also: Tradesh and Miners, Ltd v. Dhirendra Nath Banerjee, AIR 1944 Pat 261.

Possession is heritable and transferable

Possession is a heritable and transferable right. [See: Nallammal Vs. Ayisha Beevi, 2017-5 Mad LJ 864; Phirayalal Kapur Vs. Jia Rani, AIR 1973 Delhi 186]. A settled possession can be protected by court-injunction.

See Blog: Adverse Possession: An Evolving Concept

When Plaintiff Claims Title, He has to Prove Title in Injunction Suit

In Yamuna Nagar Improvement Trust v.  Khariati Lal, AIR 2005 SC 2245; (2005) 10 SCC 30, it is held as under:

  • “In our opinion, when the plaintiff had approached the court for permanent injunction claiming to be owner of the property, it was his duty to prove that he was the owner of the property, the said property remained in his possession and that the defendant had no right title or interest therein. Since the plaintiff failed to prove his case the suit was liable to be dismissed.”

Plaintiff has to plead – Who the owner is, if he claims possession

In Maria Margadia Sequeria v. Erasmo Jack De Sequeria, AIR 2012 SC 1727, it is held as under:

  • “63. Possession is important when there are no title documents and other relevant records before the Court, but, once the documents and records of title come before the Court, it is the title which has to be looked at first and due weightage be given to it. Possession cannot be considered in vacuum. (Quoted in: Ibrahim v. Saythumuhammed, 2013 (4) KLT 435.)
  • “70. It would be imperative that one who claims possession must give all such details as enumerated hereunder. They are only illustrative and not exhaustive.
    • .(a)    who is or are the owner or owners of the property;
    • (b)    title of the property;
    • (c)    who is in possession of the title documents
    •  (d)    identity   of   the   claimant   or   claimants   to possession;
    • (e)    the date of entry into possession;
    • (f)    how   he   came   into   possession   –   whether   he purchased the property or inherited or got the same in gift or by any other method;
    • (g) in case he purchased the property, what is the consideration; if he has taken it on rent, how much is the rent, license fee or lease amount;
    • (h) If taken on rent, license fee or lease – then insist on rent deed, license deed or lease deed;
    • who are the persons in possession/occupation or otherwise living with him, in what capacity; as family members, friends or servants etc.;
    • (j) subsequent conduct, i.e., any event which might have extinguished his entitlement to possession or caused shift therein; and
    • (k) basis of his claim that not to deliver possession but continue in possession.”

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Civil Procedure Code

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Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Knanaya Endogamy & Constitution of India

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract of this Article

An Association of Knanites, consisting of persons who married non-Knanites, filed civil suits questioning the practice of endogamy and ‘expulsion’ of a member from the Knanaya Diocese. It was argued that this practice is unconstitutional. They claimed right to continue in their parent churches despite their marriage with a non-Knanite Christian.

  • The Association claimed that they had the Fundamental Right under Art. 25 of the Constitution of India to continue, despite their marriage. Art. 25 of the Constitution says –
    • all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, PRACTICE and propagate religion.”
  • The Association pointed out that the Apex Court held that the rights protected under Art. 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India were LIMITED to ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion and no other (Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali, AIR 1961 SC 1402).
  • The Association argued that the practice of endogamy or ‘expulsion’ of a member on marriage with a non-Knanite would not come within ESSENTIAL religious practices of religious denomination or right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

Knanaya/Catholic Church, resisting the suit of the Knanaya Association, founded their argument upon the verdict in The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282.

  • Knanaya/Catholic Church claimed that it was a religious DENOMINATION or any SECTION THEREOF entitled to MANAGE its own affairs in matters of religion under Article 26.
    • Therefore, their practice of endogamy and ‘expulsion’ come within rights of DENOMINATION to MANAGE its own affairs in matters of religion.
  • Knanaya/Catholic Church pointed out that the Apex Court held that the protection of Articles 25 and 26 is not limited to matters of doctrine or belief; but, they extend also to ACTS done in pursuance of religion.
    • (Ratilal Panachand Gandhi v. The State of Bombay, AIR 1954 SC 388;
    • Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853).
  • Knanaya/Catholic Church further brought up that the Apex Court had denoted – what constituted an essential part of a religion‘ or ‘religious practice’ had to be decided with reference to the doctrines of the particular religion and the practices which were REGARDED by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion.
    • (Sri Venkataramana Devaru v. State of Mysore, AIR 1958 SC 255;
    • Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. The State of Bombay,  AIR 1962 SC 853;
    • Shri Govindlalji Maharaj v. St. of Rajasthan, AIR 1963 SC 1638).

Genuine Legal questions

  • 1. Whether Knanites/Diocese constitute a COMMUNITY or religious DENOMINATION so as to claim rights under Art. 26 to manage its own affairs in matters of religion (as claimed by the Catholic Church)?
  • 2. Whether Endogamy is REGARDED by the COMMUNITY an ESSENTIAL or INTEGRAL part of Religion, so as to get protection under Art. 25 and 26 (as claimed by the Catholic Church)?
  • 3. Rights guaranteed under Article 26 is ‘subject to public order, morality and health’. Does it include the whole ‘Constitutional morality’ in the teeth of Article 14, 15, 17, 21 etc. (as claimed by the Knanaya Association)?

PART I

Knanaya Community in Kerala

Knanites constitute a well-known Christian community in Kerala.  The members of this fraternity believe that they are the endogamous-descendants of Syrian-Jewish group who sailed from Syria and landed Kerala in the 4th or 8th century under the leadership of a merchant, Knayi Thoma.  In any case, it is a fact that this sect follows certain cultural and religious practices of their own, for the past several centuries. It is also a fact that this community steadfastly stick on to endogamy; and marriage of a Knanaya person with a non-Knanaya is not conducted in known Knanaya churches. 

Majority of Knanites are Roman Catholic. A portion is with the Syrian Orthodox Church. Distinctiveness of this group is recognised by the Roman Pontiff in 1911 by giving a separate Vicariate (Bishop from their own community, with an independent Diocese), taking note of the century old feud between the Knanites and non-Knanites.

A large number of Knanites in Kerala are migrated to west, especially, USA. A group of these migrants and some progressive youth in Kerala today argue that endogamy is archaic and that it is opposed to Divine law and Cannons of the Church.

Suits in Courts.

Several Knanites filed civil suits claiming rights in their parent churches despite their marriage with a non-Knanite Christian (in a non-Knanite church). Now, an Association of Knanites won the comprehensive suit filed in Subordinate Court, Kottayam wherein they claimed that the practice of expulsion of Knanites from the Knananya churches for marrying non-knanite is against the Divine law, Canon and various Fundamental Rights guaranteed in Article 25 of the Constitution of India.  The appeal therefrom is dismissed by the District Court, Kottayam (on 2. 9. 2022), affirming the decision of the Subordinate Court.

PART II

Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India

The association filed the suit on the claim that endogamy is outmoded and irrational. They based their claims on Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India. Article 25(1) reads as under:

  • “25(1). Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion.”

The Knanaya Church that opposed the suit relied on Article 26(b). It reads as under:

  • “26. Freedom to manage religious affairs – Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof  shall have the right
  • (a) … …. ;
  • (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
  • (c) … …. ; and
  • (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.”     

Nexus between Art. 25 and 26.

Article 25(1) secures fundamental right to ‘persons’. Article 26 protects right of the ‘denomination or any section thereof’. Clause (b) of Article 26 provides right ‘to manage its own affairs in matters of religion’.

Read Blog: Secularism and Art. 25 & 26 of the Indian Constitution

PART III

CONTENTIONS OF THE ASSOCIATION That Stands For Declaring Endogamy, Illegal

  1. Endogamy is not an ESSENTIAL or INTEGRAL part of Religion.
  2. The teachings of Christ, Divine Law etc. stand against endogamy
  3. Even if Knanaya community can maintain ‘endogamy’, that cannot be made use by the Diocese.
  4. Canon and common law do not allow expulsion of the members in a Diocese for marrying a catholic from another Diocese.
  5. Endogamy is an unpleasant practice, and it is opposes to Constitutional Morality and Individual Rights affirmed in the Constitution of India.

1. Endogamy is not an ESSENTIAL or INTEGRAL part of Religion  

It is held in The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282, as under:

  • “Under article 26(b), therefore, a religious DENOMINATION or organisation enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are ESSENTIAL according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.” 

The rights protected under Art. 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India are LIMITED to ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion and no other, as held in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali, AIR 1961 SC 1402. It is held in this decision as under:

  • “Whilst we are dealing with this point it may not be out of place incidentally to strike a note of caution and Observe that in order that the practices in question should be treated as a part of religion they must be regarded by the said religion as its essential and integral part; otherwise even purely secular practices which are not an essential and integral part of religion are apt to be clothed with a religious form and may make a claim for being treated as religious practices within the meaning of Art. 26. Similarly, even practices though religious may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense be extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself. Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a religion their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and integral partof it and no other.

2. The teachings of Christ, Divine Law etc.

The teachings of Christ, Divine Law (The Bible), provisions of Canon etc. unequivocally stand against the practice of endogamy.  Bible (Galatians – 3: 28) proclaims that ‘there is neither Jew nor Greek, slave nor free, male nor female, for you are all one in Christ Jesus‘. Devine law is fundamental; no one can disdain Divine law.

When a new vicariat (diocese) was formed in 1911 for Southists (Knanaya), no whisper at all was made in the Bull of Pope to the effect that the people of new vicariat can ignore any basic principle that made fundamentals of Catholic Church.

Canon says that the membership of a Catholic is in his ‘sui juris’ church – that is, in the Rite which he joins or is included. The Knanites in Kerala are under the Syro Malabar Rite. No independent claim can be raised by Knanites as to the very fundamental matters including the membership in the Church.

3. Even if there is ‘Knanaya Community’, the members cannot be estranged from ‘Diocese’

Even if it is assumed that there is ‘Knanaya Community’ with their own characteristic practices, no one can be expelled from the ecclesiastical ‘Diocese’ under which Knanites are are grouped-in (for he/she had married a non-Knanite); because, it is not supported by any of the provision of Canon and other laws applicable to the Church.

4. Constitutional Morality and Individual Rights

Rights guaranteed under Article 26 is ‘subject to public order, morality and health’. Therefore, the ‘Constitutional morality’, and individual rights that gain primacy, enshrined and projected in Article 14, 15, 17, 21 etc. are to be aptly regarded while considering the rights of ‘religious denomination or any section thereof’ in Article 26. They make it clear that endogamy is opposed to Constitutional morality. In any event, it is illegal, in the teeth of Article 14, 15, 17, 21 etc, to estrange a catholic from a Knanaya church for he married a non-knanaya.

PART IV

CONTENTIONS OF THE KNANAYA DIOCESE That Stands For Endogamy

  1. Article 25(1) is subject to Article 26.
  2. For a denomination no ‘distinctive’ faith is needed.
  3. Denomination Enjoys Complete Autonomy.
  4. Religious Practices are as important as Faith.
  5. Excommunication on Religious Grounds – part of Management by the Community.
  6. Durgah Committee verdict is an Odd Decision.

1. Article 25(1) is ‘subject to’ Article 26

Article 25(1) speaks about fundamental right secured to ‘persons’.  Article 25(1) begins with the words – ‘subject to other provisions of this part’.  It includes Article 26(b).  Therefore, the right of denomination or section thereof prevails over the personal right under Article 25(1).

From the above, it is clear that the argument on ‘Constitutional morality’, with reference to other Articles in the Constitution, has to be looked into in the light of of the clause in Art. 25 that it is ‘subject to’ Art. 26.

2. For a denomination no ‘distinctive’ faith is needed

Knanites constitute a denomination. They can claim rights under Art. 26. It is admitted by the parties to the suit that the Knanites have common spiritual organization and distinctive name. It is noteworthy (from Shirur Mutt case) that to acquire the denominational-status, ‘distinctive faith’ is not needed.

In The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (AIR 1954 SC 282) it is observed –

  • (1) Article 26 contemplates not merely a religious denomination, but also a section thereof.
  • (2) Denomination contemplates the Mutt or the spiritual fraternity, Organization, sect or sub-sect.
  • (3) Definition of denomination in Oxford Dictionary is referred to in this decision.   It defines denomination as – collection of individuals having a
    • distinctive name,
    • common faith and
    • common spiritual organization.

In Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta v. Commr. of Police, AIR 1984 SC 51, referring earlier decisions, including Shirur Mutt, it is held as under:

  • “Ananda Marga appears to satisfy all the three conditions, viz., it is a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs which they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being; they have a common organisation and the collection of these individuals has a distinctive name. Ananda Marga, therefore, can be appropriately treated as a religious DENOMINATION, within the Hindu religion.” 

In S.P. Mittal v. Union of India, AIR 1883 SC 1, Chinnappa Reddy, J. (Minority) observed: 

  • “Any Freedom or Right involving the conscience must naturally receive a wide interpretation and the expression ‘religion’ and ‘religious DENOMINATION‘ must therefore, be interpreted in no narrow, stifling sense but is a liberal, expansive way”. (Indhu Malhotra, J. quoted this portion in Sabarimala case, Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala: 2019-1 SCC 1, observing that the judgment of Chinnappa Reddy, J. was a ‘concurring’ one.)

The majority judgment in S.P. Mittal referred to the argument of Soli Sorabji, Senior Advocate, as to show how the ‘common faith’ doctrine was placed – the argument was that the followers of Aurobindo ‘shared’ common faith (within their denomination).

In other words, to acquire the denominational status, the ‘faith’ of ‘denomination’ need not be distinctive from the faith of others in the same religion.

3. Denomination Enjoys Complete Autonomy

It is held in The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (AIR 1954 SC 282) as under:

  • “Under article 26(b), therefore, a religious DENOMINATION or organisation enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.” 

In the Review Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2020-2 SCC 1, the Apex Court analysed Shirur Mutt case and said as under:

  • “7. In this context, the decision of the Seven Judges bench of this Court in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt) holding that what are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the DENOMINATION ITSELF ….”

4. ‘Religious Practices’ are as Important as ‘Faith

In The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (AIR 1954 SC 282) it is held as under:

  • “A religion undoubtedly has its basis in a system of beliefs or doctrines which are regarded by those who profess that religion as conducive to their spiritual wellbeing, but it would not be correct to say that religion is nothing else but a doctrine or belief. A religion may not only lay down a code of ethical rules for its followers to accept, it might prescribe rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are regarded as integral parts of religion, and these forms and dress.”

In Ratilal Panachand Gandhi v. The State of Bombay, AIR 1954 SC 388, it is observed as under:

  • Religious practices or performances of ACTS, in pursuance of religious belief are AS MUCH A PART of religion as faith or belief in particular doctrines.”

In Sri Venkataramana Devaru v. State of Mysore, AIR 1958 SC 255, it is held as under:

  • “It being thus settled that matters of religion in Art. 26 (b) include even practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as part of its religion ….”

5. Excommunication on Religious Grounds – part of Management by the COMMUNITY

In Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, it is held as under:

  • “What appears however to be clear is that where an excommunication is itself based on religious grounds such as lapse from the orthodox religious creed or doctrine (similar to what is considered heresy, apostasy or schism under the Canon Law) or breach of some practice considered as an essential part of the religion by the Dawoodi Bohras in general, excommunication cannot but be held to be for the purpose of maintaining the strength of the religion. It necessarily follows that the exercise of this power of excommunication on religious grounds forms part of the management by the COMMUNITY, through its religious head, “of its own affairs in matters of religion.” The impugned Act makes even such excommunications invalid and takes away the power of the Dai as the head of the community to excommunicate even on religious grounds. It therefore, clearly interferes with the right of the Dawoodi Bohra community under cl. (b) of Art. 26 of the Constitution.”
  • That excommunication of a member of a COMMUNITY will affect many of his civil rights is undoubtedly true. This particular religious DENOMINATION is possessed of properties and the necessary consequence of excommunication will be that the excommunicated member will lose his rights of enjoyment of such property. It might be thought undesirable that the head of a religious community would have the power to take away in this manner the civil rights of any person. The right given under Art. 26 (b) has not however been made subject to preservation of civil rights. The express limitation in Art. 26 itself is that this right under the several clauses of the article will exist subject to public order, morality and health. It has been held by this Court in Sri Venkataramana Devaru v. The State of Mysore (1) that the right under Art. 26(b) is subject further to cl. 2 of Art. 25 of the Constitution.”
  • “We shall presently consider whether these limitations on the rights of a religious community to manage its own affairs in matters of religion can come to the help of the impugned Act. It is clear however that apart from these limitations the Constitution has not imposed any limit on the right of a religious community to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. The fact that civil rights of a person are affected by the exercise of this fundamental right under Art. 26(b) is therefore of no consequence. Nor is it possible to say that excommunication is prejudicial to public order, morality and health.”

6. Durgah Committee verdict is an Odd Decision; All five judges in Durgah Committee changed their Views

In Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali, AIR 1961 SC 1402, it was held as under:

  • The ‘essential practices’ of RELIGION alone is considered.
  • The religious practices ‘that may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs’ and ‘unessential accretions to religion’ may have to be carefully scrutinised by the COURT.

All five judges in Durgah Committee (PB Gajendragadkar, AK Sarkar, KN Wanchoo, K.C. Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Aiyankar JJ.) changed their views by two subsequent decisions, as to (i) the ‘essential practices’ of RELIGION and (ii) the ‘role of COURT in determining the essential religious practice. It was observed in the subsequent decisions that ‘what was regarded by the COMMUNITY‘ on essential religious practice was important.

Justice Gajendragadkar himself (who authored Dargah Committee Case) explained, as to the enquiry on integral part of religion, in a subsequent Five Judge Bench decision, in Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan (BP Sinha, CJ, P.B. Gajendragadkar, K.N. Wanchoo, K.C. Das Gupta, J.C Shah JJ.), AIR 1963 SC 1638. (The bench consisted also of two Judges – K.N. Wanchoo, K.C. Das Gupta JJ. – in Dargah Committee Case, other than Gajendragadkar, J.). It is held in Tilkayat Case as under:

  • “In deciding the question as to whether a given religious practice is an integral part of the religion or not, the test always would be whether it is REGARDED as such by the COMMUNITY following the religion or not.”
  • “This question (as to essential religious practice) will always have to be decided by the Court and in doing so, the Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion, and the finding of the Court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the CONSCIENCE of the COMMUNITY and the tenets of its religion.”

In Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, (BP Sinha, CJ, A.K. Sarkar, K.C. Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, Mudholkar, JJ.) it was held by a Constitution Bench (Sinha, C. J. dissenting) of five Judges (consisted of three Judges in Dargah Committee Case – A.K. Sarkar, K.C. Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, JJ.) as under:

  • “The content of Arts. 25 and 26 of the Constitution came up for consideration before this Court in the Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Matt; Mahant Jagannath Ramanuj Das v. The State of Orissa; Sri Venkatamana Devaru v. The State of Mysore; Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali and several other cases and the main principles underlying these provisions have by these decisions been placed beyond controversy. The first is that the protection of these articles is not limited to matters of doctrine or belief they extend also to ACTS done in pursuance of religion and therefore contain a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion. The second is that what constitutes an essential part of a religious or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are REGARDED by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion.

In the Sabarimala review-reference (to higher Bench) Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2020-2 SCC 1, it is pointed out that there is apparent conflict between the Shirur Mutt Case and Durgah Committee Case.

It is observed –

  • Seven Judges bench of the Apex Court, in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt), held that what were essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the DENOMINATION itself.
    • The subsequent Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors. carved out a ROLE FOR THE COURT in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs.Both these decisions ‘seem to be in APPARENT CONFLICT‘.
    • It requires consideration by a larger Bench.

It is further contended that the circumstances that led to issuance of the 1911 Bull is clear from the words of the Bull as well as the documents referred to therein – that is, the letters of the Bishops in Kerala and the representative of Pope. These documents refer to the need of special consideration of Knanites. The subsequent conduct of the Church also is important. It is a fact that Bishops from their own community is ordained for Knanites. Knanaya Diocese has no territorial limit in jurisdiction whereas all other Catholic Dioceses (within Kerala) has territorial limit.


Also Read:

Judicial & Legislative Activism in India: Principles and Instances
Can Legislature Overpower Court Decisions by an Enactment?
Separation of Powers: Who Wins the Race – Legislature or Judiciary?
Kesavananda Bharati Case: Never Ending Controversy
Mullaperiyar Dam: Disputes and Adjudication of Legal Issues
Article 370: Is There Little Chance for Supreme Court Interference
Maratha Backward Community Reservation: SC Fixed Limit at 50%.
Polygraphy, Narco Analysis and Brain Mapping Tests
CAA Challenge: Divergent Views
FERA, 1973 And Transfer of Immovable Property by a Foreigner
Doctrine of ‘Right to be Forgotten’ in Indian Law
Religious issues

Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Is Excommunication of Parsi Women for Marrying Non-Parsi, Unconstitutional?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Introduction

A Parsi woman will lose her religious identity if she marries a Non-Parsi.  Unlike a woman, a Parsi man will not face such a predicament.

Can this anomaly be saved as an ‘essential religious practice’?  Is it an ‘integral practice’ touching upon the right to profess, practice and propagate one’s own religion?

Goolrokh Gupta v. Burjor Pardiwala

Contentions of the Petitioners: Goolrokh Gupta filed a Writ Petition before the Gujarat High Court praying to allow her to perform funeral ceremonies of her parents in the event of their death. The petitioner contended that no tenet of Zorastrianism denied a born Parsi woman, rights to her religious identity on marriage to a non-Parsi. But, the Parsi Trust takes such a discriminatory stance. The said custom did not apply to Parsi males. It is violative of the right to equality under Articles 14 of the Constitution of India. It was pointed out that this excommunication was a matter of social and constitutional concern.

Arguments of the respondents: The Parsi Trust opposed the petition and contended that denial of entry to non-Parsis to Parsi institutions was an essential practice of the religion and that under Article 26, the Parsi Trust was entitled to regulate entry.  The Respondents heavily relied upon an interpretation of Zorastrianism which directed renunciation of Parsi religion if a Parsi woman undergoes the inter-faith marriage. The respondents relied on Sardar Saifuddin v. State of Bombay (AIR 1962 SC 853) wherein the Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949 was struck down as unconstitutional by a Constitutional bench of the Supreme Court.

The Parsy Trust (respondents in the Parsi case, Goolrokh Gupta) raised contentions on “essential religious practice”. It was pointed out that such a contention was raised in the Sardar Saifuddin Case and it was fully accepted by the Apex Court; and also that the contentions of the respondents in Sardar Saifuddin (similar to that of the petitioners in the Parsy case, Goolrokh Gupta) were rejected by the Apex Court. The following were the contentions of the respondents in Sardar Saifuddin:

  • The excommunication could be equated to the practice of untouchability, as the effect of both was the deprivation of human dignity and civil rights.
  • The matter involved issues of the right to individual’s right to faith and practice religion under Article 25.
  • Though there should be a need to balance the rights of individuals as well that of the denomination under Article 26 to manage internal affairs, due importance should be given to the rights of individuals, for the fundamental rights are primarily concerned with rights of individuals and protect individuality and choices.

Rejecting the aforestated arguments of the respondents, the Apex Court held in Sardar Saifuddin as under:

  • “The content of Arts. 25 and 26 of the Constitution came up for consideration before this Court in The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Matt; Mahant Jagannath Ramanuj Das Vs. The State of Orissa; Sri Venkatamana Devaru Vs. The State of Mysore; Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali and several other cases and the main principles underlying these provisions have by these decisions been placed beyond controversy. The first is that the protection of these articles is not limited to matters of doctrine or belief, they extend also to acts done in pursuance of religion and therefore contain a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion. The second is that what constitutes an essential part of a religious or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion.”

Majority dismissed the petition Upholding the Excommunication

Though the Gujarat High Court did not address the fundamental question placed by the respondents (Parsi institutions), as to whether the practice under consideration (of losing religious identity by laddies, if they marry Non-Parsies) was saved by ‘essential religious practice‘, the High Court dismissed the writ petition (Goolrokh Gupta v. Burjor Pardiwala, AIR 2012 CC 3266) of Ms. Gupta by 2:1 majority on the main ground that a Parsi woman, ceases to be a Parsi upon marriage with a non-Parsi under the Special Marriage Act. .

The majority pointed out that the English common law doctrine is that, in the absence of a specific statutory protection, the personality, known by religion, of a woman would merge into that of her husband.   Although such a principle of merger was not recognised by any of the religions in India, it had found that a married woman is identified by her husband’s family name superseding that of her father’s. The Court observed that it is of ‘general acceptance throughout the world’. The majority was of the opinion that the merger was essential to determine the religion of children born out of the marriage. To obtain reliefs from courts, countering this presumption, the bench observed that there should be a judicial declaration pursuant to a fact-finding inquiry. Since no such inquiry was conducted in the present case, the petitioner was deemed to have acquired the religious status of her Hindu husband. 

Minority Decision

J. Akil Kureshi, minority, found that there was no automatic conversion on marriage. Special Marriage Act, 1954 speaks of a special form of marriage in which both parties can retain their birth-religion insofar as the other conditions under Section 4 of the Act of 1954 were satisfied. Kureshi, J. noted that it highlights legislative commitment toward a secular state. He ruled that the petitioner retained her Parsi identity by solemnisation of her marriage under the Special Marriage Act.

Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court

Ms. Gupta filed a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court.  The petition stands referred to a Constitutional Bench.  

It is pointed out that Goolrokh Gupta had not converted to the Hindu religion and the marriage was not taken place under the Hindu Marriage Act. The Special Marriage Act under which the marriage was solemnised, on the other hand, allowed the retention of religious identity. It was also pointed out that the matter was not one of acceptance by the religious or social community.  Therefore, it was contended that the presumption was that Ms Gupta continued as a Parsi.

The respondents, at the time of arguments before the Supreme Court, pointed out that the edicts of Zoroastrianism were very complex. Zoroastrianism is patrilineal and all the texts/edicts dictate that one was to marry within the fold of the religion itself. If one chose to marry outside the religion, they would not suffer excommunication but would end up in losing the privileges conferred on them by the religion. The Parsi Trust and other Respondents claimed that denial of entry to non-Parsis into the Parsi institutions was an essential practice of the religion and that it was protected  under Article 26, and that the Trust was entitled to regulate such entry.

Conclusion

The core issue involved in this case is the civil rights of an individual, protected under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, on one hand, and that of the religious denomination under Article 26, on the other. It can be definitely stated that the attempt of the Supreme Court will be to strike-out a balance, maintaining the Constitutional mandates.

The Appeal is pending consideration.



Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Evidence Act – General

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Are RTI Documents Admissible in Evidence as ‘Public Documents’?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract

  1. RTI replies or information (other than certified copies) are not substantive evidence in law. Therefore, they are not admissible in evidence as public documents, or as secondary evidence.
  2. Where copy of a Public Document is issued under the RTI Act, recording it to be a certified copy [under Section 2 (j)(ii)], it is admissible in evidence (to prove the contents of the public documents) under Sec. 77of the Evidence Act.
  3. Where the copy of a document, which is not a Public Document, is issued under the RTI Act, recording it to be a certified copy [under Section 2 (j)(ii)], it is admissible in evidence, only with further evidence as to the non-production of the original (as required under Sec. 65, Evidence Act).
  4. Notwithstanding anything stated above, in a proper case, the court can invoke presumptions as regards official acts, under Sec. 114, Evd. Act (The Court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of natural events, human conduct and public and private business, in their relation to the facts of the particular case).
    • Illustration (e) of Sec. 114, Evd. Act specifically states that ‘regularity’ can be presumed on Judicial and official acts. Presumptions may include genuineness or truth also.

Law on this Point

Evidence Act 

Section 65 of Evidence Act reads as under:

  • ““65. Cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given – Secondary evidence may be given of the existence, condition, or contents of a document in the following cases –
  • (a) … (e) …
  • (f). when the original is a document of which a certified copy is permitted by this Act, or by any other law in force in India, to be given in evidence**;
  • (g) …
  • …. …
  • In case (e) or (f), a certified copy of the document, but no other kind of secondary evidence, is admissible.”
    • **to be given in evidence ” denotes – giving copy in evidence without reference to “original”.

By virtue of the above provisions in Sec. 65, it is often debated that ‘a certified copy’ of the Sale Deed alone, and “no other kind of secondary evidence, is admissible”. It is not well-founded; because,

  • (1) the copy of the deeds in the Books in the Sub Registrar’s Office is not “a public document within the meaning of section 74” – referred to in clauses (e) of Sec. 65,and
  • (2) the copy of the deeds in the Books in the Sub Registrar’s Office is not “a document of which a certified copy is permitted by this Act, or by any other law in force in India to be given in evidence” – referred to in clauses (f) of Sec. 65.

No (procedural) law permits production of ‘certified copy’ of a sale deed, in the court, without saying where the original is or it is lost (i.e., without laying the foundational evidence for the non production of the original).

Note: Sec. 57 of the Registration Act reads as under:

  • “57. Registering officers to allow inspection of certain books and indexes, and to give certified copies of entries —
  • (1)… (2) … (3) … (4) …
  • (5) All copies given under this section shall be signed and sealed by the registering officer, and shall be admissible for the purpose of proving the contents of the original documents.”

It is definite – the words, “shall be admissible for the purpose of proving the contents of the original” cannot be read as (or equated to): “certified copy … permitted by this Act, or by any other law in force in India to be given in evidence” (Because, the words in Sec. 57 do not authorise to give (certified) copy in evidence without reference to “original”).

Therefore, it appears that any kind of (admissible) secondary evidence of a sale deed can be given in evidence; and production of certified copy cannot be insisted. (If it falls under clause (e) or (f) of Sec. 65, certified copy alone can be given – as secondary evidence.)

Following decisions considered both Sec. 57 of the Registration Act and Sec. 65 (e) & (f) Evidence Act and found that in the absence of a registered sale deed, a certified copy could be filed as secondary evidence; but, they did not ponder on the point whether “a certified copy alone can be filed”.

  • Puspa Dey v. Sukanta Dey, 2019-3 CalLT 206
  • Upendra Rao v. M. K. Ammini, ILR 2017-1 (Ker) 466;
  • Om Parkash v. Ram Gopal, 2011-4 PLR 364;
  • Ismail Gafurbhai Vohra v. Kirit Bhagvatprasad Vyas, 2013-2 GLR 1230;
  • Sandeep v. State of Haryana, 2011-4 LawHerald 3507,
  • Kalyan Singh v. Smt. Chhoti, AIR 1990 SC 306,
  • Nani Bai v. Gita Bai Kom Rama Gunge, AIR 1958 SC 706,

Sec. 74. reads as under:

  • 74. ‘Public documents‘: The following documents are public documents :-
  • (1) documents forming the acts, or records of the acts
    • (i) of the sovereign authority,
    • (ii) of official bodies and tribunals, and
    • (iii) of public officers, legislative, judicial and executive, of any part of India or of the Commonwealth or of a foreign country;
  • (2) Public records kept in any State of private documents.

Read Blog: Secondary Evidence of Documents & Objections to Admissibility – How & When?

Section 77 of Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 77. Proof of documents by production of certified copies. Such certified copies may be produced in proof of the contents of the public documents or parts of the public documents of which they purport to be copies.

RTI – Act

  • Section 2 (j) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 defines “Right to Information” as under:
  • “(j). “right to information” means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the control of any public authority and includes the right to –
  • (i) …. ……
  • (ii) taking notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records.

Import of “To be Given in Evidence” in Sec. 65(f)

Sec. 65 Evidence Act deals with “Cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given”. Sec. 65 (f) lays down two conditions:

  1. When the original is a document of which a certified copy is permitted, by the Evidence Act, to be given in evidence.
  2. If certified copy is permitted, by any other law in force in India, to be given in evidence.

RTI-Certified-Copy, other than Public Document, Can be received in evidence only on showing reason for non production of Original

The RTI Act, though allows certified copy, it does not permit the same “to be given in evidence“. Therefore, the ‘certified copy’ obtained under the RTI Act can be received in evidence either (i) it is a public document (of which a certified copy is permitted by the Evidence Act) or (ii) it is permitted to be produced on showing reason for non production of original etc. (under Sec. 65 Evidence Act).

In Narayan Singh v. Kallaram, AIR 2015 MP 186, it was observed that RTI documents can be admitted as secondary evidence. The MP High Court held as under:

  • “Clause (f) of Section 65 of Evidence Act makes it crystal clear that a certified copy permitted under the Evidence Act or by any other law in force can be treated as secondary evidence. Right to Information Act, in my view, falls within the ambit of “by any other law in force in India”. The definition of “right to information” makes it clear that certified copies of documents are given to the citizens under their right to obtain information. In my view, the court below has rightly opined that the documents can be admitted as secondary evidence. I do not see any merit in the contention that the documents obtained under the Act of 2005 are either true copies or attested copies. The definition aforesaid shows that the same are certified copies.”

It appears that the High Court did not give effect to the words “permitted … to be given in evidence”.

PRESUMPTION under Sec. 114, Evid. Act read with Sec. 35.

Sec. 35 Evd. Act lays down that ‘an entry in any public or other official book, register or record or an electronic record‘ will be a relevant fact.

Sec. 35 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “35. Relevancy of entry in public record or an electronic record made in performance of duty: An entry in any public or other official book, register or record or an electronic record, stating a fact in issue or relevant fact, and made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty, or by any other person in performance of a duty specially enjoined by the law of the country in which such book, register, or record or an electronic record is kept, is itself a relevant fact.
    • Note: Relevancy engrafted to Sec. 35 Evd. Act is “entry in” any public or official book, register etc.; it is not attached to the certificates or information given under the RTI Act.

Besides direct evidence, or admission, the contents of a document can also be proved by circumstantial evidence or by invoking presumption. ‘Common course of natural events’, ‘human conduct’ etc. under S. 114, can be used to prove the existence and genuineness/truth of a document.

Illustration (e) of Sec. 114, Evd. Act, demonstrates that presumption as to ‘regularity’ can be invoked on Judicial and official acts, in proper cases.  ‘Regularity’ in Illustration (e) is not exactly the presumption as to ‘correctness or truth’. For such presumption, we have to resort the main section, Sec. 114 – that is, ‘common course of natural events’, ‘human conduct’, etc..

Referring relevant provisions of Himachal Land Revenue Act, 1954 and Sec. 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, it is held by our Apex Court in Partap Singh v. Shiv Ram: AIR 2020 SC 1382, that Record-of-rights (Revenue document) carries the ‘presumption of correctness.

In Inder Singh v. S. Raghbir Singh, AIR 1978 P&H 98, it is observed as under:

  • “The principle is that an official record, kept by a person, upon whom there is a public duty to make entries in it only after satisfying himself of the truth of those entries, is presumed to be correct. Such a document itself is evidence of the truth of its contents unless and until its falsity can be demonstrated by any of the various methods by which the evidentiary value of any public book, register or document may be attacked.”

In Shiv Ram v. Shiv Charan Singh, AIR 1964 Raj 126, it is observed as under

  • “Where Sec. 35  properly comes into play, an entry made by a public servant in any public or official book in the discharge of his official duty becomes relevant by itself, and no other proof of such entry is required as a matter of law by our Evidence Act, but this, does not exclude the possibility that such an entry may become admissible otherwise if it is properly proved to have been made by a person ordinarily competent to make it.” (Quoted in Mayadhar Nayak vs Sub-Divisional Officer, Jajpur, AIR 1982 Ori 221).

Read Blog: Presumptions on Documents and Truth of its Contents

RTI Replies are not a Substantive Evidence

As shown above, relevancy attached to Sec. 35 Evidence Act is “entry in” any public or official book made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty; it is not engrafted to the certificates or information given under the RTI Act.

The usual method to prove documents (both, existence and truth of contents) is giving oral evidence or furnishing affidavit. A certificate, in most cases, is an opinion, and prepared on the basis of other documents or evidences. In such cases, when it is an assumption or inference, it by itself, is not admissible, as it will only be, at the most, a secondary evidence. A Wound Certificate is not a substantive evidence. It has to be proved by a competent witness. If presumption cannot be invoked under Clause (e) of Sec. 114 Evidence Act (that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed), especially in the light of ‘best evidence rule’, no certificate or report can be taken as proved unless its contents are proved in a formal manner. (This is why Order XXVI rule 10 CPC specifically says – Commission Report shall ‘form part of the record’.)

Our Apex Court held in Dharmarajan v. Valliammal, 2008 (2) SCC 741, that ‘a certificate issued by the Tahsildar cannot be relied on without examining the Tahsildar who issued the same’. It is referred to in Pankajakshan Nair v. Shylaja, ILR 2017-1 Ker 951.

Our Apex Court observed in State of Himachal Pradesh v. Jai Lal, (1999) 7 SCC 280, as regards expert opinion that falls under Sec. 45 Evidence Act, as under as under:

  • “An expert is a witness of fact. His evidence is really of an advisory character. The duty of an expert witness is to furnish the Judge with the necessary scientific criteria for testing the accuracy of the conclusions so as to enable the Judge to form his independent judgment by the application of this criteria to the facts proved by the evidence of the case. The scientific opinion evidence, if intelligible, convincing and tested becomes a factor and often an important factor for consideration along with the other evidence of the case. The credibility of such a witness depends on the reasons stated in support of his conclusions and the data and material furnished which form the basis of his conclusions.”

The information collected from the records of an office by an RTI Officer, or that furnished in RTI Reply, cannot be placed in a higher pedestal than the ‘opinion’ of an expert under Sec. 45 of the Evidence Act. In short, the RTI Reply, by itself, will not be a substantive evidence.

Note:

Following Decisions State the Views of our Courts

  • Kumarpal N. Shah v. Universal Mechanical Works, AIR 2019 Bom 290.
  • Under RTI, usually the applicant gets Photostat copies of the documents which are certified as true copies. They cannot be equated with certified copies mentioned in the Evidence Act. In other words, if the official under RTI certifies and supplies a private document, it still remains a private document. Thus, the RTI Act does not affect the nature of a document (Datti Kameswari v. Singam Rao Sarath Chandra, AIR 2016 AP 112 referred to).
  • Datti Kameswari v. Singam Rao Sarath Chandra, AIR 2016 AP 112.
  • The Xerox copy certified by the designated Public Information Officer under Right to Information Act of the private documents are not certified copies within the meaning of the provisions of Section 65 of the Evidence Act. They are merely true copies of the private documents available in the records of the particular Department. The production and marking of such copies is permissible only after laying a foundation for acceptance of secondary evidence under clauses (a) (b) or (c) of Section 65 of the Act. The condition prescribed under the above cases (a), (b) or (c) of Section 65 of the Act have to be fulfilled before marking the true copies obtained under the Right to Information Act. However, the true copies of public documents certified by the designated Information Officer can be taken as certified copies of the public documents.

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Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act

Will

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

SABARIMALA REVIEW and Conflict in Findings between Shirur Mutt Case & Durgah Committee Case

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Contents in a Nutshell

  1. Following are the two important decisions of the Constitution Bench of our Apex Court that articulated and verbalized the law on Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India:
    • (i) The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (AIR 1954 SC 282) – Seven Judge Bench – MC Mahajan, CJ, BK Mukherjea, , SR Das, Vivian Bose, Ghulam Hasan, NH Bhagwati, TL Venkatarama Aiyyar.
    • (ii) Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali (AIR 1961 SC 1402). Five Judge Bench – Gajendragadkar, CJ., Sarkar, Das Gupta, Rajagopala Ayyangar, KN Wanchoo.
  2. In The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, it was held as under:
    • Protection under Article 25(1) of the Constitution extends to (all) religious ‘acts’.
    • Organizations‘, ‘Sects, Sub-sects‘, etc. have the “right to manage its own affairs ” under Article 25(2).
    • What constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained WITH REFERENCE TO the doctrines of that religion itself.
  3. In Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali, it was held as under
    • The ‘essential practices’ of RELIGION alone is considered.
    • The religious practices ‘that may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs’ and ‘unessential accretions to religion’ may have to be carefully SCRUTINISED BY the COURT .
      • Note: All five judges in Durgah Committee changed their views, in two subsequent decisions, as to the ‘ROLE FOR THE COURT‘ in determining the essential religious practice; and observed that what was regarded by the COMMUNITY on essential religious practice was important.)
  4. Justice Gajendragadkar himself (who authored Dargah Committee Case) explained, as to the enquiry on integral part of religion, in a subsequent Five Judge Bench decision, in Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan, 1963AIR SC 1638 (consisted also of two Judges in Dargah Committee Case, other than Gajendragadkar, J.), that
    • In deciding the question as to whether a given religious practice is an integral part of the religion or not, the test always would be whether it is REGARDED as such by the COMMUNITY following the religion or not.
    • This question (as to essential religious practice) will always have to be decided by the Court and in doing so, the Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion, and the finding of the Court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the CONSCIENCE of the COMMUNITY and the tenets of its religion.
  5. In Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, it was held by a Constitution Bench (Sinha, C. J. dissenting) of five Judges (consisted of three Judges in Dargah Committee Case)
    • that the protection is extend to acts done in pursuance of religion and it contains a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion; and
    • that what constitutes an essential part of a religion or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are REGARDED by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion.
  6. In the Sabarimala review-reference (to higher Bench) Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2020-2 SCC 1, it is pointed out that there is apparent conflict between the Shirur Mutt Case and Durgah Committee Case.
    • It is observed –
    • Seven Judges bench of the Apex Court, in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt), held that what were essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the DENOMINATION itself.
    • The subsequent Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors. carved out a ROLE FOR THE COURT in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs.
    • Both these decisions ‘seem to be in apparent conflict‘.
    • It requires consideration by a larger Bench.

Introduction

  • Sabarimala Case (pertaining to right of entry of women in Sabarimala Temple) is placed before a nine-judge-bench of the Supreme Court of India for considering the Review-Reference. Following matters are also pending before the nine-judge-bench:
    • (i) Right of entry of Muslim women in durgahs/mosques,
    • (ii) Right of entry of Parsi women, married to non-Parsis, into the holy fire place of Agyari and 
    • (iii) The challenge to the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra Community.

Cardinal Questions before the Nine-Judge-Sabarimala-Review-Reference Bench

  • Important Constitutional issues in this matter placed before the nine judge bench are, substantially, the following:
    1. Article 25 (1) allowsSubject to public order, morality and health, all persons are entitled to the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
      • Whether ‘Organizations’, ‘Sects, Sub-sects’, Community, Group followers of Ayyappa, Dawoodi Bohra Community etc.have the “right to manage its own affairs “. Or, whether confined to ‘essential practices’ of RELIGION alone?
    2. Article 25 (2) allows the State to make any law regulating or restricting any “other secular activity” which may be associated with (essential)religious practices. Should such essential religious practices (subject to public order, health and morality) be
      • left to be determined by the denomination or any section thereof itself?
      • Or, whether the determination of ‘essential religious practices’ remains in the field of COURTS?
    3. Do the words in Article 26, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religiongive
      • a fundamental right to the denomination or any section thereof to (i) ‘manage its own affairs’ which no legislature can take away and (ii) enjoy complete autonomy so that no outside authority has any jurisdiction.
      • Or, whether all the afore-stated rights and protections are confined to such practices as are an essential and an integral part of RELIGION and NO OTHER ?

See Blog: Sabarimala Review Petitions & Reference to 9-Judge Bench

Art. 25 & 26 of the Constitution is the heart and soul of Religious Freedom

The framers of the Constitution placed the heart and soul of the religious rights and freedom in Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India. They are the Fundamental Rights relating to the Freedom of Religion.

Article 25 and 26 read as under:

  • 25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
  • (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
  • (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law –
    •        (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
    •        (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
  •        Explanation I – The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.
  •        Explanation II – In sub clause (b) of clause reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.
  • 26. Freedom to manage religious affairs – Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
    •        (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
    •        (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
    •        (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
    •        (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.

Read Blog: Secularism and Art. 25 & 26 of the Indian Constitution

Following important findings are rendered in the first decision, Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt:

  • (i)  Right to manage the affairs of religion is a fundamental right which cannot be taken away by legislature.
  • (ii) The right and guarantee given to administer property being ‘in accordance with law’, the law, ‘must leave the right of administration to the religious denomination itself subject to such restrictions and regulations imposed by laws by legislature.

Following important finding is rendered in the second decision, Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali (Justice Gajendragadkar):

  • “Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”

It is held further in Dargah Committee case as under:

  • “If these practises were found to be purely secular practices or mere practices sprung from ‘superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and UNESSENTIAL accretions to RELIGION the State was free to enact laws on such matters.

Observation in Dargah Committee Case only an Obiter according to Seervai

The observation in Dargah Committee case as to “…practices though religious may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself” is criticised by Seervai in his treatise ‘Constitutional Law of India’ and observed that it was only an obiter. From this decision, it may appear that these are matters that dwell within the domain of Courts. (That is, the yardstick would be the consciousness of Court.)

Gajendragadkar J., Subsequently, Affirmed- ‘Enquiry on Tenets of Religion’

But, Justice Gajendragadkar himself (who authored Dargah Committee Case) explained, as to enquiry on integral part of religion, in a subsequent Constitution Bench [BP Sinha, CJ, Gajendragadkar, Wanchoo, Das Gupta, JC Shah JJ.] decision, in Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan, 1963AIR SC 1638, as under:

  • “In cases where conflicting evidence is produced in respect of rival contentions as to competing religious practices the Court may not be able to resolve the dispute by a blind application of the formula that the community decides which practice is an integral part of its religion, because the community may speak with more than one voice and the formula would, therefore, break down. This question will always have to be decided by the Court and in doing so, the Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion, and the finding of the Court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the conscience of the community and the tenets of its religion.

CONFLICT between SHIRUR MUTT CASE and DURGAH CASE

The law handed down by the Supreme Court in these two rulings are divergent in certain material particulars. They are:

  1. Whether ‘religious Denomination or any section thereofextends to religious ‘Organization’, ‘Sect, Sub-sect’ etc.? (Shirur)
    • Or, whether protections in Article 25 and 26 are limited to practices that are essential and integral part of RELIGION and no other? (Durgah)
  2. Who determines – what constitutes the essential part of a religion? Is it left to be determined by the Denomination or Section; and whether a religion or any section thereof holds the fundamental right to manage its own affairs‘ (which no legislature can take away) and enjoys complete autonomy (so that no outside authority has any jurisdiction); and whether it is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself? (Shirur)
    • Is it determined by the COURT? (Durgah)
  3. Whether the freedom to ‘practice religion’, protect ‘(all) acts done in pursuance of a religion; and whether freedom of religion is guaranteed to all religious practices, except that which run counter to public order, health and morality. (Shirur)
    • Or, whether protections in Article 25 and 26 are limited to practices that are ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of Religion and no other? (Durgah)

The findings of the Apex Court, in these cases, on Article 25 and 26, can be summarised as under:

Durgah Committee (1961) Five Judge Bench. (Author: Gajendragadkar, J.)Shirur Mutt (1954) Seven Judge Bench. (Author: BK Mukherjea, J.)
1. The rights protected are limited to practices of ‘RELIGION in a strict sense.
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised. In other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it (RELIGION) and no other.
“If these practises were found to be purely secular practices or mere practices sprung from ‘superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and UNESSENTIAL accretions to RELIGION the State was free to enact laws on such matters.


Extends to religious DENOMINATION or a SECTION THEREOF, and includes ‘Organization‘, ‘Sects, Sub-sects‘, etc.
“After Sankara, … religious teachers … founded the different sects and sub-sects …. Each one of such sects or sub-sects can certainly be called a religious denomination …”  
“The word ‘’denomination’ … mean … a religious sect or body ….” 
“If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food … be regarded as parts of religion.
“A religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy …”
“There could be other affairs of .. denomination or a section thereof .. not matters of religion … guarantee given ….”
[In Sardar Syedna Taher Saiffuddin Saheb Vs. State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, “Community” is considered.]
2. COURT determines
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION
their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised;
in other words,
the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”
(That is, court determines and ‘carefully scrutinises’. That is, there is scope for the court to apply its own conscience.)
Note: This proposition is not followed in
(i) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan, 1963AIR SC 1638, authored by Gajendragadkar, J himself;
(ii) Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, Authored by BP Sinha.
It is found in this decision: “What are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself” (So observed in Sabarimala Reference decision).
What rites and ceremonies are essential –No outside authority has any jurisdiction.
“What constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.”
“A religious denomination or organization enjoys COMPLETE AUTONOMY in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”
“The ‘right to manage its own affairs in matters’ of religion “is a fundamental right which no legislature can take away“.
3. The rights protected are limited to such RELIGIOUS PRACTICES as are ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion and no other.
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”

Note: This proposition is not followed in
(i) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan, 1963 AIR SC 1638 [Held: The Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion];

(ii) Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853 [Held: Include practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion].
The rights protected are extended to (ALL) ACTS DONE IN PURSUANCE OF A RELIGION.
“Our Constitution not only protects the freedom of religious opinion but it protects also acts done in pursuance of a religion and this is made clear by the use of the expressionpractice of religion‘.
“The contention in broad terms that all secular activities (which may be associated with religion) which do not really constitute an essential part of it, are amenable to State regulation cannot be supported.”
“If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or ablations to the sacred fire, all these would be regarded as parts of religion and the mere fact that they involve expenditure of money or employment of priests and servants or the use of marketable commodities would not make them secular activities partaking of a commercial or economic character; all of them are religious  practices and should be regarded as matters of religion within the meaning of article 26(b).”
4. Not refer to public order, health and morality
Unless such practices are found to constitute an ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised.”

(That is,
emphasis is given to
(i) ESSENTIAL and integral part of a RELIGION
and
(ii) assig
ns serious ROLE FOR THE COURT.)
Extends to (ALL) PRACTICES except when they do not run counter to public order, health and morality
“What article 25(2)(a) contemplates is not regulation by the State of religious practices as such, the freedom of which is guaranteed by the Constitution except when they run counter to public order, health and morality, but regulation of activities which are economic, commercial or political in their character though they are associated with religious practices.” 
“There could be other affairs of a religious denomination or a section thereof which are not matters of religion and to which the guarantee given by this clause would not apply.”

Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay

(AIR 1962 SC 853 – BP Sinha, CJ., AK Sarkar, Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, Mudholkar, J.J.)

  • Note: 1. Sarkar, Das Gupta , Rajagopala Ayyangar were also judges in Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali. [Other Judges in Durgah Committee were – Gajendragadkar, and KN Wanchoo.]
  • Note: 2. This decision is stand referred to a larger bench by Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community vState of Maharashtra (2005) 2 SCC 673.

The Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949 was challenged in Sardar Syedna Taher Saiffuddin Saheb Vs. State of Bombay. This Act made act of “ex-communication” illegal under Sec. 3, which reads as under:

  • “3. Notwithstanding anything contained in any law, custom or usage for the time being in force to the contrary, no excommunication of a member of any community shall be valid and shall be of any effect.”

Sec. 4 made excommunication, a punishable offence. The Act was challenged by the head of the Dawoodi Bohras, as:

  • being impinging upon the right of the Dawoodi Bohras to freely practice their religion according to their own faith and practice, a right guaranteed under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution.
  • It was contended that the right of the head of the Dawoodi Bohra community to ex-communicate is an essential part of the creed of the Dawoodi Bohra sect as it is a necessary measure of discipline for maintenance of integrity of the community, to hold together the community, so that the community faith, belief and practice can be preserved and hence protected by Article 26(b).

The Supreme Court, by majority (4 : 1), accepted the argument and struck down the Act as violative of Article 26(b) of the Constitution.  It is pointed out in this decision as under:

  • “The content of Arts. 25 and 26 of the Constitution came up for consideration before this Court in:
    • The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Matt;
    • Mahant Jagannath Ramanuj Das Vs. The State of Orissa;
    • Sri Venkatamana Devaru Vs. The State of Mysore;
    • Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali and several other cases
  • and the main principles underlying these provisions have by these decisions been placed beyond controversy.
    • The first is that the protection of these articles is not limited to matters of doctrine or belief, they extend also to acts done in pursuance of religion and therefore contain a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion.
    • The second is that what constitutes an essential part of a religious or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion.” (This part is referred to in Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001)

It is also held as under:

  • “It is clear however that apart from these limitations the Constitution has not imposed any limit on the right of a religious community to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. The fact that civil rights of a person are affected by the exercise of this fundamental right under Art. 26(b) is therefore of no consequence. Nor is it possible to say that excommunication is prejudicial to public order, morality and health.”

In this decision the Constitution Bench of our Apex Court:

  • observed that the exercise of the power of ex-communication by the religious head on religious ground form part of the management of its affairs in matters of religion and
  • held that it was difficult to agree that court was not a forum for vindication of such right.

The Chief Justice , SB Sinha (minority) observed as under:

  • “That conclusion is further strengthened by the consideration that the effect of the excommunication or expulsion from the community is that the expelled person is excluded from the exercise of rights in connection not only with places of worship but also from burying the dead in the community burial ground and other rights to property belonging to the community, which are all disputes of a civil nature and are not purely religious matters.”

Religious Denomination or Any Section Thereof

In Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam Vs. Govt. of TN (2016)[113] the Apex Court (Ranjan Gogoi & NV Ramana JJ), 2016- 2 SCC 725 considered the ‘religious practice’ of a GROUP or denomination. In Sri Venkataramana Devaru Vs. The State of Mysore (1958),[114] (Venkatarama Aiyar, J.), AIR 1958 SC 255, observed that it was settled that matters of religion in Art. 26(b) include even practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as part of its religion.

Commissioner of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta (2004)

It is the second Ananda Margi case. In the first Ananda Margi case (Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta v. Commr. of Police, AIR 1984 SC 51), the Supreme Court held that the Tandava dance in public (with knife, live snake, trident, skull, etc.) was not an essential rite of the Ananda Margi faith. In this second Ananda Margi case, Commissioner of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta, AIR 2004 SC 2984, the majority rendered its verdict following Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali, which observed that ‘the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and integral part of it and no other‘.

The minority view in this decision is rendered by AR Lakshmanan, J. It is laid down as under:

  • “This observation of this Court (in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali), in our view, runs counter to the observation of Mukherjee, J. in The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowment, Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (supra). In this context, it is useful to reproduce a passage from the above judgment which explains the definition of religion in paragraphs 14 and 19 of the judgment which are –
    • “We now come to Art. 25 which, as its language indicates, secures to every person, subject to public order, health and morality, a freedom not only to entertain such religious belief, as may be approved of by his judgment and conscience, but also to exhibit his belief in such outward acts as he thinks proper and to propagate or disseminate his ideas for the edification of others….
    • ….If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or oblations to the sacred fire all these would be regarded as parts of religion…”
  • In a subsequent decision, namely, His Holiness Srimad Perarulala Ethiraja Ramanuja Jeeyar Swami etc. v. The State of Tamil Nadu [AIR 1972 SC 1586], this Court has held that –
    • ‘Worshippers lay great store by the rituals and whatever other people, not of the faith may think about these rituals and ceremonies, they are a part of the Hindu Religious faith and cannot be dismissed as either irrational or superstitious.’
  • The contention that the word ‘religion’ under Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India does not include sect of religion of Ananda Marga being declared as religious denomination does not qualify for the same protection as religion in our view is not tenable. The learned Judges of the Calcutta High Court in their judgment impugned in this appeal has categorically dealt with the question following the decision exactly on the same point in the case of Shirur Mutt (supra) and the National Anthem case (Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala) reported in [AIR 1987 SC 748] and Sri Venkataramana Devaru & Ors. v. State of Mysore & Ors., [AIR 1958 SC 255] held that a religious denomination or organisation enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rights and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and outside authority has no jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”

The Crux of Sabarimala-Review-Matter

Read Blog: Sabarimala Review Petitions & Reference to 9-Judge Bench

In the Sabarimala review-reference (to higher Bench) Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2020-2 SCC 1, it is observed that there is conflict between the Shirur Mutt Case and Durgah Committee Case. In the aforesaid review-reference-judgment the Court said as under:

  • “7. In this context, the decision of the Seven Judges bench of this Court in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt) holding that what are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the DENOMINATION ITSELF and the subsequent view of a Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors. carving out a ROLE FOR THE COURT in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs seem to be in apparent conflict requiring consideration by a larger Bench.”

The issues placed before the nine-judge-bench are reframed in Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2020-3 SCC 52, as under:

  • 1. What is the scope and ambit of right to freedom of religion under Article 25 of the Constitution of India?
  • 2. What is the inter-play between the rights of persons under Article 25 of the Constitution of India and rights of religious denomination under Article 26 of the Constitution of India?
  • 3. Whether the rights of a religious denomination under Article 26 of the Constitution of India are subject to other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India apart from public order, morality and health?
  • 4. What is the scope and extent of the word ‘morality’ under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India and whether it is meant to include Constitutional morality?
  • 5. What is the scope and extent of judicial review with regard to a religious practice as referred to in Article 25 of the Constitution of India?
  • 6. What is the meaning of expression “Sections of Hindus” occurring in Article 25 (2) (b) of the Constitution of India?
  • 7. Whether a person not belonging to a religious denomination or religious group can question a practice of that religious denomination or religious group by filing a PIL?

Inter-play between the Rights under Article 25 and Article 26

  • Art. 25 refers to rights of persons freely to profess, practice and propagate religion. Art, 26 says as to the rights of every religious denomination or any section thereof to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

From the above, the following questions emerge:

  • Do religious denomination or any section thereof have a right to freely to profess, practice and propagate religion
  • Do persons have a right to manage his own affairs in matters of religion.

Prohibition of Entry of Muslim Women in Mosques in India: Points Placed in Challenge

The petitioners in the Writ Petition, Yasmeen Zuber Ahmad Peerzade v. Union of  India, filed before the Supreme Court under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, sought the declaration that the practices of prohibition of entry of Muslim Women in Mosques in India is illegal and unconstitutional for being violative of the fundamental rights to equality, life and liberty and freedom of religion, proclaimed under Articles 14, 15, 21, 25 and 29 of the Constitution. They placed the following points for the consideration of the Apex Court:

  1. The prohibition is void and unconstitutional as such practices are repugnant to the basic dignity of a woman as an individual.
  2. The arbitrary prohibition imposed on women is violate of Article 14 of the Constitution of India – to be treated equally – and Article 15 of the Constitution which clearly prohibits discrimination by the government on the basis of sex.
  3. The prohibition imposed is violative of fundamental rights under Articles 25 and 29 also of the Constitution of India.
  4. Preventing the females from entering mosque is violative of Article 44 of the Constitution of India which directs the State to endeavour to secure uniform civil code.
  5. The exclusion of women is, nonetheless, not supported by reasons of  “public order”, “health”, “morality” (in Article 25), and, in any case, Article 25(1) will not take precedence over other articles.
  6. A woman’s entry to a masjid or eidgah (a place where Muslims congregate for Eid-ul-Fitr and Eid-ul-Azha celebrations) does not create fitna (distress).
  7. In the Hajj pilgrimage and Umrah (a lesser Hajj) thousands of Muslim women gather and perform Hajj rituals such as tawaf (walking around the Ka’ba) and sa’I (running between the hills of Safa and Marwa) and ramye zamrat (stoning of the devil ceremony) along with their male counterparts.
  8. Religious bodies ask for and receive taxpayers’ money from the government are also subject to the conditions imposed by our Constitution.
  9. The historical sources also show that Prophet Muhammad had himself encouraged women to actively participate in mosque congregations and prayer.
  10. The most sacred mosque in the world for Muslims, Masjid-al-Haram in Mecca, embraces both men and women and there is complete unanimity in the Muslim community on the Masjid-al-Haram in Mecca – to all Muslims in the world.
  11. The Apex Court, in Khursheed Ahmad Khan v. State of Uttar Pradesh and Others, (2015) 8 SCC 439, has taken the view that practices permitted or not prohibited by a religion do not become a religious practice or a positive tenet of the religion, since a practice does not acquire the sanction of religion merely because it is permitted.
  12. The petitioners also argued that there is nothing in the Quran and the Hadith that ‘requires gender segregation’and that the Legislature has failed to ensure the dignity and equality of women in general and Muslim women in particular.

Stance of the contesting respondents

The contesting  respondents have not filed their response in Court. Their stance, as appears from the counter affidavit filed by the All India Muslim Personal Law Board, would be, mainly, the following:

  1. The issues do not pertain to any statute.
  2. The alleged  rights cannot be enforced against non-state entities like Mosques.
  3. Friday Namaz in congregation is not obligatory for women, though it is so, on Muslim men. As per doctrines of Islam, a woman is entitled to the same religious reward (Sawab) for praying as per her option either in Masjid or at home.
  4. The matters involved are religious practices based upon beliefs of the religion.
  5. They are not matters ‘merely concern’ the management of a religious place.
  6. They are not the activities ‘only concern’ regulating the activities connected with religious practice.
  7. The matters involved are matters concern of Masjids, purely private bodies regulated by Muttawalis.
  8. It is not appropriate for the Court to enter into or interpret the religious principles/beliefs and tenets, invoking Articles 14, 15, 21, 25 and 29 of Constitution of India.
  9. It is not appropriate for the Court to attempt to answer issues that are matters of faith alone, when there is no ‘threat to life and liberty’. 
  10. It is not appropriate for the Court to interfere in religious beliefs and the practice of the essential features of any religion protected underArticle 26.
  11. In the absence of any state action, it is not appropriate for the Court to judicially determine or interfere in, or to seek resolution of, various aspects on ‘faith and belief’, and essential religious practices of faith, through judicial process.  It should be left to be resolved through the processes of social transformation within the religious denomination itself.
  12. During the pendency of the present petition, a five Judge Bench judgment in Kantaru Rajeevaru Vs. Indian Young Lawyers Association [Sabarimala-Case-Review from 2019-1 SCC 1]  has referred matters involving Articles 14, 25 and 26 to larger bench. The matters involved in that case are much relevant in this case also.

See Also: ‘Muslim Women: Ban to Enter Mosques, Is it Unconstitutional

Excommunication of Parsi Women for Marrying a Non-Parsi

A Parsi woman will lose her religious identity if she marries a Non-Parsi.  Unlike a woman, a Parsi man will not face such a predicament. Can this anomaly be saved as an ‘essential religious practice’?  Is it an ‘integral practice’ touching upon the right to profess, practice and propagate one’s own religion? These were the main questions placed before the Gujarat High Court in the writ petition in Ms. Goolrokh Gupta v. Burjor Pardiwala, AIR 2012 CC 3266. The petitioner contended as under:

  • No tenet of Zorastrianism denied a born Parsi woman, rights to her religious identity on marriage to a non-Parsi.
  • It was violative of the right to equality under Articles 14 of the Constitution of India.
  • It was pointed out that this excommunication is a matter of social and constitutional concern.
  • Excommunication could be equated to the practice of untouchability, as the effect of both was the deprivation of human dignity and civil rights.
  • The matter involved issues of the right to individual’s right to faith and practice religion under Article 25.
  • Though there should be a need to balance the rights of individuals as well that of the denomination under Article 26 to manage internal affairs, it was argued that the fundamental rights being primarily concerned with rights of individuals and protect individuality and choices, due importance should be given to the same.

The Parsi Trust opposed the petition and contended as under:

  • A Parsi woman, upon marriage with a non-Parsi, ceases to be a Parsi
  • Denial of entry to non-Parsis to Parsi institutions was an essential practice of the religion.
  • Under Article 26, the Parsi Trust was entitled to regulate entry
  • Zorastrianism directed renunciation of Parsi religion if a Parsi woman undergoes the inter-faith marriage.

The petition was dismissed by 2:1 majority. It accepted the argument of the Parsi Trust that a Parsi woman, upon marriage with a non-Parsi under the Special Marriage Act, ceased to be a Parsi. 

Majority Decision

The High Court (majority) did not address the fundamental question as to whether Ms. Gupta could be denied entry into Parsi institutions as an essential religious practice. It pointed out

  • that the English common law doctrine was that, in the absence of a specific statutory protection, the personality, known by religion, of a woman would merge into that of her husband.   
  • that a married woman is identified by her husband’s family name superseding that of her father’s, although such a principle of merger was not recognised by any of the religions in India.
  • that it is of ‘general acceptance throughout the world’.
  • that the merger was essential to determine the religion of children born out of the marriage.
  • that, to obtain reliefs from courts, countering this presumption, there should be a judicial declaration pursuant to a fact-finding inquiry. Since no such inquiry was conducted in the present case, the petitioner was deemed to have acquired the religious status of her Hindu husband. 

Minority Decision

J. Akil Kureshi, minority, ruled:

  • that the petitioner retained her Parsi identity in spite of solemnisation of her marriage under the Special Marriage Act.
  • that there was no automatic conversion on marriage.
  • that Special Marriage Act, 1954 speaks of a special form of marriage in which both parties can retain their birth-religion insofar as the other conditions under Section 4 of the Act of 1954 were satisfied.
  • that there is legislative commitment toward a secular state.

See Also: Excommunication of Parsi Women.

Conclusion

The jurisprudential importance of the ensuing Sabarimala-Nine-Judge-Bench decision is not limited as to whether the decision in Shirur Mutt Case will prevail over the decision in Durgah Committee case; because, the enquiries of the Court will not end there; but, it has to go beyond and record findings on the newly framed issues. The issues are couched in a manner that they definitely embrace, whether the decision in Shirur Mutt requires reconsideration, mainly on two points:

  • First, whether the ‘religious denomination or any section thereof in Article 26 be liberally construed (or, whether ‘such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part’ of RELIGION alone, and no other, is to be considered, as held in Durgah Committee decision)?
  • Second, whether the ‘essential religious practices’ are matters that are left to be determined by the ‘denomination’ (or whether it should remain in the realm of Court, as held in Durgah Committee decision)?

One thing is definite: the march of law in this topic has reached a breaking point, whereby the answers of the Apex Court will be from a practical and solutional perspective; rather than that in a pure ‘ideological’ view-point.



Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Evidence Act – General

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Will – Probate and Letters of Administration

  • What is a Probate?
  • What is letters of administration?
  • When a probate is mandatory?
  • Who can apply for a probate?
  • Can Probate be issued to Movable Property?
  • What are the uses of a Succession Certificate?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract

  • Probate is:
    • mandatory, for establishing right in a court, as to properties in wills
      • pertaining to property of Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina within Bengal, Bombay and Madras – as stated in Sec. 213 read with Sec. 57 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925.
    • not required to establish right in a court as to wills made by
      • Muhammadans, Parsi, Christians in Kerala and also pertaining to Property of Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina beyond the provinces of Bengal, Bombay and Madras – as stated in Sec. 213 read with Sec. 57.
  • Letters of administration is
    • mandatory to establish right in a court pertaining to property of an intestate person (Note: contradistict to – Letters of administration ‘with the will annexed’): as stated in Sec. 212
    • It is required for persons other than Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh, Jaina, Indian Christian or Parsi (Eg. Anglo-Indians, rationalists or non-religious persons).
  • Letters of administration ‘with the will annexed‘ is
    • mandatory to establish right in a court: as stated in Sec. 213
    • (pertaining to wills as to property of Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina within the provinces of Bengal, Bombay and Madras) read with Sec. 234 (where no executor or executor refuses etc).
  • In short, Probate or Letters of Administration is :
    1. Needed pertaining to wills as to property of Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina within the provinces of Bengal, Bombay and Madras.
    2. Not needed pertaining to wills as to property of
      • Muhammadans,
      • Parsi,
      • Christians in Kerala
      • Property of Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina beyond the provinces of Bengal, Bombay and Madras
  • An executor derives his title from the Will and not from probate.
  • An unprobated Will can be admitted in evidence (in court)
    • for purposes other than establishment of right as executor or legatee.
    • in evidence for collateral purposes.
  • It is clear from Sec. 273 that probate can be issued as to Movable Property also.
  • Succession Certificate
    • Object is Collection of Particular Debts (Sec. 372);
    • No General Power.

What is Probate according to Indian Succession Act?

  • Where an executor is named in the will (to execute or give effect to the will), under Sec. 222, the court of competent jurisdiction may issue Probate to the executor. It is granted on application by the executor or executors.
  • Probate is, copy of the will certified under the seal of a court “with a” (certificate or order as to) “grant of administration to the estate”.
  • The executor or executors nominated in the will have to file the application for getting the Probate.

Sec. 2 (f) of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 defines probate as under:

  • ” ‘Probate’ means the copy of a will certified under the seal of a Court of competent jurisdiction with a grant of administration to the estate of the testator.”

What is Letters of Administration

Letters of Administration – Two Kinds:

  1. Referred to in Sec. 212, with respect to ‘Right to intestate’s property’ (no question of Will comes-in).
  2. Referred to in Sec. 213, with respect to ‘Letters of Administration with the Will Annexed‘, read with Sec. 234 (Grant of administration where no executor, nor residuary legatee nor representative of such legatee; or executor refuses etc.).

Letters of Administration with the will annexed

  • Letter of Administration with the will annexed is the ‘copy of the will certified under the seal of a Court with grant of administrative rights to the beneficiaries’ – similar to probate that is given to the executor.
  • The competent court issues Letter of Administration when the will does not mention an executor or when the executor declines, etc. In such cases it is given to the beneficiaries. The beneficiaries of the deceased have to apply for the Letters of Administration.

Letters of Administration (other than the will annexed): To whom granted

Sec. 218 reads as under:

  • 218. To whom administration may be granted, where deceased is a Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh, Jaina or exempted person.
  • (1) If the deceased has died intestate and was a Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina or an exempted person, administration of his estate may be granted to any person who, according to the rules for the distribution of the estate applicable in the case of such deceased, would be entitled to the whole or any part of such deceased’s estate.  
  • (2) When several such persons apply for such administration, it shall be in the discretion of the Court to grant it to any one or more of them.
  •  (3) When no such person applies, it may be granted to a creditor of the deceased.

Where deceased is Not a Hindu, Muhammadan, etc.

Section 219 reads:

  • 219. Where deceased is not a Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh, Jaina or exempted person.
  • If the deceased has died intestate and was  not a person belonging to any of the classes referred to in section 218, those who are connected with him, either by marriage or by consanguinity, are entitled to obtain letters of administration of his estate and effects in the order and according to the rules hereinafter stated, namely:–
  • (a) If the deceased has left a widow, administration shall   be granted to the widow, unless the Court sees cause to exclude her, either on the ground of some personal disqualification, or because she has no interest in the estate of the deceased.
  •  (b) If the Judge thinks proper, he may associate any person  or persons with the widow in the administration who  would be entitled solely to the administration if there  were no widow.
  • (c) If there is no widow, or if the Court sees cause to  exclude the widow, it shall commit the administration  to the person or persons who would be beneficially  entitled to the estate according to the rules for the  distribution of an intestate’s estate:
    •  Provided that, when the mother of the deceased is one of the class of persons so entitled, she shall be  solely entitled to administration.
  •  (d) Those who stand in equal degree of kindred to the  deceased are equally entitled to administration.
  •  (e) The husband surviving his wife has the same right of  administration of her estate as the widow has in  respect of the estate of her husband.
  •  (f) When there is no person connected with the deceased by  marriage or consanguinity who is entitled to letters of  administration and willing to act, they may be granted  to a creditor.
  •  (g) Where the deceased has left property in [India],  letters of administration shall be granted according to  the foregoing rules, notwithstanding that he had his  domicile in a country in which the law relating to  testate and intestate succession differs from the law  of [India].

Grant of Administration – where no executor, nor residuary legatee etc.

Sec. 234 reads:

  • 234. Grant of administration where no executor, nor residuary legatee nor representative of such legatee.-When there is
    • no executor and no residuary legatee or representative of a residuary legatee,
    • or he declines or is incapable to act,
    • or cannot be found,
    • the person or persons who would be entitled to the administration of the estate of the deceased if he had died intestate,
    • or any other legatee having a beneficial interest, or a creditor,
    • may be admitted to prove the will and letters of administration may be granted to him or them accordingly.

Letters of Administration Mandatory to establish ‘right in a court’ as to property of Intestate (other than Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh, Jaina, Indian Christian or Parsi)

Sec. 212 of the Indian Succession Act states as under:

  • 212. Right to intestate’s property.-(1) No right to any part of the property of a person who has died intestate can be established in any Court of Justice, unless letters of administration have first been granted by a Court of competent jurisdiction.
  • (2) This section shall not apply in the case of the intestacy of a Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh, Jaina, [Indian Christian or Parsi].

Effect of Letters of Administration

Under Sec. 220 of the Indian Succession Act states that the Letters of administration gives the administrator “all rights belonging to the intestate” to effectively administer as if the administration had been granted at the moment after his death.  It reads:

  • “220. Effect of letters of administration. Letters of administration entitle the administrator to all rights belonging to the intestate as effectually as if the administration had been granted at the moment after his death.”
  • Note – The clause, “as effectually as if the administration had been granted at the moment after his death” is not stated when the Act deals with ‘Probate’. Because, it is evident that the provisions and directions in the will govern all these matters. It is further clear from the definition of administrator, in Sec. 2(a). It reads:  ” ‘administrator’ means a person appointed by competent authority to administer the estate of a deceased person when there is no executor”.

To whom Letter of Administration can be granted

Sec. 236 lays down that the Letters of administration cannot be granted to:

  • a minor
  • or is of unsound mind,
  • nor to any association of individuals unless it is a company which satisfies the conditions prescribed by rules to be made by notification in the Official Gazette, by the  State Government in this behalf.

Court interfere for protection property at the instance of any person interested

Sec. 269 reads as under:

  • 269. When and how District Judge to interfere for protection of property.-(1) Until probate is granted of the will of a deceased person, or an administrator of his estate is constituted, the District Judge, within whose jurisdiction any part of the property of the deceased person is situate, is authorised and required to interfere for the protection of such property at the instance of any person claiming to be interested therein, and in all other cases where the Judge considers that the property incurs any risk of loss or damage; and for that purpose, if he thinks fit, to appoint an officer to take and keep possession of the property.
  • (2) This section shall not apply when the deceased is a Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina or an exempted person, nor shall it apply to any part of the property of an Indian Christian who has died intestate.

When probate or administration may be granted

Sec. 270 reads as under:

  • 270. When probate or administration may be granted by District Judge.-Probate of the will or letters of administration to the estate of a deceased person may be granted by a District Judge under the seal of his Court, if it appears by a petition, verified as hereinafter provided, of the person applying for the same that the testator or intestate, as the case may be, at the time of his decease had a fixed place of abode, or any property, moveable or immoveable, within the jurisdiction of the Judge.

Property vests in the executors by virtue of the Will; and not by virtue of the probate

In Commissioner v. Mohan Krishan Abrol, (2004)7 SCC 505, the Apex Court observed that a bare reading of Section 211 shows that the property vests in the executors by virtue of the Will and not by virtue of the probate.

Sec. 211 reads as under:

  • 211. Character and property of executor or administrator as such. (1) The executor or administrator, as the case may be, of a deceased person is his legal representative for all purposes, and all the property of the deceased person vests in him as such.
  •  (2) ….

Is ‘Probate’ or ‘Letters of Administration’ mandatory?

Sections 57, 212 and 213 of the Indian Succession Act are the relevant provisions.

Sections 57

Sections 57 says as to application of the PART that deals with WILLS.

The Section reads as under:

  • 57. Application of certain provisions of Part to a class of wills made by Hindus, etc. The provisions of this Part which are set out in Schedule III shall, subject to the restrictions and modifications specified therein, apply
    • (a) to all wills and codicils made by any Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina, on or after the first day of September, 1870, within the territories which at the said date were subject to the Lieutenant-Governor of Bengal or within the local limits of the ordinary original civil jurisdiction of the High Courts of Judicature at Madras and Bombay; and
    • (b) to all such wills and codicils made outside those territories and limits so far as relates to immoveable property situate within those territories or limits; and 
    • (c) to all wills and codicils made by any Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina on or after the first day of January, 1927, to which those provisions are not applied by clauses (a) and (b):
  • Provided that marriage shall not revoke any such will or codicil.

In Clarence Pais v. Union of India, AIR 2001 SC 115 the Supreme Court held that if a Will is executed by a Hindu in respect of properties situate out side the provinces of Bengal, Bombay and Madras  then probate is not necessary in accordance with Section 57. (Mrs. H. N. Judah v. I. S. Bose, AIR 1962 SC 1471 referred)

Section 212

As stated above, this section deals with letters of administration with respect to property of a person died intestate

  • Under Sec. 212, to establish right in a court as to any property of a person (other than Hindu, Muhammadan, Buddhist, Sikh, Jaina, Indian Christian or Parsi) who has died intestate, letters of administration should be produced.

In Debi Sankar Bhattacharjee v. Irene David, 1968-1 Cal LT 16, the question came for consideration was as to an intestate Anglo-Indian deceased. Court observed as under:

  • “After considering Section 211 and Section 212 and the aforesaid other provisions of the Indian Succession Act, I see no reason why such representation was not necessary to be obtained in this case. The tenancy right is undoubtedly a property within the meaning of the said provisions of the Indian Succession Act. Again, it is clearly provided therein that such property cannot vest on anybody else excepting an administrator in case the deceased Anglo-Indian died intestate as was the case here. The defendant has been sued as a trespasser. The defendant seeks to establish her right that she is an heir of the deceased on whom the tenancy right was vested after the death of the tenant. Under Section 212 of the Indian Succession Act she is debarred from establishing such right in any Court without obtaining a grant of the letter of administration. The tenancy right which is a property left by the deceased could not have vested in her as an heir immediately upon the death of the deceased. She could at best be a person interested to succeed in the tenancy right and in that capacity she could take steps under Section 269 of the Indian Succession Act to protect her tenancy right from anybody who might have interested with it until the grant would be made. By doing so she could get an administrator appointed so that such administrator after administering the estate could have the tenancy right vested in her. The language of Sections 211 and 212, read with Section 269, would clearly indicate the same. The language of sec. 212 makes it imperative to take out representations to the estate of the deceased. It is further clear that the tenancy right is a property and the vesting takes place only when the appointment is made and not earlier. The function of the administrator after he would be so appointed would be to transfer the monthly tenancy right left by the deceased to the proper heir or heirs as on intestacy and such function would be performed by him in course of his administering the estate of the deceased. Until that would be done the landlord would not be in a position to ascertain who would be the proper tenant under the circumstances in a case governed by the Indian Succession Act.”

Section 213 – Requirement of Probate

Section 213 reads as under:

  • 213. Right as executor or legatee when established.-
  • (1) No right as executor or legatee can be established in any Court of Justice, unless a Court of competent jurisdiction in India has granted probate of the will under which the right is claimed, or has granted letters of administration with the will or with a copy of an authenticated copy of the will annexed.
  • (2) This section shall not apply in the case of wills made by Muhammadans, and shall only apply—
    • (i) in the case of wills made by any Hindu, Buddhist, Sikh or Jaina where such wills are of the classes specified in clauses (a) and (b) of section 57; and
    • (ii) in the case of wills made by any Parsi dying, after the commencement of the Indian Succession (Amendment) Act, 1962, (16 of 1962.) where such wills are made within the local limits of the ordinary original civil jurisdiction] of the High Courts at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay, and where such wills are made outside those limits, in so far as they relate to immovable property situate within those limits.
  • [Kerala Amendment – In sub-section (2), after the word ‘Muhammadans’, the words ‘or Indian Christians‘ is inserted, in 1997.]
  • Sec. 2 (d) defines Indian Christian as under:
    • ” ‘Indian Christian’ means a native of India who is, or in  good faith claims to be, of unmixed Asiatic descent and  who professes any form of the Christian religion”

Section 213 only says – No Right can be ‘Established in Court‘ with Unprobated Will

The section does not prohibit the use of unprobated Will for purposes other than establishment of right as executor or legatee.

The Supreme Court pointed out in Hem Nolini v. Isolyne Sarojbashini, AIR 1962 SC 1471, that the section does not say that no person can claim as a legatee or as an executor unless he obtains probate or letters of administration. It is held as under:

  • “The words of S.213 are not restricted only to those cases where the claim is made by a person directly claiming as a legatee. of the will under which he claims. What it says is that no right as an executor or legatee can be established in any Court of Justice, unless probate or letters of administration have been obtained of the will under which the right is claimed, and therefore it is immaterial who wishes to establish the right as a legatee or an executor. Whosoever wishes to establish that right, whether it be a legatee or an executor himself or somebody else who might find it necessary in order to establish his right to establish the right of some legatee or executor from whom he might have derived title, he cannot do so unless the will under which the right as a legatee or executor is claimed has resulted in the grant of a probate or letters of administration.”

Division Bench of Kerala High Court in Cherichi v. Ittianam, AIR 2001 Ker 184, held as under:

  • “The prohibition under Section 213 of the Act is regarding establishing any right under the Will without getting probate or letters of administration and that section cannot be understood as one by which the vesting of right as per the provisions of the Will is postponed until the obtaining of probate or letters of administration. The Will will take effect on the death of the executant of the Will and what Section 213 of the Act says is that the right as executor or legatee can be established in any Court of justice only if probate or letters of administration is obtained. ….. The necessity to obtain probate or letters of administration as provided in Section 213(1) of the Act arises only when right as executor or legatee is sought to be established in a Court and hence that section does not prohibit the use of Will which is unprobated as evidence for purposes other than establishment of right as executor or legatee. So, the requirement of obtaining probate becomes relevant at the time when the establishment or right as executor or legatee on the strength of a Will is sought to be made in a Court of justice…”

Unprobated Will can be used in Collateral Purpose in Court

In Commissioner v. Mohan Krishan Abrol, (2004)7 SCC 505, it is observed as under:

  • “A bare reading of Section 211 shows that the property vests in the executors by virtue of the Will and not by virtue of the probate. Will gives property to the executor; the grant of probate is only a method by which the law provides for establishing the Will. In the case of Kulwanta Bewa v Karam Chand Soni [AIR 1938 Cal  714] it has been held that Section 211 provides that the estate of the deceased vests in the executor; that the vesting is not of the beneficial interest in the property; but only for the purposes of representation. In the case of Meyappa Chetty v. Supramanian Chetty [43 Indian Appeals 113] the Privy Council has held that an executor derives his title from the Will and not from probate. The personal property of the testator (including right of action) vests in the executor(s) on the death of the testator. For purposes of deciding this matter, Section 336 of the Act is also relevant as it provides for assent of the executor to the legacy after the death of the testator. It provides that an executor gets divested of his interest as an executor from the death of the testator when he assents to a specific legacy. Section 213 acts as a bar to the establishment of rights under the Will by an executor or a legatee unless probate or letters of administration have been obtained. This bar comes into play only when a right as an executor or a legatee under Will is sought to be established. However, an unprobated Will can be admitted in evidence for collateral purposes in any other proceedings apart from probate proceedings.”

Can Probate or Letters of Administration be issued to Movable Property

It is clear from Sec. 273 that probate can be issued as to Movable Property also. It reads:

  • 273. Conclusiveness of probate or letters of administration. Probate or letters of administration shall have effect over all the property and estate, moveable or immoveable, of the deceased, throughout the State in which the same is or are granted, and shall be conclusive as to the representative title against all debtors of the deceased, and all persons holding property which belongs to him, and shall afford full indemnity to all debtors, paying their debts and all persons delivering up such property to the person to whom such probate or letters of administration have been granted.

Read Blog: Law on SUCCESSION CERTIFICATE and LEGAL HEIRSHIP CERTIFICATE

Succession Certificate – Object is Collection of Particular Debts; No General Power

As can be seen from the Sec. 372, the main object of a Succession Certificate is to facilitate collection of particular debt or debts due to the deceased creditor. This section reads as under:

  • 372. Application for certificate. (1) Application for such a certificate shall be made to the District Judge by a petition signed and verified by or on behalf of the applicant in the manner prescribed by the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, (5 of 1908.) for the signing and verification of a plaint by or on behalf of a plaintiff, and setting forth the following particulars, namely:
  •  (a) … to  (e) ….
  • (f) the debts and securities in respect of which the  certificate is applied for.
  •  (2) …. …. …..
  • (3) Application for such a certificate may be made in respect of any debt or debts due to the deceased creditor or in respect of portions thereof.

The Supreme Court explained the object in Shri Banarsi Dass v. Mrs. Teeku Dutta, 2005(4) SCC 449, as under:

  • “The main object of a Succession Certificate is to facilitate collection of debts on succession and afford protection to parties paying debts to representatives of deceased persons. All that the Succession Certificate purports to do is to facilitate the collection of debts, to regulate the administration of succession and to protect persons who deal with the alleged representatives of the deceased persons.
  • Such a certificate does not give any general power of administration on the estate of the deceased. The grant of a certificate does not establish title of the grantee as the heir of the deceased.
  • A Succession Certificate is intended as noted above to protect the debtors, which means that where a debtor of a deceased person either voluntarily pays his debt to a person holding a Certificate under the Act, or is compelled by the decree of a Court to pay it to the person, he is lawfully discharged.
  • The grant of a certificate does not establish a title of the grantee as the heir of the deceased, but only furnishes him with authority to collect his debts and allows the debtors to make payments to him without incurring any risk. In order to succeed in the succession application the applicant has to adduce cogent and credible evidence in support of the application. The respondents, if they so chooses, can also adduce evidence to oppose grant of succession certificate.”

Probate Operates as a Judgment in Rem

The grant of a Probate by Court of competent jurisdiction is in the nature of a judgment in rem and conclusive and binds not only the parties but also the entire world. The principle is laid down by the Supreme Court in the following cases:

  • Lynette Fernandes v. Gertie Mathias, (2018) 1 SCC 271,
  • Virendra Kumar Jain v. Asha Goel, 2019-4 All.WC 4033,
  • Ishwardeo Narain Singh v. Smt. Kanta Devi, 1954 AIR SC 280,
  • Chiranjilal Shrilal Goenka v. Jasjit Singh, (1993) 2 SCC 507.

Probate Court is not competent to determine the question of title

The Supreme Court consistently held (Ishwardeo Narain Singh v. Smt Kamta Devi, AIR 1954 SC 280, Chiranjilal Shrilal Goenka , v. Jasjit  Singh, (1993) 2 SCC 507, and  Kanwarjit Singh Dhillon v. Hardyal Singh Dhillon 2008 (1) CTC 80) that the probate Court is not competent to determine the question of title to the suit properties. (See: P.  Dhanakoti v. Devikarani, 2011 4 CTC 593; 2011 3 LW 633)

Also Read Blog: Executors of Will – Duties & their Removal



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FERA, 1973 And Transfer of Immovable Property by a Foreigner

FERA, 1973 directed foreign citizens to obtain prior permission from RBI for transfers of property.

FERA, 1973 has been repealed by FEMA, 1999 and transfers by foreigners are not prohibited under the new Act.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract

  • Section 31 of FERA, 1973 directed foreign citizens to obtain prior permission from RBI to ‘acquire or hold or transfer or dispose of Immovable Property in India.
  • Several High Courts held that Section 31 was only directory.
  • Supreme Court, held that it was mandatory in Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra (2021).
  • FERA, 1973 has been repealed by FEMA, 1999.
  • FEMA does not prohibit such transfers.
  • By virtue of the decision in Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra, the transfers made by foreigners, violating FERA, 1973, till 1999, stands void.
  • In Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra, the Supreme Court held that the competent court decisions that attained finality, on the supposition that Sec. 31 of FERA was only directory, should not be reopened.

Introduction

  • Section 31 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA) stipulates that when a foreign citizenacquire or hold or transfer or dispose of‘ Immovable Property in India, he must have obtained the prior permission for the same from the Reserve Bank of India.
  • Very valuable properties are involved, in several cases, including large plantations.
  • Several High Courts held that it was not a mandatory requirement; but, only a mere directory provision.
  • Contra view was also taken by certain High Courts.
  • The matter was finally placed before the Apex Court in Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra (AIR 2021 SC 2932).

The Supreme Court of India (JJ. Khanwilkar, Indu Malhotra and Ajay Rastogi) held in the landmark decision, Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra (AIR 2021 SC 2932), that the requirement in Sec. 31 was mandatory; and, therefore, the transfer of Immovable property made in India, by foreigners, without prior permission of RBI was void.

  • Note:
  • FERA, 1973 has been repealed by Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and such transfers are not prohibited under the new Act.
  • But, it is important for it is held by the Apex Court that such acquisition and transfers are ‘void‘.

Section 31 (1), Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973

Section 31 (1) reads as under:

  • “31. Restriction on acquisition, holding, etc., of immovable property in India.
  • (1) No person who is not a citizen of India and no company (other than a banking company) which is not incorporated under any law in force in India shall, except with the previous general or special permission of the Reserve Bank, acquire or hold or transfer or dispose of by sale, mortgage, lease, gift, settlement or otherwise any immovable property situate in India:
  • Provided that …”

Decisions of High Courts – Sec. 31 was not Mandatory

Several High Courts held that Sec. 31 was not mandatory; but, only directory. It includes the following:

  • Piara Singh v. Jagtar Singh (AIR 1987 P&H 93),
  • Ajith Prashad Jain v. N.K. Widhani (AIR 1990 Del. 42),
  • Tufanu vs. Muhammed Abdul Rahman ((1993) 1 Gau LR 306),
  • R. Sambasivam v. Thankavelu (2001-1 LW 161),
  • Geeta Reinboth v. J. Clairs (2005) 1 MP LJ 122,
  • Shivaprakasam v. Elamkovan ((2010) 3 MWN (Civil) 525: 2010 SCC OnLine Mad 4245),
  • Mathu Sree v. Samikkannu ((2013) 1 LW 136: 2012 SCC OnLine Mad 2769),
  • Harrisons Malayalam Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2018(2) KLT 369.

The Supreme Court VerdictAsha John v. Vikram Malhotra

Our Apex Court held in Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra (AIR 2021 SC 2932) as under:

  • “The condition predicated in Section 31 of the 1973 Act of obtaining ‘previous’ general or special permission of the RBI for transfer or disposal of immovable property situated in India by sale or mortgage by a person, who is not a citizen of India, is mandatory.”
  • “The decisions of concerned High Courts taking the view that Section 31 of the 1973 (FERA) Act is not mandatory and the transaction in contravention thereof is not void or unenforceable, is not a good law.”

Not to Reopen Cases Became Final by Competent Court Decisions

In this verdict (Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra) it is held that, the ‘transactions which have already become final‘, and the competent court decisions attained finality on the premises that Sec. 31 of FERA was only directory, should not be reopened. It is rendered as under:

  • “However, transactions which have already become final including by virtue of the decision of the court of competent jurisdiction, need not be reopened or disturbed in any manner because of this pronouncement.”

Ambiguity Broods

The words in the decision, ‘transactions which have already become final‘, is ambiguous; and it requires clarification, especially since it is definitely held in this case (Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra) that ‘the transaction (specified in Section 31 of the 1973 Act) entered into in contravention of that provision is void‘. And, also, observed as under:

  • ” ‘A priori, we conclude that the decisions of concerned High Courts taking the view that Section 31 of the 1973 Act is not mandatory and the transaction in contravention thereof is not void or unenforceable, is not a good law“.

Brief History of the case (Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra):

  • A foreigner, Raitte, gifted property to Vikram Malhotra without obtaining permission from RBI under S. 31 of  FERA 1973.
  • Before executing the gift deed she entered into a sale agreement with David, predecessor of Asha John.
  • The foreigner obtained formal permission of RBI under S. 31 on 2-4-1983.
  • The foreigner executed registered sale deed in favour of David on 9-4-1983.
  • David (Plaintiff), predecessor of Asha John, filed suit against Vikram Malhotra (Defendant) to declare the gift deed null and void.
  • Trial Court dismissed the suit.
  • The High Court, in appeal, held that there was no violation of S. 31; and dismissed the appeal, against the plaintiff.

The Supreme Court allowed the appeal, finding:

  • Gift to Vikram Malhotra (Defendant) was without permission from RBI under S. 31 of  FERA. Hence it was void, and
  • Sale to David (Plaintiff), predecessor of Asha John, was after permission from RBI; and hence it was valid.

Argument of appellant in the Supreme Court (Accepted by the Supreme Court).

  • Transfer to the defendant was void, for the reasons:
    • Transfer to the defendant was violative of S. 31; as prior permission of RBI was mandatory.
    • Further, S. 47 directed – “no person shall enter into” such contract; and S. 50 made violation punishable.
    • Object of 1973 Act was stopping capital repatriation (removal).
    • A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty (even if no express declaration in the Act that it is void).

Argument of Respondents:

  • S. 31 is a directory provision.
  • It does not prohibit transfer.
  • No provision say, violation is void.
  • No consequence provided for violation.
  • Provision for penalty does not make the deed invalid.
  • Penalties are provided in Section 50, no action has been taken RBI.
  • At the most, it would be voidable; and subject to discretion of the RBI.
  • RBI is exclusively responsible for determining the permissibility of the transaction.
  • FERA has been repealed and impugned violation is not void under the preset Act (FEMA).
  • Consistent view of High Courts should not be interfered, as held in Waman Rao v. Union of India, (1981) 2 SCC 362.

The Supreme Court upheld the Contentions of the Appellant, relying on the following earlier Decisions

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536;  (1977) 2 SCC 424 Prohibition and negative words can rarely be directory. Under Section 31  read with Sections 47, 50 and 63 of the Act, it is in the nature of prohibition. When penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.
Union of India & Ors. v. A.K. Pandey, (2009) 10 SCC 552Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
Union of India v. Colonel L.S.N. Murthy & Anr. (2012) 1 SCC 71  The contract would be lawful, unless the consideration and object thereof is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of law. And, in such a case the consideration or object is unlawful and would become void and that unless the effect of an agreement results in performance of an unlawful act, an agreement which is otherwise legal cannot be held to be void. Further, if the effect of an agreement did not result in performance of an unlawful act, as a matter of public policy, the court should refuse to declare the contract void with a view to save the bargain entered into by the parties and the solemn promises made thereunder. The Court adverted to the exposition in the earlier decision in Shri Lachoo Mal v. Shri Radhey Shyam, AIR  1971 SC 221 as to what makes an agreement, which is otherwise legal, void is that its performance is impossible except by disobedience of law.

Re: Argument (Propounded in Waman Rao v. Union of India) – Not to Disturb the Consistent View of various Courts

The Supreme Court held as under:

  • “It is not possible to countenance the argument – not to disturb the consistent view of different High Courts on the principle of stare decisis by invoking the dictum in Waman Rao, in reference to Section 31 of the 1973 Act. For, there is conflict of opinion and is not a case of consistent view of all High Courts, having occasion to deal with interpretation of Section 31 of the 1973 Act.”

Following are the decisions cited by the Apex Court – that are in line with the view of the Apex Court:

  • Joaquim Mascarenhas Fiuza v. Jaime Rebello,  1986 SCC OnLine Bom 234 : 1986 Mah LJ 1031,  Bombay High Court (Goa Bench).
  • Sahruvan Nachair  v. V.S. Mohammed Hussain Maracair,  (2001) 1 Mad LJ 188 : 2000 SCC OnLine Mad 737, Madras High Court.
  • William Babu & Anr. v. Helma Roy Alias Emily Carmel,  (2018) 1 Ker LJ 525 : 2017 SCC OnLine Ker 25269, Kerala High Court.
  • Mrs. Shoba Viswanatha v. D.P. Kingsley, 1996 (I) CTC 620 : 1996 SCC Online Mad 319 Madras High  Court.,

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Doctrine of ‘Right to be Forgotten’ in Indian Law

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract of the Contents.

  • Courts in India apply the doctrine of  ‘Right to be Forgotten’:
    • (i) basing on the foundational principles enshrined in Article 21 of the Constitution (right to life) ,
    • (ii) following the land mark decision, K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, (2017) 10 SCC 1 (wherein it is held: “Privacy postulates the reservation of a private space for the individual, described as the right to be let alone“) and
    • (iii) under the provisions of Information Technology Rules, 2021.
  • Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019, that upholds the doctrine of  ‘Right to be Forgotten‘, is not passed, though introduced in Parliament in 2019.
  • Now this doctrine is used for removing private information from internet.

Part I

What is ‘Right to be Forgotten

It is human nature to forget things. The right of an individual not to be injured, out of another’s acts of constant recalling-of-past-deeds, is recognized in law – as the doctrine of  “Right to be Forgotten”. 

Now used for removing private information from internet

Now-a-days it is applied to uphold reputation of a person, by removing the private information about him from internet sites and services.

Right to Righteous Life and Reputation

  • Article 21 (right to life) of the Constitution of India reads:

“Protection of life and personal liberty: No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

  • Right to righteous life is an inalienable human right.

Shakespeare (Othello: Act II, Scene iii) says through IAGO as under:

  • “Good name in man and woman, dear my lord,
  • Is the immediate jewel of their souls:
  • Who steals my purse steals trash; ’tis something, nothing;
  • ‘Twas mine, ’tis his, and has been slave to thousands:
  • But he that filches from me my good name
  • Robs me of that which not enriches him
  • And makes me poor indeed.”

Shakespeare made it clear – a good name, or reputation, is valuable for its owner. Stealing the reputation of one, does not make another rich. But he who loses reputation, suffers damage.

  • First Statute which recognized ‘right to be forgotten

The European Union systematized the right to be forgotten in a statute, first time, in the year 2018, by ‘General Data Protection Regulation’.    

  • First case where ‘right to be forgotten’ recognized

Google Spain SL v Agencia Española de Protección de Datos (AEPD), ( [2014] QB 1022, may be the first case wherein the ‘right to be forgotten’ was recognized as a legal right. It is sprouted out from ‘right to privacy’.

Part II

Codification of the Law on Reputation in India.

  • Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019.

Personal Data Protection Bill presented in the Indian Parliament by the Ministry of Law and Justice, based on the recommendations of V.N. Sreekrishna Committee, in 2019, legally accepted the ‘right to be forgotten’ as a recognizable right.  Unfortunately, the bill had not been passed by the Parliament, so far. 

  • Information Technology Rules, 2021.

Rule 3(2) of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 directs as under:

  • “(2) Grievance redressal mechanism of intermediary:
  • (a)The intermediary shall prominently publish on its website, mobile based application or both, as the case may be, the name of the Grievance Officer and his contact details as well as mechanism by which a user or a victim may make complaint against violation of the provisions of this rule or any other matters pertaining to the computer resources made available by it, and the Grievance Officer shall –
  • (i) acknowledge the complaint within twenty four hours and dispose off such complaint within a period of fifteen days from the date of its receipt;
  • (ii) receive and acknowledge any order, notice or direction issued by the Appropriate Government, any competent authority or a court of competent jurisdiction.
  • (b) The intermediary shall, within twenty-four hours from the receipt of a complaint made by an individual or any person on his behalf under this sub-rule, in relation to any content which is prima facie in the nature of any material which
    • exposes the private area of such individual,
    • shows such individual in full or partial nudity or
    • shows or depicts such individual in any sexual act or conduct, or
    • is in the nature of impersonation in an electronic form,
    • including artificially morphed images of such individual,
  • take all reasonable and practicable measures to remove or disable access to such content which is hosted, stored, published or transmitted by it:
  • (c) The intermediary shall implement a mechanism for the receipt of complaints under clause (b) of this sub-rule which may enable the individual or person to provide details, as may be necessary, in relation to such content or communication link.”

High Court Decisions in India, on ‘Right to be Forgotten’  

Despite the non-delivery of the proposed Personal Data Protection Bill by the Parliament, various High Courts in India pronounced judgments accepting the doctrine, ‘right to be forgotten’, as an inalienable human right.  It is founded upon Art. 21, ‘Right to Life’, the most valuable fundamental rights in the Constitution of India. 

After the decision on ‘Right to Privacy’ rendered by the Supreme Court of India in J. KS Puttaswami v. Union of India, (2017) 10 SCC 1, various High Courts upheld the rights arising from ‘right to be forgotten’, based on the dogma on ‘Right to Privacy’.

The following are the land-mark decisions on the doctrine of the  ‘right to be forgotten’ (after the verdict in Puttaswami).

  1. Zulfiqar Ahman Khan v. Quintillion Business Media (P) Ltd.(Delhi HC, 2019)  2019 SCC OnLine Del. 8494.
  2. Sri Vasunathan v. The Registrar General (Karnataka HC) (2020)
  3.  Subhranshu Rout Gugul  v. State of Odisha, 2020 (Orissa HC), 2020 SCC OnLIne Ori. 878.
  4. X  v. YouTube (2021):
  5. Jorawer Singh Mundy v. Union of India & Ors  [Delhi HC, 2021), 2021 SCC OnLine De. 2306.

Prior to the Supreme Court decision in Puttaswami, the Courts in India did not accept the ‘right to be forgotten’ as a right recognizable in the Jurisprudence available in India.  It was on the premises that no enacted law spoke specifically as to such a right.  The said earlier decisions include the following:

  • Naresh Sridhar Mirajkar v State of Maharashtra, AIR 1967 SC 1;
  • Dharamraj Bhanushankar Dave v. State of Gujarat,  2017 SCC OnLine Guj. 2493.     
  • Anchit Chawla v. Google India, 2018

Even after Puttaswami, finding it ‘more appropriate to await‘ till the Parliament opens its eyes or expounds its wisdom, the TN High Court held in Karthick Theodre v. The Registrar General,  2021 SCC OnLine Mad. 2755, as under:

  • “This Court honestly feels that our criminal justice system is yet to reach such standards where courts can venture to pass orders for redaction of name of an accused person on certain objective criteria prescribed by rules or regulations. It will be more appropriate to await the enactment of the Data Protection Act and Rules thereunder, which may provide an objective criterion while dealing with the plea of redaction of names of accused persons who are acquitted from criminal proceedings. If such uniform standards are not followed across the country, the constitutional courts will be riding an unruly horse which will prove to be counterproductive to the existing system.”

Part III

Decisions Upheld, ‘Right to be Forgotten

1. X  v. YouTube (Delhi HC, 2021)

The plaintiff in that case was a well-known actor in TV and Film world of India.  She participated in the creation of Video made mention of in the suit (suit video).  The project was later on dropped.  But the plaintiff found that the producer of the suit video uploaded it in YouTube channel and website.  On the request of the plaintiff the producer removed the videos.  Without plaintiff’s consent the defendants in the suit uploaded the suit videos in various websites.

The plaintiff applied for anonymity and filed the suit against the publication, streaming, or other broadcasting, on the ground that the suit videos infringed her privacy, negatively affected her reputation and it prejudiced her career.  

The contesting defendant (Google) argued the following:

  • they were unaware of the agreement as to the videos;
  • the plaintiff being consented  filming the videos  defendants were not under an obligation to prevent the publication of the videos;
  • the plaintiff had no statutory protection to enforce the ‘right to be forgotten’. 
  • the plaintiff had not required the authorized representative who complied to the Intermediary as provided under Rule 3(2)(b) of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021
  • S. 67 & 67A of the Information Technology Act, 2000 excluded matters published in the interest of Science, Literature, Art, etc.

The defendants (Google) relied, mainly, on:

  • Karthick Theodre v. Registrar General, 2021 SCC OnLine Mad. 2755
  • Dharamraj Bhanushankar Dave v. State of Gujarat, 2017 SCC OnLine Guj. 2493,
  • Anchit Chawla v. Google India , 2018. 

Finding the suit to be maintainable, the Court held that the suit videos were of the kind that comes in Rule 3(2)(b) of the I.T. Rules, 2021.  The Court pointed out:

  • Even if plaintiff allowed to videograph voluntarily, the suit videos were not agreed to be published or transmitted by the defendants. 
  • She did not license for any of the URLS, Websites or Search engines to publish of transmit the same to YouTube. 
  • The defendants published or circulated the videos ‘for obvious monitory and other prurient benefits’. 
  • Even if the producer would have claimed protection on the consent of the plaintiff, the defendant had ‘no such consent’. 
  • ‘Right to be forgotten’ and the ‘right to be left alone’ are ‘inherent aspects’ of the ‘right to privacy’. 

The claim raised by the plaintiff against the circulation of videos against her will was accepted by the court.

2. Jorawer Singh Mundy v. Union of India & Ors  (Delhi HC, 2021)

The Delhi High Court (Prathiba M. Singh, J.) upheld the doctrine of ‘right to be forgotten’ in this decision. 

The petitioner, an American citizen of Indian origin, travelled in India during 2009.  A criminal case under the NDPS Act, 1985 was lodged against him.  He was acquitted from all the charges.  The appeal filed by the Customs was also dismissed.  After his return to US, the petitioner had to face disadvantages due to the availability of his case on a Google search.  Hence employment to his expectations was denied to him.  The petitioner issued notice to Google India Pvt. Ltd., Google LLC, Indian Canon, etc.  Even after notice the respondents in the case did not remove the judgment.  Hence the petitioner filed the petition to recognize his right to privacy under Art. 21 of the Constitution of India.

The High Court referred the following judgments:

  • K.S. Puttaswami (2017) 10 SCC 1,   
  • Zulfiqar Ahman Khan (supra) and
  • Subhranshu Rout Gugul (supra)

The High Court, by an interim order, directed Google India Pvt. Ltd. and Google LLC to remove the judgment from ‘search results’ sought for by the petitioner; and directed Indian Canon to block the said judgment from being accessed by using search engines such as Google/yahoo etc. 

3. Subhranshu Rout Gugul  v.  State of Gujrat, 2017 SCC OnLine Guj. 2493

The petitioner was charged with various offences including rape of his classmate.  While considering the bail application a question arose as to the recognition of the ‘Right to be forgotten’ in Indian Law since the video recording with the accused was alleged to be used to threaten and blackmail the victim.  The court has to consider the impact of the publication of the videos in Facebook, and in this conduct the recognition of the ‘right to be forgotten in India’ came up.  The court pointed out that the Rout removed the Facebook video it would still remain ‘in the public domain’.  The High Court referred to

  • Sri Vasunathan v. The Registrar General (2017 SCC Online Kar. 424)
  • Zulfiqar Ahman Khan v. Quintillion Business Media (P) Ltd. (2019 SCC OnLine Del. 8494), 2019(175) DRJ 660. 
  • {Name Redacted}  v. The Registrar General (Karnataka High Court)

It was pointed out that in {Name Redacted}  v. The Registrar General (Karnataka High Court) recognized ‘right to be forgotten’ explicitly, though in a limited sense; and that the petitioner’s request (to remove his daughter’s name, from the judgment, involving claims of marriage and forgery) was upheld.  In that decision it was held that recognizing ‘right to be forgotten’ would parallel initiatives by western countries which upheld this right when sensitive cases concerning the modesty or reputation of people, especially women, were involved. 

The High Court also relied on Puttaswami v. Union of India to uphold the rights claimed in the matter.   

4. Sri Vasunathan v. The Registrar General (Karnataka HC)  

In this case it was observed that the ‘right to be forgotten’ is ‘keeping in line with the Trend in western countries where it is followed as a matter of rule’.

5. Zulfiqar Ahman Khan v. Quintillion Business Media (P) Ltd., 2019 SCC OnLine Del. 8494.

The suit was filed seeking permanent injunction against a digital/electronic platform (www), its editor and an author who had written articles against the Plaintiff on the basis of harassment complaints claimed to have been received by them, against the Plaintiff, as part of the #MeToo campaign. The three individuals, who made allegations against the Plaintiff, have remained anonymous and have not revealed their identity in the public domain.

The Defendants, while the matter is being heard submitted the court that they were willing to pull down the said two publications against the plaintiff and that the first article had already been pulled down.

It was pointed out by the Court that if re-publication is permitted to go on continuously, the Plaintiff’s rights would be severely jeopardised. The court observed:

  • “The original publisher having already agreed to pull down the same, this Court having directed that the same ought not to be republished, the Plaintiff, thus, has a right to ensure that the articles are not published on multiple electronic/digital platforms as that would create a permanent atmosphere of suspicion and animosity towards the Plaintiff and also severely prejudice his personal and professional life. The printouts of the articles from certain sites, which have been shown to the Court, leave no doubt in the mind of the Court that these are identical to the articles published on the first defendant’s site, which have already been pulled down.”

Then held as under:

  • “9. Accordingly, recognising the Plaintiff’s Right to privacy, of which
    • the ‘Right to be forgotten’ and
    • the ‘Right to be left alone’ are inherent aspects,
  • it is directed that any republication of the content of the originally impugned articles dated 12th October 2018 and 31st October 2018, or any extracts/ or excerpts thereof, as also modified versions thereof, on any print or digital/electronic platform shall stand restrained during the pendency of the present suit.
  • 10. The Plaintiff is permitted to communicate this order to any print or electronic platform including various search engines in order to ensure that the articles or any excerpts/search results thereof are not republished in any manner whatsoever. The Plaintiff is permitted to approach the grievance officers of the electronic platforms and portals to ensure immediate compliance of this order.
  • 11. If the said search engines do not take down/remove the objectionable content from their platforms within a period of 36 hours after receiving communication from the Plaintiff with a copy of this order, the Plaintiff is also permitted to communicate with the Defendants so that the Defendants can also cooperate in the said pulling down, if required. If the said platforms do not, after being served by a copy of this order, take down the objectionable content, the Plaintiff is given liberty to approach this court forthwith – apart from approaching the appropriate authorities under the Information Technology Act.”

Part IV

K.S. Puttaswami  v. Union of India and the ‘Right to be Let Alone’

In the celebrated decision on ‘right to privacy’, K.S. Puttaswamy, (2017) 10 SCC 1 , our Supreme Court has held that the ‘right to be let alone‘ is a part of ‘essential nature of privacy‘ of an individual. It is held as under:

  • Essential nature of privacy
  • 297. What, then, does privacy postulate? Privacy postulates the reservation of a private space for the individual, described as the right to be let alone. The concept is founded on the autonomy of the individual. The ability of an individual to make choices lies at the core of the human personality. The notion of privacy enables the individual to assert and control the human element which is inseparable from the personality of the individual. The inviolable nature of the human personality is manifested in the ability to make decisions on matters intimate to human life. The autonomy of the individual is associated over matters which can be kept private. These are concerns over which there is a legitimate expectation of privacy. The body and the mind are inseparable elements of the human personality. The integrity of the body and the sanctity of the mind can exist on the foundation that each individual possesses an inalienable ability and right to preserve a private space in which the human personality can develop. Without the ability to make choices, the inviolability of the personality would be in doubt. Recognizing a zone of privacy is but an acknowledgment that each individual must be entitled to chart and pursue the course of development of personality. Hence privacy is a postulate of human dignity itself. Thoughts and behavioural patterns which are intimate to an individual are entitled to a zone of privacy where one is free of social expectations. In that zone of privacy, an individual is not judged by others. Privacy enables each individual to take crucial decisions which find expression in the human personality. It enables individuals to preserve their beliefs, thoughts, expressions, ideas, ideologies, preferences and choices against societal demands of homogeneity. Privacy is an intrinsic recognition of heterogeneity, of the right of the individual to be different and to stand against the tide of conformity in creating a zone of solitude. Privacy protects the individual from the searching glare of publicity in matters which are personal to his or her life. Privacy attaches to the person and not to the place where it is associated. Privacy constitutes the foundation of all liberty because it is in privacy that the individual can decide how liberty is best exercised. Individual dignity and privacy are inextricably linked in a pattern woven out of a thread of diversity into the fabric of a plural culture.
  • 402. “Privacy” is “[t]he condition or state of being free from public attention to intrusion into or interference with one’s acts or decisions” [Black’s Law Dictionary (Bryan Garner Edition) 3783 (2004)] . The right to be in this condition has been described as “the right to be let alone” [ Samuel D. Warren and Louis D. Brandeis, “The Right To Privacy“, 4 Harv L Rev 193 (1890)] . What seems to be essential to privacy is the power to seclude oneself and keep others from intruding it in any way. These intrusions may be physical or visual, and may take any of several forms including peeping over one’s shoulder to eavesdropping directly or through instruments, devices or technological aids.
  • 479. Both the learned Attorney General and Shri Sundaram next argued that the right to privacy is so vague and amorphous a concept that it cannot be held to be a fundamental right. This again need not detain us. Mere absence of a definition which would encompass the many contours of the right to privacy need not deter us from recognising privacy interests when we see them. As this judgment will presently show, these interests are broadly classified into interests pertaining to the physical realm and interests pertaining to the mind. As case law, both in the US and India show, this concept has travelled far from the mere right to be let alone to recognition of a large number of privacy interests, which apart from privacy of one’s home and protection from unreasonable searches and seizures have been extended to protecting an individual’s interests in making vital personal choices such as the right to abort a foetus; rights of same sex couples–including the right to marry; rights as to procreation, contraception, general family relationships, child- bearing, education, data protection, etc. This argument again need not detain us any further and is rejected.
  • 560. The most popular meaning of “right to privacy” is–“the right to be let alone“. In Gobind v. State of M.P. [Gobind v. State of M.P., (1975) 2 SCC 148 : 1975 SCC (Cri) 468] , K.K. Mathew, J. noticed multiple facets of this right (paras 21-25) and then gave a rule of caution while examining the contours of such right on case-to-case basis.
  • 636. Thus, the European Union Regulation of 2016 [Regulation No. (EU) 2016/679 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27-4-2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive No. 95/46/EC (General Data Protection Regulation).] has recognised what has been termed as “the right to be forgotten“. This does not mean that all aspects of earlier existence are to be obliterated, as some may have a social ramification. If we were to recognise a similar right, it would only mean that an individual who is no longer desirous of his personal data to be processed or stored, should be able to remove it from the system where the personal data/information is no longer necessary, relevant, or is incorrect and serves no legitimate interest. Such a right cannot be exercised where the information/data is necessary, for exercising the right of freedom of expression and information, for compliance with legal obligations, for the performance of a task carried out in public interest, on the grounds of public interest in the area of public health, for archiving purposes in the public interest, scientific or historical research purposes or statistical purposes, or for the establishment, exercise or defence of legal claims. Such justifications would be valid in all cases of breach of privacy, including breaches of data privacy.”
  • (Quoted in: Subhranshu Rout Gugul  v. State of Odisha, 2020 (Orissa HC), 2020 SCC OnLIne Ori. 878.)


Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Evidence Act – General

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India