Government is the OWNER of All Leasehold-Plantation-Lands in Kerala.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Key takeaways

  • Plantation-tenancy-lands (plantation, developed by the landlord) above 30 acres are exempted from Chapter II of the KLR Act, 1963. Therefore, tenants of such plantation-tenancy-lands are not entitled to benefits under Chapter II, such as Fixity of Tenure (to the tenants), Purchase Certificate within the ceiling limit, etc.
  • Tenancy-lands where Plantation is developed by the tenant (above or below 30 acres) are not exempted from Chapter II. Therefore, tenants of such Plantation lands are entitled to benefits under Chapter II, such as Fixity of Tenure (to the tenants), purchase certificate within the ceiling limit, etc.
  • Both such Plantation lands (plantation, developed by the landlord or tenant) vest in the Government under Sec. 72.
  • Both such Plantation lands are exempted from provisions as to the ceiling limit (under Sec. 81, in Chapter III)
  • Government Need Not Pay ‘Land-Value’, as such, if such Lands are Acquired.
  • A tenant who got ‘fixity’ over such land cannot ‘sell’ it as his absolute property.
  • A purchase certificate cannot be given by the LT for land beyond the ceiling limit.
  • Section 81(4) “permits use of the land not exceeding 5% of the extent of such holding for floriculture, dairy farms, hotels, restaurants, etc.
  • Note: •➧1. The ‘vesting in Govt’ under Sec. 72 is absolute.
    It is further clear from – Sec. 72E (tenant has to pay rent for the unassigned land(e.g., exempted plantation land) vested in Government under Sec. 72) and Sec. 112(5A)(a) (land-value need not be given to the land-owner, in case of acquisition). Sec. 72F(5)(h) [Land Tribunal to fix the rent stated in Sec. 72E]
                •➧2. Sec. 72B(2) KLR Act provides that a cultivating tenant will get a Purchase Certificate for the extent below the ‘ceiling limit’ alone.
                •➧3. The provisions of the KLR Act are legislated following Proviso to Article 31A(1) of the Constitution, which says that the State need not pay compensation to the land owners (when land is acquired) above the ‘ceiling limit‘.
  • Note: 1. Section 81(1) exempts Government lands from the provisions of Chapter III. The Proviso says that following Government lands will not stand exempted. 
    • 1. Government-lease-lands
    • 2. Lands that fall under Section 13 (Fixity) and
    • 3. Lands that fall under Section 72 (Lease lands vest in Government).
  • 2. The effect of Chapter III on Government-lease-lands and on the lands that fall under Section 13 (Fixity) and 72 (vest in Government) is that the tenants (both Government’s tenants and the erstwhile Private landholders’ tenants) have to pay ‘rent‘ to the Government under Sec. 72F(h).
  • 3. Under Sec. 112 (5A) of the KLR Act, on acquisition, the cultivating tenants are entitled to compensation for improvements (only) for the land vested in the Government under Sec. 72.
    Sec. 112 (5A)(a) says that the compensation for any building or other improvements belonging to the landowner shall be awarded to the Government; and clause (b) says that the balance remaining after deducting the compensation referred to in clause (a) and the value of the land occupied by the homestead or hut, if any, shall be apportioned between the cultivating tenant and the Government in proportion to the profits derivable by them from the land.

Abstract

Analysis of Exemption under S. 3(1)(viii), KLR Act

  • If tenant raised plantation on bare land leased –
  • Such tenants are not excluded (from Chapter II) by the ‘Exemption’ clause under S. 3(1)(viii).
    • Therefore, tenants of such tenancy-land are entitled for benefits under Chapter II, such as
      • Fixity under Sec. 13,
      • purchase certificate within ceiling limit.
    • Such lands vest in Govt. under Sec. 72 also.

Chapter I , KLR Act

  • Chapter II of the Kerala Land Reforms Act, 1963 pertains (mainly) to
    • ‘fixity’ (to tenants),
    • vesting of property in Govt.,
    • purchase of landlord’s rights by cultivating tenants,
    • issuance of ‘certificate of purchase’,
    • rights and liabilities of Kudikidappukars etc.; and
  • Chapter II shall not apply [under Sec. 3(1) ] to
    • leases-lands belonging to or vested in the Govt,
    • Leases of private forests,
    • tenancies of plantations exceeding 30 acres, etc.

Chapter III, KLR Act

  • Chapter III pertains, inter alia, to
    • ceiling limit,
    • surrender,
    • vesting of excess land in Govt. etc.; and
  • Chapter III shall not apply [under Sec. 81(1) ] to
    • lands owned or held by the Government,
    • private forests,
    • plantations, etc.

Proviso to Article 31A(1) of the Constitution of India

  • The provisions of the KLR Act as regards ‘vesting’‘excess land’ etc., are legislated predicated upon Proviso to Article 31A(1) of the Constitution which states that the State need not pay compensation to the former land owners (when land is acquired) above the ‘ceiling limit‘.
  • Proviso to Article 31A(1) reads as under:
    • “Provided further that where any law makes any provision for the acquisition by the State of any estate and where any land comprised therein is held by a person under his personal cultivationit shall not be lawful for the State to acquire any portion of such land as is within the ceiling limit applicable to him under any law for the time being in force or any building or structure standing thereon or appurtenant thereto, unless the law relating to the acquisition of such land, building or structure, provides for payment of compensation at a rate which shall not be less than the market value thereof.”

1. S. 3(1)(viii) deals with exemption of ‘Plantation-Tenancy’ (plantation, developed by the landlord), above 30 acres.

  • S. 3(1)(viii), exempt from Chapter II –
    • plantation-tenancy (plantation, developed by the landlord) above 30 acres.
    • That is, such plantation-tenancy-land, above 30 acres, should have been a plantation when it was leased.
    • In other words, such plantation-tenancy-land, above 30 acres, must have been developed as plantation by the landlord.

Thus, if tenant has raised plantation on bare land leased, it is not excluded (from the benefits under Chapter II offered to Tenants) by the Exemption under S. 3(1)(viii).

  • The tenants (who put up plantation on the bare land) have the rights and benefits provided under Chapter II – such as
    • fixity under Sec. 13 and
    • vesting in Government under Sec. 72.
    • (But not purchase certificate under Sec. 72B, for it is not allowable above ceiling limit.)

2. S. 3(1)(viii) provides benefit (fixity under Sec. 13) to

  • plantation-tenancy-land below 30 acres.
  • See: Rev. Fr. Jerome Fernandes v. Be Be Rubber Estate, 1972 KLT 613; Poddar Plan. Ltd v. Thekkemariveettil Madhavi Amma, 2014 1 ILR(Ker) 813; 2013 4 KLJ 781; 2014 1 KLT 439 .
  • Therefore:
    • Contract applies to termination of tenancy, above 30 acre  plantation-tenancy-land (land must have been a plantation when it was leased).
    • Land lord is entitled Sec. 81 exemption over such plantation.

Who is the OWNER of the (exempted) Leasehold-Plantation Lands in Kerala

It is the State, in case of lands beyond the ceiling-limit.

Following are the relevant provisions:

  • Sec. 13 – It proclaims that every tenant shall have fixity of tenure in respect of his holding.
  • Sec. 72 – It declares that the title of a land is vested in Government free from all encumbrances created by the landowners and intermediaries and subsisting thereon, if-
    • (i) it is held by a cultivating tenant and
    • (ii) the tenant is entitled to fixity of tenure.
  • Sec. 72E – The cultivating tenant shall pay rent to the Government from 01.01.1970 – for the unassigned land(e.g. exempted plantation land) vested in Government under Sec. 72],    
  • Sec.72F(5)(h) – Land Tribunal to fix the rent stated in Sec. 72E] and
  • Sec. 72B – It enables ‘cultivating tenants’ to get the assignment of leasehold land within ceiling area (by purchase certificate provided in Sec. 72K).
  • Sec. 81(1)(e) – Exempts plantation from ceiling limits.
  • Section 81(4) allows the person holding a plantation to use land “not exceeding 5% of the extent of such holding for floriculture, medicinal plants, for conducting dairy farms, for establishing hotels or resorts or other tourism projects, etc.
  • Section 87, Explanation II – It states that if a plantation for which exemption is given on recognition of a specific ‘plantation-crop’ is converted into any other ‘plantation-crop’, or the plantation activity is not continued, the exemption will be lost; and the converted land will be taken for considering the ceiling limit.
  • Sec. 112(5A) – When a land is acquired, compensation for any building or other improvements belonging to the land owner shall be awarded to the Government; and when compensation is given to the tenant, no ‘value of the land’ be given for the entire land].
  • Proviso to Article 31A(1) of the Constitution of India: The provisions of the KLR Act as regards ‘vesting’‘excess land’ etc. are legislated predicating upon Proviso to Article 31A(1) of the Constitution which states that the State need not pay compensation to the former land owners (when land is acquired) above the ‘ceiling limit

Sec. 72A – Compensation to land owner for vesting under Sec. 72 in Govt. – No right remains with (erstwhile owner) thereafter.

It is 16 times fare rent for land plus (+) value of structures of land owner plus (+) half value of timber trees. Note: Same rate under Sec. 55 & 72D(2) Land above ceiling limit payment is only under Sec. 88 – on surrendering land. (It is paid by Govt.)

  • Sec. 72D – Cultivating tenant to pay purchase price (for getting assignment).
  • Sec. 72D(1A)- No purchase price is land below One Hect.
  • Sec. 72D(2)  – Purchase price to Govt. – 16 times fare rent for land plus (+) value of structures of land owner plus (+) half value of timber trees) Note: Same rate under Sec. 72A & 55

Vesting in  Government u/s. 72 is independent of issuance of Purchase Certificate

The rights of the landlord would vest in the Government, under Sec. 72 KLR Act. A tenant is free to apply for and obtain Purchase Certificate within the Ceiling Limit under Sect. 59(2) and 72B or 72C. from such property. Vesting of lease property in Government under Sec. 72 is independent of issuance of Purchase Certificate. In Perumal Smaraka Nidhi v. Harrisons Malayalam Limited (RFA No. 336/2011; dt. 31. 01. 2013; K.M. Joseph, J.) held –

  • The rights of the landlord would vest in the Government, under Sec. 72 KLR Act.
  •  Sec. 72 would appear to contemplate vesting when there is no certificate of purchase issued under Sec. 59 (2).
  • If no certificate of purchase has been issued under sub Sec. (2) of Sect. 59 (irrespective of whether the tenants have applied), under Section 72, there will be vesting, if other conditions are satisfied.

Plantation Land Cannot be Assigned to a Tenant

  • From the above, it is clear:
    1. Plantation-tenancy-lands above 30 acre are not exempted from Chapter II; and are exempted from ceiling limit (under Chapter III).
    2. Tenants who hold the plantation-tenancy-lands are entitled to fixity of tenure under Sec. 13.
    3. As the tenants who hold the plantation land are cultivating tenants, such lands are vested in Government [according to Sec. 72].
    4. The plantation land, above ceiling limit [under Sec. 72B], cannot be assigned (by the Land Tribunal) to a tenant. (Note: No rider to Sec. 72B and 72C, by way of proviso or otherwise, exempting plantation.)
  • Therefore, the answer to the question – who is the OWNER of the (exempted) Leasehold-Plantation Lands in Kerala – is that the Government of Kerala is the OWNER. (See: Perumal Smaraka Nidhi vs M/S Harrisons Malayalam Ltd., 31. 01. 2013)

2. Provisions as to Fixity, Purchase Certificate,  Plantation-Exemption, Ceiling Area, etc.

  • Tenant & Fixity
    • Section 13(1) reads as under:
    • 13. Right of tenants to fixity of tenure.  (1) Notwithstanding any thing to the contrary contained in any law, custom, usage or contract or in any decree or order of court, every tenant, shall have fixity of tenure in respect of his holding, and no land from the holding shall be Limited except as provided in Sections 14 to 22.”
    • Tenant is defined in Sec 2 (57) as under:
    • (57) tenant moans any person who has paid or has agreed to pay rent or other consideration for his being allowed to possess and to enjoy any land by a person entitled to lease that land, and includes- …. ….. ….. “
  • Cultivating Tenant & Vesting of land in Government
    • Section 72(1) reads:
    • 72. Vesting of landlord’s rights in Government: (1) On a date to be notified by the Government in this behalf in the Gazette, all right, title and interest of the landowners and intermediaries in respect of holdings held by cultivating tenants (including holders of kudiyirippus and holders karaimas) entitled to fixity of tenure under Section 13, and in respect of which certificates of purchase under Sub-section (2) of Section 59 have not been issued, shall, subject to the provisions of this section, vest in the government free from all encumbrances created by the landowners and intermediaries and subsisting thereon the said date”
    • It provides (automatic) vesting of leasehold properties in Govt. Conditions thereof are:
      • (i) the land must be held by cultivating tenants;
      • (ii) they should be entitled to fixity of tenure under Sec. 13.
    • Sec. 2(8) defines cultivating tenant as under:
    • cultivating tenant means a tenant who is in actual possession of, and is entitled to cultivate, the land comprised in his holding.”
  • Issue of Purchase Certificate
    • Section 72B, 72C and 72K(1) & (2) read as under:
    • 72B. Cultivating tenants right to assignment. – (1) The cultivating tenant of any holding or part of a holding, the right, title and interest in respect of which have vested in the Government under Section 72, shall be entitled to assignment of such right, title and interest:
    • Provided that
    • (a) no cultivating tenant shall be entitled to assignment of the right, title and interest in respect of any holding or part of a holding under this Section if he, or if he is a member of a family, such family, owns an extent of land not less than-the ceiling area.
    • (b) where the cultivating tenant or, if he is a member of a family, such family, does not own any land or owns an extent of land which is less than the ceiling area, he shall be entitled to the assignment of the right, title and interest in respect of only such extent of land as will, together with the land, if any, owned by him or his family, as the case may be, be equal to the ceiling area.
    • Explanation. – In calculating the extent of land owned by the cultivating tenant or, where he is a member of a family, by such family, for the purposes of clauses (a) and (b) of the foregoing proviso, the portion of the land owned by such cultivating tenant or by the family, which is liable to be assigned to the cultivating tenants holding under him or such family, shall not be taken into account.
    • (2) The provisions of Section 82 shall, so far as may be, apply to the calculation of the ceiling area for the purposes of the proviso to Sub-section (1);
    • Provided that if no date has been notified under Section 83, the date notified under Section 72 shall be deemed to be the date notified under Section 83.
    • (3) Any cultivating tenant entitled to assignment of the right, title and interest in respect of a holding or part of a holding under Sub-section (1) may apply to the Land Tribunal within whose jurisdiction such holding or part is situate within two years from the dote of vesting of such right, title and interest in the Government under Section 72, or such further time as may be allowed by the Government in this behalf, for such assignment to him.
    • (4) An application under Sub-section (3) shall contain the following particulars, namely:(a) the village, survey number and extent of the holding or part to which the assignment relates.(b) the name and address of the landowner and intermediaries and also of every other person interested in the land and the nature of their interest so far as they arc known to him;(c) the particulars regarding the other lands owned or held by him or if he is a member of a family; by such family; and(d) such other particulars as may be prescribed.
    • (5) Where a cultivating tenant is entitled to the assignment of the right, title and interest in respect of only a portion of the holding held by him, he may indicate in the application under Sub-section (3) his choice of the portion to which the assignment shall relate.”
    • 72C. Assignment where application is not made by cultivating tenant Notwithstanding anything contained in Sub-section (3) of Section 72B [or Section 72BB], the Land tribunal may, subject to such rules as may be made by the Government in this behalf, at any time after the vesting of the right, title and interest of the landowners and intermediaries in tile Government under Section 72, assign such right, title and interest to the cultivating tenants entitled thereto, and the cultivating tenants shall be bound to accept such assignment.”
    • 72K. Issue of certificate of purchase. – (1) As soon as may be after the determination of the purchase price under Section 72F [or the passing of an order under Sub-section (3) of Section 72MM] the Land Tribunal shall issue a certificate of purchase to the cultivating tenant, and thereupon the right, title and interest of the landowner and the intermediaries, if any, in respect of the holding or part thereof to which the certificate relates, shall vest in the cultivating tenant free from all encumbrances created by the landowner or the intermediaries, if any.
    • (2) The certificate of purchase issued under Sub-section (1) shall be conclusive proof of the assignment to the tenant of the right, title and interest of the landowner and the intermediaries, if any, over the holding or portion thereof to which the assignment relates.”
    • Note: Sec. 72F speaks as to ‘Land Tribunal to issue notices and determine the compensation and purchase price; and Sec. 72MM provides for jointly applying, by the cultivating tenant, the landowner, the intermediary, the holders of encumbrances, etc, to the Land Tribunal, for an order for ‘assignment by mutual agreement’ to the cultivating tenant.

3. The Tenants are Liable to pay ‘Rent and Land Tax

The land being vest in Govt. under Sec. 72, Sec. 72E casts duty on the ‘cultivating tenant’ to pay ‘rentto the Government (for the unassigned land(e.g. exempted plantation land) vested in Government under Sec. 72).

In Jagannath Temple Managing Committee v. Siddha Math,  (2015) 16 SCC 542, while dealing with the ‘vesting’ under Land Acquisition Act,1894, it is held that ‘it is a settled principle of law that once a property is vested by an Act of legislature, to achieve the laudable object, the same cannot be divested by the enactment of any subsequent general law and vest such property under such law.’

  • (LA Act, 1894, Sec. 16 reads as under: Power to take possession. When the Collector has made an award under section 11, he may take possession of the land, which shall thereupon vest absolutely in the Government, free from all encumbrances.)

The concept of ‘vesting’ was also considered in The Fruit & Vegetable Merchants Union v. The Delhi Improvement Trust, AIR 1957 SC 344. In this decision it is held as under:

  • “(19) That the word “vest” is a word of variable import is shown by provisions of Indian statutes also. For example, S. 56 of the Provincial Insolvency Act (5 of 1920) empowers the Court at the time of the making of the order of adjudication or thereafter to appoint a receiver for the property of the insolvent and further provides that “such property shall thereupon vest in such receiver”. The property vests in the receiver for the purpose of administering the estate of the insolvent for the payment of his debts after realising his assets. The property of the insolvent vests in the receiver not for all purposes but only for the purpose of the Insolvency Act and the receiver has no interest of his own in the property. On the other hand, Ss. 16 and 17 of the Land Acquisition Act (Act 1 of LA), provide that the property so acquired, upon the happening of certain events, shall “vest absolutely in the Government free from all encumbrances”. In the cases contemplated by Ss. 16 and 17 the property acquired becomes the property of Government without any conditions or limitations either as to title or possession. The legislature has made it clear that the vesting of the property is not for any limited purpose or limited duration. It would thus appear that the word “vest” has not got a fixed connotation meaning in all cases that the property is owned by the person or the authority in whom it vests. It may vest in title, or it may vest in possession, or it may vest in a limited sense, as indicated in the context in which it may have been used in a particular piece of legislation. The provisions of the Improvement Act, particularly Ss. 45 to 49 and 54 and 54-A when they speak of a certain building or street or square or other land vesting in a municipality or other local body or in a trust, do not necessarily mean that ownership has passed to any of them.” [Quoted in Indore Development Authority vs Manoharlal (Arun Mishra, J.), (2020) 8 SCC 129.]

Sec. 72E reads as under:

  • 72E. Rent of holdings vested in Government but not assigned to cultivating tenants. – Where in respect of any holding or part thereof, the right, title and interest of the landowner and intermediaries have vested in the Government under Section 72 and the cultivating tenant is not entitled to the assignment of such right, title and interest by virtue of Sub-section (1) of Section 72, the cultivating tenant shall be liable to pay to the Government the rent payable under this Act from the date of vesting under Section 72.

With respect to payment of tax it is stated as under in Sec. 72S:

  • 72S. Liability for assessment alter the date of vesting under Section 72. (1)] Notwithstanding anything contained in the Kerala Land Tax Act, 1961, or in any other law for the time being in force, or in any contract, where the right, title and interest of the landowner and the intermediaries, if any, in respect of a holding have vested in the Government under Section 72, the cultivating tenant of that holding shall be liable to pay the basic tax payable in respect of that holding under the said Act and other taxes and cesses due in respect of that holding.
  • (2) In the case of a holding or part of a holding in respect of which an application for resumption under the provisions of this Act is rejected, the cultivating tenant shall be liable to pay the basic tax and other taxes and cesses in respect of such holding or part of the holding, as the case may be, with effect on and from the date notified under Sub-section (1) of Section 72.

4. Provisions as to Excess, Ceiling Return, Surrender, Exemption, Etc.

  • Section 81 – exemptions:
    • S. 81, the first Section in Chapter III deals with exemption from ceiling limit of plantation, industrial land, etc. Sec. 81(1)(e) reads as under:
    • Exemptions: (1) The provisions of this Chapter shall not apply to–
      • (a) lands owned or held by the Government ….
      • …. …..
      • (e) plantations;
      • …………”
    • Note: Provisions of Chapter III shall apply to Government- lease-lands also, by virtue of the Proviso to sub-section (1)(a) of Sec. 81). The Proviso reads as under:
    • “Provided that the exemption under this clause shall not apply to lands owned by the Government of Kerala and held by any person under lease whether current or time expired or otherwise.”
    • Plantation: Under Sec. 2, clause (44), plantation means any land used by a person principally for the cultivation of tea, coffee, cocoa, rubber, cardamom or cinnamon.
  • Section 82 & 83 – ceiling area:
    • S. 82 & 83 deal with ceiling area and bars holding land excess of ceiling fixed.
    • Sec. 83 reads as under:
    • “83. No person to hold land in excess of the ceiling area. With effect from such dates as may be notified by the Government in the Gazette, no person shall be entitled to own or hold or to possess under a mortgage lands in the aggregate in excess of the ceiling area.”
  • Section 85(1) – surrender of excess land:
    • 85. Surrender of excess land. (1) Where a person owns or holds land excess of the ceiling area on the date notified under Section 83, such excess land shall be surrendered as hereinafter provided: …. ….”

Read Blog: Relevant provisions of Kerala Land Reforms Act in a Nutshell

5. Effect of Conversion or Sale of A Portion of Exempted Land

Section 87 reads as under:

  • “S.87. Excess land obtained by gift, etc. to be surrendered – (1) Where any person acquires any land dafter the date notified under Section 83 by gift, purchase, mortgage with possession, lease, surrender or any other kind of transfer inter vivos or by bequest or inheritance or otherwise and in consequence thereof the total extent of land owned or held by such person exceeds the ceiling area, such excess shall be surrendered to such authority as may be prescribed.
  •        Explanation 1 – Where any land is exempted by or under Section 81 and such exemption is in force on the date notified under Section 83, such land shall, with effect from the date on which it ceases to be exempted, be deemed to be land acquired after the date notified under Section 83.
  •        Explanation II – Where, after the date notified under Section 83, any class of land specified in Schedule II has been converted into any other class of land specified in that Schedule or any land exempt under Section 81 from the provisions of this Chapter is converted into any class of land not so exempt and in consequence thereof the total extent of land owned or held by a person exceeds the ceiling area, so much extent of land as is in excess of the ceiling area, shall be deemed to be land acquired after the said date.

Explanation II is explained by the Full Bench of the Kerala High Court in Mathew K. Jacob v. District Environmental Impact Assessment Authority,2018-4 KLT 913, as under:

  • “The consequence is that the benefit of the exemption would be lost and the extent added to the account of the assessee or the declarant in determination of his ceiling area.”

That is, if a person converts any portion of his exempted land to any other class, that converted extent will be added to his account in determining his ceiling limit; and the Taluk Land Board can intervene. In short, the exemption will stand lost for that much extent of portion.

Section 87, Explanation II states that if a plantation for which exemption is given on recognition of a specific ‘plantation-crop’ is converted into any other ‘plantation-crop’, or the plantation activity is not continued, the exemption has to be lost; and the converted land will be taken for considering the ceiling limit. [Note: Here, ‘conversion’ does not envisage ‘sale’; for sale of plantation (land with plantation) alone is permitted – not sale after/for conversion.]

  • Note: In One Earth One Life v. State of Kerala, 2019-1 KLT 985, it is held that a ‘transfer’ of such a plantation will be “against the provisions of the Act(illegal).
  • Title to the property is not decided by the TLB (Harikumar v. State of Kerala, 2013 (2) KLT 44 (Para 9) Jagadeesachandran Nair v. Mamomohanan Pandarathil, 2013 (4) KLT 584 (para 11); Both decisions were referred to in Harrisons Malayalam Limited v. State of Kerala, Represented By The Chief Secretary, 2018-2 KHC 719; 2018-2 KLT 369 (para 54).

Sec. 87(1A) provides – Person referred to above (transferee) also should file statement (Return).

Purport of Sec. 87

Section 87 reflects the legislative intention in protecting plantations. The protection is on economic grounds. That is, certain crops and cultivations that made the land of Kerala renowned from ancient times were to be protected. Section 87 and the Explanations are to be read and interpreted in the light of their intentions. The Kerala High Court aptly appreciated these provisions in this background in One Earth One Life v. State of Kerala, 2019-2 KHC(SN) 10; 2019-1 KLT 985.

In State Human Rights Protection Centre, Thrissur v. State of Kerala, 2009(3)KLJ 110, it is held as under:

  • “19.There is no restriction on alienation of lands exempted under Section 81 (1)(a) of the Land Reforms Act ,since such lands are exempted from the operation of Chapter III of the Kerala Land Reforms Act dealing with ceiling on holding. It is not the excess land that is alienated but the exempted land………”

It was further held in para 21-  

  • ”……Any exemption from ceiling provision under the Kerala Land Reforms Act has a purpose and the purpose in the present case is public interest and that public interest is the use of land for industrial purpose. Since under the Kerala Land Reforms Act there is no restriction on alienation of the exempted category of lands and since the transferee is subjected to the acid test of eligibility and entitlement for exemption in terms of use of the land, the transfer made by the HMT will also be subjected to the same test, namely use of the transferred land for industrial purpose. In other words, HMT is legally entitled to transfer 100 acres of land notified under Ext.R1(i) notification, but the transferee will have to use that land for industrial purpose and that purpose only. Therefore, the transfer is not vitiated in any way; but the transferee will have to use the land only for industrial purpose. That is a covenant on the land.” (Quoted in: One Earth One Life v. State of Kerala, 2019-2 KHC(SN) 10; 2019-1 KLT 985)

In Everest Stone Crusher and Granites v. District Collector, District Collectorate, Kannur, 2020-6 KHC 289, it is held as under:

  • “Therefore, Ext.P13 prohibitory order issued by the 1st respondent District Collector, during the pendency of suo motu proceedings under Section 87 of the Act, cannot be said to be one issued without reasonable grounds to believe that any document relating to transfer of land of the land owned by the petitioner, which may be presented before the 3rd respondent registering officer, is intended to defeat the provisions of the said Act. The said order warrants no interference in this writ petition, invoking the extra ordinary jurisdiction of this Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.”

6. Fragmentation has to be Treated as Conversion for Non-exempted Category

The decision in One Earth One Life v. State of Kerala, 2019-2 KHC(SN) 10; 2019-1 KLT 985, arose from the Writ Petition filed for a declaration that the fragmentation and sale of a Rubber Plantation for non-plantation purposes was illegal as it defeated the purpose of the Kerala Land Reforms Act. When the matter was placed before the Taluk Land Board under Sec 87, KLR Act, it found that there was no change in classification of the land and therefore dropped the proceedings. The High Court held as under:

  • “34. Section 81 of the KLR Act is in pith and substance a special provision, with its main objective of giving exemption to certain lands including the lands maintained as plantations is to prevent fragmentation of the land and to keep it as plantation itself to improve the economy of the state for welfare of people as a whole while the Act creates a regime, the State is under an obligation to safeguard, the intended purpose of the provisions of the Act in its spirit. ….. …… It could be gathered from the records that the proposal to transfer 1.03 acres of land to each workers in discharge of their service or retrenchment benefits will definitely divide the plantation into separate slots and that would definitely change the character/nature of the plantation, which could be termed as ‘conversion’ and that will be against the provisions of the Act.”
  • “37. …. Fragmentation of the estate and transfer of it has to be treated as a case of conversion of plantation into some other category of land. Such being the scenario, fragmentation amounts to serious violation of the provisions of KLR Act. Hence, we are not impressed by the argument of the learned counsel for the respondent No.18 that the fragmented plots will be maintained as plantation by the transferees, so as to extend/avail the benefit of HMT’s case (supra). Taking into account of all the relevant aspects, we have no hesitation in holding that dropping of the suo motu proceedings initiated under Section 87 of KLR Act by the TLB in a cursory manner, is not at all reasonable or justifiable when tested on the touchstone of the object and intention, which the legislation seeks to achieve and beyond what is required, in the interest of the public.”

7. Can a Tenant of Plantation Transfer his Rights, Fragmenting the Plantation

Possession by itself is a substantive right recognised by law. It is heritable and transferable. (Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179; Phirayalal Kapur Vs. Jia Rani, AIR 1973 Delhi 186; Nallammal Vs. Ayisha Beevi, 2017-5 Mad LJ 864). 

See Blog: POSSESSION is a Substantive Right in Indian Law

Therefore, a tenant of plantation having rights of fixity (Sec. 13) may have the right to transfer it to another. In any case, the change of character or nature of the plantation by fragmentation being amount to ‘conversion’ that will be against the provisions of the Act, as pointed out in One Earth One Life v. State of Kerala, 2019-2 KHC(SN) 10; 2019-1 KLT 985.

9. Cultivating Tenants, were Obliged to Apply LT & The Legal Basis of Balanoor Plantations case

The legal basis of the decision, Balanoor Plantations & Industries Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2018(3) KLT 283, can be derived from Sec. Sec. 85(3) of the KLR Act.

Sec. 85(3) and (3A) of the KLR Act read as under:

  • (3). Where, after the final settlement of claims for resumption of lands held by a person as tenant, such person holds land in excess of the ceiling area, or where after the purchase of the right, title and interest of the landowner** and the intermediary by the cultivating tenant in respect of lands owned by a person, such person owns land in excess of the ceiling area, such excess land shall be surrendered as hereinafter provided.
  • (3A). The person bound to file a statement under Sub-section (2) shall, within a period of three months from the date of final settlement or purchase, file a statement before the Land Board, and the provisions of the said Sub-section shall, as far as may he, apply in regard to the particulars to be contained in such statement, the calculation of the excess land and for the procedure for the surrender of the same.] [Substituted by Act No. 35 of 1969.

**Why the WordsAfter The Purchase of the Right, Title And Interest of the Landowner” Included?

It is definite: Excess shall be surrendered. If the claimant of Plantation Exemption (under Sec. 81) is a tenant, he must have approached the LT (with respect to each plantation, if he has more plantations under different landlords).

  • Because (i) this sub-section itself says as to the settlement of claims for resumption and purchase of the right, title, and interest of the landowner by the cultivating tenant, and (ii) LT is the only authority to determine tenancy (Land Board cannot determine it). It is the principle applied in the Balanoor case.

Land Board or Taluk Land Board (deals with exemption on the ground of plantation, excess land issues etc.) cannot adjudicate on tenancy right.

Note: A tenant cannot avail benefits declaring himself to be a cultivating-tenant; on the contrary, he has to approach the competent statutory authority (for the same) under the KLR Act; that is, the Land Tribunal.

A cultivating tenant, “entitled to assignment” of the right under Sec. 72B, if failed to apply the same, will not have ‘vested right to continue’, as a cultivating tenant (in any case, beyond the ceiling limit) and he will not be entitled to the benefit of fixity under Sec. 13 of the KLR Act.

  • Note: The tenant who opts to avail benefits of plantation-exemption, under Sec. 81, cannot seek fragmentation (Sec. 87, Explanation II) of the plantation land and obtain purchase-certificate (under Sec. 72A, 72B or 72C). Still, he stands as a cultivating tenant, “entitled to assignment” of the right under Sec. 72B. As shown elsewhere, there is an option for the tenant – either to obtain purchase-certificate or to avail plantation-exemption.

Sec. 72B provides for cultivating tenant’s rights to get assignment by purchase certificate (through LT) – within ceiling area. A tenant was “obliged to apply” for it within 2 years from 1-1-1970. Therefore, the cultivating tenants entitled to assignment of the right, title and interest were “obliged to apply” to the Land Tribunal within the time fixed for asserting the claim as cultivating tenants. This decision (Balanoor Plantations) also says that tenants having ‘no bona fide claim’ as to cultivating-tenancy will not have the benefit of fixity under Sec. 13 of the KLR Act, and they will have ‘no vested right to continue’.

Sec. 73B(3) reads as under:

  • “(3) Any cultivating tenant entitled to assignment of the right, title and interest in respect of a holding or part of a holding under Sub­section (1) may apply to the Land Tribunal within whose jurisdiction such holding or part is situate within two years from the date of vesting of such right, title and interest in the Government under Section 72, or such further time as may be allowed by the Government in this behalf, for such assignment to him.”

It is not lawful to initiate Suo Motu proceedings (under Section 72C) by the Government for the benefit of a Plantation Tenant (entitled, within the time allowed, to purchase a certificate below the ceiling limit), because Explanation II to Section 87 disfavours the fragmentation of the plantation land.

  • Still, because of subsection (3) of Section 85, the tenant could have obtained a purchase certificate (under Section 72B) within the statutory period.

10. Who is the OWNER of Exempted (Leasehold) Plantation (Private) Lands in Kerala?

It is the Government itself, though by virtue of Chapter II (Sec. 13), the tenant has ‘Fixity’. It is clear from the following:

  • 1. Ceiling Limit: The maximum extent of land assignable under a Purchase Certificate is circumscribed by the ceiling limit, under Section 72B(1)(a) and (b) of the Kerala Land Reforms Act, 1963.
  • 2. Plantation Exemption: Owners and tenants of plantations are permitted to retain plantation lands in excess of the ceiling limit by availing the ‘exemption’ provided under Section 81. However, the said exemption does not confer any absolute proprietary right over such land.
  • 3. Exempted-plantation-land Vest in Government: Title/ownership of unassignedexempted-plantation-land is vested with the Government, under Section 72(1).
  • 4. Prior Owners and Tenants will be Deemed as Tenants of the Govt. Such tenants have to pay ‘Rent’ to the Government (Section 72E) for the unassignedexempted-plantation-land.  The rent is fixed by the Land Tribunal [Section 72F(5)(h) ].
  • 5. On Acquisition, No Land Value to Previous Owners or Tenants: If the land vested in Government under Section 72 is acquired, land-value will not be paid to the former land-owner or the tenant (Section 112(5A).
  • 6. Exemption will be lost, if “Fragmented”:The exemption granted to a plantation will be lost if it is “fragmented” or the plantation-crop is abandoned (under Section 87).

It is Government itself, though by virtue of Chapter II (Sec. 13) the tenant has ‘Fixity’. 

  • 1. Plantation (lease) lands VEST in GOVT, automatically
  • Because,
  • Sec. 72 provides for 
    • mandatory and involuntary vesting in Government
    • of leasehold lands that is held by cultivating tenants entitled to fixity of tenure under Sec. 13 (even if the extent exceeds ceiling limit).
    • See: Perumal Smaraka Nidhi vs M/S Harrisons Malayalam Ltd., 31. 01. 2013.
  • 2.  ‘Vesting’ in Govt. is ‘Vesting of Ownership
  • It is for the reasons –
    • Declared to be ‘vested’ in Government (Sec. 72).
    • Plantation land cannot be fragmented (Sec. 87, Explanation II); and, therefore (if the tenant opts to avail benefits of plantation- exemption, under Sec. 81) no part of plantation land can be assigned, or purchase-certificate can be issued, to the tenants (under Sec. 72A, 72B or 72C), even within ceiling limit. (Note: No rider to Sec. 72B and 72C, by way of proviso or otherwise, exempting plantation.)
    • Such a tenant is liable to pay ‘rent’ (Sec. 72E) to the Government (for the unassigned land(e.g. exempted plantation land) vested in Government under Sec. 72).
  • 3. ‘Exemption’ in Chapter III Cannot be read into Sec. 72B(2)
  • Sec. 72B(2) specifies that the provisions of Section 82 (as to ceiling limit) shall apply (when assignment is made; that is, purchase certificate is issued). It reads-“
    • (2) The provisions of Section 82 shall, so far as may be, apply to the calculation of the ceiling area for the purposes of the proviso to Sub-section (1).”
  • As per Section 82, the “ceiling area” in the case of an adult unmarried person or a family consisting of a sole surviving member shall be five standard acres, so however, the ceiling area shall not be less than six and more than seven and a half acres in extent. Sub-section (2) of Section 82 provides that for the purposes of Chapter III, all the lands owned or held individually by the members of a family or jointly by some or all of the members of such family shall be deemed to be owned or held by the family. In calculating the extent of land owned or held by a family or an adult unmarried person, Sub-section (3) of Section 82 provides for taking into account the share held by a member or members of the family or adult unmarried person jointly with other persons. Sub-section (4) of Section 82 provides for ignoring conversion of any class of land in Schedule II to any other class of land in that Schedule after the commencement of the Act. Explanation II to Section 82 provides that for the purposes of the said Section, an adult unmarried person shall included a divorced husband or divorced wife who has not remarried. (State of Kerala v. Puliyangattu Krishnan Master, ILR 2008-1 Ker 563) 
  • The exemption provision in Sec. 81 (Chapter III) cannot be brought-forth or read-into Sec. 72B (provision for assignment/purchase-certificate) in Chapter II.
  • Because,
    • The scheme of the KLR Act is not to confer ‘title’ on the planters in large area (KLR Act is, inter alia, to confer ‘title’ to cultivating tenants).
    • Proviso to Sec. 72B(1) shows – Sec. 72B(1) is an an independent provision. (It says as to assignment to a cultivating tenant within the ceiling limits.)
    • Sec. 72B(2) refers Section 82 (as to ceiling limit) as an independent provision – only to make clear the ‘limit’ or area; that is – “so far as may be, apply to the calculation of the ceiling area“.
    • When a provision (here, ceiling limit in Sec. 82) in Chapter III is referred in a section in another Chapter (here, Sec. 72B), to state the limit in area, it cannot be said – the colour or smell reflected on the first provision (here, Sec. 82), by virtue of another section (here, Sec. 81, the exemption provision) is reflected also on the latter section (here, Sec. 72B).
    • Note: No rider to Sec. 72B and 72C, by way of proviso or otherwise, exempting plantation.
  • Further:
    • Chapter II of the KLR Act (dealing with ‘Tenancy’) is exclusive and exhaustive as to ‘fixity’, and ‘vesting’ of land in Government.
    • It is not stated anywhere in the Act – the right and title of the (leased-plantation) land vested in Government under Sec. 72, will be divested in any manner (to the previous owner, or to the tenant or to anybody else), in any circumstance.
    • Sec. 72E provides for collection of ‘rent‘ from the holders of the plantation (for the unassigned land(e.g. exempted plantation land) vested in Government under Sec. 72). It is for the reason that (ownership of) the land vests in Govt.
    • Proceedings initiated by Taluk Land Board under Chapter III (in respect of plantation) do not confer title.
  • 4. Government Need Not Pay ‘Land-Value‘, as such, if Acquired
    • For the above (plantation land vest in Govt.), the Government Need Not Pay ‘Land-Value‘, as such, to the tenant, or the former owner, if such Lands are Acquired.
  • 5. Tenant cannot ‘Sell’ Plantation Land as his absolute property
    • A tenant who got ‘fixity’ over such land cannot ‘sell’ this land as his absolute (ownership) property.

What is the legal right attached to former ‘tenants’ of Plantations, after vesting the land with Govt. under Sec. 72?

  • Though the tenant has fixity (Sec. 13), it is not Tenancy – For no landlord-tenant relation with the Govt.  (At the most, it can be a statutory-tenancy.)
  • Not Grant or Licence/Permission – For Grant as well as Licence/Permission arise from a contract (express or implied).
  • Therefore, it can termed only as a “Legal Right conferred by Statute“, the KLR Act.
  • What are the Stipulations attached to that “Legal Right”?
    • Subject to the condition – not to “convert” it for any other use, other than the specific plantation (Sec. 87).
  • When Such a land is Required for Govt., Should it be Acquired?
    • The ownership being vested in Govt. it need not be ‘strictly’ “acquired”.
    • But no provision in Sec. 72 for ‘resuming’, if and when Govt. needs it.
  • Sec. 112 of the KLR Act
    • But, Sec. 112 of the KLR Act says as to ‘Apportionment of land value in cases of acquisition’.
    • Because the “Legal Right is conferred by Statute“ upon the former tenants of the plantation, they are entitled for certain compensation, when that land is required for the Govt..
    • In cases falling under Chapter II (pertaining to, tenants entitled for fixity, issuance of purchase certificate etc.) Section 72 deals with the right, title and interest of the land owners and intermediaries in respect of the holdings held by the cultivating tenants; and says -the land will be free from encumbrances created by the land-owners and intermediaries.
    • However, insofar as the cultivating tenant is concerned, an absolute right is vested with him to seek assignment (within ceiling limit) subject to the payment of purchase price – as stated in Section 72D. (See: Glen Leven Estate (P) Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2022-6 Ker LT 439.)
    • No ‘authority’ is also named in any law to fix the compensation to be given to the former tenants, when the Govt. requires it.
  • Therefore, it is said – Apportionment of land value in cases of ‘acquisition’.
    • Note:  It makes no difference (SUBSTANTIALLY, IN DETERMINING COMPENSATION) whether such a plantation land is “acquired” or not. Because, even if the land is not ‘acquired’, Govt. has to pay compensation for improvements to the former tenants (who holds the land by virtue of the “Legal Right conferred by Statute“, the KLR Act).

Who is the OWNER of Exempted (Leasehold/Granted) GOVERNMENT  (Plantation) Lands ?

  • It is Govt. itself.
  • Chapter II pertaining to fixity, issuance of Purchase Certificate etc. do not apply to Government lands. Therefore the Provisions as to the Grant or Lease in the Grant-Deeds and that in the Lease-Deeds fully continues to apply.
  • Chapter III grants exemption from ceiling limit on Plantations in Government-lands also.
  • Therefore, it is clear that the OWNERSIP of Exempted (Leasehold) Plantation (Govt.) Lands continues with the Government (in spite of the exemption from ceiling limit on Plantations in Chapter III).
  • Further, the Government Grants Act, 1895 and Government Lands Grants Act, 1940 apply to Malabar and Cochin areas, respectively. These Acts made restrictions in the “grant or other transfer of land or of any interest therein heretofore made or hereafter to be made by or on behalf of the Government to, or in favour of, any person whomsoever”.  By virtue of Section 2, Transfer of Property Act and Tenancy Acts did not to apply to lands given as grant by the Government.

Apportionment’s of land value in cases of Acquisition

Sec. 112 of the KLR Act reads –

  • “112. Apportionment’s of land value in cases of acquisition – (1) Where any land is acquired under the law for the time being in force providing for the compulsory acquisition of land for public purposes, the compensation awarded under such law in respect of the land acquired shall be apportioned among the landowner, intermediaries, cultivating tenant and the kudikidappukaran in the manner specified in this Section.
  • (2) The compensation for any building or other improvements shall be awarded to the person entitled to such building or other improvements.
  • (3) The kudikidappukaran shall be entitled to the value of the land occupied by his homestead or hut subject to a minimum of-
    • three cents in a city or major municipality; or
    • five cents in any other municipally; or
    • ten cents in a panchayat area or township.
  • (4) The difference between the value of three cents or five cents or ten cents, as the case may be, and the value of the extent of the land occupied by the homestead or hut shall, notwithstanding anything contained in the Kerala Land Acquisition Act, 1961, be borne by the Government or the local authority or the company or other person on whose behalf the land is acquired.
  • (5) The balance remaining after deducting the compensation referred to in Sub-section (2) and the value of the land occupied by the homestead or hut shall he apportioned among the landowner, the intermediaries and the cultivating tenant in proportion to the profits derivable by them from the land acquired immediately before such acquisition.
    • Explanation. – “Profits derivable from the land” shall be deemed to be equal to (i) in the case of a landowner, the rent which he was entitled to get from the tenant holding immediately under him; (ii) in the case of an intermediary, the difference between the rent which he was entitled to get from his tenant and the rent for which he was liable to his landlord; and (iii) in the case of a cultivating tenant, the difference between the net income and the rent payable by him; and the rent payable by the cultivating tenant and the intermediary for the purposes of this Explanation shall be as calculated under the provisions of this Act.
  • (5A) Notwithstanding anything contained in Sub-sections (2) and (5), where there the right, title and interest of the landowner and the intermediaries in respect of the land acquired have vested in the Government under Section 72, –
    • the compensation for any building or other improvements belonging to such landowner and intermediaries shall be awarded to the Government; and
    • the balance remaining after deducting the compensation referred to in clause (a) and the value of the land occupied by the homestead or hut, if any, shall be apportioned between the cultivating tenant and the Government in proportion to the profits derivable by them from the land.
  • Explanation. – “Profits derivable from the land” shall be deemed to be equal to-
    • in the case of the cultivating tenant, the difference between the net income immediately before the acquisition and the rent which he was liable to pay immediately before the date on which the right, title and interest of the landowner and the intermediaries have vested in the Government; and
    • in the case of the Government, such rent.
  • (7) In this Section, “homestead” includes a dwelling house occupied by a person who is deemed to be a kudikidappukaran under Explanation IIA to clause (25) of Section 2.”

Apportionment depends upon rights on the date of acquisition

  • Valia Raja v. Veeraraghava Iyer, 1961 Ker LT 103, it was held that the question of apportionment of compensation has to depend upon the rights of the parties on the date of the acquisition. Referrd to in: Varkey Thomas Vs. Annamma Abraham,  1969 Ker LT 903.

Glen Leven Estate (P) Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2022-6 Ker LT 439

  • In Glen Leven Estate (P) Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2022-6 Ker LT 439, the question as to ‘rival claims raised by the cultivating tenant and landlord for compensation on acquisition’ arose. The land was leased out by landlords. The lease-rights came in the cultivating tenants by transfer. The Government contended that the tenant was a cultivating tenant and the land vested upon the Govt. under Sec. 72 KLR Act. Hence tenant alone would be entitled to get compensation for the improvements to be determined under the Kerala Compensation for Tenants Improvements Act, 1958, in view of Section 20(1) of the KLR Act.
  • The landlords argued that the land was a plantation (over 30 acres) when it was (originally) leased, and therefore, they are entitled to claim exemption and benefits in the light of the exemption under clause (viii)  of Section 3 (1) of the KLR Act. Since there would be no fixity of tenure, it being a plantation, there would not be vesting of rights of the land owner in the Government. Hence, there should be the apportionment of the compensation between the lessor and the lessee and it should be decided in the acquisition proceedings.
  • The single Judge dismissed the writ petition, ‘leaving open the liberty of the lessee as well as the landlords, to approach the civil court seeking relief against the Government, and also to resolve the inter se dispute by and between the tenant and the landlords’.
  • The Division Bench, in appeal held that ‘land acquisition’ proceedings are to be initiated. It is pointed out that (even if it is a land vested in Govt.) there is no provision in Sec. 72 for ‘resuming’ if and when Govt. need it. The court also observed as under –
    • “31. On an analysis of the provisions of Section 72(1) of the Act, 1963, it is clear that when the Government notified the said provision with effect from 01.01.1970, all right, title and interest of the landowners and intermediaries in respect of holdings held by cultivating tenants (including holders of kudiyirippus and holders karaimas) entitled to fixity of tenure under Section 13, and in respect of which certificates of purchase under sub-Section (2) of Section 59 have not been issued, vested in the Government.
    • 32. Therefore, it is clear from Section 72 that what is vested with the Government is the right, title and interest of the land owners and intermediaries in respect of the holdings held by the cultivating tenants. It is nothing but a legal fiction by which the interest held by a cultivating tenant in a property of a landlord or intermediary is protected from 01.01.1970 .
    • 34. On a conjoint reading of Sections 72 and 72A, it can be seen that vesting of rights in the Government contained under Section 72 is the rights held by the landlord and the intermediary in respect of holdings held by the cultivating tenants. However, the same will not, in any manner, interfere with the rights enjoyed by a cultivating tenant in contemplation of the provisions of the Act, 1963.”
    • 42. Therefore, we have no doubt in our mind to hold that Section 72 of Act, 1963 would only deal with the right, title and interest of the land owners and intermediaries in respect of the holdings held by the cultivating tenants free from encumbrances created by the land owners and intermediaries. However, the legal provisions discussed above would make it clear that insofar as the cultivating tenant is concerned, an absolute right is vested with him to seek assignment subject to the payment of purchase price in contemplation of Section 72D of the Act, 1963.
  • While considering the right of landlord, it is pointed out (basing on the principle, or scheme of the KLR Act**) that the landlord may have right for compensation under Section 72BB. The Division Bench said-
    • “36. So also, sub-Section (1) of Section 72BB dealing with ‘the right of landlord to apply for assignment and compensation’ specifies that any landowner or intermediary, whose right, title and interest in respect of any holding have vested in the Government, may apply to the Land Tribunal for the assignment of such right, title and interest to the cultivating tenant and for the payment of the compensation due to him under Section 72A.”
  • **Note: 1. If plantation-lease-(leasing a land when plantation existed)-above-30-acre-
    • Sec. 72, 72 BB etc. will not apply (such land being excluded from Chapter II, under Sec. 3(1)(viii), KLR Act).
  • 2. In case of a plantation-lease-above-30-Acre-
    • on termination of the lease period, the land lord can resume the land, on the basis of his title; for, the tenant will not have fixity in such case, the land being exempted from the benefits of Chapter II (as per Sec. 3(1)(viii) of the KLR Act).
  • 3. The landlords of such plantation will get the benefits (under Sec. 81) and protection from ceiling limit that is stipulated under the provisions of Sec. 82, 83 etc. (that is, there will be no ceiling limit).
  • 4. In such a case, the right of landlord may be on a higher level or footing than the tenant (to get compensation).
  • 5. It cannot be compared with a plantation that is put up by the tenant. The tenants of such plantation will-
    • get fixity under Sec. 13 (though they will not get Purchase Certificate)
    • get the benefits and protection (under Sec. 81) from ceiling limit that is stipulated under the provisions of Sec. 82, 83 etc. (that is, there will be no ceiling limit).
    • In such a case, the right for compensation, if any, of the landlord will be nil or negligible.
  • The Division Bench, inter alia, on the above observations directed ‘the State and its officials to take proceedings for the acquisition of the land’.

Criticism on Glen Leven Estate (P) Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2022-6 Ker LT 439

The Division Bench failed to consider–

  • The right, title and interest of the land (above ceiling limit) ‘vest’ with the Government under Sec. 72. It is absolute. It is not a ‘fiction; but, it is real and actual.
  • In K. Jayaprakashan v. State of Kerala, 2023-3 KLT 541, it is observed as under: “Section 72 of the Act deals with vesting of landlord’s rights in Government. As per sub-section (1) of Section 72 ….  all right, title and interest of the landowners and intermediaries in respect of holdings held by cultivating tenants (including holders of kudiyiruppus and holders of karaimas) entitled to fixity of tenure under Section 13 … shall, subject to the provisions of this section, vest in the Government free from all encumbrances created by the landowners and intermediaries and subsisting thereon on the said date”.
  • The absolute nature of vesting is further clear from Sec. 72E and Sec. 112(5A).
  •  The nature of this statutory ‘vesting in Govt’ (under Sec. 72) is further clear from – Sec. 72E (tenant has to pay rent for the unassigned land(e.g. exempted plantation land) vested in Government under Sec. 72) .
  • Sec. 112(5A) deals with unassigned land (that is, no purchase certificate is given). Under this sub section land-value need not be given (even) to the land-owner or the tenant (tenant has no right above that of land owner in this regard) over and above the “value of the land occupied by the homestead or hut” – that is, the actual area where the ‘homestead or hut’ is situated; whatever may be the area of land outside it.
  • This provision is applied to lease-lands vested in Govt. under Sec. 72 and no purchase certificate is given (to the tenant)., in case of acquisition).
  • Sec. 72B(2) KLR Act spells-out that a cultivating tenant will get Purchase Certificate for the extent below the ‘ceiling limit’ alone. That is, the tenant has no “absolute rights” above the ceiling limit.
  • Plantation-lands, usually, involve Hundreds or Thousands of Acres of “excess” land. The assignment-possible-land (within ceiling limit) may be miniscule (7.5 acres or 15 acres). Therefore, the analogy drawn by the Bench (tenant has a right seek assignment) is not apt at all.
  • When land vested in Govt. under Sec. 72 is acquired, in the light of Sec. 112(5A) land-value need not be given to the land-owner or the tenant, over and above the “value of the land occupied by the homestead or hut” – that is, the actual area where the ‘homestead or hut’ is situated; whatever may be the area of land outside it.
  • The aforesaid provision of law in the KLR Act is legislated following Proviso to Article 31A(1) of the Constitution which says that the State need not pay compensation to the land owners (when land is acquired) above the ‘ceiling limit‘.
    • When a landowner has no vested right over and above the ceiling limit, it is illogical and irrational to say that the tenant will have it.
  • The rights of ‘tenants’ of Plantations, to continue in the land till the plantation exists, after vesting the land with Govt., is a ‘Legal Right conferred by Statute’. It is not Tenancy – for no landlord-tenant relation with the Govt. It is not a Grant or Licence/Permission – for such rights arise from a contract (express or implied). Therefore, it can be termed only as a “Legal Right conferred by Statute“, the KLR Act.
    • It goes without saying – If no compensation is payable to the land-owners above the ceiling limit, it need not be given to tenants.
  • It is most unjustifiable to confer undue rights or benefits to the plantation-tenants (majority are BIG Companies) which had not been given to Maharaja of Travancore (whose 191 acres of lands in Thiruvananthapuram – above the ceiling limit, 15 acres – in the City was ‘mercilessly’ taken under the Orders of the Land Board Trivandrum, No. LB(B)2-18919/70, dated 15.01.1972). It is a sheer fact that lands of thousands of middleclass property owners was also harshly taken by under the provisions of the Act. (Note: Only limited right to continue the specified plantation-crop alone is given by the ‘exemption’; and, according to law, in case the land is ‘converted’, the exemption-benefit would be lost.)

No Land value to be given for the “excess” land (Beyond Ceiling Limit)

From the following words in Sect. 112, it is beyond doubt that no Land value to be given for the entire land and it is limited to a portion.

  • building or other improvements
  • land occupied by the homestead or hut”
  • any building or other improvements“.

It is true, “exemption” is given to plantation, to hold land over and above ceiling limit. It is only a statutory permission to continue, subject to conditions. It will be lost when it is “fragmented” or the crop is abandoned. As stated elsewhere, it is also most unjustifiable to confer undue rights or benefits to the plantation owners or tenants (majority are BIG Companies) which had not been given to thousands of middleclass property owners whose property had been harshly sized or expropriated under the provisions of the KLR Act.

1040 Proclamation and Grant of Plantation Land by Travancore Government

In George A. Leslie v. State of Kerala, AIR 1970 Ker 21 (K. K. Mathew, J.), it was argued that benefits of 1040 (1865) Travancore Pattom Proclamation were also entitled to by the Grantees of plantation land. After analysing the provisions of the grant deed it was held that Proclamation of 1040 (1865), which conferred full rights on tenants of pandarapattom land, did not apply to grant-lands.

George A. Leslie v. State of Kerala – AIR 1970 Ker 21

It was observed in this decision as under:

  • “Ext. P-l is a grant made under the Travancore Regulation II of 1040 and the Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills dated 24th April 1865. It conferred a heritable and transferable interest in the grantees of the land comprised in it. Clause 5 in Ext. P-l, which is identical with Section 5 in Form A of the Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills, is the relevant provision for deciding this question. It provides:
    • “Grantees can appropriate to their own use within the limits of the grant all timber except the following and such as may hereinafter be reserved, namely, Teak, Gole Teak, Blackwood, Ebony, Karcomthaly, Sandalwood; should they carry any timber without the limits of the grant, it will be subject to the payment of kuttikanom or customs duty or both, as the case may be, in the same way as timber ordinarily felled”.
  • 10. We think that if title to the reserved trees passed to the grantees, a provision of this nature would have been quite unnecessary. There was no purpose in stating that the grantees will be free to appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant, if title to the trees passed to the grantees; the provision is a clear indication that the grantees were allowed to cut and appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant as a matter of concession.”

It was pointed out –

  • Travancore Pattom Proclamation of 1040 (1865), which conferred full rights on tenants of pandarapattom land. They have no application to the land or trees comprised in grants for cultivation of coffee or tea (under Rules for the sale of Waste Land on the Travancore Hills dated 24th April 1865).

The above findings of Mathew, J. was approved the Apex Court in State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272, under the following words:

  • “We agree with the interpretation given to the clause by Mathew, J. and hold that the respondent- company did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the Concession Area or the trees and the timber therein.”

The effect of Grant deeds were also considered in the following two important cases by the Supreme Court-

  • Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd. v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301
  • State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272

Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd. v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301

The Supreme Court, in Kannan Devan Hills Produce v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301 (Sikri (Cj), Shelat, A.N. Ray, I.D. Dua, , H.R.  Khanna, JJ.) held that Kenan Devan Hills Concession (on grant deeds) fall within the expression “Janmam right” vested with Sircar. The State of Kerala made an Act – the Kannan Devan Hills (Resumption of Lands) Act, 1971, to “vest” the possession of the land remained in the possession of the Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd.

According to the petitioner Company, ‘it has at all times been holding, cultivating, enjoying and dealing with the Concession Land as the absolute, owner thereof’.

According to the State, this land is dealt with under this heading – Pandaravaka Lands, i.e. lands belonging to the Sircar. and that it was only “granted” to the company for ‘coffee cultivation’. The State asserted in this case –

  • that the petitioner Company was not an absolute owner, but only a lessee under the Government, especially since the 1899 Proclamation issued by H.H. the Maharaja declaring that Kannan Devan Hills was ‘an integral part’ of the ‘territory’.
  • that the petitioner’s predecessor-in-title was John Danial Munro, who obtained, the first Pooniat Concession from Punjar Valiya Raja, on July 11, 1877. This Concession recited that an, application was made for the grant of the above property to the Raja for coffee cultivation.
  • It was further stipulated in the Concession that
    •  “you shall clear and remove the jungles, and reclaim the waste lands within the said boundaries, and cultivate them with coffee up to the year 1058 and from the year 1059, pay our rent collector a yearly rent at the rate of 3,000 British Rupees.”
  • H.H. the Maharaja executed a deed of ratification, dated November 28, 1878, by which the Government ratified the First Pooniat Concession dated July 11, 1877.
  • This deed of ratification laid down –  the Government permitted the grantee to hold the land. (it is similar to the ‘Grant/Title’ deeds executed by the State in all other ‘Grants’ – under the ‘Grant Rules’).
  • Clause 5 of the Deed of Ratification, is important. It provides, inter alia, that
    • “The grantee can appropriate to his own use within the limits of the grant all timber except the following and such as may hereafter be reserved namely, Teak, Cole Teak, Blackwood, Ebony, Karoonthaly, Sandalwood; should he carry any timber without the limits of the grant it will be subject to the payment of Kooteekanom, or Customs Duty……….
  • The eleventh clause reads – “The land granted shall be held in perpetuity as heritable or transferable property, but every case of transfer of the grant by the grantee shall be immediately made known to the Sircar, who shall have the right of apportioning the tax, if a portion of the holding is transferred.”
  • The twelfth clause stipulates – “The discovery of useful mines and treasures within the limits of the grant shall be communicated to the Sircar, and the grantee shall in respect to such mines and treasures, abide by the decision of the Sircar.”
  • The sixteenth clause provides – “The grantee shall be bound to preserve the forest trees growing on the banks of the principal streams running through the tract to the extent of fifty yards in breadth on each side of the stream, the Underwood only being permitted to be cleared and coffee planted instead. Similarly he shall also be bound to preserve the, trees about the crest of the hill to the extent of a quarter of a mile on each side.”
  • Royal Proclamation was made on September 24, 1899 provided that ‘Anjanad and Kannan Devan Hills is an integral portion of our territory and that the inhabitants of the said tract are ‘hereby informed and warned that they are not to pay any taxes, rents or dues, or make any other payment to the Poonjar Chief.

Points came for consideration in this decision were the following:

  • Whether the Kannan Devan Hills (Resumption of Lands) Act, 1971 was protected from challenge under Art. 31A of the Constitution. That is, whether these lands fall within expression ‘Janmam right’ or “estate”  in art. 31A of the Constitution.
  • If the lands acquired were an “estate”, or with ‘Janmam right’ owned by the Company, the land reform enactment did not have stood valid. (Note: Kesavananda Bharathi Case came in 1973.)

The Apex Court found the following:

  • The janmam rights (even if remained with the Poonjar Chief, H.H. the Maharaja became the janmi by the Royal proclamation of 1899.
  • The nature of ‘janmam right’ has been examined by this Court previously in Kavalappara Kottarathil Kochuni v. State of Madras [1960] 3 S.C.R. 887 Subba Rao, J., observed that janmam right in Kerala is an “estate and it is the freehold interest.
  • The Sircar itself is one of these janmis and it was the largest Janmi. It came to possess janmam lands by gift, purchase, escheat, confiscation and other ways
  • If any person wants land in Travancore, he must obtain it from, some one of the body of Janmis, i.e. from the Sircar, which is the Chief Janmi, or from some other Janmi.

The Apex Court observed as under:

  • “… On the material placed before us it is difficult to resist the conclusion that the lands in dispute fall within the expression “Janmam right”.
  • If, as stated in Travancore Land Revenue Manual Volume IV, there are no lands that do not belong to a Janmi and the Sircar becomes a janmi by gift, escheat confiscation or otherwise, the effect of the Royal Proclamation of 1899 must be that the Sircar became the Janmi.”

The Apex Court further found –

  • The Registered Lands included inter alia, (a) Pandaravaka lands and (b) Janmam lands.
  • Regarding Pandaravaka lands it is stated : “Pandaravaka or Sircar lands are, lands of which the State is the landlord or the Jenmi and whatever rights which vest in the ryots are derived from the Sircar.”
  • Kenan Devan Hills Concession is dealt with under this heading, i.e. Pandaravaka Lands.
  • It thus appears that the State grants like Kanan Devan Hills Concession and Ten Square Miles Concession, and Munro Lands, were treated under the heading ‘Pandaravaka Lands, i.e. lands belonging to the Sircar (that is, such Grant-lands were not ‘owned’ by the holders thereof).

On these findings The Apex Court upheld the Kannan Devan Hills (Resumption of Lands) Act, 1971 and dismissed the challenge of the Company.

State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272

With respect to the same property  it was held in State of Kerala v. Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272as under:

  • “The Trial Court in a detailed and well-reasoned judgment dismissed the suit of the company. The Trial Court on the interpretation of First Concession (Exhibit P- 1), Second Concession (Exhibit P-2), deed of ratification (Exhibit P-62) and the Government agreement with the Society dated August 2, 1866 (Exhibit P-64) came to the conclusion that the company did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the Concession Area or the trees and timber in the said area. It was held that the Poonjar Chief had only conveyed heritable and transferable possessory rights over the Concession area to the grantee. It was also held that absolute rights over the trees and timber in the Concession Area did not pass to the grantee and it had only the right to use and remove timber subject to the restrictions imposed in the deeds of conveyance/ratification.”

It is observed:

  • “An identical clause in another grant entered into by the Travancore Government came for consideration before a Full Bench of the Kerala High Court in George A Leslie v. State of Kerala, [1969] K. L.T. 378, K. K. Mathew, J. (as the learned Judge then was) interpreted the clause as under:
    •  We think that if title to the reserved trees passed to the grantees, a provision of this nature would have been quite unnecessary. There was no purpose in stating that the grantees will be free to appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant, if title to the trees passed to the grantees; the provision is a clear indication that the grantees were allowed to cut and appropriate the reserved trees for consumption within the limits of the grant as a matter of concession.”
  • “We agree with the interpretation given to the clause by Mathew, J. and hold that the respondent- company did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the Concession Area or the trees and the timber therein.”

It is observed further:

  • “It was further held by Mathew, J. (in George A. Leslie v. State of Kerala, 1969 KLT 378) that kuttikanam being the governments share of the value of the trees owned by the government it has the power to fix the value of the trees. We agree with the reasoning and conclusions reached by Mathew, J.”

The Apex Court upheld and approved “the judgment and findings” of the Trial Court.

Effect of Travancore Govt. Leases after Royal Pattom Proclamations of 1040 and 1061

During the second half of the 19th century several Royal Proclamations were promulgated with a view to confer rights in the land to the tenants who were the real cultivators. Majority of the people were engaged in agriculture; but the lands belonged to Jenmies (Sircar, Brahmins or Devaswoms). The cultivators held the land under lease arrangement known as Pattom, Otti, Inam and Viruthi etc. One of the important Regulations came in the line of agrarian reforms was the Royal Proclamation of 1040 ME (1865 AD). It pertained to Pattom (lease) tenements created (by Sircar) on Sirkar lands known as Pandaravaka lands. It is exalted as the Magna Carta of peasants of Travancore it being led to conferring land to tillers, step by step.

Paragraph 9 of the Royal Proclamation of 1061 (1886) brought in further radical changes as regards Pandarapattam lands. It said as under:

  • “These lands were originally the absolute property of Government, and the tenants were mere tenants-at-will; but, by the Royal Proclamation of the 21st Edavam 1040, Government generously waived all right to these lands, and declared them to be the private, hereitable, saleable property of the holders.”

Section 22 of the Settlement Proclamation of 1061 (1886) made further changes in land tenure.

Those changes were:

  • (1)   no debt shall be recognised as due to the holder;
  • (2) no interest shall be deducted from the Pattom on such debt;  
  • (3) no reduction of debt or a corresponding enhancement of the Sirkar demand shall be made when such properties were transferred by sale.
  • The properties held on the tenures in question shall be recognised as so many favourably assessed lands or Inams and confirmed to the holders as such.

Clause 7 of Section 24 of the Proclamation provided as under:

  • “There shall be no further interference on the part of the Government with these free holds, except such as might be necessary for the punctual realization of the quit rent payable”.(Quoted in: Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86.)

Now a question arises: What is the impact of 1040 and 1061 (1886) Proclamations over the ‘Government Land Leases’ made after 1061 (1886)? Do such leased lands qualify as “estate” under Article 31A of the Constitution?

The legitimate answer is that the lands leased out (by the Government) after 1061 (1886) do not acquire the rights of ‘permanency of tenure’ or attain the ‘proprietary interest’ conferred by the Pattom Proclamations of 1040 and 1061. If such rights are axiomatically conferred as a matter of course, the result would be that the Government cannot ‘lease’ lands (after the Proclamations), for, the lease character would be lost at the moment it is made.

In Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez v. Albert Fernandez (five Judge Bench), 1971 Ker LT 1, AIR 1971 Ker 168 (Per PT Raman Nayar, CJ, T Krishnamoorthy Iyer, P Unnikrishna Kurup, JJ.), concluded that the land covered by the Royal Proclamations of 1040 and 1061 were “estates” falling under Art. 31A of the Constitution. It was on the finding that the Proclamation “secured permanency of tenure”, and “proprietary interest” in the soil. It was observed as under:

  • “7. It is impossible to accept the contention advanced on behalf of the plaintiff in this case that,even after the Proclamation of 1040, the holders of these lands had no proprietary interest whatsoever in the soil and remained tenants in the strict sense of that term, with only the right of enjoyment, the only difference being that they secured permanency of tenure, the Government still remaining the full and absolute proprietor of the soil.”

Therefore, there is a clear difference between leases made before and after the Proclamations, and the rights conferred by the Proclamations do not apply to leases made after them.

Also Read: Plantation-Tenants Not Approached The Land Tribunal are Ineligible for Plantation-Exemption-Orders from the Land Board

End Notes:

How to deal with Govt. property upon which title is claimed by plaintiffs dealt with in Union of India v. Ibrahim Uddin, : (2012) 8 SCC 148.

Facts, in a nutshell, were this –

  • Plaintiff Ibrahim Uddin filed the Suit for declaration that he was the owner of the suit property originally had been with the Maratha Government.
  • The ancestors of the plaintiff having close association with the Maratha Government, were made a grant in respect of the suit land in the year 1800.
  • The land was partitioned between the ancestors in 1819.
  • The Union of India claimed title over the suit land, thus the suit.
  • UoI averred that the land belonged to it, a part of which has been leased out to several persons for agriculture work and their lease has been renewed from time to time.
  • As they became unauthorised occupants, proceedings had been initiated in accordance with law and eviction order had been passed against the occupants/tenants.
  • The trial Court came to the conclusion that the plaintiff could not prove any kind of grant by the Maratha Government to his ancestors in 1800.
  • Plaintiff failed to prove the partition between his ancestors in 1819.
  • The lease deed alleged to have been executed in favour of the Military Estate Officer under the Union of India, was not successfully proved.
  • In view of the above, the suit was dismissed.
  • The first appeal before the District Judge, Agra.
  • In appeal, under Order XLI Rule 27 CPC the Will executed by his maternal grandfather dated 1.3.1929 in his favour bequeathing the suit property was marked.
  • The First Appeal was allowed on conclusion that Maratha Government had made the gift of land in favour of plaintiff’s forefathers which was subsequently partitioned.
  • The registered partition deed stood duly proved and it was the proof of the title of the plaintiff.
  • The appellant UoI did not produce any document to show its title and failed to produce the original record, thus, adverse inference was drawn under Section 114 clause(g) of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
  • The Second Appeal was dismissed. Hence, the appeal before the Supreme Court.

The Apex Court held –

  • It is not permissible to claim the relief of declaration without seeking consequential relief by virtue of the proviso of Section 34 of Specific Relief Act, 1963  (Relying on: Ram Saran v. Ganga Devi, AIR 1972 SC 2685, Vinay Krishna v. Keshav Chandra, AIR 1993 SC 957, Gian Kaur v. Raghubir Singh, (2011) 4 SCC 567).
  • There was nothing on record to show that Maratha Government had made a gift to the ancestors of the plaintiff.
  • A case not specifically pleaded can be considered by the court. The pleadings in substance contain the necessary averments to make out a particular case and issue has been framed on the point. In absence of pleadings, the court cannot make out a case not pleaded, suo motu (Bachhaj Nahar v. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103 relied on). Hence the claim of title by virtue of the Will cannot be taken note of being not based on pleadings.
  • The Will had been executed prior to the birth of the plaintiff.  it could not have been taken into consideration without proper scrutiny of facts and, that too, without any pleading.
  • The rent note allegedly executed by the fore-fathers of the plaintiff. The said rent note does not provide any description of the property nor does it bear any date. The rent note does not provide any period at all. It could not be linked to prove the title.
  • UoI produced the certified copies of the Extract from General Land Register prepared on 15.3.1948 in support of its case and denying title of the plaintiff/respondent No.1.
  • The High Court rejected the same on the ground that the partition among the ancestors of the plaintiff had taken place prior to enactment of the Cantonment Land Administration Rules, 1925, though there is nothing on record to prove the said partition.
  • More so, the partition would not be a conclusive factor to determine the title of ownership.
  • The General Land Register maintained under the Cantonment Act, 1924 and the Rules made thereunder are public documents and the certified copies of the same are admissible in evidence in view of the provisions of Section 65 read with Section 74 of the Evidence Act.
  • It is settled legal position that the entries made in General Land Register maintained under Cantonment Land Administration Rules is conclusive evidence of title. (Vide: Chief Executive Officer v. Surendra Kumar Vakil, AIR 1999 SC 2294; and Union of India & Ors. v. Kamla Verma, (2010) 13 SCC 511). The title of government cannot be disputed.

The Apex Court allowed the appeal and held –

  • There was nothing on record to prove the grant/gift by the Maratha Government in favour of ancestors of plaintiff/respondent No.1 in the year 1800.
  • The alleged partition in the year 1819 even if had taken place, cannot be a proof of title.
  • Presumption under Section 90 of the Evidence Act in respect of 30 years’ old document coming from proper custody relates to the signature, execution and attestation of a document i.e. to its genuineness but it does not give rise to presumption of correctness of every statement contained in it.
  • If the Will was ignored, there was nothing on record to show as how the plaintiff  could claim the title. The truth of contents of a document have to be proved like any other fact.
  • The rent note did not prove anything.
  • The Will in absence of any pleading could not be taken on record. More so, the Will was not proved in accordance with law i.e. Section 68 of the Evidence Act.
  • The court cannot travel beyond the pleadings as no party can lead the evidence on an issue/point not raised in the pleadings and in case, such evidence has been adduced or a finding of fact has been recorded by the Court, it is just to be ignored.
  • Though it may be a different case where in spite of specific pleadings, a particular issue is not framed and parties having full knowledge of the issue in controversy lead the evidence and the court records a finding on it.
  • The first appellate court as well as the High Court recorded a finding that the Union of India failed to prove its title over the suit land. The said courts did not realise that this was not the issue to be determined, rather the issue had been as to whether the plaintiff was the owner of the suit land.

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End Notes

Relevant provisions of KLR Act, in a Nutshell

Section Provisions in a Nutshell
Chap. II 
3(1)
Exemptions – (i) Nothing in this Chapter shall apply to – (viii) Tenancies of plantations exceeding 30 acres.
“Provided that the provisions of this chapter, other than sections 53 to 72S, shall apply to tenancies in respect of agricultural lands which are treated as plantations under sub clause (c) of clause (44) of Section 2”.
7 EPersons acquired lands (before 2005 amendment in KLR Act) for consideration below 1 Ha. 61 Are 87 Sq.m. (4 acre) will be deemed to be tenants .
13Fixity: “Every tenant, shall have fixity of tenure in respect of his holding.”
22Landlord desiring to resume any land shall apply to the Land Tribunal.
31Fair rent determined by Land Tribunal.
51B. Landlord not to enter on land surrendered or abandoned by the tenant. 
Contravention is made punishable.
54(1)
55
57
57 (3)
57 (6)
61
54(1). A cultivating tenant (to purchase the right) has to apply Land Tribunal.
55. Purchase price is fixed by LT (on fair rent u/s. 31) to be paid u/s. 59
57. The LT after enquiries, pass orders determining purchase price.
(3). The Land Tribunal allows the purchase of the land it determines.
(6). The Land Tribunal forwards  orders to the Land Board.
61. Tenant to pay rent (under orders of LT) pending proceedings.
59When Sec. 54 application is allowed (by the LT), the purchase price (determined u/s. 57 by the LT) shall be deposited with the Land Tribunal to the credit of the Land Board and issue of certificate – to cultivating tenant.
72
Sec. 72 provides for automatic vesting of lease-properties held by cultivating tenants in Govt.  ILR 2010(2) Ker. 845. 
72(1) says: Holdings upon which tenanat entilted fixity under sec. 13 vest in govt.
72BCultivating-tenant “shall be entitled to assignment” of land vested in Govt. under Sec. 72 –within ceiling area and get purchase certificate (through LT) (2 years from 1-1-1970). Effect of non-filing (See Balanoor Plantations case. 2018(3) KLT 283.)
72DThe cultivating tenant has to pay the purchase price to the Government on the assignment to him of the right, title and interest of the landowner. (If the extent of land is one hectare or below, he shall not be liable to pay.)
72ESuch a tenant is liable to pay rent to the Govt. for the unassigned land – under Purchase Certificate (E.g., exempted-plantation-land). The Land Tribunal fixes the rent under Sec. 72F(5)(h).
72CProvides for suo moto action by LT. (No time limit). Rule 5 of the Vesting & Assignment Rules provides – LT may suo moto – notwithstanding no application – assign to cultivating tenant. (See  S.72C also). 
72KLT shall issue purchase certificate.  It shall be conclusive proof of assignment.
74Prohibition of future tenancies.
Chap. III 
81
Exemption from ceiling and excess for Govt. lands, private forests, plantations, industrial or commercial undertakings, etc.
Proviso – There will be an exemption (as plantation, land given to educational institution, trust, etc.) on Government lands, given under grant, lease, etc.
See: HMT (Machine Tools) Limited v. Taluk Land Board, 2009 (3) KLJ 110; MT Joseph v.  State of Kerala, AIR 1974 Ker 28.
82Ceiling area – 5/10 standard acres.
83No person can hold or possess excess of ceiling area. (Holding is by tenant.)  It is a total bar. (Note:  plantations, industrial area etc. are exempted.)
Apply to tenant also. 1980 KLT 259 (Gopalan Nair Vs. State), 1976 KLT 306  (Thomas Mariamma Vs. TLB), Raghunath Laxman Wani v. The State of Maharashtra (AIR 1971 SC 2137)
The policy of the Act – no person –“be permitted to hold any land in excess of the ceiling area.” Raghunath Laxman Wani v. State of Maharashtra, 1971-3 SCC 391, Bhikoba Shankar Dhumal v. Mohan Lal Punchand Tatbed, 1982-1 SCC 680, State of U.P v. Civil Judge, Nainital, AIR 1987 SC 16, State Vs. Puliyangattu, 2008(1) KLJ 571.
84Certain transfers – void.
85(1)Surrender excess.
85(2)Owners and Tenants (having land in excess of the ceiling area) should furnish ceiling return to Land Board before March31, 1971, before the Land Board (including lands exempted under S. 81).
Note: Effect of non-filing: See – Balanoor Plantations case – 2018(3) KLT 283.State of Kerala Vs. Varkey Mathew, AIR 1996 SC 1009.
 According to S. 3(1) (viii), “tenancies of plantations exceeding 30 acres” is exempted from Chapter II. Therefore, the landlord can recover such plantation lands after the period of tenancy. Such landlords also had to file a ceiling return within the time stipulated.
85(3)Excess shall be surrendered.
Note: Tenant must have approached the LT (with respect to each plantation, if he has more plantations) (He cannot declare himself a tenant) It is clear from the following provisions: 54(1) – A cultivating tenant has to apply to LT(or the purchase of right, title and interest.)
55 – Purchase price and fair rent fixed by LT
57 – LT after giving notice and enquiries, pass orders (on the application for the purchase of right, title and interest).
57(3) – LT allots the purchase land it determines.
57(6) – The Land Tribunal forwards a copy of orders to the Land Board. 61 – Cultivating tenant to pay rent (under orders of LT) 59 – The purchase price shall be deposited with the LT (to the credit of the Land Board) and issue of certificate – to cultivating tenant.
It is not lawful to initiate Suo Motu proceedings (under Section 72C) by the Government for the benefit of a Plantation Tenant (entitled, within the time allowed, to purchase a certificate below the ceiling limit), because Explanation II to Section 87 disfavours the fragmentation of the plantation land.
Still, because of subsection (3) of Section 85, the tenant could have obtained a purchase certificate (under Section 72B) within the statutory period.
It is the principle applied in the Balanoor case. Note: (i) The sub-section (3) itself says as to the settlement of claims for resumption and purchase of the right, title, and interest of the landowner by the cultivating tenant, (ii) LT is the only authority to determine tenancy (Land Board cannot determine it), and (iii) it is clear that even if it is a plantation-exemption-land (beyond ceiling limit), the tenant has to file petition under Section 54 – for fixing Purchase price and fair rent fixed by LT and for allotting the land under section 57(3) and for effecting the payments of ‘rent’ and ‘purchase price’(to the credit of the Land Board)  under sec. 61 and 59.
85(3A)The person bound to file a statement under sub-section (2) (that is, Owners and Tenants – having land in excess of the ceiling area)  shall, within a period of three months from the date of final settlement or purchase, file a statement before the Land Board, and the provisions of the said Sub-section shall, as far as may he, apply in regard to the particulars to be contained in such statement, the calculation of the excess land and for the procedure for the surrender of the same.
85(5)On receipt of the statement under Sub-section (2) or Sub-section (3A), the Land Board shall transfer the statement to such Taluk Land Board and such Taluk LandBoard shall determine the extent and identity of the land to be surrendered.
85(7)Whereon a person fails to file statement under 85(2) or (3A), LB shall intimate that fact to TLB  –  TLB shall determine land to be surrendered. It is obvious – The LB can intimate TLB as to non-filing, on the basis of the records it obtained under Sec. 57(6) and 59. That is, those tenants who are not entitled to get a purchase certificate also has to file an application under Sec. 54(1) and 85(2) or (3A). Effect of non-filing: See – Balanur Plantations case (With respect to Sec. 72B application) – 2018(3) KLT 283. Statute prescribes liability on the person who owes or hold the land in excess of the ceiling limit to file statement:  State of Kerala Vs. Varkey Mathew, AIR 1996 SC 1009.
[TLB not to do, suo motu, without direction from LB. 1980 KLT 120, referred to in 2019(1) KLT 985.]
85AFile ceiling return within March  2, 1973 before Land Board..
86(1)On determination of the extent to be surrendered under S. 85- Excess vests in Govt. and Taluk Land Board shall issue an order accordingly.
86(3)Where any person fails to surrender as demanded, the TLB may order an officer to take possession
86(4)Where any land, vests in the Govt, under s. 86(1) (including that of cultivating tenant) the ownership of such land shall vest in the Govt.
86(6)Nothing applies to property of Govt. under KLC Act.
87
Exp. II
If a person converts any portion of exempted land for any other class, that converted extent will be added to his account in determining his ceiling limit. That is, the exemption will be lost for the portion that exceeds the ceiling limit. (Mathew K Jacob v. District Environmental Impact Assessment Authority, 2018-4 KLT 913)

Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

No Adjudication Needed If Power of Attorney is Sufficiently Stamped

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Introduction.

It is sad, almost in all States in India, the authorities, especially that of Revenue Department, require people to ‘adjudicate’ documents executed outside India, even if it is clear that it is properly stamped. One among such documents is power of attorney.

Provisions of the Registration Act.

Section 31 of The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 speaks as under:

  • “31. Adjudication as to proper stamp.—
  • (1) When any instrument, whether executed or not and whether previously stamped or not, is brought to the Collector, and the person bringing it applies to have the opinion of that officer as to the duty (if any) with which it is chargeable, and pays a fee of such amount (not exceeding five rupees and not less than [fifty naye paise]) as the Collector may in each case direct, the Collector shall determine the duty (if any) with which, in his judgment the instrument is chargeable.
  • (2) For this purpose the Collector may require to be furnished with an abstract of the instrument, and also with such affidavit or other evidence as he may deem necessary to prove that all the facts and circumstances affecting the chargeability of the instrument with duty, or the amount of the duty with which it is chargeable, are fully and truly set forth therein, and may refuse to proceed upon any such application until such abstract and evidence have been furnished accordingly: Provided that—
  • (a) no evidence furnished in pursuance of this section shall be used against any person in any civil proceeding, except in an enquiry as to the duty with which the instrument to which it relates is chargeable; and
  • (b) every person by whom any such evidence is furnished, shall, on payment of the full duty with which the instrument to which it relates, is chargeable, be relieved from any penalty which he may have incurred under this Act by reason of the omission to state truly in such instrument any of the facts or circumstances aforesaid.”

If proper stamp duty Paid no Requirement of Adjudication

The Madras High Court, in Manoharan v. Velu, (1998) III M.L.J 272, held that a power of attorney executed on proper stamp need not be produced before the Collector for the purpose of certification or adjudication that the full duty with which it is chargeable has been paid. It was observed Manoharan v. Velu as under:

  • “5. This power document satisfies the definition ‘power of attorney’ as defined in Sub-sec.(21) of Sec.2 of the Act. It is not in dispute that this power document is engrossed on Indian Non-Judicial stamp paper of the value of Rs.5, which is the proper stamp duty, payable on that instrument. On these facts, the question that arises for consideration is whether the said power document should be  necessarily produced before the Collector to certify by endorsement on such instrument that the full duty with which it is chargeable has been paid or not. To decide this question, the court has to necessarily look into Secs.31 and 32 of the Act. Sec.32 of the Act starts with the following words’ “When an instrument brought to the Collector under Sec.31, is etc., etc. Therefore, if the provisions of Sec.32 of the Act have to be applied, then the instrument should have been necessarily produced under the provisions of Sec.31 of the Act before the Collector concerned. Sec.31 of the Act enable a person bringing to the Collector any instrument whether executed or not and whether previously stamped or not, to have his opinion as to the duty (if any) with which it is chargeable and thereupon the Collector on payment of a fee, shall determine the duty (if any) with which, in his judgment the instrument is chargeable. Sub-sec.(2) of Sec.31 of the Act deals with the power of the Collector to collect materials, in order to determine the stamp duty, if any, chargeable on the instrument produced before him.
  • Therefore, it is clear that only in a case where the opinion of the Collector is sought for regarding the payment of the proper stamp duty, the Collector gets the power to proceed in accordance with Sec.31 of the Act, Once the Collector gets the jurisdiction under Sec.31 of the Act in the manner I have stated above, then only Sec.32 of the Act gets attracted.
  • 6. Since in this case, the instrument has been charged with the proper stamp duty payable under the Act and since it has not been produced by the power of Attorney Agent of the deceased second plaintiff before the  Collector, the Collector does not get any jurisdiction at all to go into that question. The argument the learned counsel for the respondents that the requirement of producing such an instrument before the Collector is mandatory, (Where the instrument had been executed outside India) cannot be sustained. The Proviso to the main section of the Act cannot alter the scope of the very section itself. To attract clause (b) of the Proviso to Sub-sec.(3) of Sec.32 of the Act necessarily the document whether it is executed in India or outside India should have been produced before the Collector under Sec.31(1) of the Act. So long as the document was not produced before the Collector, under Sec.31(1) of the Act seeking his opinion on proper stamp duty chargeable, there is no question of relying upon or referring to the Proviso to Sub- sec.(3) of Sec.32 of the Act.”

Kerala High Court, quoting above portions from Manoharan v. Velu, it was held in Anitha Rajan v. Revenue Divisional OfficerAIR 2010 Ker153, that it was not necessary to produce the power of attorney, even if executed outside India, for adjudication if it was sufficiently stamped. The High Court definitely held further that the Village Officer, Nattika Village erred in directing the petitioner to produce the (sufficiently stamped) original power of attorney before the Revenue Divisional Officer for adjudication under sections 31 and 32 of the Kerala Stamp Act, 1959.

Use of Adhesive Stamps in Power of Attorney

Rule 13 of the Indian Stamp Rules, 1925, provides for using adhesive stamp in the case of Power of Attorney. Similar provisions are in the State Stamp Rules also.

  • It may be noted that the law requires that document must have been stamped before it had been executed (or signed).


Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Notice to Produce Documents in Civil Cases

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Important Provisions in the Civil Procedure Code, In a nutshell

Order XI, rule 15.
Inspection of documents referred to in pleadings or affidavits
A party to a suit is entitled at any time to give notice to any other party, in whose pleadings or affidavits reference is made to any document to produce such document for the inspection of the party giving such notice, or of his pleader, and to permit him or them to take copies thereof.
rule 16.
Notice Form
Notice to any party to produce any documents referred to in his pleading or affidavits shall be in Form No. 7 in Appendix C, with such variations as circumstances may require
rule 18.
Order for inspection.
Where the party omits to give such notice of a time for inspection or objects to give inspection, the Court may, on the application of the party, make an order for inspection.
rule 21.
Non-compliance with order for discovery.
Where any party fails to comply with order for discovery or inspection of document, the suit may be liable to be dismissed, and, if a defendant, to have his defence, if any struck out. Where an order is made dismissing any suit, the plaintiff shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit on the same cause of action.
Order XII, rule 2.
Notice to admit documents
Either party may call upon the other party to admit, within seven days from the date of service of the notice any document.
rule 3.
Notice Form
Notice to admit documents shall be in Form No. 12 in Appendix C, ‘with such variations as circumstances may require’.
rule 8.
Notice to produce documents
Notice to produce documents shall be in Form No. 12 in Appendix C, ‘with such variations as circumstances may require’.
rule 12.
Notice Form
Form No. 12 says as to Notice “to produce and show to the court at the first hearing of this suit all books, papers, letters, copies of letters and other writings and documents in your custody, possession or power, containing any entry, memorandum or minute relating to the matters in question in this suit, and particularly.”...
Order XVI
rule 6.
Summons to produce document.
Any person is summoned to produce a document, without being summoned to give evidence, shall be deemed to have complied with the summons if he causes such document to be produced instead of attending personally to produce the same.

Notice to Produce Documents under Order XI rule 16 & Order XII rule 8

Order XI rule 16 (when reference is made to any document, in pleadings or affidavits)

Order XI rule 16 notice is provided after giving the substantive right to give notice to the other party, in whose pleadings or affidavits reference is made to any document to produce such document for the inspection, under rule 15. (The form is given in Form No. 7 in Appendix C.)

  • Note: For giving notice under Order XI rule 16, document must have been referred to in pleadings or affidavits.

Order XII rule 8

But, (abruptly) without giving a substantive direction (as in Order XI rule 15**) to one party to the suit, it is stated in Order XII rule 8 that a notice can be given to produce documents (in Form No. 12 in Appendix C) to ‘produce and show to the Court’. #

  • **To give notice to any other party, in whose pleadings or affidavits reference is made to any document to produce such document for the inspection of the party.
  • #The form No. 12 shows that it is given by one party or his advocate to the other.

Order XII Rule 8 reads as under:

  • Notice to produce documents: Notice to produce documents shall be in Form No. 12 in Appendix C, with such variations as circumstances may require. An affidavit of the pleader, or his clerk, or of the service of any notice to produce, and of the time when it was served, with a copy of the notice to produce, shall in all cases be sufficient evidence of the service of the notice, and of the time when it was served.”
    • Note: Order XII rule 8 itself contains – “with such variations as circumstances may require”; and in the heading of Form No. 12 it is stated – “(General Form)”.

Form No. 12 reads as under:

  • “Take notice that you are hereby required to produce and show to the Court at the first hearing of this suit all books, papers, letters, copies of letters and other writings and documents in your custody, possession of power, containing any entry, memorandum or minute relating to the matters in question in this suit, and particularly.”
  • First Hearing
    • First-hearing is not defined in the CPC. In Siraj Ahmad Siddiqui v. Shri Prem Nath Kapoor, AIR 1993 SC 2525, our Apex Court held as under:
    • “13. The date of first hearing of a suit under the Code is ordinarily understood to be the date on which the court proposes to apply its mind to the contentions in the pleadings of the parties to the suit and in the documents filed by them for the purpose of framing the issues to be decided in the suit.”

From the above, it is clear:

  • The Form No. 7 and Form No. 12 (Appendix – C) notices are given by one party or his advocate to the other.
  • Order XII rule 8 Notice is – to produce and ‘show court’ only (as stated in Form No. 12). But, Order XI rule 15 states – notice can be given by one party to the other party ‘to produce document for the inspection of the party, or of his pleader, and to permit him or them to take copies thereof‘.
  • Order XI rule 15 is confined to documents referred to in pleadings or affidavits. But, Order XI rule 8 is not so confined.
  • It is reasonable to conclude that this power given to a party (to give notice by one party to other – under Order XI rule 8) is to be exercised, normally, ‘at the first hearing‘ alone (see: Form No. 12); and, even if it can be given effect to in a subsequent stage (by the orders of the court), it is only in exceptional circumstances. (The reason thereof is plain.)
  • It will also be rationale to infer that the Order XI rule 8 does not allow a party to see the document produced – for, Form No. 12 says as to ‘show court’ only; and does not allow ‘to produce document for the inspection of the party, or of his pleader, and to permit him or them to take copies thereof‘, as provided under Order XI rule 15. (The logic behind it is explicit.)

See Blog: Best Evidence Rule in Indian Law

A Discordant Note – For, Inclusion of rule 8 in Order XII is Incongruent

Order XII deals with ‘Admission’. Rule 8 thereof hands out ‘Notice to produce documents’. It can be seen, on a plain reading, that rule 8 is not confined to “Admission”. Therefore, inclusion of rule 8 in Order XII is incongruent.

No Adverse Presumption Possible

Is it possible to draw adverse presumption for non production of a document (in spite of notice under rule 8 in Order XII) is an interesting question.

The answer will be negative, when we go by provisions of CPC. They are the following:

  • It only gives power to a party to give notice to other party; it does not require court intervention.
  • Order XII rule 8 Notice is – to produce and ‘show court’ only (as stated in Form No. 12)
  • It is directed to be exercised ‘at the first hearing‘ alone (see Form No. 12); and, in any case, even if it is possible to give effect to (by the court), in a subsequent stage, it can be done only in exceptional circumstances.
  • Under Order XI rule 15, where any party fails to comply with order for discovery or inspection of document, the suit may be liable to be dismissed, and, if a defendant, to have his defence, if any struck out. Such stringent measures are not attached to non-compliance of Order XII rule 8.

But, the provisions of the Evidence Act (Sec. 66) stipulates that ‘if the adverse party knows that he will be Required to Produce’ a document, it is his duty to produce the document, even if it was not sought-for by notice. (Sec. 114 of the Evidence Act lay down the circumstances in which adverse presumption can be drawn when a document – in possession – is not produced.) Sec. 66 directs that the notice to produce such document must be “as prescribed by law, and if no notice is prescribed by law, then such notice as the Court considers reasonable under the circumstances of the case”.

In view of the words in Sec. 66 of the Evidence Act as to the notice “prescribed by law”, in civil cases, the notice to be issued (for production of document) is that provided under Order XII rule 8.

Important Provisions in the Evidence Act (in this regard) In a Nutshell

66. Rules as to notice to produceSecondary evidence of the documents shall not be given unless the party proposing to give such secondary evidence have given notice to the other party.
Provided that such notice shall not be required
(1) when the document to be proved is itself a notice;
(2) when, from the nature of the case, the adverse party must know that he will be required to produce it;
(3) when it appears or is proved that the adverse party has obtained possession of the original by fraud or force;
(4) when the adverse party or his agent has the original in Court;
(5) when the adverse party or his agent has admitted the loss of the document;
(6) when the person in possession of the document is out of reach of, or not subject to, the process of the Court.
89. Presumption as to due execution, etc., of documents not produced.The Court shall presume that every document, called for and not produced after notice to produce, was attested, stamped and executed in the manner required by law.  
130. Production of title-deeds of witness not a party.No witness who is not a party to a suit shall be compelled to produce (i) his title-deeds to any property, or (ii) any document in virtue of which he holds any property as pledge or mortgagee.
131. Production of documents or electronic records which another person could refuse to produce.No one shall be compelled to produce documents in his possession or electronic records under his control, which any other person would be entitled to refuse to produce if they were in his possession or control, unless such last-mentioned person consents to their production.
144. Evidence as to matters in writing.Any witness may be asked, whilst under examination, whether any contract, grant or other disposition of property, as to which he is giving evidence, was not contained in a document, and if he says that it was, or if he is about to make any statement as to the contents of any document, which, in the opinion of the Court, ought to be produced, the adverse party may object to such evidence being given until such document is produced.
162. Production of documentsA witness summoned to produce a document shall, if it is in his possession or power, bring it to Court, notwithstanding any objection which there may be to its production or to its admissibility. The validity of any such objection shall be decided on by the Court.
163. Giving, as evidence, of document called for and produced on notice: When a party calls for a document which he has given the other party notice to produce, and such document is produced and inspected by the party calling for its production, he is bound to give it as evidence if the party producing it requires him to do so.
164. Using, as evidence, of document production of which was refused on notice.When a party refuses to produce a document which he has had notice to produce, he cannot afterwards use the document as evidence without the consent of the other party or the order of the Court.  

No Notice Required if Adverse Party knows that ‘he will be required to produce it

Sec. 66 of the Evidence Act stipulates that secondary evidence of the documents shall not be permitted unless the party proposing to give such secondary evidence have given notice to the other party. But, the proviso to the section states, among other things, that when, from the nature of the case, the adverse party knows that “he will be required to produce it,” then such notice is not required.

 In Hiralal Devji Kharva v. Ladhibai Gokal, 1979- 2 Guj LR 390, it was held that where the adverse party is expected to know from the facts of the case that the document is required to be produced and fails to produce the same the non service of notice would not preclude the party from leading secondary evidence. 

Adverse party must know that he will be Required to Produce it

A witness says ‘whilst under examination, whether any contract, grant or other disposition of property, as to which he is giving evidence, was not contained in a document, and he says that it was‘ (Sec. 141 Evd. Act) and the adverse party ‘objects to such evidence being given (Sec. 141 Evd. Act) until such document is produced (expressly or impliedly) it falls under the head, “he will be required to produce it ” (Sec. 66, 2nd proviso, Evd. Act).

In a proper case, the question – “Can you produce the document in court”, and the answer – “Yes”, will exonerate the party from giving a (formal) “notice to the other party” for it attracts – “the adverse party must know that he will be required to produce it“.

Sec. 22 of the Evidence Act (admissions as to contents of documents) is also relevant here. It reads as under:

  • “22. When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant.—Oral admissions as to the contents of a document are not relevant, unless and until the party proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of such document under the rules hereinafter contained, or unless the genuineness of a document produced is in question.”

Best Available Evidence must be Produced; If Not, Adverse Presumption will be Taken

It may not be safe to a party to a suit to fall-back technically on non-reception of notice under Sec. 66 Evidence Act, in the teeth of the ‘best evidence rule’.

It is the duty of the party to lead the best evidence in his possession even though onus of proof do not lie on him, and he is not called upon to produce the said evidence; and the Court will draw adverse inference under Section 114(g) of the Evidence Act if such evidence is withheld.

But this rule cannot be applied blindly. Mere non-production of documents would not result in adverse inference, invariably (as shown below). Courts take into consideration the pleadings and decide whether the document/evidence withheld has any relevance. The court also cannot lose sight of the fact that burden of proof is on the party which makes a factual averment. The conduct and diligence of the other party is also important. Existence of some other circumstances may justify non-production (Union of India v. Ibrahim Uddin, (2012) 8 SCC 148).

The rule that best available evidence must be produced is taken in the following cases:

  • Murugesam Pillai v. Gnana Sambandha Pandara Sannadhi, AIR 1917 PC 6; 
  • Hiralal v. Badkulal, AIR 1953 SC 225; 
  • A. Raghavamma v. A. Chenchamma, AIR 1964 SC 136; 
  • The Union of India v. Mahadeolal Prabhu Dayal, AIR 1965 SC 1755; 
  • Gopal Krishnaji Ketkar v. Mohamed Haji Latif, AIR 1968 SC 1413;
  • M/s. Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd. v. State of U.P.,  AIR 2003 SC 3024;
  • Khatri Hotels Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India, (2011) 9 SCC 126.

In Mohan Lal Shamlal Soni v. Union of India, AIR 1991 SC 1346, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “It is a cardinal rule in the law of evidence that the best available evidence should be brought before the Court to prove a fact or the points in issue. But it is left either for the prosecution or for the defence to establish its respective case by adducing the best available evidence and the Court is not empowered under the provisions of the Code to compel either the prosecution or the defence to examine any particular witness or witnesses on their sides. Nonetheless if either of the parties withholds any evidence which could be produced and which, if produced, be unfavorable to the party withholding such evidence, the court can draw a presumption under illustration (g) to Section 114 of the Evidence Act.”

Invoking best evidence rule it is observed by the Supreme Court in Musauddin Ahmed v. State of Assam, (2009) 14 SCC 541, as under:

  • “13. It is the duty of the party to lead the best evidence in its possession which could throw light on the issue in controversy and in case such a material evidence is withheld, the Court may draw adverse inference under Section 114 illustration (g) of the Evidence Act notwithstanding that the onus of proof did not lie on such party and it was not called upon to produce the said evidence (vide Gopal Krishnaji Ketkar v. Mohamed Haji Latif, AIR 1968 SC 1413).”

In Jitendra v. State of M.P, (2004) 10 SCC 562, our Apex Court observed that charas and ganja seized from the accused was the best evidence in that case and the non-production of the same in court was seriously taken note of by the court and observed that that mere oral evidence as to the same was insufficient.(See also: Mohd. Aman, Babu Khan v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 2960.)

In Tomaso Bruno v. State of U.P, (2015) 7 SCC 178, it is observed as under:

  • “22. To invoke Section 106 of the Evidence Act, the main point to be established by the prosecution is that the accused persons were present in the hotel room at the relevant time. PW-1 Ram Singh-Hotel Manager stated that CCTV cameras are installed in the boundaries, near the reception, in the kitchen, in the restaurant and all three floors. Since CCTV cameras were installed in the prominent places, CCTV footage would have been best evidence to prove whether the accused remained inside the room and whether or not they have gone out. CCTV footage is a strong piece of evidence which would have indicated whether the accused remained inside the hotel and whether they were responsible for the commission of a crime. It would have also shown whether or not the accused had gone out of the hotel. CCTV footage being a crucial piece of evidence, it is for the prosecution to have produced the best evidence which is missing. Omission to produce CCTV footage, in our view, which is the best evidence, raises serious doubts about the prosecution case.”

With regard to adverse presumption the Apex Court held in Tomaso Bruno as under:

  • “28. As per Section 114 (g) of the Evidence Act, if a party in possession of best evidence which will throw light in controversy withholds it, the court can draw an adverse inference against him notwithstanding that the onus of proving does not lie on him. The presumption under Section 114 (g) of the Evidence Act is only a permissible inference and not a necessary inference. Unlike presumption under Section 139 of Negotiable Instruments Act, where the court has no option but to draw statutory presumption under Section 114 of the Evidence Act.”

Directing Production Without Discovery “NOT the Correct Approach

The indisputable reciprocity between ‘discovery’ and ‘production’, and the sequence in which the they are arrayed in Rule 12 and 14, ensure that compliance of Rule 12 is a necessary pre-condition for ordering ‘production’ under Rule 14. Therefore, it is definite that discovery under Rule 12 partakes its ‘production’ (as the next step, under Rule 14).

The afore-stated propositions are fortified by the following:

  1. Ordering production, under Rule 14, is purely a discretionary matter with court.
    • Rule 14 reads – ” It shall be lawful for the court” … to order the production … of such of the documents in his possession or power … ”.
    • Import of these words are obvious in itself. That is, wide-open discretion is given to the court for ordering production under rule 14.
  2. It is unquestionable that a party to the suit has no vested right to seek ‘production’ of any document under rule 14-
    • even after ‘discovery’ of the same under rule 12.
  3. Similarly, the party to the suit has no vested right to seek production of ‘all documents‘ discovered under Rule 12.

Of course, no doubt, the court has discretion to summon a party to produce documents under O.16 R.14 which reads as under:

  • O. 16 R. 14: “Court may of its own accord summon as witnesses strangers to suit: Subject to the provisions of this Code as to attendance and appearance and to any law for the time being in force, where the Court at any time thinks it necessary [to examine any person, including a party to the suit], and not called as a witness by a party to the suit, the Court may, of its own motion, cause such person to be summoned as a witness to give evidence, or to produce any document in his possession on a day to be appointed, and may examine him as a witness or require him to produce such document.”

But, the words “of its own accord”, “subject to the provisions of this Code … and to any law” and “the Court may” make it clear that this provision is not intended to use openhandedly.

See Blog: Production of Documents in Court: Order 11, Rule 14 CPC is not independent from Rule 12

Section 130 Evidence Act

  • Sec. 130 stipulates that no witness who is not a party to a suit shall be compelled to produce
    • (i) his title-deeds to any property, or
    • (ii) any document in virtue of which he holds any property as pledge or mortgagee.

It will be interesting to consider whether the court has jurisdiction to compel a party to produce his title-deeds to any property applying the converse analogy on the negative assertion in Section 130 (otherwise than ‘discovery’ under Rule 12).

The answer is – No.

In Dolagovinda Pradhan Vs. Bhartruhari Mahatab, 1993 CIVCC 394, 1993-3 LJR 506, 1991-2 Ori LR395, 1991-3 CurCC 519, it is observed (obiter) that under Order 11, Rule 14, CPC, it would be lawful for the Court to require, the party to the suit, to produce such documents in his possession relating to any matter in question in the suit subject to its lawful objections. The High Court pointed out the converse analogy on the negative assertion in Section 130 Evidence Act (which provides that no witness who is not a party to a suit shall be compelled to produce his title-deeds to any property). Though the High Court merely referred to “lawful” authority of the court to require production of the document from a party, it clear that the postulation laid down is that the court has the “power” to order production, because the court placed the proposition in converse to the direction in Sec. 130 of the Evidence Act. It does not appear to be a correct proposition in the light of ML Sethi v. RP Kapur (supra).

Courts to Admit Documents Without Proof

Sections 162, 163 and 164 of the Evidence Act, reads as under:

  • 162. Production of documents. –– A witness summoned to produce a document shall, if it is in his possession or power, bring it to Court, notwithstanding any objection which there may be to its production or to its admissibility. The validity of any such objection shall be decided on by the Court.
  • The Court, if it sees fit, may inspect the document, unless it refers to matters of State, or take other evidence to enable it to determine on its admissibility.
  • 163. Giving, as evidence, of document called for and produced on notice: When a party calls for a document which he has given the other party notice to produce, and such document is produced and inspected by the party calling for its production, he is bound to give it as evidence if the party producing it requires him to do so.
  • 164. Using, as evidence, of document production of which was refused on notice. –– When a party refuses to produce a document which he has had notice to produce, he cannot afterwards use the document as evidence without the consent of the other party or the order of the Court.

In Government of Bengal v. Santiram Mondal, AIR 1930 Cal 370, and R v. Makhan, AIR 1940 Cal 167 it was observed that Section 163 of the Evidence Act applies to Criminal Proceedings also. It is observed in Government of Bengal v. Santiram Mondal, AIR 1930 Cal 370, with respect to a document used under Sec. 163, as under:

  • “The further contention is that if they are to be admitted, they cannot be put in or at any rate used without proof. But the section itself says that the party calling for it is bound to give it as evidence if required to do so, and that certainly means that it goes in as a record of the particular proceeding and that it can be looked at to see what it includes or omits.”

Court’s Jurisdiction to Require to Prove an Admitted Document

In any case, besides the powers of the court under Sec. 165 of Evidence Act, the scheme of the Procedural Acts (Evidence Act, CPC and CrPC) shows that the court has jurisdiction to require the party concerned to prove that document. We can see it in Sec. 58 of Evidence Act, Order XII, Rule 2A Proviso of the CPC and Sec. 294 of the CrPC .

Section 294 of Code of Criminal Procedure reads as follows:

  • “294. No formal proof of certain documents. (1) Where any document is filed before any Court by the prosecution or the accused, the particulars of every such document shall be included in a list and the prosecution or the accused, as the case may be, or the pleader for the prosecution or the accused, if any, shall be called upon to admit or deny the genuineness of each such document.
  • (2) The list of documents shall be in such form as may be prescribed by the State Government.
  • (3) Where the genuineness of any document is not disputed, such document may be read in evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code without proof of the signature of the person to whom it purports to be signed:
  • Provided that the Court may, in its discretion, require such signature to be proved.”

See Blog: PRODUCTION, ADMISSIBILITY & PROOF OF DOCUMENTS


Foot Notes:

Provisions in the Civil Procedure Code

Order XI rule 15 and Order XII rule 2 are the main provisions in the CPC to give notice to the other party to produce documents for ‘inspection’ and ‘show court’ (see form of notice in Form No. 12 in Appendix C of the CPC), respectively.

Order XI rule 15 to 21 read as under:

  • 15. Inspection of documents referred to in pleadings or affidavits. Every party to a suit shall be entitled at any time to give notice to any other party, in whose pleadings or affidavits reference is made to any document or who has entered any document in any list annexed to his pleadings or produce such document for the inspection of the party giving such notice, or of his pleader, and to permit him or them to take copies thereof; and any party not complying with such notice shall not afterwards be at liberty to put any such document in evidence on his behalf in such suit unless he shall satisfy the Court that such document relates only to his own title, he being a defendant to the suit, or that he had some other cause or excuse with the Court shall deem sufficient for not complying with such notice, in which case the Court may allow the same to be put in evidence on such terms as to costs an otherwise as the Court shall think fit.
  • 16. Notice to produce. Notice to any party to produce arty documents referred to in his pleading or affidavits shall be in Form No. 7 in Appendix C, with such variations as circumstances may require.
  • 17. Time for inspection when notice given. The party to whom such notice is given shall, within ten days from the receipt of such notice, deliver to the party giving the same a notice stating a time within three days from the delivery thereof at which the documents, or such of them as he does not object to produce, may be inspected at the office of his pleader, or in the case of bankers’ books or other books of account or books in constant use for the purposes of any trade or business, at their usual place of custody, and stating which (if any) of the documents he objects to produce, and on what ground. Such notice shall be in Form No. 8 in Appendix C, with such variations as circumstances may require.
  • 18. Order for inspection. (1) Where the party served with notice under rule 15 omits to give such notice of a time for inspection or objects to give inspection, or offers inspection elsewhere than at the office of his pleader, the Court may, on the application of the party desiring it, make an order for inspection in such place and in such manner as it may think fit :
  • Provided that the order shall not be made when and so far as the Court shall be of opinion that, it is not necessary either for disposing fairly of the suit or for saving costs.
  • (2) Any application to inspect documents, except such as are referred to in the pleadings, particulars or affidavits of the party against whom the application is made or disclosed in his affidavit of documents, shall be founded upon an affidavit showing of what inspection is sought, that the party applying is entitled to inspect them, and that they are in the possession or power of the other party. The Court shall not make such order for inspection of such documents when and so far as the Court shall be of opinion that it is not necessary either for disposing fairly of the suit or for saving costs.
  • 19. Verified copies. (1) Where inspection of’ any business books is applied for, the Court may, if it thinks fit, instead of ordering inspection of the original books, order a copy of any entries therein to be furnished and verified by the affidavit of some person who has examined the copy with the original entries, and such affidavit shall state whether or not there are in the original book any and what erasures, interlineations or alterations :
  • Provided that, not withstanding that such copy has been supplied, the Court may order inspection of the book from which the copy was made.
  • (2) Where on an application for an order for inspection privilege is claimed for any document, it shall be lawful for the Court to inspect the document for the purpose of deciding as to the validity of the claim of privilege unless the document relates to matters of State.
  • (3) The Court may, on the application of any party to a suit at any time, and whether an affidavit of documents shall or shall not have already been ordered or made, make an order requiring any other party to state by affidavit whether any one or more specific documents, to be specified in the application, is or are, or has or have at any time been, in his possession or power; and, if not then in his possession, when he parted with the same and what has become thereof. Such application shall be made on an affidavit stating that in the belief of the deponent the party against whom the application is made has, or has at some time had, in his possession or power the document or documents specified in the application, and that they relate to the matters in question in the suit, or to some of them.
  • 20. Premature discovery. Where the party from whom discovery of any kind or inspection is sought objects to the same, or any part thereof, the Court may if satisfied that the right to the discovery or inspection sought depends on the determination of any issue or question in dispute in the suit, or that for any other reason it is desirable that any issue or question in dispute in the suit should be determined before deciding upon the right to the discovery or inspection, order that such issue or question be determined first, and reserve the question as to the discovery or inspection.
  • 21. Non-compliance with order for discovery. (1) Where any party fails to comply with any order to answer interrogatories, or for discovery or inspection of document, he shall, if a plaintiff, be liable to have his suit dismissed for want of prosecution, and, if a defendant, to have his defence, if any struck out, and to be placed in the same position as if he had not defended, and the party interrogating or seeking discovery or inspection may apply to the Court for an order to that effect and an order may be made on such application accordingly, after notice to the parties and after giving them a reasonable opportunity of being heard.
  • (2) Where an order is made under sub-rule (1) dismissing any suit, the plaintiff shall be precluded from bringing a fresh suit on the same cause of action.

Order XII rule 2 and 8 read as under:

  • 2. Notice to admit documents. Either party may call upon the other party [to admit, within [seven] days from the date of service of the notice any document,] saving all just exceptions; and in case of refusal or neglect to admit, after such notice, the costs of proving any such document shall be paid by the party so neglecting or refusing, whatever the result of the suit may be, unless the Court otherwise directs; and no costs of proving any document shall be allowed unless such notice is given, except where the omission to give the notice is, in the opinion of the Court, a saving of expense.
  • 2A. Document to be deemed to be admitted if not divided after service of notice to admit documents. (1) Every document which a party is called upon to admit, if not denied specifically or by necessary implication, or stated to be not admitted in the pleading of that party or in his reply to the notice to admit documents, shall be deemed to be admitted except as against a person under a disability :
  • Provided that the Court may, in its discretion and for reasons to be recorded, require any document so admitted to be proved otherwise than by such admission.
  • (2) Where a party unreasonably neglects or refuses to admit a document after the service on him of the notice to admit documents, the Court may direct him to pay costs to the other party by way of compensation.
  • 3. Form of notice. A notice to admit documents shall be in Form No. 9 in Appendix C, with such variations as circumstances may require.
  • 8. Notice to produce documents. Notice to produce documents shall be in Form No. 12 in Appendix C, with such variations as circumstances may require. An affidavit of the pleader, or his clerk, of the service of any notice to produce, and of the time when it was served, with a copy of the notice to produce, shall in all cases be sufficient evidence of the service of the notice, and of the time it was served.

Order XVI rule 6 reads as under:

  • 6. Summons to produce document. Any person may be summoned to produce a document, without being summoned to give evidence, and any person summoned merely to produce a document shall be deemed to have complied with the summons if he causes such document to be produced instead of attending personally to produce the same.

Provisions in the Evidence Act

Sec. 66 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 66. Rules as to notice to produce.—Secondary evidence of the contents of the documents referred to in section 65, clause (a) , shall not be given unless the party proposing to give such secondary evidence has previously given to the party in whose possession or power the document is, [or to his attorney or pleader,] such notice to produce it as is prescribed by law; and if no notice is prescribed by law, then such notice as the Court considers reasonable under the circumstances of the case.
  • Provided that such notice shall not be required in order to render secondary evidence admissible in any of the following cases, or in any other case in which the Court thinks fit to dispense with it:—
  • (1) when the document to be proved is itself a notice;
  • (2) when, from the nature of the case, the adverse party must know that he will be required to produce it;
  • (3) when it appears or is proved that the adverse party has obtained possession of the original by fraud or force;
  • (4) when the adverse party or his agent has the original in Court;
  • (5) when the adverse party or his agent has admitted the loss of the document;
  • (6) when the person in possession of the document is out of reach of, or not subject to, the process of the Court.

Sec. 89 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  1. Presumption as to due execution, etc., of documents not produced. ––The Court shall presume that every document, called for and not produced after notice to produce, was attested, stamped and executed in the manner required by law.

Sec. 130 and 131 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  1. Production of title-deeds of witness not a party. –– No witness who is not a party to a suit shall be compelled to produce his title-deeds to any property, or any document in virtue of which he holds any property as pledge or mortgagee or any document the production of which might tend to criminate him, unless he has agreed in writing to produce them with the person seeking the production of such deeds or some person through whom he claims.
  2. Production of documents or electronic records which another person, having possession, could refuse to produce. –– No one shall be compelled to produce documents in his possession or electronic records under his control, which any other person would be entitled to refuse to produce if they were in his possession or control, unless such last-mentioned person consents to their production.

Sec. 144 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 144. Evidence as to matters in writing. –– Any witness may be asked, whilst under examination, whether any contract, grant or other disposition of property, as to which he is giving evidence, was not contained in a document, and if he says that it was, or if he is about to make any statement as to the contents of any document, which, in the opinion of the Court, ought to be produced, the adverse party may object to such evidence being given until such document is produced, or until facts have been proved which entitle the party who called the witness to give secondary evidence of it.
  • Explanation. –– A witness may give oral evidence of statements made by other persons about the contents of documents if such statements are in themselves relevant facts.

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Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Law on Meetings: An Overview

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Synopsis

  1. Introduction
  2. Annual General Meetings Mandatory,
  3. Sufficiency of Notice,
  4. General Law – Convening of Meetings,
  5. Service of Notice,
  6. Meeting – Quorum,
  7. Agenda of a Meeting,
  8. Calling Extra-Ordinary General Body,
  9. Drafting and Confirming Minutes,
  10. Minutes Signed by Chairman– Evidence,
  11. Omission in Minutes,
  12. How Minutes Prepared,
  13. Rule of Majority,
  14. Society or Club: Dissolution ,
  15. Adjournment of Meeting,

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act, 1860:

  • 4. Annual list of managing body to be filed:-
  • Once in every year, on or before the fourteenth day succeeding the day on which, according to the rules of the society, the annual general meeting of the society is held, or, if the rules do not provide for an annual general meeting, in the month of January, a list shall be filed with the Registrar of joint-stock Companies, of the names, addresses and occupations of the governors, council, directors, committee or other governing body then entrusted with the management of the affairs of the society.

1. Introduction

Sec. 4 of the Societies Registration Act, 1860 postulates holding of Annual General Meeting. These provisions (also the Memorandum and Articles of Association of the society) as to holding Annual General Meetings, are mandatory; and not directory.[1] As per Sec. 2 of the Societies Registration Act the management of the affairs of a society is entrusted with the governing body.  The rules of the society have to direct the details of such entrustment.

It is pertinent to note that the Societies Registration Act, 1860 does not specifically direct ‘election’ of the governing body. But various States’ amendments (and State-Acts) provide for the same. The mode and modalities of formation of the governing body is determinedly left, under Sec.16, to the ‘Rules and Regulations of the society’.

Sec.16 reads:

  • Governing body defined: The governing body of the society shall be the governors, council, directors, committee, trustees, or other body to whom by the rules and regulations of the society the management of its affairs is entrusted.

2. Holding Annual General Meetings is a Mandatory Provision

Sec. 4 of the Societies Registration Act requires holding the annual general meeting of the societies, once in every year, according to the rules of the society, and directs holding of an annual general meeting in the months of January, if the rules do not provide for annual general meetings.

It is held in Sarbjit Singh Vs. All India Fine Arts and Crafts Society[2] that the provisions in the Memorandum and Articles of Association for holding Annual General Meetings between April and October are mandatory and not directory. This is so also for the reason that the Societies Registration Act itself postulates holding of Annual General Meeting.

3. Sufficiency of Notice

When a question arose as to whether the provision in the Co-operative Rules that provides 15 clear days notice for moving a no-confidence motion was directory or mandatory, following the Supreme Court decision in Narasimhiah Vs. Singri Gowda[3], it was held in V A Jose Vs. Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies[4]that the provision was only directory since the legislature has not provided any consequence that is to follow if 15 clear days notice has not been given and since the petitioner did not explain in what manner he was prejudiced by not getting 15 clear days notice. It was also held that the petitioner being participated in the disputed meeting he had no right to challenge the invalidity in the notice for convening the meeting[5].

In Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings[6], it has been stated:

  • Length of Notice: “It is clear: where the regulations provide for a stated period of notice to be given, this requirement must be met or the meeting will be invalid”.

4. General Law with regard to the Convening of Meetings

In Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-Operative Societies[7] the general law with regard to the convening of meetings has been expressed quoting Shackleton, “Meetings, Law and Practice”, as under:

  • “When notice is necessary, the following general rules must be observed.
  • 1. Every person, entitled to attend the meeting must be summoned, unless he is beyond reasonable summoning distance or is too ill to attend.
  • 2. The notice must be frank, clear and free from trickiness, and if any special business is to be transacted this must be clearly stated.
  • 3.The notice must be served strictly in accordance with the regulations of the body on whose behalf it is given and if any particular method is prescribed by Act of Parliament this also must be observed.
  • 4. An irregular notice may be ratified by the appropriate body at a subsequent meeting.”

5. Service of Notice

The bye laws being the contract between the members and the club, company or a society, if the bye laws provide provisions for the service of notice, they have to be adhered to. Otherwise, individual notice has be given to all members. Shackleton on the Law of Practice of Meetings says:

  • “The Regulations of the body on whose behalf notice is being given usually prescribe the method to be followed. The Rules of a club, for example, may provide that notices of meetings shall be posted at the club house and a copy sent to every member. Where no club rule prescribes a mode, it is within the general functions of the committee of a club to say how notices should be given on each particular occasion. The greater the importance of the matter to be discussed, for example where the expulsion of a club member is to be considered or rules are to be altered, the more the need to send a copy of the notice to each member rather than merely affixing it to the club notice board. On the other hand, in matters affecting clubs the courts eschew a meticulous examination of the rules: reasonableness and fairness are given more weight than a rigid interpretation. In the words of Megarry V.C., “allowance must be made for some play in the joints. In general, if there are no specific provisions, and subject to custom and practice … for example, the following of similar previous arrangements … notice may be given by advertisement: a notice in newspapers[8] convening a meeting of debenture holders under a trust deed has been held good. Where a particular form of service is provided for in the regulations, no other form is permitted; thus, where service by post is stipulated, delivery by dropping the notice into the letter box personally or by handing it to a clerk would not be in order.”

6. Meeting – Quorum

In Punjab University Vs. Vijay Singh Lamba[9] it is held by our Apex Court that the absence of a quorum in the meeting renders the meeting unlawful.

7. Agenda of a Meeting

It is held by the Supreme Court in Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Ltd. Vs. Presiding Officer, Delhi Co-op. Tribunal[10] that a general body can always with the approval of the house in the meeting of its members take up any other matter not covered by the agenda and on that account, no illegality could be held.

It is held in Vice Chancellor, Utkal University Vs. SK Ghosh[11] by our Apex Court that if the Rules of a body require resolutions to be moved and passed in a meeting called for the purpose, then every member of the body entitled to take part in the meeting must be given notice so that he can attend and express his views. Individual assents given separately cannot be regarded as equivalent to the assent of a meeting because the incorporated body is different from the persons of which it is composed. Therefore, it was held that an omission to give proper notice even to a single member in such circumstances would invalidate the meeting and that it would invalidate resolutions which purport to have been passed at it”. It is pointed out in a Kerala decision that each case must be governed by its own facts and no universal rule can be laid down; and that it may well be that in the same body certain things, such as routine matters can be disposed of more easily and with less formality than others. It all depends on the nature of the body and its rules. The substance is more important than the form and if there is substantial compliance with the spirit and substance of the law, an unessential defect in form will not be allowed to defeat what is otherwise a proper and valid resolution. [12]

When there was no agenda with respect to something which would not fall within the category of routine matters but was a matter which was of paramount importance and non inclusion of the same in the agenda goes to the root of the matter (like induction of new members to the society), that cannot be simply whisked away by saying that that can be brought within the last item shown in the agenda ‘other matters as allowed by the President’. [13]

Expulsion of certain members of a Samajam from the committee, and admission of others as committee members, was held to be illegal and improper for those decisions were taken not as item in the agenda, by the Kerala High Court, in St. Philomina Sadhujana Samajam Vs. Mathew.[14]

8. Calling Extra-Ordinary General Body

Even if no specific provision is provided for in the bye laws of a society, the governing body has the power to convene an extraordinary meeting either on their own decision or on the requisition of members.[15]

Subject to the provisions in the Act, if any, applicable and the bye laws, the final authority of every society and club shall vest in the general body[16] of the members in general meeting, summoned in such manner as may be specified in the bye-laws.

9. Drafting and Confirming Minutes

According to Shackleton[17] minutes, as a rule, show only the decisions recorded at a meeting, preceded possibly by a short narration dealing with the essential points leading up to the decision.

In Dr. Chetkar Jha V. Dr. Vishwanath Prasad Verma[18] our Apex Court has observed:

  • “The question then is whether the minutes, as drafted and placed before the meeting on July 3, 1963, could be altered as was done on that day. The alteration clearly was not of a minor or a clerical error but constituted a substantial change. Minutes of a meeting are recorded to safeguard against future disputes as to what had taken place thereat. They are a record of the fact that a meeting was held and of the decision taken thereat. Usually they are written up after the termination of the meeting, often from rough notes taken by the person who is to draft them and then are placed before the ‘next meeting for what is generally known as “confirmation”, though they are placed for verification and not for confirmation. Indeed, there is no question of any confirmation at the next meeting of a decision already taken, for, a decision once taken does not require any confirmation. Accordingly, when minutes of a meeting are placed before the next meeting the only thing that can be done is to see whether the decision taken at the earlier meeting has been properly recorded or not. The accuracy of the minutes and not the validity of the decision is, therefore, before the meeting. Once a decision is duly taken it can only be changed by a substantive resolution properly adopted for such a change. When, therefore, a decision is taken and is minuted and such minutes are signed by the Chairman they become prima facie evidence of what took place at the meeting. In the case of company meetings, every meeting of directors or managers in respect of whose proceedings minutes have been so made is deemed to have been properly held and convened and all proceedings had there to have been duly had and all appointments of directors, managers or liquidators are deemed to be valid unless the contrary is proved. (cf. Halsbury’s Laws of England, 3rd ED., Vol. 6, p. 318). This is the position when minutes have been signed by the Chairman. After such signature they cannot be altered. But before the minutes are signed they can be altered if found to be inaccurate or not in accord with what was actually decided. If that were not to be so, it would result in great hardship and inconvenience, for, however, inaccurate they are, they cannot be altered to bring them in conformity with the actual decision. [cf. Talbot, W.F., Company Meetings, (1951 Ed.), p. 82]. This was precisely what was done at the meeting of July 3, 1963 and no objection to the course adopted then by the Chairman and the Syndicate could be validly taken particularly as none present then had raised any protest against the alteration. The decision relied on by Mr. Jha in In re, Botherham Alum and Chemical Company (1883) 25 Ch D 103 is altogether on a different question and cannot be of any assistance.”

If reports are submitted to the meetings, (reports of committee, etc.), it is not usual to set out in extenso the full report, a reference in the minute by which the report can be identified will usually satisfy the most exacting Chairman.  When minutes are signed by the Chairman of the meeting, or the next succeeding meeting, they are prima facie evidence of the proceedings thereat and decisions recorded therein are deemed to be valid until the contrary is proved.

The Chairman of a meeting has prima facie authority to decide all incidental questions which arise at the meeting and an entry by him in the minute book of the result of a poll, or of his decision of all such questions, although not conclusive, is prima facie evidence of that result and the onus of displacing that evidence is thrown on those who impeach the entry.

Where the Chairman made an entry in the minute book that a resolution had been confirmed, the Court, in the absence of evidence that the votes were improperly disallowed, declined to question the decision of the Chairman.

10. Minutes Signed by Chairman– Prima Facie Evidence

Once a decision is duly taken it can only be changed by a substantive resolution properly adopted for such a change. When, therefore, a decision is taken and is minuted and such minutes are signed by the Chairman, they become prima facie evidence of what took place at the meeting[19]. It is held our Apex Court in Kerala State Electricity Board Vs. Hindustan Construction Co Ltd.[20] that a subsequent decision taken not to confirm the minutes cannot in any way dilutes or wipe out the decision which had already been taken.

The Chairman who signs at the next succeeding meeting need not necessarily have been present at the meeting of which the minutes are a record. If they have previously been circulated he will often sign them without having them read if the meeting so agrees[21]. His action in signing them as merely to record that they are a correct record of the business transacted. If there should be an error in them, of an immaterial kind, such a misspelt word or a clerical error, the alteration could be made by the Chairman and initialed.[22]

There may, however, be occasions, where the Chairman, although having no reason to question the accuracy of the record, refuses to sign the minutes. In such cases a record should be made in the minutes to the effect that the minutes of the previous meeting were correct.[23]

In Prince Marine Transport Services Private Limited v. State of Maharashtra, 2024 BHC(AS) 9336 (Bom) it is pointed out as under:

  • “Minutes book is the primary documents and it contains recording of discussion in the meeting and then decision taken. Whereas copy of the board resolution is nothing but the reproduction of decision taken in the meeting.”

11. Omission in Minutes

If, however, a material point is omitted, it is competent for a member at any time to prove at law the inaccuracy of minutes and have the resolutions set aside.[24]

12. How Minutes Prepared

Shackleton on the ‘Law and Practice of Meetings’,[25] it has been laid down:

  • “5. Essential Points in Drafting Minutes: Minutes should commence with the name of the body concerned and give the type of meeting (e.g executive committee). They should state the date, time and place of the meeting and the time the meeting finished (at the end of the minutes). They should also contain a record of the names of the members present and “in attendance,” and whether present for all or part of the meeting or a note of the list attendance sheets or other document where their names may be found. They should also record the name of the member taking the chair.

Minutes should:

  • (a) be taken by the person best placed to do so. Independence, discretion and a good understanding of the business of the organization are key here. It is recommended that a member who is required to make a significant contribution to the meeting does not also take the minutes;
  • (b) be accurate. If there are any especially complex or technical areas recorded in the minutes, it is good practice to double check these with the relevant member to ensure complete accuracy, whilst preparing the draft minutes. The Chairman of the meeting should be given the opportunity to comment on the first draft before they are circulated to all members;
  • (c) be clear and unambiguous. Minutes must be easily understood; not just by the members but by others who may need to glean a good understanding of the company’s business and decision-making e.g. auditors. Avoid too many acronyms and technical language; instead refer to the papers for the detail if the reader requires this;
  • (d) be well structured. A good minute taker will be able to omit the recording of discussions which strayed away from the agenda items and were not relevant. He should also re-order the minutes to tie in with the agenda if the meeting was not well chaired and the meeting did not strictly follow the agenda order;
  • (e) be concise. Not too long or too short, dependent of course on the culture and style of the organisation and the personal preferences of the Chairman;
  • (f) record the essential elements of the discussion on each item, i.e. narration which is vital to an understanding of the proceedings. This will encourage members to speak up next time and also helps remind the organization why they made a particular decision and how they came to it. The full text of all resolutions should be recorded;
  • (g) avoid comment and expressions of opinion unless an essential part of the decision-making process;
  • (h) be produced in a timely fashion. Minutes should ideally be produced within 48 hours of the meeting to ensure accuracy. The minute taker should agree with the Chairman a sensible time period for distribution of the minutes to members after the meeting, taking into account any annual programme of meetings and the period of time between each. He/she should also agree whether any attendees at the meeting are entitled to receive copies of the minutes. The past tense should be used to record events at the meeting, e.g. “It was reported that,” and the past perfect tense for events prior to the meeting, e.g. “Mr. X reported that he had completed his survey.”

The following are examples of minutes with suggested improvements:

  • 1. Mr. X reported that we had secured a further contract on satisfactory terms from the Z Co. Ltd. The use of the word “we” instead of “the company” is a common mistake. In addition, the minute omits important particulars. The following is suggested as a more useful record:
  • 1A. Mr. X reported the signature on behalf of the company of a contact dated … .with the Z. Co. Ltd. for the purchase of a further 1,000 tonnes of coal of the same quality as that previously supplied, at … per tonne, to be delivered to the company’s Birmingham factory, delivery as required July/December [year]. The previous contract was at … per tonne. The approval of the contract was ratified. From a directors’ meeting:
  • 2. Resolved that transfers of 1,000 Ordinary shares produced be approved and passed. The minute should read:
  • 2A. It was resolved that transfers nos….to … inclusive, produced to the meeting, details of transferor and transferee below, relating to 1,000 ordinary shares in the company, be and they are hereby approved for registration and that the common seal of the company be affixed to certificates nos…. to ….relating thereto. From the meeting of a charity:
  • 3. Mr Jones said that before we move on to normal business there is a petition which is being presented by the St. Albans branch for the relief of VAT on charities. There are petition forms here tonight and we hope that if possible you will all sign before you leave. An improved version: 3A. The treasurer drew attention to a petition which was being presented by the St Albans branch for the relief of VAT on charities and invited members to sign it at the conclusion of the meeting.

From the minutes of a management meeting:

  • 4. Radios, cabs, yard and general housekeeping were extremely poor. General Comment: “A Disgrace” This might be better written as:
  • 4A. The attendees felt that the standard of housekeeping, particularly in respect of the radios, cabs and yard, was extremely poor and indeed disgraceful and it was agreed that (action to be taken, by whom and in what timescale.) Within a single paragraph it may not be necessary to introduce every sentence with words which imply reported speech. For example, the minutes of a meeting of the council of an association could (quite correctly) read as follows:
  • 5. The chairman expressed disappointment at the figures for 1996. She stressed the need for urgent action, to avoid exhaustion of the reserves. She said that, with additional expenditure on the awards, pressure on resources would be acute. She pointed out that part of the problem resulted from the decision of previous councils not to increase subscription rates. This could be better reported as follows:
  • 5A. The chairman expressed disappointment at the figures for 1996. With additional expenditure on the awards, and because previous councils had decided not to increase subscription rates, urgent action was necessary to avoid exhaustion of the reserves. The names of the proposers and seconders of motions are usually shown, but there is no need to record details of voting. Motions which are not seconded need not be recorded although it can be useful in understanding the collective will of members.
  • 6. Confirmation of the Minutes: Decisions once arrived at do not need confirmation:
  • At a vestry meeting it was the usual procedure to read over at the next meeting the resolutions of the preceding one. At the second of two meetings there was considerable diversity of opinion as to the votes admitted at the first meeting, but judgment was to the effect that there was no necessity for the confirmation by the second vestry of what was legally done at the first, if the first was a legal vestry meeting the election thereat was legal. However, confirmation of the minutes as an accurate record of the decisions made at the previous meeting is usually obtained by submitting them to the chairman of the next meeting for signature. If they have not been previously circulated he will ask the secretary to read them, and, if the meeting confirms (usually on a show of hands) that they are a correct record, he will sign them. If they have previously been circulated, he will sign them without their being read out if the meeting so agrees.

13. Rule of Majority

Every member of a company, club or society joins the same on the basis that the majority would be entitled to determine its affairs.[26]

In Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay,[27] it was observed that every member of a corporation or an incorporated company joins the same on the basis that prima facie the majority of members are entitled to exercise powers and control operations generally and the same would be the position in the case of unincorporated associations of individuals whether the same be registered under the Societies Registration Act or not. The rule of majority was held to be the normal basis of these associations. It was determined that the members of such associations know fully well that the affairs of these associations would be conducted normally by the vote of the majority of members thereof and no member would be heard to contend to the contrary.

If the rules of  the society or club provided that the decision of a particular question must be by a majority, the decision would bind all the members unless the act complained of is a fraud on the minority or is ultra vires the society or club. In all other matters about which the rules are silent, the majority does not have any right to coerce the minority[28].

The principle in Milligan Vs. Mitchel[29] and Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun[30] that it is not open for the majority of the members of an association to alter the fundamental principles upon which it is founded unless such a power is specifically reserved is referred to in Prasanna Venkitesa Rao Vs. Srinivasa Rao.[31]

In Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun House of Lords (by a majority of 5-2) found that the minority was entitled to the assets of the Free Church. It was observed that when men subscribe money for a particular object, and leave it behind them for the promotion of that object, their successors have no right to change the object endowed. It was further held that, by adopting new standards of doctrine (and particularly by abandoning its commitment to ‘the establishment principle’, which was held to be fundamental to the Free Church), the majority had violated the conditions on which the property of the Free Church was held.

It is held in Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh[32] that Rule of Law demands and dictates that the people follow the Law. The Constitution, whether of the State or of a Society registered under the Societies Act, is paramount. The doctrine of factum valet is applicable to cure the violation of a directory provision or a mere matter of form but does not cure the violation of the fundamental principles or the essence of the transaction.

14. Unregistered Society or Club – Dissolution on Unanimous Decision

If the Rules of an unregistered society or a club do not contain a provision for the dissolution of the club by a vote of the majority, its dissolution could be brought about only by a unanimous decision.[33]

15. Adjournment of Meeting by the Chairman

In Deodutt Sharma v. Zahoor Ahmed Zaid[34] it is held: 

  • “From the aforesaid view of cases the following principles clearly emerge:- 
  • 1 That once a meeting had been properly called and it meets the chairman of the meeting can only adjourn it with the consent of the majority of the members subject of course to the rules and regulations of the particular body in relation to which such a question might arise. Thus where a meeting according to a statute or the rules under which it has been called must have a certain quorum and such quorum is not present the chairman will have the authority to adjourn the meeting because in its absence no lawful meeting can be held.
  •  2 In the absence of any rule to the contrary the common law doctrine should be held to prevail that the adjournment of the meeting rests with the majority of the members present and is not a matter merely of the pleasure of the chairman.
  •  3 An exception to the aforesaid rule which has been almost universally accepted is that where disorder breaks out at a meeting the chairman has an inherent right[35] even if it has not been granted by statute or the rules to adjourn the meeting without consulting the majority.
  •  4 These exceptions apart if the chairman adjourns a meeting contrary to the wishes of the members present and thereby interrupts or leaves unfinished the business for which the meeting was summoned the remaining members can lawfully continue the business; and in the absence of their proper chairman it is open to them to elect another chairman to act as his substitute and continue the business and any business which was duly notified in the notice for the meeting could be transacted to completion and if it is so transacted it would be valid.
  •  5 Where however the adjournment has been properly ordered by the chairman or it having been ordered the members have acquiesced in it and thereafter it dawns on or strikes some of them to continue the business of the meeting then such continuance should be held to be invalid as being a surprise or a fraud on the members who may have already left the meeting.”

[1]      Sarbjit Singh Vs. All India Fine Arts & Crafts Society: ILR 1989-2 Del 585.

[2]      ILR 1989-2 Del 585

[3]      AIR 1966 SC 330

[4]      LR 2007 (1) Ker 10

[5]      See: Shackleton on Law and Practice of Meeting, Eighth Edition, Page 4,         Also Re British Sugar Refining Co. (1857) 3 K & J. 408.

[6]      Ninth Edition, in paragraph 5-08 (8)

[7]      AIR1962 All 439

[8]      Moran Mar Basselios Catholicos Vs. Thukalan Paulo Avira : AIR 1959 SC 31

[9]      1976 (3) SCC 344

[10]    (1998) 6 SCC 39

[11]    AIR 1954 SC 217

[12]    K. Nanu Vs. C.H. Kunhikrishna Kurup: 2013 Ker LJ 769.

[13]    K.  Nanu Vs. C.H. Kunhikrishna Kurup: 2013 Ker LJ 769;         See M.I. Builders Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Radhey Shyam Sahu- AIR 1999 SC 2468;        Kodiyathur Panchayath Vs. District Panchayath Officer 1977 KLT 80.

[14]    1974 Ker LT 731;         See also: Kodiyathur Panchath Vs.. District Panchayath Officer:  1977 Ker LT 80

[15]    See: Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings (Seventh Edition) Page 120;        Company meetings Law and Procedure by B. K. Sen Gupta (1985), Page 221

[16]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del  1031;        Girish Mulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[17]    Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings

[18]    AIR 1970 SC 1832;        Quoted in Kerala State Electricity Board Vs. Hindustan Construction Co.: AIR 2007 SC 425

[19]    Chetkar Jha Vs. Viswanath Prasad Verma:  1971 (1) SCR 586: AIR 1970 SC 1832.

[20]    AIR 2007 SC 425.        Referred to: Chetkar Jha Vs.Viswanath Prasad Verma: AIR 1970 SC 1832.

[21]    Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings

[22]    Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings

[23]    Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings

[24]    Shackleton on the Law and Practice of Meetings

[25]    Tenth Edition, at page 86: Quoted in Kerala State Electricity Board Vs. Hindustan Construction Co Ltd. AIR 2007 SC 425;        See also: (i) The Law and Procedure of Meetings by Matthew Moore, Lecturer in Law at Exeter College, Devon,        (ii) The Law of Meetings in India by Mr. B. A. Masodkar.        (iii) Principles of Statutory Interpretation by Guru Prasanna Singh.

[26]    Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay : AIR 1946 Bom  516,

[27]    1946 AIR Bom  516,

[28]    Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Addl Registrar Co-op Societies AIR1962 All 439;        J.N. Chaudhary Vs. State of Haryana (2014) 11 SCC 249; AIR1991 NOC 78

[29]    40 ER 852

[30]    (1904) AC 515

[31]    AIR 1931 Mad. 12.              

[32]    2007-4 Raj LW 3547

[33]    NF Barwell Vs. John Jackson: AIR 1948 All 146.        It is considered in Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar: AIR1959  All 598;        See also Jamiat Ulama Vs. Maulana Mahmood Asad Madni: ILR 2008 -17 Dlh 1950;        Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Addl Regtr Co-Op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439

[34]    AIR 1960 Raj 25

[35]    See also: John Vs. Rees: 1969 (2) All ER 274



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Synopsis.

  • 1.      Introduction
  • 2.      Expulsion, Strict Compliance of Rules Essential
  • 3.      Principles of Natural Justice
  • 4.      Three Principles of Law as to Enquiry
  • 5.      Judicial Review: Constraints
  • 6.      Courts’ Jurisdiction in Disciplinary Matters
  • 7.      Sources of Civil Court’s Jurisdiction
  • 8.      Natural Justice: Commonsense Justice
  • 9.      Natural Justice: Strict Compliance
  • 10.    Natural Justice: Rules and Subsidiary Rules
  • 11.    Natural Justice: Audi Alteram Partem – Requirements
  • 12.    Natural Justice: Courts Generally Read-Into the Provisions
  • 13.    Natural Justice: Recognized as part of Article 14
  • 14.    Hearing: Must be a Genuine Hearing
  • 15.    Natural Justice: Circumstances
  • 16.    Natural Justice: Not Unruly Horse
  • 17.    Natural Justice: Principles Undergone a Sea Change
  • 18.    Compliance of Substantive and Procedural Provisions
  • 19.    Natural Justice:  Laxity in Disciplinary Action
  • 20.    Natural Justice:  Laxity in Disciplinary Action
  • 21.    Natural Justice: Laxity in Domestic Tribunal
  • 22.    Natural Justice: Violation and Alternate Remedy:
  • 23.    Natural Justice: Administrative Process & Urgency
  • 24.    Natural Justice: Inordinate Delay in Disciplinary Proceedings
  • 25.    Charges Should Not be Vague
  • 26.    Court Jurisdiction – Expulsion in Violation of Natural Justice
  • 27.    Court’s Jurisdiction in Expulsion from a Political Party
  • 28.    Court Does Not Sit in Appeal
  • 29.    Appointment of Impartial Enquiry Officer
  • 30.    Ex-communication
  • 31.    Proof in Disciplinary Action
  • 32.    Misconduct in Labour Cases
  • 33.    Court Scrutinises Acts of Trustees
  • 34.    No Action against Trustees, if Bona Fide Act
  • 35.    Degree of Prudence Expected
  • 36.    Jurisdiction of Courts in Removal of Persons Holding Office
  • 37.    Breach of Bye-law or Mismanagement Entails removal
  • 38.    Trustees Actuated by Dishonest and Corrupt Motives
  • 39.    Misconduct or negligence
  • 40.    Claim of Adverse Title by a Trustee
  • 41.    Assertion of Private Ownership
  • 42.    If Trustees have Interest Adverse to Beneficiaries
  • 43.    District Courts’ Jurisdiction under S R Act, Limited
  • 44.    Court Examines Reasons of Supersession of Societies
  • 45.    Non-Payment of Subscription: Not Amount to Resignation
  • 46.    No expulsion for arrears  if no notice
  • 47.    Office-Bearer Can be Removed by No-Confidence Motion
  • 48.    Office-Bearer – Removal by Motion of No-confidence
  • 39.    Removal of Earlier Committee

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act, 1860:

  • 1. Societies formed by memorandum of association and registration
  •  Any seven or more persons associated for any literary, scientific, or charitable purpose, or for any such purpose as is described in section 20 of this Act, may, by subscribing their names to a memorandum of association, and filing the same with Registrar of Joint-stock Companies [..] form themselves into a society under this Act.
  • 2. Memorandum of association
  • The memorandum of association shall contain the following things, that is to say, the name of the society; the object of the society; the names, addresses, and occupations of the governors, council, directors, committee, or other governing body to whom, by the rules of the society, the management of its affairs is entrusted. A copy of the rules and regulations of the society, certified to be a correct copy by not less than three of the members of the governing body, shall be filed with the memorandum of association.
  • 15. Member defined: For the purposes of this Act a member of a society shall be a person who, having been admitted therein according to the rules and regulations thereof, shall have paid a subscription, or shall have signed the roll or list of members thereof, and shall not have resigned in accordance with such rules and regulations;
  • Disqualified members: But in all proceedings under this Act no person shall be entitled to vote or be counted as a member whose subscription at the time shall have been in arrears for a period exceeding three months

Introduction

The associations have the right to manage their affairs by themselves. They have the right to enforce the internal discipline even by expelling an erring member.

Since expulsion of a member from society or club visits him with harsh adversities, it will always be an exceptional decision and ithas to be taken only in exceptional circumstances. It has to be done cautiously and after due considerations. And, it should also be strictly in accordance with law.

In Halsbury’s Laws of England[1] it is stated:

  • “201. Expulsion. As a society is founded on a written contract expressing the terms on which the members associate together, there is no inherent power to expel a member, and a member may not therefore be expelled unless the rules provide that power. Any power of expulsion must be exercised in good faith, for the benefit of the society and strictly in accordance with the rules. If rules give the committee or some other authority power to expel a member for some act of disobedience or misconduct on his part, its decision cannot be questioned, provided the decision is arrived at after the member’s defense has been heard or he has been given an opportunity of being heard. If a member is not given the opportunity the decision will be null and void. If the rules have been strictly observed, and the member has had due notice and full opportunity of answering the charges made against him and the power of expulsion has been exercised in good faith and for a reason which is not manifestly absurd, no tribunal can interfere to prevent the expulsion”.

Expulsion, Strict Compliance of Rules Essential

Strict compliance of Rules and bye laws is essential for expulsion of a member from a society.[2] In the celebrated decision, TP DaverVs. Lodge Victoria,[3] the Supreme Court held:

  • “4. The source of the power of associations like clubs and lodges to expel their members is the contract on the basis of which they become members. This principle has been restated by Lord Morton in Bonsor v. Musicians’ Union. There, one Bonsor, who became a member of a trade union, was expelled. In that context Lord Morton observed:‘When Mr. Bonsor applied to join the respondent union, and his application was accepted, a contract came into existence between Mr. Bonsor and the respondent, whereby Mr. Bonsor agreed to abide by the rules of the respondent union, and the union impliedly agreed that Mr. Bonsor would not be excluded by the union or its officers otherwise than in accordance with the rules’.
  • This contractual origin of the rule of expulsion has its corollary in the cognate rule that in expelling a member the conditions laid down in the rules must be strictly complied- with. In Maclean v. The Workers’ Union, the contractual foundation of the power is described thus:‘In such a case as the present, where the tribunal is the result of rules adopted by persons who have formed the association known as a trade union, it seems to me reasonably clear that the rights of the plaintiff against the defendants must depend simply on the contract, and that the material terms of the contract must be found in the rules’.
  • Proceeding on that basis, the learned Judge observed:‘It is certain, therefore, that a domestic tribunal is bound to act strictly according to its rules and is under an obligation to act honestly and in good faith.’
  • The same idea was expressed by the Calcutta High Court in Ezra Vs. Mahendra Nath Banerji thus: ‘where the rule provides in any particular respect that some condition must be fulfilled, then that condition must be strictly complied with, since the power of expulsion is itself dependent on the terms of the rule’. 
  • The next question is whether the doctrine of strict compliance with rules implies that every minute deviation from the rules, whether substantial or not, would render the act of such a body void. The answer to this question will depend upon the nature of the rule infringed; whether a rule is mandatory or directory depends upon each rule, the purpose for which it is made and the setting in which it appears. 
  • 8. The following principles may be gathered from the above discussion.
  • (1) A member of a Masonic lodge is bound to abide by the rules of the lodge; and if the rules provide for expulsion, he shall be expelled only in the manner provided by the rules.[4]
  •  (2) The lodge is bound to act strictly according to the rules, whether a particular rule is mandatory or directory falls to be decided in each case, having regard to the well settled rules of construction in that regard.
  •  (3) The jurisdiction of a civil court is rather limited; it cannot obviously sit as a court of appeal from decisions of such a body; it can set aside the order of such a body, if the said body acts without jurisdiction or does not act in good faith or acts in violation of the principles of natural justice as explained in the decisions cited supra.”[5]

Principles of Natural Justice

In AR Antulay Vs. RS Nayak[6] a seven Judge Bench of our Apex CourtCourt has held that when an order has been passed in violation of a fundamental right or in breach of the principles of natural justice, the same would be nullity.[7]

The Supreme Court in SL Kapur Vs. Jagmohan[8] held as under:

  • “In our view the principles of natural justice know of no exclusionary rule dependent on whether it would have made any difference if natural justice had been observed. The non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice to any man and proof of prejudice independently of proof of denial of natural justice is unnecessary. It ill comes from a person who has denied justice that the person who has been denied justice is not prejudiced.”

The principles of law as to natural justice, to be applied in an action for termination of an employee, are applied in the matter of expulsion of a member of a society also.

Three Principles of Law as to Enquiry

Following are the three important principles of law as to enquiry:

  • (i)   It should be on proper charge or show cause notice[9]
  • (ii)  Finding should be based on proper evidence.[10]
  • (iii) Natural justice should be complied with.          

When a member is expelled on the allegation of violation of Rules,the Rules violated has to be cited in the show-cause notice.[11]

It is laid down by our courts that preliminary enquiry cannot be the basis of findings for punishment[12]and that collection of materials from outside sources by enquiry officer vitiates enquiry. The enquiry officer is also not expected to travel beyond charges.[13] Granting opportunity for cross examination is integral part of natural justice.[14]

Judicial Review: Constraints

The disciplinary authority is the sole judge of facts.[15]

The jurisdiction of the courts to interfere with the decision of the domestic[16] or departmental authorities is limited. It was not for the Court to consider whether the ground adopted by the tribunal or authority alone would have been sufficient to bring home the action imposed.

The court, while exercising the power of judicial review, cannot substitute its own conclusion on penalty and impose some other penalty. But, in proper cases the court or tribunal would remit[17] the matter to the concerned authority to impose appropriate punishment or appropriately mould the relief, either directing the disciplinary/appellate authority to reconsider the penalty imposed, or to shorten the litigation; it may itself, in exceptional and rare cases, impose appropriate punishment with cogent reasons in support thereof.[18]

Courts’ Jurisdiction in Disciplinary Matters

The courts have jurisdiction in the actions of the disciplinary authority in the following circumstances:

  • (i)    Actions without jurisdiction;[19]
  • (ii)   Acts not in good faith;[20]
  • (iii) The findings, prima facie, did not make out a case of misconduct,[21] or without evidence[22]  and utterly perverse;[23]
  • (iv) The proceedings were held in violation of the principle of natural justice,[24]such as noproper charge or vague charge,[25] full opportunity had not been given to the employee to meet the charge, etc.;
  • (v)   The proceedings were in violation of the statutory Regulations[26] or Rules[27] prescribing the mode of enquiry;
  • (vi) The decision is vitiated on the principle of perversity.[28]
  • (vii) Punishment imposed shocks the conscience of the Court.[29]
  • (ix) The appellate authority had not adverted to the relevant facts;[30]
  • (x)   Punishment without sufficient reasons or valid grounds.[31]
  • (xi)  Without any credible material.[32]

While dealing with CP and Berar Municipalities Act, it is held by the Full Bench in Municipal Commissioner, Kareli Vs. State of MP[33] that the Court has power to examine the sufficiency of reasons. It was observed:

  • “In a democratic society it is of the essence that democratic institutions are allowed to function and not superseded on trumpery charges inadequately brought home or unreasonably accepted. The Courts will be vigilant to see that such over-reaching powers are kept within the four corners of the statute granting them. We think that the fact that a reasonable opportunity to show cause has been made a condition precedent to the exercise of the power and that reasons for the supersession have to be notified to the electorate shows that there is not to be a subjective appraisal but that the reasons must be sufficient under the Act and an objective test is indicated. The requirements of the law are not satisfied by accepting insufficient or inadequate reasons for supersession. We think that the Courts are at liberty to examine the reasons for this limited purpose in addition to the purposes which the learned Judges of the earlier Division Bench (Mangalmurti and Mudholkar JJ.) have already indicated in their order.”

Participation of a delinquent in the inquiry by itself does not absolve management from the blemish of bringing a defective charge.[34]

Where punishment imposed shocks the conscience of the Court,[35] the court or tribunal would, in proper cases, appropriately mould the relief, either directing the disciplinary/appellate authority to reconsider the penalty imposed; or to shorten the litigation, it may itself, in exceptional and rare cases, impose appropriate punishment with cogent reasons in support thereof.

Sources of Civil Court’s Jurisdiction

The jurisdiction of a civil court to interfere with the internal affairs of associations is ‘rather limited’.[36] Courts get jurisdiction to interfere with the internal affairs of associations if there are cogent grounds such as acts without jurisdiction, acts in violation of the principles of natural justice, acts with malafides, etc.[37]Beyond the general jurisdiction of courts to intervene and set right illegalities, the jurisdiction thereof is obtained by Courts from three sources: 

  • (i)    contract,[38]
  • (ii)   court is the protector of all charities[39] and
  • (iii) formation of associations is, besides common law right as well as statutory right, a fundamental right[40] protected by our courts.

Courts will not delve in the internal disputes of an association[41] unless it is shown[42] that the aggrieved parties have worked out and exhausted their remedies[43] (but, failed to resolve disputes)under the bye laws, before (a) the machinery or body (domestic tribunals)[44], if any,  provided in its bye laws,[45] or (b) the body or authority which has to take cognisance of the matter, under the scheme of its bye laws, or (c) the authorities under the statute, if any, holds the field.[46]

Natural Justice: Commonsense Justice

See Chapter: Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs

Natural Justice: Strict Compliance

Natural justice has been variously defined. It is another name for common sense justice. It is held in Canara Bank v. Debasis Das:[47]

  • “Rules of natural justice are not codified canons. But they are principles ingrained into the conscience of man. Natural justice is the administration of justice in a common sense liberal way. Justice is based substantially on natural ideals and human values. The administration of justice is to be freed from the narrow and restricted considerations which are usually associated with a formulated law involving linguistic technicalities and grammatical niceties. It is the substance of justice which has to determine its form. Principles of natural justice are those rules which have been laid down by the courts as being the minimum protection of the rights of the individual against the arbitrary procedure that may be adopted by a judicial, quasi-judicial and administrative authority while making an order affecting those rights. These rules are intended to prevent such authority from doing injustice.”[48]

In this decision it is also held:

  •        “Even an administrative order which involves civil consequences[49] must be consistent with the rules of natural justice. This Court has elaborated the expression `civil consequence’ by observing that it encompasses infraction of not merely property or personal rights but of civil liberties, material deprivations and non-pecuniary damages. This Court has further stated, that, in its wide umbrella comes everything that affects a citizen in civil life.”[50]

Removal of a member or an office bearer of a society on the basis of proved misconduct[51] is a quasi-judicial proceeding in nature. Therefore, the principles of natural justice[52] are required to be given full play and strict compliance should be ensured, even in the absence of any provision providing for the same. Principles of natural justice require a fair opportunity of defense to such member or office bearer.

In Board of High School and Intermediate Education, UP Vs. Ghanshyam Das Gupta[53] the Supreme Court observed as follows:

  • If a statutory authority has power to do any act which will prejudicially affect the subject then, although there are not two parties apart from the authority and the contest is between the authority proposing to do the act and the subject opposing it, the final determination of the authority will yet be a quasi-judicial act provided the authority is required by the Statute to act judicially. The statute is not likely to provide in so many words that the authority passing the order is required to act judicially; that can only be inferred from the express provisions of the statute in the first instance in each case and no one circumstance alone will be determinative of the question whether the authority set up by the statute has the duty to act judicially or not. The inference whether the authority acting under a statute where it is silent has the duty to act judicially will depend on the express provisions of the statute read along with the nature of the rights affected, the manner of the disposal provided the objective criterion if any to be adopted, the effect of the decision on the person affected and other indicia afforded by the statute. A duty to act judicially may arise in widely different circumstances which it will be impossible and indeed inadvisable to attempt to define exhaustively.”[54]

Any breach of a bye-law would not result into automatic cessation of membership but the procedure for removal or expulsion from membership would be required to be followed even in case of breach of bye-laws of a society.[55]

When a committee of an association continues to exercise powers even after cessation of their period of office opportunity of being heard should be given to the members of the committee concerned.[56] It is well settled that principles of natural justice must be read into the byelaws and the statute, unless there is a clear directive to the contrary.[57]

Natural Justice: Rules and Subsidiary Rules

Formerly, only two rules were recognised:

  • (1) Nemo debet esse judex propria causa
  • (2) Audi alteram partem

Subsequently, more subsidiary rules were recognized, such as:

  • Without bias
  • Right to reasons.

Our Apex Court expounds the purport and extent of principles of natural justice in A.K. KraipakVs. Union of India[58] as under:

  • “The aim of the rules of natural justice is to secure justice or to put it negatively to prevent miscarriage of justice. These rules can operate only in areas not covered by any law validly made. In other words they do not supplant the law of the land but supplement it. The concept of natural justice has undergone a great deal of change in recent years. In the past it was thought that it included just two rules namely:
  • (1) no one shall be a judge in his own case (Nemo debet esse judex propria causa) and (2) no decision shall be given against a party without affording him a reasonable hearing (Audi alteram partem).
  • Very soon thereafter a third rule was envisaged and that is that quasi-judicial enquiries must be held in good faith, without bias and not arbitrarily or unreasonably. But in the course of years many more subsidiary rules came to be added to the rules of natural justice.
  • Right to reasons is an indispensable part of a sound system of judicial review. Under our Constitution an administrative decision is subject to judicial review if it affects the right of a citizen, it is therefore desirable that reasons should be stated.”

Natural Justice: Audi AlteramPartem – Requirements

  • Charge/show cause notice;
  • Examination of witnesses and opportunity to cross-examine;
  • Opportunity to the delinquent to examine witnesses including himself; and
  • Findings with reasons.

It is observed in Sur Enamel and Stamping Works Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Their Workmen:[59]

  • “… An enquiry cannot be said to have been properly held unless,
  • the employee proceeded against has been informed clearly of the charges leveled against him,[1]
  • (ii) the witnesses are examined ­ ordinarily in the presence of the employee ­ in respect of the charges, 
  • the employee is given a fair opportunity to cross-examine witnesses,
  • he is given a fair opportunity to examine witnesses including himself in his defense if he so wishes on any relevant matter, and
  • the inquiry officer records his findings with reasons for the same in his report.”

In Chamoli District Co-Operative Bank Ltd. Vs. Raghunath Singh Rana[60] our Apex Court laid down that the following principles would emerge as to the enquiry against a workman: 

  • “(i) The enquiries must be conducted bona fide and care must be taken to see that the enquiries do not become empty formalities.
  • (ii) If an officer is a witness to any of the incidents which is the subject matter of the enquiry or if the enquiry was initiated on a report of an officer, then in all fairness he should not be the Enquiry Officer. If the said position becomes known after the appointment of the Enquiry Officer, during the enquiry, steps should be taken to see that the task of holding an enquiry is assigned to some other officer. 
  •  (iii) In an enquiry, the employer/department should take steps first to lead evidence against the workman/delinquent charged and give an opportunity to him to cross-examine the witnesses of the employer. Only thereafter, the workman/delinquent be asked whether he wants to lead any evidence and asked to give any explanation about the evidence led against him. 
  • (iv) On receipt of the enquiry report, before proceeding further, it is incumbent on the part of the disciplinary/punishing authority to supply a copy of the enquiry report and all connected materials relied on by the enquiry officer to enable him to offer his views, if any.”

In this case (Chamoli District Co-operative Bank Ltd. Vs. Raghunath Singh Rana) our Apex Court referred to the following decisions:

  • (i)   Sur Enamel and Stamping Works Pvt. Ltd. Vs.Their Workmen.[61]
  • (ii) State Bank of India Vs. R.K. Jain.[62]  It is held: “……As emphasised by this Court in Ananda Bazar Patrika Vs.. Its Workmen, (1964) 3 SCR 601, the termination of an employee’s service must be preceded by a proper domestic inquiry held in accordance with the rules of natural justice. Therefore, it is evident that if the inquiry is vitiated by violation of the principles of natural justice or if no reasonable opportunity was provided to a delinquent to place his defense, it cannot be characterized as a proper domestic inquiry held in accordance with the rules of natural justice ……”
  • (iii) State of Uttranchal Vs. Kharak Singh.[63] It is held: “… … If an officer himself sees the misconduct of a workman, it is desirable that the enquiry should be left to be held by some other person who does not claim to be an eye-witness of the impugned incident. As we have repeatedly emphasised, domestic enquiries must be conducted honestly and bona fide with a view to determine whether the charge framed against a particular employee is proved or not, and so, care must be taken to see that these enquiries do not become empty formalities.  …  ….. It is necessary to emphasise that in domestic enquiries, the employer should take steps first to lead evidence against the workman charged, give an opportunity to the workman to cross-examine the said evidence and then should the workman be asked whether he wants to give any explanation about the evidence led against him. It seems to us that it is not fair in domestic enquiries against industrial employees that at the very commencement of the enquiry, the employee should be closely cross-examined even before any other evidence is led against him……” Followed Associated Cement Co. Ltd. Vs.The Workmen.[64]
  • (iv) ECIL Vs. B. Karunakar.[65]It is held:  “(1) Where the enquiry officer is other than the disciplinary authority, the disciplinary proceedings break into two stages. The first stage ends when the disciplinary authority arrives at its conclusions on the basis of the evidence, enquiry officer’s report and the delinquent employee’s reply to it. The second stage begins when the disciplinary authority decides to impose penalty on the basis of its conclusions. If the disciplinary authority decides to drop the disciplinary proceedings, the second stage is not even reached. While the right to represent against the findings in the report is part of the reasonable opportunity available during the first stage of the inquiry viz., before the disciplinary authority takes into consideration the findings in the report, the right to show cause  against the penalty proposed belongs to the second stage when the disciplinary authority has considered the findings in the report and has come to the conclusion with regard to the guilt of the employee and proposes to award penalty on the basis of its conclusions. The first right is the right to prove innocence. The second right is to plead for either no penalty or a lesser penalty although the conclusion regarding the guilt is accepted.
  •          It is the second right exercisable at the second stage which was taken away by the Forty-second Amendment. The second stage consists of the issuance of the notice to show cause against the proposed penalty and of considering the reply to the notice and deciding upon the penalty. What is dispensed with is the opportunity of making representation on the penalty proposed and not of opportunity of making representation on the report of the enquiry officer. The latter right was always there. ….. 
  •          Article 311(2) says that the employee shall be given a “reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of the charges against him”. ….  Hence, when the enquiry officer is not the disciplinary authority, the delinquent employee has a right to receive a copy of the enquiry officer’s report before the disciplinary authority arrives at its conclusions with regard to the guilt or innocence of the employee with regard to the charges leveled against him. That right is a part of the employee’s right to defend himself against the charges leveled against him. A denial of the enquiry officer’s report before the disciplinary authority takes its decision on the charges, is a denial of reasonable opportunity to the employee to prove his innocence and is a breach of the principles of natural justice.”
  • (v) Radhey Shyam Gupta Vs. U.P. State Agro Industries Corporation.[66]It is held in this decision: “34. But in cases where the termination is preceded by an enquiry and evidence is received and findings as to misconduct of a definitive nature are arrived at behind the back of the officer and where on the basis of such a report, the termination order is issued, such an order will be violative of the principles of natural justice inasmuch as the purpose of the enquiry is to find out the truth of the allegations with a view to punish him and not merely to gather evidence for a future regular departmental enquiry. In such cases, the termination is to be treated as based or founded upon misconduct and will be punitive. ….”
  • (vi) Syndicate Bank Vs. Venkatesh Gururao Kurati.[67]It is held: “18. In our view, non-supply of documents on which the enquiry officer does not rely during the course of enquiry does not create any prejudice to the delinquent. It is only those documents, which are relied upon by the enquiry officer to arrive at his conclusion, the non-supply of which would cause prejudice, being violative of principles of natural justice. Even then, the non-supply of those documents prejudice the case of the delinquent officer must be established by the delinquent officer. It is well-settled law that the doctrine of principles of natural justice are not embodied rules. It cannot be put in a strait jacket formula. It depends upon the facts and circumstances of each case. To sustain the allegation of violation of principles of natural justice, one must establish that prejudice has been caused to him for non-observance of principles of natural justice.”

No order can be passed behind the back of a person adversely affecting him; and such an order if passed, is liable to be ignored being not binding on such a party as the same has been passed in violation of the principles of natural justice.[68] Failure to supply the delinquent the documents, on the basis of which charges were framed, along with the charge-sheet, amounts to non observance of natural justice.[69]

Natural Justice: Courts Generally Read-Into the Provisions

Even if the statute does not provide for notice, it is incumbent upon the quasi-judicial authority to issue a notice to the concerned persons disclosing the circumstances under which proceedings are sought to be initiated against them, failing which the conclusion would be that principle of natural justice are violated.[70] Courts generally read into[71] the provisions of the relevant sections a requirement of giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard before an order is made which would have adverse civil consequences for the parties affected.[72]

It is held in C.B. GautamVs. Union of India:

  • “The observance of principles of natural justice is the pragmatic requirement of fair play in action. In our view, therefore, the requirement of an opportunity to show cause being given before an order for purchase by the Central Government is made by an appropriate authority under Section 269 -UD must be read into the provisions of Chapter XX -C. There is nothing in the language of Section 269 -UD or any other provision in the said Chapter which would negate such an opportunity being given. Moreover, if such a requirement were not read into the provisions of the said Chapter, they would be seriously open to challenge on the ground of violations of the provisions of Article 14 on the ground of non-compliance with principles of natural justice.”[73]

Natural Justice: Recognized as part of Article 14

In Union of India Vs. Tulsiram Patel[74]the Supreme Court declared that principles of natural justice have now come to be recognized as being a part of the constitutional guarantee contained in Article 14 of the Constitution.[75]

Hearing: Must be a Genuine Hearing

The Supreme Court, in Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India,[76] has held that the person affected must have a reasonable opportunity of being heard and the hearing must be a genuine hearing and not an empty public relations exercise.

Authority has to Apply its Mind

In Ravi Yashwant BhoirVs. Chief Minister[77] the Supreme Court observed: 

  • ”34. In a democratic institution like ours, the incumbent is entitled to hold the office for the term for which he has been elected unless his election is set aside by a prescribed procedure known to law or he is removed by the procedure established under law. The proceedings for removal must satisfy the requirement of natural justice and the decision must show that the authority has applied its mind to the allegations made and the explanation furnished by the elected office-bearer sought to be removed.”

Natural Justice: Requirements Depend Upon the Circumstances

Principles of natural justice are neither treated with absolute rigidity nor as imprisoned in a straight-jacket. It   has   many facets. Sometimes, this doctrine is applied in a broad way, sometimes in a limited or narrow manner.[78]

Applicability and requirements of natural justice depend upon the circumstances of the case [79] and it is not possible to lay down rigid rules as to when the principles of natural justice are to apply; nor as to their scope and extent.  Everything depends on the subject-matter.[80]  Whether an order in violation of natural justice is bad or not is depended on facts and circumstances of each case.[81] Its essence is good consciousness in a given situation; nothing more but nothing less.[82]

In Keshav Mills Co Ltd. Vs. Union of India, AIR 1973  SC 389 it is held:

  • “… We do not think it either feasible or even desirable to lay down any fixed or rigorous yard-stick in this manner. The concept of Natural Justice cannot be put into a straight-jacket. It is futile, therefore, to look for definitions or standards of Natural Justice from various decisions and then try to apply them to the facts of any given case. The only essential point that has to be kept in mind in all cases is that the person concerned should have a reasonable opportunity of presenting his case and that the administrative authority concerned should act fairly, impartially and reasonably…”

Natural Justice: Not Unruly Horse & Doctrine of ‘Straight-Jacket’

Natural justice is not an unruly horse, no lurking landmine, nor a judicial cure-all.It is well settled that natural justice cannot be placed in a straight-jacket; its rules are not embodied and they do vary from case to case and from one fact-situation to another.[83]

It was observed by our Apex Court in Suresh Koshy George Vs. University of Kerala[84] that the rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. What particular rule of natural justice should apply to a given case must depend to a great extent on the facts and circumstances of that case, the framework of the law under which the enquiry is held and the constitution of the Tribunal or body of persons appointed for that purpose. Whenever a complaint is made before a court that some principle of natural justice had been contravened the court has to decide whether the observance of that rule was necessary for a just decision on the facts of that case.

In Chairman, Board of Mining Examination Vs. Ramjee,[85] V.R. Krishna Iyer, J. observed as under:

  • “Natural justice is no unruly horse, no lurking land mine, nor a judicial cure-all. If fairness is shown by the decision-maker to the man proceeded against, the form, features and the fundamentals of such essential processual propriety being conditioned by the facts and circumstances of each situation, no breach of natural justice can be complained of. Unnatural expansion of natural justice without reference to the administrative realities and other factors of a given case, can be exasperating. We can neither be financial nor fanatical but should be flexible yet firm in this jurisdiction. No man shall be hit below the belt – that is the conscience of the matter.”

In Union of India Vs. P K Roy,[86] V. Ramaswami, J. observed:

  • “But the extent and application of the doctrine of natural justice cannot be imprisoned within the straight jacket of a rigid formula. The application of the doctrine depends upon the nature of the jurisdiction conferred on the administrative authority, upon the character of the rights of the persons affected, the scheme and policy of the statute and other relevant circumstances disclosed in the particular case.”

Natural Justice: Principles Undergone a Sea Change

Natural Justice& Principle of ‘No Prejudice’

Denial of natural justice ‘itself causes prejudice’ was the uniformly followed legal concept in early times. It is pointed out in Gulab Babusaheb Bargiri Vs. Executive Engineer, Maharashtra State Electricity Board[87]  that after Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India,[88] the principle of natural justice has undergone a sea change.

In PD Agrawal v. State Bank of India[89] the Apex Court observed that the principles of natural justice had undergone a sea change. Relying on State Bank of Patiala v. S.K. Sharma[90] and Rajendra Singh v. State of MP[91] the Court pointed out that principle of law was that some real prejudice must have been caused to the complainant. 

Analysing previous judgments it is observed in State of UP v. Sudhir Kumar Singh[92] that the following are the tests to determine the non-observance of natural justice:

  • “(1) Natural justice is a flexible tool in the hands of the judiciary to reach out in fit cases to remedy injustice. The breach of the audi alteram partem rule cannot by itself, without more, lead to the conclusion that prejudice is thereby caused.
  • (2) Where procedural and/or substantive provisions of law embody the principles of natural justice, their infraction per se does not lead to invalidity of the orders passed. Here again, prejudice must be caused to the litigant, except in the case of a mandatory provision of law which is conceived not only in individual interest, but also in public interest.
  • (3) No prejudice is caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice where such person does not dispute the case against him or it. This can happen by reason of estoppel, acquiescence, waiver and by way of non-challenge or non-denial or admission of facts, in cases in which the Court finds on facts that no real prejudice can therefore be said to have been caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice.
  • (4) In cases where facts can be stated to be admitted or indisputable, and only one conclusion is possible, the Court does not pass futile orders of setting aside or remand when there is, in fact, no prejudice caused. This conclusion must be drawn by the Court on an appraisal of the facts of a case, and not by the authority who denies natural justice to a person.
  • (5) The “prejudice” exception must be more than a mere apprehension or even a reasonable suspicion of a litigant. It should exist as a matter of fact, or be based upon a definite inference of likelihood of prejudice flowing from the non-observance of natural justice.”

PD AgrawalVs. State Bank[93] of India speaks as under:

  • “The principles of natural justice cannot be put in a straight jacket formula. It must be seen in circumstantial flexibility. It has separate facets. It has in recent time also undergone a sea change.
  • … In Ajit Kumar Nag vs. General Manager (PJ), Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd., Haldia,[94] a Three Judge Bench of this Court opined: “We are aware of the normal rule that a person must have a fair trial and a fair appeal and he cannot be asked to be satisfied with an unfair trial and a fair appeal. We are also conscious of the general principle that pre-decisional hearing is better and should always be preferred to post-decisional hearing. We are further aware that it has been stated that apart from Laws of Men, Laws of God also observe the rule of audi alteram partem. It has been stated that the first hearing in human history was given in the Garden of Eden. God did not pass sentence upon Adam and Eve before giving an opportunity to show cause as to why they had eaten the forbidden fruit. (See R. v. University of Cambridge) But we are also aware that the principles of natural justice are not rigid or immutable and hence they cannot be imprisoned in a straitjacket. They must yield to and change with exigencies of situations. They must be confined within their limits and cannot be allowed to run wild. It has been stated: ‘To do a great right after all, it is permissible sometimes to do a little wrong.’ [Per Mukharji, C.J. in Charan Lal Sahu v. Union of India (Bhopal Gas Disaster),[95] SCC p. 705, para 124.] While interpreting legal provisions, a court of law cannot be unmindful of the hard realities of life. In our opinion, the approach of the Court in dealing with such cases should be pragmatic rather than pedantic, realistic rather than doctrinaire, functional rather than formal and practical rather than ‘precedential’.
  • …Decision of this Court in S.L. Kapoor vs. Jagmohan  [(1980) 4 SCC 379], whereupon Mr. Rao placed strong reliance to contend that non-observance of principle of natural justice itself causes prejudice or the same should not be read “as it causes difficulty of prejudice”, cannot be said to be applicable in the instant case. The principles of natural justice, as noticed hereinbefore, has undergone a sea change. In view of the decision of this Court in State Bank of Patiala & Ors.vs. S.K. Sharma [(1996) 3 SCC 364] and Rajendra Singh vs. State of M.P. [(1996) 5 SCC 460], the principle of law is that some real prejudice must have been caused to the complainant. The Court has shifted from its earlier concept that even a small violation shall result in the order being rendered a nullity. To the principal doctrine of audialterempartem, a clear distinction has been laid down between the cases where there was no hearing at all and the cases where there was mere technical infringement of the principal. The Court applies the principles of natural justice having regard to the fact situation obtaining in each case. It is not applied in a vacuum without reference to the relevant facts and circumstances of the case. It is no unruly horse. It cannot be put in a straightjacket formula. [See VivekaNandSethi vs. Chairman, J. & K. Bank Ltd. & Ots. (2005) 5 SCC 337 and State of U.P. vs. Neeraj Awasthi & Ors.JT 2006 (1) SC 19. See also Mohd. Sartaj vs. State of U.P. (2006) 1 SCALE 265.]”

In Managing Director ECIL Hyderabad Vs. B Karunakar II[96] it is held:

  • “The next question to be answered is what is the effect on the order of punishment when the report of the enquiry officer is not furnished to the employee and what relief should be granted to him in such cases. The answer to this question has to be relative to the punishment awarded. When the employee is dismissed or removed from service and the inquiry is set aside because the report is not furnished to him, in some cases the non-furnishing of the report may have prejudiced him gravely while in other cases it may have made no difference to the ultimate punishment awarded to him. Hence to direct reinstatement of the employee with back-wages in all cases is to reduce the rules of justice to a mechanical ritual. The theory of reasonable opportunity and the principles of natural justice have been evolved to uphold the rule of law and to assist the individual to vindicate his just rights. They are not incantations to be invoked nor rites to be performed on all and sundry occasions. Whether in fact, prejudice has been caused to the employee or not on account of the denial to him of the report, has to be considered on the facts and circumstances of each case. Where, therefore, even after the furnishing of the report, no different consequence would have followed, it would be a perversion of justice to permit the employee to resume duty and to get all the consequential benefits. It amounts to rewarding the dishonest and the guilty and thus to stretching the concept of justice to illogical and exasperating limits. It amounts to an “unnatural expansion of natural justice” which in itself is antithetical to justice.”
  • “Hence, in all cases where the enquiry officer’s report is not furnished to the delinquent employee in the disciplinary proceedings, the Courts and Tribunals should cause the copy of the report to be furnished to the aggrieved employee if he has not already secured it before coming to the Court/ Tribunal and given the employee an opportunity to show how his or her case was prejudiced because of the non-supply of the report. If after hearing the parties, the Court/Tribunal comes to the conclusion that the non-supply of the report would have made no difference to the ultimate findings and the punishment given, the Court/Tribunal should not interfere with the order of punishment. The Court/ Tribunal should not mechanically set aside the order of punishment on the ground that the report was not furnished as it regrettably being done at present. The courts should avoid resorting to short cuts. Since it is the Courts/Tribunals which will apply their judicial mind to the question and give their reasons for setting aside or not setting aside the order of punishment, (and not any internal appellate or revisional authority), there would be neither a breach of the principles of natural justice nor a denial of the reasonable opportunity. It is only if the Court/Tribunal finds that the furnishing of the report would have made a difference to the result in the case that it should set aside the order of punishment.”

The Supreme Court has, in Uma Nath Pandey Vs. State of UP,[97] held as follows:

  • “The crucial question that remains to be adjudicated is whether principles of natural justice have been violated and if so, to what extent any prejudice has been caused, it may be noted at this juncture that in some cases it has been observed that where grant of opportunity in terms of principles of natural justice do not improve the situation, ‘useless formality theory’ can be pressed into service.”

It is further held in this decision as under: 

  • “8. Natural justice is another name for common sense justice. Rules of natural justice are not codified canons. But they are principles ingrained into the conscience of man. Natural justice is the administration of justice in a common sense liberal way. Justice is based substantially on natural ideals and human values. The administration of justice is to be freed from the narrow and restricted considerations which are usually associated with a formulated law involving linguistic technicalities and grammatical niceties. It is the substance of justice which has to determine its form.
  • 9. The expressions ‘natural justice’ and ‘legal justice’ do not present a watertight classification, It is the substance of justice which is to be secured by both, and whenever legal justice fails to achieve this solemn purpose, natural justice is called in aid of legal justice. Natural justice relieves legal justice from unnecessary technicality, grammatical pedantry or logical prevarication. It supplies the omissions of a formulated law. As Lord Buckmaster said, no form or procedure should ever be permitted to exclude the presentation of a litigant’s defense.
  • 10. The adherence to principles of natural justice as recognised by all civilised States is of supreme importance when a quasi-judicial body embarks on determining disputes between the parties, or any administrative action involving civil consequences; is in issue. These principles are well settled. The first and foremost principle is what is commonly known as audi alteram partem rule. It says that no one should be condemned unheard. Notice is the first limb of this principle. It must be precise and unambiguous. It should apprise the party determinatively of the case he has to meet. Time given for the purpose should be adequate so as to enable him to make his representation. In the absence of a notice of the kind and such reasonable opportunity, the order passed becomes wholly vitiated. Thus, it is but essential that a party should be put on notice of the case before any adverse order is passed against him. This is one of the most important principles of natural justice. It is after all an approved rule of fair play. The concept has gained significance and shades with time. When the historic document was made at Runnymede in 1215, the first statutory recognition of this principle found its way into the ‘Magna Carta’. The classic exposition of Sir Edward Coke of natural justice requires to ‘vocate, interrogate and adjudicate’. In the celebrated case of Cooper v. Wandsworth Board of Works the principle was thus stated: ‘(E)ven God himself did not pass sentence upon Adam before he was called upon to make his defense. “Adam” (says God), “Where art thou? Hast thou not eaten of, the tree whereof I commanded thee that thou shouldest not eat?”

In Dharampal Satyapal Ltd Vs. Deputy Commissioner of Central Excise, Gauhati[98] our Apex Court held:

  • “Even if it is found by the Court that there is a violation of principles of natural justice, the Courts have held that it may not be necessary to strike down the action and refer the matter back to the authorities to take fresh decision after complying with the procedural requirement in those cases where non-grant of hearing has not caused any prejudice to the person against whom the action is taken. Therefore, every violation of a facet of natural justice may not lead to the conclusion that order passed is always null and void. The validity of the order has to be decided on the touchstone of ‘prejudice’. The ultimate test is always the same, viz., the test of prejudice or the test of fair hearing.”

But, in this decision our Apex Court held that the administrative authority cannot jump over the compliance of the principles of natural justice on the ground that even if hearing had been provided it would have served no useful purpose and dispense with the requirement of issuing notice by itself deciding that no prejudice will be caused to the person against whom the action is contemplated.

  • “At the same time”, our Apex Court pointed out “it cannot be denied that as far as Courts are concerned, they are empowered to consider as to whether any purpose would be served in remanding the case keeping in mind whether any prejudice is caused to the person against whom the action is taken.”

In A.S. Motors Pvt. Ltd Vs. Union of India[99] our Apex court observed:

  • “What the Courts in essence look for in every case where violation of the principles of natural justice is alleged is whether the affected party was given reasonable opportunity to present its case and whether the administrative authority had acted fairly, impartially and reasonably. The doctrine of audi alteram partem is thus aimed at striking at arbitrariness and want of fair play. Judicial pronouncements on the subject have, therefore, recognised that the demands of natural justice may be different in different situations depending upon not only the facts and circumstances of each case but also on the powers and composition of the Tribunal and the rules and regulations under which it functions. A Court examining a complaint on violation of rules of natural justice is entitled to see whether the aggrieved party had indeed suffered any prejudice on account of such violation”.

Compliance of Substantive and Procedural Provisions

It is observed in KL KatyalVs. Central Secretariat Club (RC Lahoti, J.)[100]that the court may not interfere except in a clear case of violation of the provisions of the constitution or of the principles of natural justice.

In State Bank of India at Patialia Vs. SK Sharma[101]  it is held:

  • “(1) An order passed imposing a punishment on an employee consequent upon a disciplinary/departmental enquiry in violation of the rules/ regulations/ statutory provisions governing such enquiries should not be set aside automatically. The Court or the Tribunal should enquire whether (a) the provision violated is of a substantive nature or (b) whether it is procedural in character.”

The court held further:

  • “(2) A substantive provision has normally to be compliedwith as explained hereinbefore and the theory of substantial compliance of the test of prejudice would not be applicable in such a case.
  • (3) In case of violation of a procedural provision, the position is this: procedural provisions are generally meant for affording a reasonable and adequate opportunity to the delinquent officer/ employee. They are, generally speaking, conceived in his interest. Violation of any and every procedural provision cannot be said to automatically vitiate the enquiry held or order passed. Except cases falling under -“no notice”, “no opportunity” and “no hearing” categories, the complaint of violation of procedural provision should be examined from the point of view of prejudice, viz. whether such violation has prejudiced the delinquent officer employee in defending himself properly and effectively. If it is found that he has been so prejudiced, appropriate orders have to be made to repair and remedy the prejudice including setting aside the enquiry and/ or the order of punishment. If no prejudice is established to have resulted therefrom, it is obvious, no interference is called for. In this connection, it may be remembered that there may be certain procedural provisions which are of a fundamental character, whose violation is by itself proof of prejudice in such cases. As explained in the body of the judgment, take a case where there is a provision expressly providing that after the evidence of the employer/ government is over, the employee shall be given an opportunity to lead defense in his evidence, in a case, the enquiry officer does not give that opportunity in spite of the delinquent officer/ employee asking for it. The prejudice is self-evident. No proof of prejudice, i.e., whether the person has received a fair hearing considering all things. Now, this very aspect can also be looked at from the point of view of directory and mandatory provisions, if one is so inclined. The principle stated under (4) hereinbelow is only another way of looking at the same aspect as is dealt with herein and not a different or distinct principle.
  •  (4)(a) In the case of a procedural provision which is not of a mandatory character, the complaint of violation has to be examined from the standpoint of substantial compliance. Be that as it may, the order passed in violation of such a provision can be set aside only where such violation has occasioned prejudice to the delinquent employee.
  • (b) In the case of violation of a procedural provision, which is of a mandatory character, it has to be ascertained whether the provision is conceived in the interest of the persons proceeded against or in public interest. If it is found to be the former, then it must be seen whether the delinquent officer has waived the said requirement either expressly or by his conduct. If he is found to have waived it, then the order of punishment cannot be set aside on the ground of the said violation. If, on the other hand, it is found that the delinquent officer/ employee has not waived it or that the provision could not be waived by him, then the Court or Tribunal should make appropriate directions (include the setting aside of the order of punishment), keeping in mind the appropriate adopted by the Constitution Bench in B. Karunakar. The ultimate test is always the same, viz., test of prejudice or the test of fair hearing, as it may be called.
  • (5) Where the enquiry is not governed by any rules/ regulations/ statutory provisions and the only obligation is to observe the principles of natural justice or, for that matter, wherever such principles are held to be implied by the very nature and impact of the order/ action – the Court or the Tribunal should make a distinction between a total violation of natural justice (rule of audialteram pattern) and violation of a facet of the said rule, as explained in the body of the judgment. In other words, a distinction must be made between “no opportunity” and no adequate opportunity, i.e., between “no notice”/ “no hearing” and “no fair hearing”, (a) In the case of former, the order passed would undoubtedly be invalid (one may call it ‘void’ or a nullity if one chooses to). In such cases, normally, liberty will be reserved for the Authority to take proceedings afresh according to law, i.e., in accordance with the said rule (audi alteram partem). (b) But in the later cases, the effect of violation (of a facet of the rule of audi alteram partem) has to be examined from the standpoint of prejudice; in other words, what the Court or Tribunal has to see is whether in the totality of the circumstances, the delinquent officer/ employee did or did not have a fair hearing and the orders to be made shall depend upon the answer to the said query. (It is made clear that this principle (No. 5) does not apply in the case of rule against bias, the test in which behalf are laid down elsewhere.)
  • (6) While applying the rule of audi alteram partem (the primary principle of natural justice) the Court/ tribunal/authority must always bear in the ultimate and overriding objective underlying the said rule, viz., to ensure a fair hearing and to ensure that there is no failure of justice. It is this objective which should guide them in applying the rule to varying situations that arise before them.
  • (7) There may be situations where the interests of State or public interest may call for a curtailing of the rule of audi alteram partem. In such situations, the court may have to balance public/ State interest with the requirement of natural justice and arrive at an appropriate decision.”

Natural Justice:  Laxity in Disciplinary Action

In HiraNath Mishra Vs. The Principal, Rajendra Medical College, Ranchi[102] the Supreme Court examined the application of principles of natural justice in the context of an order that was passed by the Principal of a College expelling certain male students against whom grave misbehaviour towards the girls had been alleged. The Enquiry Committee had not recorded the statements of the girl students in the presence of the male students. After making necessary enquiry, the Committee found that the male students were guilty of misconduct and recommended that they should be expelled. Acting on this report, the Principal passed the order of expulsion. The Supreme Court held that in such circumstances, the requirement of natural justice was fulfilled.

In Avinash NagraVs. Novodaya Vidyalaya Samiti[103]  also the Supreme Court upheld dispensing with a regular enquiry in the matter of misbehaviour of a teacher against a girl student and observed that the denial of cross-examination did not vitiate the enquiry on the ground of violation of principles of natural justice.

Natural Justice:  Laxity in Disciplinary Action of a Voluntary Association

The executive committee of a voluntary association cannot be put on par with a Court or a Tribunal when dealing with the disciplinary matters concerning the membership of the Body. They have very wide latitude in deciding as to when disciplinary action is warranted. The procedure to be followed by such an association also cannot be that which is normally expected to be followed in a Court, or a Tribunal. Even principles of natural justice are not required to be applied with the same degree of rigour as they would be in the case of adjudication before a Court or a Tribunal.[104]

In Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab and Haryana[105] it is observed:

  • “So if the statute which authorises compulsory amalgamation of Co-operative Societies provides for notice to the societies concerned, the requirement of natural justice is fully satisfied. The notice to the society will be deemed as notice to all its members. That is why S. 13(9)(a) provides for the issue of notice to the societies and not to individual members. S.13(9)(b), however, provides the members also with an opportunity to be heard if they desire to be heard. Notice to individual members of a Co-operative society, in our opinion, is opposed to the very status of a Co-operative society as a body corporate and is, therefore, unnecessary. We do not consider it necessary to further elaborate the matter except to point out that a member who objects to the proposed amalgamation within the prescribed time is given, by S. 31(11), the option to walk-out, as it were, by withdrawing his share, deposits or loans as the case may be.”

Natural Justice: Laxity in Deptl. Proceedings & Domestic Tribunal

It is well settled law that strict rules of the Evidence Act, and the standard of proof envisaged therein, do not apply to departmental proceedings or domestic tribunal.[106] A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure.[107]

But in Bareilly Electricity Supply Co. Ltd. Vs. The Workmen,[108] the Supreme Court observed that the application of the principles of natural justice does not imply that what is not evidence can be acted upon. It was pointed out that the minutes of the meeting could not have been relied upon when neither the original was produced nor was any justification put forth for the absence of the signed copy of the original.

Natural Justice: Violation and  Alternate Remedy:

Courts will not delve in the internal disputes of an association unless it is shown[109] that the aggrieved parties have worked out and exhausted[110] their remedies (but, failed to resolve disputes) under the bye laws, before: (a) the machinery or body (domestic tribunals), if any,  provided in its bye laws,[111] or (b) the body or authority which has to take cognizance of the matter, under the scheme of its bye laws, or (c) the authorities under the statute, if any, holds the field.[112] But, the rule of exhaustion of alternate remedy does not apply if there is violation of principle of natural justice,[113] as action in violation of natural justice is void.[114]

In Titaghur Paper Mills Company Ltd. Vs. State of Orissa[115] though the appellant pleaded that there was violation of natural justice and the impugned order was without jurisdiction, the Supreme Court held that the petitioner should avail his alternate remedy of appeal.

In Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath[116] it is held:

  • “In our opinion, the High Court was not right in interfering with the process of election especially when the process of election had started upon publication of the election program on 27th January, 2011 and more particularly when an alternative statutory remedy was available to Respondent No.1 by way of referring the dispute to the Central Government as per the provisions of Section 5 of the Act read with Regulation 20 of the Regulations.”

With respect to election to the office of Chairman of a Panchayat Union under the Tamil Nadu Panchayats Act, 1958 it was held in S.T. MuthusamiVs. K. Natarajan[117]  that election petition is an effective alternative remedy.  Umesh Shivappa AmbiVs. Angadi Shekara Basappa[118] is a case relating to election of the President, Vice – President and Chairman, etc. under the Karnataka Co-operative Societies Act, wherein our Apex Court reversed the judgment with the observation:

  • “Once an election is over, the aggrieved candidate will have to pursue his remedy in accordance with the provisions of law and the High Court will not ordinarily interfere with the elections under Article 226. The High Court will not ordinarily interfere where there is an appropriate or equally efficacious remedy available, particularly in relation to election disputes.”[119]

Natural Justice: Administrative Process & Urgency

The maxim audi alteram partem cannot be invoked if the import of such maxim would have the effect of paralyzing the administrative process or where the need for promptitude or the urgency so demands. In Ajit Kumar Nag v. General Manager (PJ), Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd., Haldia[120] it is held that the approach of the Court in dealing with such cases should be pragmatic rather than pedantic, realistic rather than doctrinaire, functional rather than formal and practical rather than precedential. The concept of natural justice sometimes requires flexibility in the application of the rule.[121]

Natural Justice: Inordinate Delay in Disciplinary Proceedings

Unexplained and unjustifiable long delay in initiating and in conducting departmental disciplinary proceedings will result in causing great prejudice to the person against whom such a proceeding is initiated and it will be a ground for quashing the proceedings.[122]

Right of Appeal: Not an Ingredient of Natural Justice

Right of Appeal is a creation of statute.[123] Right to appeal is neither an absolute right[124] nor an ingredient of natural justice.[125] It must be conferred by statute and can be exercised only as permitted by statute.[126]If the legislature provides for no appeal in a particular case, or provides for an appeal subject to certain conditions, it is a piece of proper legislation. Even if a statute denied right of appeal, the same cannot be said to be a bad legislation.[127]

Charges Should Not be Vague

The charges should be specific, definite and giving details of the incident which formed the basis of charges and no enquiry can be sustained on vague charges.[128] In Surath Chandra Chakravarty Vs. The State of West Bengal[129] our Apex Court held that it is not permissible to hold an enquiry on vague charges, as the same do not give a clear picture to the delinquent to make out an effective defense as he will be unaware of the exact nature of the allegations against him, and what kind of defense he should put up or rebuttal thereof.

The Court observed as under: 

  • “The grounds on which it is proposed to take action have to be reduced to the form of a definite charge or charges which have to be communicated to the person charged together with a statement of the allegations on which each charge is based and any other circumstance which it is proposed to be taken into consideration in passing orders has to be stated. This rule embodies a principle which is one of the specific contents of a reasonable or adequate opportunity for defending oneself. If a person is not told clearly and definitely what the allegations are on which the charges preferred against him are founded, he cannot possibly, by projecting his own imagination, discover all the facts and circumstances that may be in the contemplation of the authorities to be established against him.”[130]

In Sawai Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan[131]our Apex Court found that charges were vague and it was difficult to meet the charges. Therefore although the concerned delinquent had participated in the inquiry, the Court opined that participation by itself does not exonerate the department to bring home the charge.

Civil Court has Jurisdiction when Expulsion in Violation of Natural Justice

Where a member of an association is expelled without observing the principles of natural justice,[132] or where a club had followed a procedure not warranted by the Rules of the Club,[133] the civil court will have the jurisdiction to interfere.[134]

In State of Kerala Vs. M/s N. Ramaswami Iyer and Sons[135] the Supreme Court held:

  • “It is true that even if the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is excluded, where the provisions of the statute have not been complied with or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure, the Civil Courts have jurisdiction to examine those cases.”[136]

Halsbury’s Laws of England[137] reads:

  • “Where the rules providing for expulsion have been strictly observed and the Committee or the members have otherwise acted properly, the court has no jurisdiction to interfere even though it considers that the Committee or the members voting for expulsion have, in fact, come to a wrong conclusion. The burden of proving want of good faith lies on the person who alleges that he has been wrongfully expelled.”

Court’s Jurisdiction in Expulsion of a Member from a Political Party

Whether a Civil Court has a jurisdiction to entertain a suit relating to expulsion from membership of a political party, particularly when an appeal against such order of expulsion was pending before the appellate authority was the question came up for consideration in Arunachal Pradesh Congress Committee Vs. Kalikho Pul.[138]  In this case no notice was ever served upon the member giving him an opportunity to defend himself and explain before expelling him from the party. The party could not say about the procedure to be followed by the appellate authority and/or when such appeal was going to be disposed. The court upheld the contentions of the expelled member observing that that the Civil Court had jurisdiction to examine whether the expulsion was in good faith, in conformity with the Constitution and whether notice as required under the Constitution of the Party was served and the established principles of law of natural justice was followed by giving the member a chance of defense and explanation.[139]

Court Does Not Sit in Appeal

It is trite law that the Court does not sit in appeal over the findings of the enquiry officer as observed by our Apex Court, in UP State Road Transport Corpn. Vs. Musai Ram.[140] It is held in Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar:[141]

  • “We are at any rate not sitting in appeal against the findings of a domestic tribunal set up to enquire into the allegations of misconduct leveled against a team official of a participating team. We are not, therefore, reappraising the material that has been assembled by the probe committee and relied upon to support its finding. The finding is by no means without basis or perverse[142] to call for our interference with the same.”

The Supreme Court in TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria,[143] held that jurisdiction of courts to interfere in cases involving expulsion of a member from the organization is extremely limited, and the Court’s enquiry is confined to find out whether the decision making is within the four corners of the rules, and the Courts cannot sit in appeal over the decisions of the organization.[144]

In Leo Francis Xaviour Vs. The Principal, Karunya Institute of Technology, Coimbatore[145] it is held as under:

  • “26. As it is found on the facts that there was an enquiry satisfying the requirements of the principles of natural justice, this Court cannot interfere with the finding of the Enquiry Committee and the consequential order of expulsion passed against the petitioner. The plea taken by the first respondent that it is a private college and the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 226 of the Constitution of India cannot be invoked by the petitioner against the said College is well founded. Inasmuch as the principles of natural justice have been complied with, this Court has no jurisdiction to interfere with the order of expulsion passed against the petitioner.”

In Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Vs. KS Gandhi[146] it is observed that the power of judicial review in case of student indiscipline is very limited and in such cases this Court does not sit in appeal over decisions of the school authorities.[147]

Appointment of Impartial Enquiry Officer

Merely because all the members of a society have participated in the discussion concerning an allegation against a member, the Society can’t be expected to appoint an outsider to hold the disciplinary proceeding, to avoid blame of institutional bias. In Lalit Kumar ModiVs. Board of Control for Cricket in India[148] it was pointed out that it may not be financially possible as well for such small societies. Merely because a member has participated in such a meeting he cannot be accused of bias to disentitle him from being appointed on the Disciplinary Committee, especially when only a prima facie opinion was formed in such meeting.

Ex-communication:

‘Ex-communication’ is defined in Black’s Law Dictionary as ‘a sentence of censure pronounced by one of the spiritual courts for offences falling under the ecclesiastical cognizance. It is described as two-fold: (1) The lesser excommunication, which is an ecclesiastical censure, excluding the party from the sacraments; (2) the greater, which excludes him from the company of all Christians.[149]

Sardar Syedna Taher Saiffuddin Saheb Vs. State of Bombay[150] (1962B P Sinha, CJ., A.K Sarkar, Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, Mudholkar, J.J.)

  • Note: Sarkar, Das Gupta , Rajagopala Ayyangar were also judges in Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali.

The Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949 was challenged in this decision. This Act made act of “ex-communication” illegal under Sec. 3, which reads as under:

  • “3. Notwithstanding anything contained in any law, custom or usage for the time being in force to the contrary, no excommunication of a member of any community shall be valid and shall be of any effect.”

Sec. 4 made excommunication, a punishable offence. The Act was challenged by the head of the Dawoodi Bohras, as:

  • being impinging upon the right of the Dawoodi Bohras to freely practice their religion according to their own faith and practice, a right guaranteed under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution.
  • It was contended that the right of the head of the Dawoodi Bohra community to ex-communicate is an essential part of the creed of the Dawoodi Bohra sect as it is a necessary measure of discipline for maintenance of integrity of the community, to hold together the community, so that the community faith, belief and practice can be preserved and hence protected by Article 26(b).

The Supreme Court, by majority (4 : 1), accepted the argument and struck down the Act as violative of Article 26(b) of the Constitution.  It is pointed out in this decision as under:

  • “The content of Arts. 25 and 26 of the Constitution came up for consideration before this Court in:
    • The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Matt;
    • Mahant Jagannath Ramanuj Das Vs. The State of Orissa;
    • Sri Venkatamana Devaru Vs. The State of Mysore;
    • Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali and several other cases
  • and the main principlesunderlying these provisions have by these decisions been placed beyond controversy.
    • The first is that the protection of these articles is not limited to matters of doctrine or belief, they extend also to acts done in pursuance of religion and therefore contain a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion.
    • The second is that what constitutes an essential part of a religious or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are regarded by the community as a part of its religion.

In this decision the Constitution Bench of our Apex Court:

  • observed that the exercise of the power of ex-communication by the religious head on religious ground form part of the management of its affairs in matters of religion and
  • held that it was difficult to agree that court was not a forum for vindication of such right. [151]

While considering the question whether the ex-communication of the Catholicos by the Patriarch of Antioch was valid, in Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[152] Sahai, J. observed that two questions arose: one, the jurisdiction of the civil court to examine ex-communication; and second, whether the ex-communication was in accordance with law.

RM  Sahai, J. further held as under:

  • “Taking up the first question as to whether the civil courts are competent to decide on the validity of the excommunication, the answer, in this connection, has been given while deciding the objection of maintainability of the suit under Section 9 Civil Procedure Code. Yet it would not be inappropriate to mention how far the protection of a civil court extends regarding the ecclesiastical matters. The law has been explained in paras 315, 332 and 337 of Halsbury’s Laws of England, Vol. 14. A church is formed by the voluntary association of individuals. And the churches in the commonwealth are voluntary body organised on a consensual basis their rights apart from statutes will be protected by the courts and their discipline enforced exactly as in the case of any other voluntary body whose existence is legally recognised. Therefore, all religious bodies are regarded by courts of law in the same position in respect of the protection of their rights and the sanction given to their respective organisations. It is further settled that discipline of a church cannot affect any person except by express sanction of the civil power or by the voluntary submission of the particular person. But, for purposes of enforcing discipline within a church religious body may constitute a tribunal to determine whether its rules have been violated by any other members or not and what will be the consequence of that violation. In such case the tribunals so constituted are not in any sense courts, they derive no authority from the statutes and they have no power of their own to enforce their sentence. Their decisions are given effect to by the courts as decision of the arbitrators whose jurisdiction rests entirely on the agreement of the parties. Consequently if any member of such body has been injured as to his rights in any matter of mixed spiritual and temporal character the courts of law will, on due complaint being made, inquire into the laws and rules of the tribunal or authority which has inflicted the injury and will ascertain whether any sentence pronounced was regularly pronounced by competent authority, and will give such redress as justice demands. See Long, Dame and Anadrav. In Hasanali  Vs. Mansoorali, it was held that a court of law cannot recognise a purported ex-communication as valid if principles of substantial justice have not been complied with.”

Proof in Disciplinary Action

The Supreme Court has, in Union of India Vs. Gyan Chand Chattar,[153] held that serious charges of corruption against the employees are to be proved to the hilt, as it brings civil and criminal consequences upon them. It was held that such serious charges can’t be proved on the basis of mere probabilities. The Court held that disciplinary inquiry must strictly adhere to the statutory provisions and the principles of natural justice and inquiry must be conducted fairly and finding should not be perverse[154] or unreasonable and suspicion can’t take the place of proof.

A Constitution Bench of our Apex Court in State of Orissa Vs. Bidyabhushan Mohapatra[155]  held that having regard to the gravity of the established misconduct, the punishing authority had the power and jurisdiction to impose punishment. The penalty was not open to review by the High Court under Article 226. If the High Court reached a finding that there was some evidence[156] to reach the conclusion, it became unassessable.

Regional Manager, U.P.S.R. T.C.,Etawah Vs. Hoti Lal[157]the Supreme Court held that the court, while exercising the power of judicial review cannot substitute its own conclusions on the penalty imposed on the employee, by imposing some other penalty. If the punishment imposed on the employee shocks the conscience of the Court it can mould the relief by directing the disciplinary authority to reconsider the penalty imposed.[158]

Misconduct in Labour Cases

In Pearce Vs. Foster (QBD) it is held:

  • “If a servant conducts himself in a way inconsistent with the faithful discharge of his duty in the service, it is misconduct which justifies immediate dismissal. That misconduct, according to my view, need not be misconduct in the carrying on of the service of the business. It is sufficient if it is conduct which is prejudicial or is likely to be prejudicial to the interests or to the reputation of the master, and the master will be justified, not only if he discovers it at the time, but also if he discovers it afterwards, in dismissing that servant.”

The assessment of evidence in a domestic enquiry is not required to be made by applying the same yardstick as a Civil Court could do when a lis is brought before it. The Indian Evidence Act is not applicable to the proceeding in a domestic enquiry so far as the domestic enquiries are concerned, though principles of fairness are to apply. It is also fairly well settled that in a domestic enquiry guilt may not be established beyond reasonable doubt and the proof of misconduct would be sufficient. In a domestic enquiry all materials which are logically probative including hearsay evidence can be acted upon provided it has a reasonable nexus and credibility.[159] Confessional evidence and circumstantial evidence, despite lack of any direct evidence, was sufficient to hold the delinquent guilty of misconduct and to justify the termination.[160]

The principles generally apply to erring office bearers and members of societies also.

Court Scrutinises Acts of Trustees

Generally, superior authorities and authorities with supervisory powers will have disciplinary jurisdiction over those who are appointed or supervised; and normally, trustees may not have such superior authorities and authorities with supervisory powers. Therefore, in the matters of public trusts, the beneficiaries, or other persons who have a right to complain, can approach the civil court, invoking Sec. 92 CPC or otherwise.

No Action against Trustees, if Bona Fide Act

Actiontaken bona fide, though it is a mistaken one, will not lead to take action on breach of trust.[161] There must be gross negligence or misconduct for removal of trustees. Want of capacity or of fidelity which is calculated to put the trust in jeopardy will be actionable. But, failure in the discharge of duty on account of mistake or misunderstanding is not a ground for removal unless such failure shows want of capacity to manage the trust.[162] It is legitimate to bring-in these principles into the acts and duties of the office-bearers of a society or a club also.

Degree of Prudence Expected

It was observed in Jagat Narain Vs. Mathura Das[163] that the degree of prudence expected from a manager of an endowment would be the prudence which an ordinary man would exercise with the knowledge available to him and the transaction would have to be judged not by the result, but by what might have been expected to be its results at the time it was entered into.

While considering the sale of an old house by the manager of a temple, which was not in a dilapidated condition but it required extensive repairs, it was held in BehariLal Vs. Thakur Radha Ballabhji[164] that the sale was neither a prudent act nor it was for the benefit of the estate. In K.P.L.S. Palaniappa Chetty Vs. Shreenath Devasikamony Pandara Sannadhi[165]  it was laid down that a Shebait would not be justified in selling debutter land solely for the purpose of getting capital to embark in the money lending business. Mulla’s Hindu Law reads:

  • “He (Shebait) is not entitled to sell the property for the purpose of investing the price of it so as to bring in an income larger than that derived from the property itself.”[166]

Jurisdiction of Courts in Removal of Persons Holding Office

If obligations not faithfully discharged

If there is a breach of trust or mismanagement on the part of the trustee, a suit can be brought in a Civil Court by any person interested for the removal of the trustee and for the proper administration of the endowment.[167]

In Raja Peary Mohan MukerjiVs. MonoharMukerji,[168] the Privy Council observed:

  • “… As a part of office it is indisputable that there are duties which must be performed, the estate does need to be safeguarded and kept in proper custody and it be found that a man in the exercise of his duties has put himself in a position in which the Court thinks that the obligations of his office can no longer be faithfully discharged that is sufficient ground for his removal.”[169]

It is appropriate to say that these principles relating to trust[170] fully apply to the affairs of the societies and clubs also. It is trite law that if a trustee denies the validity of the trust, that by itself is sufficient to remove him from the trusteeship.

Breach of Bye-law or Mismanagement Entails removal

The members of a club or society, both registered and unregistered, are bound by the memorandum of association and its rules and regulations. The bye laws bind its members as a contract.[171] When a person becomes a member of the society, he would have no independent rights, and lose his individuality[172] qua the society except those that are given to him by the statutes concerned and bye laws;[173] and the rights of members merge in the rights of the society.[174]

In State of U.P. Vs. COD Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society[175] it is held:

  • “Thus, it is settled law that no citizen has a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) to become a member of a Cooperative Society. His right is governed by the provisions of the statute. So, the right to become or to continue being a member of the society is a statutory right. On fulfillment of the qualifications prescribed to become a member and for being a member of the society and on admission, he becomes a member. His being a member of the society is subject to the operation of the Act, Rules and bye-laws applicable from time to time. A member of the society has no independent right qua the society and it is the society that is entitled to represent as the corporate aggregate. No individual member is entitled to assail the constitutionality of the provisions of the Act, Rules and the bye-laws as he has his right under the Act, Rules and the bye-laws and is subject to its operation. The stream cannot rise higher than the source.”

Nevertheless, any breach of a bye-law would not result into automatic cessation of membership but the procedure for removal or expulsion from membership would be required to be followed even in case of breach of bye-laws of a society.[176]

Trustees Actuated by Dishonest and Corrupt Motives

The principles apply to office bearers of societies also.

In Managing Committee of SS Endowment Vs. Mohd.Ahsan[177] the Oudh Court held that the test which must be applied is whether the acts or omissions complained of disclose conditions which render intervention necessary in order to save the trust property. The court also said that it is to be seen whether such state of affairs was brought about deliberately or willfully and whether the trustees were actuated by dishonest and corrupt motives.

Misconduct or negligence

In S. Veeraraghava Achariar Vs. V. Parthasaruthy Iyengaar[178] it was held that once a person accepts an office of trusteeship the motive for all his actions should be the interest of the institution and that alone. Even though the evidence in a case against the trustees may not be sufficient to warrant, generally speaking, their removal from office on the ground of misconduct or negligence, still their removal may be ordered, if, in the opinion of the court, such removal is necessary in the interests of the trust to be administered.

Claim of Adverse Title by a Trustee

Apart from Section 116 Evidence Act, a Shebait or Mutawalli is not permitted to make any adverse assertion of title upon a property of the temple or wakf, he holds.

Assertion of Private Ownership

Betrayal of fiduciary position of a trustee entails his removal. In Srinivas Chariar Vs. CN Evalappa Mudaliar[179] the Judicial Committee held that an assertion to private ownership[180] was enough ground for removal of a trustee. It was also said that it was not open to the court on any sound principles, either of administration or of law, to permit the continuance of the trustee in the office in such a case.

If Trustees have Interest Adverse to Beneficiaries

Trustees become disqualified if they have any interest adverse to that of the beneficiaries. In Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge Tirupathi[181] Andhra Pradesh High Court has held that the obligation of a director to disclose his interest in a contract entered into or to be entered into is an obligation similar to that of a trustee and directors are in the position of trustees according to common law and they have a fiduciary relation towards the shareholders.

In Narayandas Vs. Sangli Bank[182] it was held by our Apex Court that a director of a company stood in a fiduciary position towards the Company and was bound to protect its interest. He must not place himself in a position in which his personal interest conflicts with his duty.

District Courts’ Jurisdiction under S R Act, Limited[183]

First proviso of Sec. 13, Societies Registration Act, 1880, lays down that in the event of any dispute arising among the governing body or the members of the society while in its dissolution, the adjustment of its affairs shall be referred to the principal court of original civil jurisdiction of the district in which the chief building of the society is situate; and the court shall make such order in the matter as it shall deem requisite.

Several State (Societies Registration) Acts/Amendmentsprovide for a specific forum – District Court – as the authority to entertain and try suits or applications for certain specific matters as to the administration of the societies. But, generally, restricted or limited jurisdiction alone is conferred to such forum under those Acts/ Amendments.

The reliefs outside the purview of these provisions can be validly raised in a proper Civil Court;[184]as otherwise, arbitrary and inequitable results will be brought-in and it will leave the aggrieved persons without any remedy at all, in respect of matters which are not specifically provided for in these provisions.[185]

In R. R. Rajendra Menon Vs. Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.[186] it is observed:

  • “No provision in the Act has been brought to our notice as specifying expressly or impliedly that an application to compel a company to comply with the requirements in S. 257 will lie in the company court. The Act specifies certain questions or disputes to be resolved by the Central government, certain others by the Company Law Board and certain matters to be dealt with by the company court. Only such matters as are specified in the Act or in the rules to be dealt with by the court could the company court deal with. The jurisdiction of the ordinary civil court can be regarded as impliedly barred in respect of those matters specified in the Act to be dealt with by the court. It cannot be held that the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in respect of all other matters relating to a company is barred. The corollary is that, unless a particular matter is specified in the Act to be dealt with by the company-court, it cannot exercise jurisdiction merely because it is also a matter which relates to a company.”

Court Examines Reasons or Grounds of Supersession of Societies

While dealing with CP and Berar Municipalities Act, it is held by the Full Bench in Municipal Commissioner, Kareli Vs. State of MP[187] that the Court has power to examine the sufficiency of reasons. It was observed:

  • “In a democratic society it is of the essence that democratic institutions are allowed to function and not superseded on trumpery charges inadequately brought home or unreasonably accepted. The Courts will be vigilant to see that such over-reaching powers are kept within the four corners of the statute granting them. We think that the fact that a reasonable opportunity to show cause has been made a condition precedent to the exercise of the power and that reasons for the supersession have to be notified to the electorate shows that there is not to be a subjective appraisal but that the reasons must be sufficient under the Act and an objective test is indicated. The requirements of the law are not satisfied by accepting insufficient or inadequate reasons for supersession. We think that the Courts are at liberty to examine the reasons for this limited purpose in addition to the purposes which the learned Judges of the earlier Division Bench (Mangalmurti and Mudholkar JJ.) have already indicated in their order.”

Section 33 of the M.P. Societies Registrikaran Adhiniyam, 1973 speaks of supersession[188] of the Governing Body by the State Government by removing the governing body and appointing a person or persons to manage the affairs of the society for a specified period not exceeding two years in the first instance. It is held in Suresh Vs. State of MP[189] that the power of supersession was not an administrative power but was a quasi-judicial in nature.

In Indian National Congress Vs. Institute of Social Welfare[190] it is observed by the Supreme Court, when it considered as to what constitutes exercise of quasi judicial power, as under:

  • “24. The legal principles laying down when an act of a statutory authority would be a quasi-judicial act, which emerge from the aforestated decisions are these: Where (a) a statutory authority empowered under a statute to do any act (b) which would prejudicially affect the subject (c) although there is no lis or two contending parties and the contest is between the authority and subject and (d) the statutory authority is required to act judicially under statute, the decision of the said authority is quasi-judicial.”

Defaulting Members Are Not Entitled For Any Notice

In Adv. Babasaheb Wasade v. Manohar Gangadhar Muddeshwar (Vikram Nath and Justice Ahsanuddin Amanullah, JJ.), AIR 2024 SC 768, our Apex Court held that defaulting members of a society are not entitled to get notice for meeting of election, under Section 15 of the Societies Registration Act, 1860, even if their membership was not terminated or ceased. It is held as under:

  • “Section 15 of the Registration Act would disentitle such defaulting members from being given any notice even if their membership was not terminated or ceased.”

Mere Non-Payment of Subscription: Not Amount to Resignation

While considering Section 2 (b) of the Karnataka Societies Registration Act (similar provision to Sec. 15 of the Societies Registration Act), High Court of Karnataka, in Lingappa Police Patil Vs. Registrar of Societies,[191] referred to dictionary meaning of ‘resignation’ and Supreme Court decisions[192] and held:

  • “In view of what we have noted hereinabove, it cannot be said that mere non-payment of the subscription would amount to resignation within the meaning of Section 2 (b) of the Act.
  • Nonpayment of subscription would also not amount to relinquishment of membership, unless a person is afforded a specific opportunity of making payment by calling upon him to pay the arrears or face the consequences.”

It is also held that the Rule of the Society which declared a person would cease to be a member merely on his default to make the subscription, without even providing him an opportunity to show cause for not making the payment within a specified period appeared “to be very harsh” and that “confiscatory and deprivatory provisions made, resulting in civil consequences, should not have been allowed” to be incorporated in the bye laws.It is on the principle that rules of natural justice require that that no person can be condemned unheard[193]

The Division Bench struck down the impugned Rule it being contrary to the provisions of the Act.

No expulsion for arrears  if no notice

The rules of natural justice requires notice calling upon a member of a society to pay the arrears, before he be expelled for nonpayment.[194]

Office-Bearer of a Co-Op Society Can be Removed by No-Confidence Motion

In Vipulbhai M. Chaudhary Vs. Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation Limited,[195] Chairperson of a Co-operative Society was removed from the office through a ‘no confidence motion’ by the Director Board. Power is vested in the General Body to remove the entire committee by passing a vote of no-confidence. To the question whether, in the absence of a specific provision for removal of the Chairperson/ elected-office-bearer by ‘no-confidence’ in the Act, Rules or even Bye-laws of a Co-operative Society, the Chairperson or the elected-office-bearer can be removed by a motion of no-confidence, our Apex Court held that Ninety Seventh Amendment of our Constitution, provided constitutional status to the Co-operative Societies and it has brought out radical changes in the concept of Co-operative Societies – including the concept as to ‘collective responsibility to the Parliament, or Legislative Assembly itself implies that the Council of Ministers shall be liable to be dismissed if it ceases to enjoy the confidence of the House.’

Democratic functioning and autonomy have now become the core constitutional values of a Co-operative Society. In the background of the constitutional mandate,the question is not what the statute does say but what the statute must say. If the Act or the Rules or the Bye-laws do not say, what they should say in terms of the Constitution, it is the duty of the court to read the Constitutional spirit and concept into the Acts. Applying the Constitutional spirit, our Apex Court held that removal of the Chairperson from the office through the ‘no confidence motion’ was valid.

Office-Bearer of a Society or a Club: Removal by Motion of No-confidence

Sans the constitutional mandate with respect to Co-operative Societies, as mentioned above, it has to be stated that, without an express power in the Act or bylaw, an elected-office-bearer of a society or club cannot be removed by a motion of noconfidence of the managing committee which elected that office-bearer.

Before the decision of the Supreme Court stated above, Kerala High Court   in S Lakshmanan Vs. V Velliankeri,[196]relying on Sec. 16 of the General Clauses Act, (It lays down that when a power to make any appointment is conferred by a statute, then, unless a contrary intention appears, the authority having such power of making the appointment shall also have the power to suspend or dismiss any person so appointed whether by itself  or by any other authority in exercise of such power.) and considering the following arguments, it was heldthat the Chairperson or the electedofficebearer of a Co-operative Society cannot be removed by a motion of noconfidence:

  • (i)   Passing of a no-confidence resolution was not a matter of day to day affairs of the society, and it was a matter of great importance; and therefore, could not be the subject matter of an implied power or procedure of passing of an ordinary resolution such a drastic power could not be read into the Act, where there were no provisions.
  • (ii)  The principles of collective responsibility, adverted to in the Constitution and the Constitutional conventions based upon British Parliamentary practice, were hardly applicable in the matter;
  • (iii) The affairs of a Co-operative Society could never be equated to that of the Parliament or a Legislative Assembly.
  • (iv) A Co-operative Society was the creature of the statute and must function within the parameters of the statute and the rules thereunder; and where the statute wanted to recognise and prescribe a procedure for a no-confidence motion, it had to deal with it specifically.
  • (v) Once this term had been prescribed by the statute, the members of the Committee are entitled to hold their office for the full term unless their tenure is terminated in accordance with the manner prescribed in the statute itself. That manner can be prescribed either in the Act, or in the Rules or in the Bye-laws. If there is no such prescription, then the members of the Committee shall be entitled to hold their office for the full tenure as indicated in the Rules. such a tenure cannot be cut short by exercise of an implied power.
  • (vi) A right arising in connection with election laws is not a common law right. It is a special right created by the conditions and manner prescribed by the law concerned,[197] and the argument of implied power by application of common law principles has no relevance.
  • (vii)The term of office prescribed is to give a security of tenure to carry on the management of the society effectively and efficiently in the interest of the Society as a whole.

It was also pointed out that under the provisions of the Co-operative Act, members of the committee had no licence to do what they please. They were controlled by the overriding ‘supervisory powers of the authorities’ under the Act; and there was also a specific provision in the Co-operative Societies Act which empowered the General Body to remove the entire committee by passing a vote of no-confidence.

It is legitimate to state that without an express enabling power in the bylaw, an elected-office-bearer of a society or club cannot be removed by a motion of noconfidence of the managing committee even though the managing committee had elected that office-bearer. It is a right arising under the provisions of its bye laws, and not conferred under the common-law-principles.

Since General Body of a society or club is supreme,[198] the properly convened General Body has the right to remove any one or all of the elected-office-bearers (subject to the fundamental principles of substantive justice, including observance of natural justice) unless no clause in the bye laws restricts the same.

Removal of Earlier Committee

When a committee of an association continues to exercise powers even after cessation of their period of office, it is within the competence of the General Body of the Association to take up the matter,if provisionsof the byelaws or the enactment concerned do not, expressly or impliedly, mandates otherwise. In proper cases, the members can approach the civil court also.

In any event, opportunity of being heard should be given to the members of the committee concerned.[199] It is well settled that principles of natural justice must be read into the byelaws and the statute, unless there is a clear directive to the contrary.[200]

In K. Srinivas Vs. Commissioner of Fisheries[201]it was observed that the Registrar of Co-operative Societies being conferred the power of general superintendence and to issue directions, in the public interest, to prevent the affairs of the society from being conducted in a manner detrimental to the interest of the members of the society, it was the Registrar of Co-operative Societies who had the power to declare that the managing committee had ceased to hold office.


[1]      Fourth Edition, Vol. 19(I), p 143: Referred to in D Dwarakanantha Reddy Vs. ChaitnyaBharathi: AIR  2007 SC 1794

[2]      Md. Moinuddin Vs. Commr. for Cooperation: AIR 2014 SC 2680; Narayan Vs. Assistant Registrar, Cooperative Societies: AIR 1994 Bombay 239; Bhaskar Laxman Rane Vs. Shri Gurudev Nityanand: 1998 (3) Mh.L.J.127; Kolhapur ZillaSahakariDoodh Vs. State of Maharashtra: 2008 (2) MAH. L.J.231; SurenderRohilla Vs. Inderprastha Cooperative House Building Society: 2014-2-CPJ 272; M. Sekar Vs. The Tamil Nadu State Council of the CPI: 2015-7 MLJ 689.

[3]      AIR 1963 SC 1144.

[4]      See also: Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Association: AIR 2015 SC 3194;          Capt. DK Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018  AP 48.

[5]      Quoted in : Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Association: AIR  2015 SC 3194; D Dwarakanantha  Reddy Vs. Chaitnya Bharathi Ednl. Society : AIR 2007 SC 1794

[6]      (1988) 2 SCC 602

[7]      See also: Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Association: AIR 2015 SC 3194; Capt. DK Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018  AP 48.

[7]      Quoted in : Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Association: AIR  2015 SC 3194; D Dwarakanantha Reddy Vs. Chaitnya Bharathi Ednl. Society : AIR 2007 SC 1794

[7]      (1988) 2 SCC 602,  See also: State of Haryana Vs. State of Punjab: (2004) 12 SCC 673;   Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation Vs. ZakirHussain: (2005) 7 SCC 447.

[8]      AIR 1981 SC 136.

[9]      Narinder Mohan Arya Vs. United India Insurance Co. : AIR 2006 SC 1748; Rajasthan STC Vs. Bal Mukund Bairawa: (2009) 4 SCC 299 : (2009)5 SCJ 757; Firstone Tyre and Rubber Company Vs. Employees’ Union: AIR 1981 SC 1626; Union of India Vs. Gyan Chand Chatter: (2009) 12 SCC 78.  Sawai Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan: AIR 1986 SC 995; State of Andhra Pradesh Vs. S. Sree Rama Rao; AIR 1963 SC 1723; U.P.S.R.T.C.   Vs. Ram Chandra Yadav: AIR 2000 SC 3596; Union of India Vs. Gyan Chand Chattar, (2009) 12 SCC 78; Anil Gilurker Vs. Bilaspur Raipur Kshetria Gramin Bank : (2011) 14 SCC 379.

[10]    Workmen Vs. Hindustan Steel Ltd. : AIR 1985 SC 251; Rajastan STC Vs. Bal Mukund Bairawa: (2009) 4 SCC 299:  (2009)5 SCJ 757; MV Bijlani Vs. Union of India : 2006 SC 3475; Roop Singh Negi Vs. Punjab National Bank – AIR 2008 SC (Sup.) 921; Vijay Singh Vs. State of U.P. – AIR 2012 SC 2840; M.S. Bindra Vs. Union of India – AIR 1998 SC 3058; Registrar Vs. Uday Singh – AIR 1997 SC 2286; Zora Singh Vs. JM Tandon – AIR 1971 SC 1537; State of Uttaranjal Vs. Kharak Singh: 2008 AIR (SCW) 7507;  Union of India Vs. Naman Singh Sekhawat: 2008 AIR (SCW) 2813.                

[11]    A.C. Muthiah v. Board of Control for Cricket: (2011) 6 SCC 617: 2010 (2) CTC 429

[12]    Amlendu Ghosh Vs. District Traffic Superintendent: AIR 1960 SC 992.  See also: NaryanDattatraya Ramteerathakhar Vs. State of Mahastra:  AIR 1997 SC 2148

[13]    Narinder Mohan Arya Vs. United India Insurance Co: AIR 2006 SC 1748

[14]    AyaaubkhanNoorkhanPatan Vs. State of Maharashtra: AIR 2013 SC 58

[15]    B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484

[16]    Lalit Kumar Modi Vs. Board of Control Cricket: 2011-10 SCC 106; Workmen of Firestone Tyre Co Vs. Management: Sheikh Ismail: AIR  1973 SC 1227; Delhi Cloth And General Mills Company Limited Vs. LudhBudh Singh: AIR  1972 SC 1031 ;  Labour Commissioner Madhya Pradesh Vs. Burhanpur Tapti Mills: AIR 1964 SC 1687.

[17]    State Bank of India’s case: AIR (SCW) 1465

[18]    B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484; Union of India Vs. G. Ganayutham: AIR 1997 SC 3387.

[19]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144;  State of Orissa Vs. Bidyabhushan Mohapatra: AIR 1963 SC 779.  Referred to in BC Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484; Lalit Kumar ModiVs. Board of Control for Cricket in India:  2011-10 SCC 106.

[20]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144

[21]    Union of India Vs. Sardar Bahadur: (1972) 2 SCR 218: (1972) Lab IC 627).

[22]    B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484; Jagmohan Dalmia Vs. BCCI: AIR 2008 Cal. 227

[23]    Bhagat Ram Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh: AIR 1983 SC 454

[24]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144; High Court of Judicature at Bombay Vs. Shashikant S. Patil: (2000) 1 SCC 416;  Jagmohan Dalmia Vs. BCCI: AIR 2008 Cal. 227

[25]    Sawai Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan: AIR 1986 SC 995

[26]    High Court of Judicature at Bombay Vs. Shashikant S. Patil: (2000) 1 SCC 416

[27]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144

[28]    High Court of Judicature at Bombay Vs. Shashikant S. Patil: (2000) 1 SCC 416

[29]    B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484;  Union of India Vs. G. Ganayutham: AIR 1997 SC 3387.

[30]    State Bank of India’s case: AIR AIR (SCW) 1465

[31]    Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[32]    Dr. TP Senkumar Vs. Union of India: 2017 (2) Ker LT 453 (SC)

[33]    AIR 1958 MP 323 (FB).

[34]    Sawai Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan: AIR 1986 SC 995.

[35]    B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484; Union of India Vs. G. Ganayutham: AIR 1997 SC 3387.

[36]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144

[37]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144, Capt. DK Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018 AP 48; M. Sekar Vs. The Tamil Nadu State Council of the CPI: 2015-7 MLJ 689; D. Dwarakanantha Reddy Vs. Chaitnya Bharathi Educational Society : AIR 2007 SC 1794; Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Asson. of Bihar: AIR  2015 SC 3194.

[38]    Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College, Delhi Vs.The State: AIR 1962 SC 458; TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144; Siddheshwar Sahkari Sakhar Karkhana Vs. Commir. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716; Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301; Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab: AIR 1985 SC 973; Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. District Registrar: AIR 2005 SC 2306; State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378; BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[39]    C Chikka Venkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa: 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296; Narayan Krishnaji Vs. Anjuman E Islamia: AIR 1952 Kar 14: Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier: AIR 1968 SC 915. Nelson Vs. KallayamPastotate: AIR 2007 SC 1337

[40]    A P Dairy Development Corpn. Vs. B Narasimha Reddy: AIR 2011 SC 3298;  Dharam DuttVs. Union of India: AIR 2004 SC 1295.

[41]    Kowtha Suryanarayana Rao Vs. Patibandla Subrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad 902.

[42]    Madras Gymkhana Club Vs. KC Sukumar: 2010-1 CTC 199.

[43]    A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu Vs. S. Chellappan: 2000 (7) SCC 695: AIR 2000 SC 3032;         Superintending Engineer Periyar Electricity Distribution Circle Erode Vs. Pavathal: 2002-2 CTC 544; 2002-1 Mad LJ 515. G. Bala Subrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264; AP AryaVysyaMahasabha  Vs. MutyapuSudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227; Umesh Shivappa Ambi Vs. Angadi Shekara Basappa: (1998) 4 SCC 529: AIR 1999 SC 1566; Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487; Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh: AIR  2006 SC 52; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774; NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[44]    UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224. Rashmi Bala Saxena Vs. Jiwaji University Gwalior: AIR  1989 MP 181

[45]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774

[46]    G. BalaSubrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264; AP Arya Vysya Mahasabha  Vs. Mutyapu Sudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227.

[47]    AIR 2003 SC 2041: (2003) 4 SCC 557

[48]    Quoted in Poonam Vs. State of U.P. 20016-2 SCC 779.

[49]    See: D.K. Yadav Vs. J.M.A. Industries Ltd. AIR 1992 SC 1795

[50]    AIR 2003 SC 2041.  Referred to in Prakash Ratan Sinha Vs. State of Bihar: 2009-14 SCC 690.

[51]    Indian National Congress (I) Vs. Institute of Social Welfare: AIR 2002 SC 2158; Bachhitar Singh V. State of Punjab: AIR 1963 SC 395;  Union of India v. H.C. Goel: AIR 1964 SC 364; Jyoti Basu Vs. Debi Ghosal: AIR 1982 SC 983; Mohan Lal Tripathi Vs. District Magistrate, Raebareli: AIR 1993 SC 2042;  Ram Beti Vs. District Panchayat Rajadhikari: AIR 1998 SC 1222.

[52]    Chamoli District Co-Op. Bank Ltd.. Vs. Raghunath Singh Rana: 2016 AIR (SCW) 2510

[53]    AIR 1962 SC 1110

[54]    Quoted in K Chelliah Vs. Chairman Industrial Finance Corporation:  AIR1973 Mad 122.

[55]    Hree Vitthal Sahakari Vs. Wadikuroli Vividh KaryakariSeva Society: 2011-4 BCR 290

[56]   AwariDevannaVs Divisional Co Operative Officer: 1994-1 ALT 363; K. Srinivas VS Commissioner of Fisheries: 2009 3 ALD 1; 2009 2 ALT 604.

[57]   Institute of Chartered Accountants of India Vs. L.K. Ratna: AIR 1987 SC 71;  C.B. Gautam Vs. Union of India: (1993) 1 SCC 78.

[58]    AIR 1970 SC 150.  Quoted in: Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Election Commissioner: (1978) 1SCC 405

[59]    (1964) 3 SCR 616

[60]    2016 AIR (SCW) 2510

[61]    (1964) 3 SCR 616

[62]    (1972) 4 SCC 304.

[63]    (2008) 8 SCC 236.

[64]    [1964] 3 SCR  652

[65]    AIR 1994 SC 1074.             

[66]    (1999) 2 SCC 2.

[67]    (2006) 3 SCC 150.

[68]    J.S. Yadav Vs. State of U.P.: (2011) 6 SCC 570

[69]    Bilaspur Raipur Kshetriya Gramin Bank Vs. Madanlal Tandon: AIR  2015 SC 2876.

[70]    East India Commercial Company Vs. The Collector of Customs: 1962 AIR SC 1893;   U.O.I. Vs. Madhumilan Syntex 1988-3 SCC 348;   Morarji Goculdas Vs. U.O.I. 1995 Supp3 SCC 588;   Metal Forgings Vs. U.O.I. 2003 2 SCC 36.

[71]    S.P. Malhotra Vs. Punjab National Bank” AIR 2013 SC 3739; Manohar Vs. State of Maharashtra: AIR 2013 SC 681; Punjab National Bank Vs. Kunj Behari Misra, AIR 1998 SC 2713; Yoginath D. Bagde Vs. State of Maharashtra : AIR 1999 SC 3734; State Bank of India Vs. K.P. Narayanan Kutty: AIR 2003 SC 1100; J.A. Naiksatam Vs. Prothonotary: AIR 2005 SC 1218; P.D. Agrawal Vs. State Bank of India : AIR 2006 SC 2064; Ranjit Singh Vs. Union of India : AIR 2006 SC 3685; Canara Bank Vs. Shri Debasis Das: AIR 2003 SC 2041; KanwarNutwar Singh Vs. Director of Enforcement:  2010 AIR (SCW) 6427.

[72]    C.B. Gautam Vs. Union of India (1993) 1 SCC 78.  Referred: Union Union of India Vs. Col. J. N. Sinha (1970) 2 SCC 458, Olga Tellis Vs. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) 3 SCC 545.

[73]    Quoted in: Arcot Textile Mills Vs. Regional Provident Fund: AIR 2014 SC 295.

[74]    AIR 1985 SC 1416; referred to in Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar: AIR 2015 SC 3194.

[75]    See also: Central Inland Water Trans. Corpn. Vs. BrojoNath Ganguly: AIR 1986 SC 1571.

[76]    (1978) 1 SCC 248

[77]    (2012) 4 SCC 438

[78]    Arcot Textile Mills Vs. Regional Provident Fund: AIR  2014 SC 295

[79]    Ajit Kumar Nag v. General Manager, Indian Oil Corpn.: AIR 2005 SC 4217;

[80]    Natwar Singh Vs. Director of Enforcement (2010) 13 SCC 255

[81]    Ex Armymen’s Protection Service Vs. Union of India: AIR 2014 SC 1376; A.S. Motors Pvt. Ltd Vs. Union Of India: 2013 AIR (SCW) 3830; Muhammed Yunus Khan Vs. State of U.P.: 2010-10 Scale 2867.   

[82]    Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Election Commissioner: (1978) 1SCC 405; A.K. Kraipak Vs. Union of India: AIR 1970 SC 150.           

[83]    Maharashtra State Financial Corpn. Vs. M/s. Suvarna Board Mills: 1994-5 SCC 566.

[84]    AIR 1969 SC 198

[85]    AIR 1977 SC 965

[86]    AIR 1968 SC 850

[87] 2001-1 Bom CR 390: 2000-3 Bom LR 741: 2001 1 MhLJ 63

[88] AIR 1978 SC 597

[89] AIR 2006 SC 2064

[90] (1996) 3 SCC 364

[91] (1996) 5 SCC 460

[92] 2020 SCC OnLine SC 847

[93]    AIR 2006 SC 2064. See also: A.S. Motors Pvt. Ltd Vs. Union of India: 2013 AIR (SCW)  3830.

[94]    AIR 2005 SC 4217:  (2005) 7 SCC 764.

[95]    (1990) 1 SCC 613: AIR 1990 SC 1480.

[96]    AIR 1994 SC 1074

[97]    (2009) 12 SCC 40

[98]    2015 AIR (SCW) 3884: 2015 (8) SCC 519. Followed, Managing Director ECIL Hyderabad Vs. B Karunakar II: AIR 1994 SC 1074.

[99]    2013 AIR (SCW) 3830

[100]  1994-30 DRJ 669

[101]  AIR 1996 SC 1669; (1996) 3 SCC 364

[102]  (1973) 1 SCC 805

[103]  (1997) 2 SCC 534

[104]  Chennai Kancheepuram Tiruvelore District Film Distributors Association Vs. Chinthamani S. Murugesan: 2001 (3) CTC 349: 2001-Supp. Mad LJ 48;    A C Muthiah Vs. Board of Control for Cricket in India: (2011) 6 SCC 617: 2010 (2) CTC 429.      

[105]  AIR1985 SC 973

[106]  Maharashtra State Board of Secondary Edn. Vs. K.S. Gandhi: (1991) 2 SCC 716.  See also: Executive Engineer Vs. Sri Seetaram Rice Mill: (2012)2 SCC 108;   Harekrishna K. Vadhwani Vs. Vasupujya Smruti Co -op. Hsg. Soc.: 2004(1) GLH 257;   Banaskantha District Co -op. Union Ltd. Vs. State of Gujarat 2011(2) GLR 1707; State of U.P. Vs. C.O.D. Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society Ltd : AIR 1997  SC  1413;  B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484.

[107]  Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar: AIR 1977 Pj&Hr 21

[108]  AIR 1972 SC 330

[109]  Especially, in discretionary reliefs: Madras Gymkhana Club Vs. Sukumar 2010-1 CTC 199

[110]  See: A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu Vs. S. Chellappan: 2000 (7) SCC 695: AIR  2000 SC 3032; Superding Engineer Periyar Electricity Vs. Pavathal: 2002-2 CTC 544; 2002-1 Mad LJ 515.

[111]  Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774

[112]  G. Bala Subrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264;         AP Arya Vysya Mahasabha  Vs. Mutyapu Sudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227

[113]  A.V. Venkateswaran, Collector Vs. Ramchand Sobhraj Wadhwani : AIR 1961 SC 1506;  SatwatiDeswal Vs. State of Haryana: [2010] 1 SCC 126 ;  State of H.P. Vs. Gujarat Ambuja Cement Ltd.: AIR 2005 SC 3936;  Dhulabhai Vs. State of M P : AIR 1969 SC 78; Whirlpool Corporation Vs. Registrar of Trade Marks, Mumbai:  AIR 1999 SC 22.

[114]  Rajasthan STC Vs. Bal Mukund Bairawa: (2009) 4 SCC 299 : (2009)5 SCJ 757;

[115]  AIR 1983 SC 603

[116]  AIR  2016 SC 1094

[117]  AIR 1988 SC 616

[118]  AIR 1999 SC 1566

[119]  Quoted in: Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh GurdwaraMgent. Comte. (2006) 8 SCC 487. Similar view in: Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit  Singh: AIR  2006 SC 52.  Also see: Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774; NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer: AIR 1952 SC 64.

[120]  AIR 2005 SC 4217.

[121]  See also: Arcot Textile Mills Vs. Regional Provident Fund: AIR  2014 SC 295.

[122]  State of Madhya Pradesh Vs. Bani Singh : 1990 (Supp) SCC 738, (more than 12 years); State of Punjab Vs. Chaman Lal Goyal: (1995) 2 SCC 570 (5½ years); M. Balakrishnan Vs. The Corporation of Madurai: 1995 (II) CTC 589; The Commr, Sankarapuram Panchayat Vs. S.A. Abdul Wahab: 1996 Writ L.R.677, State of Andhra Pradesh Vs. N. Radhakishan: (1998) 4 SCC 154, B. Loganathan Vs. The Union of India: 2000 (III) CTC 351 (SC) (15 years); Union of India Vs. Central Administrative Tribunal: 2005 (2) CTC 169(20 years); P.V. Mahadevan Vs. M.D., Tamil Nadu Housing Board: 2005 (4) CTC 403(SC) (20 years);  M.V. Bijlani Vs. Union of India: (2006) 5 SCC 88, (13 years), P. Anand Vs. The Principal Commissioner: 2006 (5) CTC 723; K. Kumaran Vs. The State of Tamil Nadu:  2007 (3) CTC 763 (18 years); Ranjeet Singh Vs. State of Haryana 2008 (3) CTC 781 (SC) (9 years).

[123]Usha Udyog Vs. Customs, Excise and Gold: 2000-86 DLT 667: 2000-71 ECC 416, Mohan Lal Saraf Vs. Chairperson, Debts Recovery: 2013-2 ADJ 497, 2013-3All LJ 99

[124]Satya Nidhan Banerji Vs. Mdhazabbur Ali Khan: AIR  1932 All 47; Gadagotlu Sitaramaiah Vs. Collector Of Central Excise Hyderabad: AIR1960 AP 294, Iddesh Tours And Travels Vs. Comrof Service Tax Mumbai: 2019-367 ELT 235

[125] Vijay Prakash D. Mehta Vs. Collector of Customs:  AIR 1988 SC 2010; Unicipal Committee Hoshiarpur Vs. Punjab State Electricity Board: AIR  2011 SC  209, Tecnimont Pvt Ltd Vs. State of Punjab: 2019-12 SCALE 562, Usha Udyog Vs. Customs, Excise and Gold: 2000-86 DLT 667: 2000-71 ECC 416; Shyam Kishore Vs. Municipal Corporation of Delhi: AIR  1991 Del  104

[126]Usha Udyog Vs. Customs, Excise and Gold: 2000-86 DLT 667: 2000-71 ECC 416; Discharged Servicemens Assn. Vs. State of Kerala: 1999-2 KerLJ 1133: 2000-1 KerLT 281.

[127] Nathamani Gounder Vs. State of Tamil Nudu: 1986-2 LLJ 423,

[128]  State of Andhra Pradesh Vs. S. Sree Rama Rao; AIR 1963 SC 1723;  Sawai Singh Vs. State of Rajasthan: AIR 1986 SC 995; U.P.S.R.T.C.   Vs. Ram Chandra Yadav: AIR 2000 SC 3596;  Union of India Vs. Gyan Chand Chattar, (2009) 12 SCC 78;   Anil Gilurker Vs.Bilaspur Raipur Kshetria Gramin Bank : (2011) 14 SCC 379 .

[129]  AIR 1971 SC 752.                

[130]  See also: Narinder Mohan Arya Vs. United India Insurance: AIR 2006 SC 1748; Rajastan STC Vs. Bal Mukund Bairawa:  (2009) 4 SCC 299: (2009)5 SCJ 757; Anil Gilurkar Vs.Bilaspur Raipur Kshetria Bank 2011 AIR (SCW)  5327; FirstoneTyre and Rubber Company Vs. Employees’ Union: AIR 1981 SC 1626; Union of India Vs. Gyan Chand Chatter: (2009) 12 SCC 78.

[131]  AIR 1986 SC 995

[132]  Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiros H. Antia: AIR 1939 Bom. 35.  See also:  C.D. Sekkilar Vs. R. Krishnamoorthy: AIR 1952  Mad  151.  Husein Miya Dosumiya vs. Chandulal Jethabhai: AIR 1954 Bom 239;     Rajasthan State Road Trant. Corpn. Vs. Bal Mukund Bairawa: (2009) 4 SCC 299.    Personal hearing necessary: Mumbai Cricket Asson. Vs. Ratnakar: (2014) 2 Mah LJ 726. Action on report of enquiry officer based on ‘no evidence’: Roop Singh Negi Vs. Punjab National Bank : AIR 2008 SC (Sup.) 921; Jagmohan Dalmia Vs. BCCI: AIR 2008 Cal. 227. Narinder Mohan Arya Vs. United India Insurance Co. : AIR 2006 SC 1748, T.P. Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria AIR 1963  SC  1144;  Central Inland Water Transport Corporation Vs. Brojo Nath Ganguly: AIR 1986 SC 1571; Institute of Chartered Accounts of India Vs. L.K. Ratna, 1986 (4) SCC 537; Delhi Transport Corp. Vs. DTC Mazdoor Congress 1991 (Supp.1) SCC 600; LIC of India Vs. Consumer Education and Research Centre 1995(5) SCC 482; Escorts Farms Vs. Commissioner Kumaon Division (2004) 4 SCC 281; SM Kamble Vs. Jt. Registrar, Co-Op. Societies: (2008) 1 AIR Bom R 274.

[133]  Kalyan Kumar Dutta Gupta Vs. B.M. Verma: AIR 1995 Cal. 140 (DB).    Also see: Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India: ILR 2009-19 Dlh 216.

[134]  T.P. Daver v. Lodge Victoria No. 363 S.C. Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144. 

[135]  AIR 1966 SC 1738.

[136]  See: Firm Seth Radhakishan Vs. Administrator, Municipal Committee, Ludhiana:  AIR 1963 SC 1547; Secretary of State Vs. Mask & Co.: AIR 1940 PC 43; Premier Automobiles Ltd. Vs. Kamlakar Shantnram: AIR 1975 SC 2238: Rajasthan STC Vs. Bal Mukund Bairawa: (2009) 4 SCC 299 : (2009)5 SCJ 757: Referred to: Narinder Mohan Arya  Vs. United India Insurance Co. : AIR 2006 SC 1748; Roop Singh Negi Vs. Punjab National Bank : AIR 2008 SC (Sup.) 921; Dhulabhai  Vs. State of M P : AIR 1969 SC 78. See also: ShridharMisra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar:   AIR 1959 All 598; K K Jain Vs. Federation Of Indian Export Organisations: AIR  2002 Del 408; Gegong Apang  Vs. Sanjoy Tassar: AIR  2001 Gau 1; Sardar Kanwaldeep Singh Vs. Assistant Registrar Firms, Societies and Chits, Faizabad: AIR 1994 All 161;  Gaurav A Jain Vs. M P University of Agriculture And Technology, AIR  2004 Raj 247.

[137]  4thEdnVol 6: Para 241: Quoted in K.L. Katyal Vs. Central Secretariat Club (Regd):1994-30 DRJ 669 .

[138]  AIR 2015 Gau 179.

[139]  See also: M. Sekar Vs. The Tamil Nadu State Council of the CPI: 2015-7 MLJ 689

[140]    1999-3 SCC 372.

[141]  AIR  2015 SC 3194

[142]    General Manager (P), Punjab Sind Bank Vs. Daya Singh: (2010) 11 SCC 233

[143]  AIR 1963 SC 1144

[144]  See: All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association: (1994) 55 DLT 607, Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association: (2013) 201 DLT 433. See also: Meghal Homes Pvt Ltd Vs. Niwas Girni K K Samiti: AIR   2007 SC 3079; Capt Kailash Nath Harsh Vs. D C Patel: AIR 1999 Bom 133.

[145]  AIR 1993 Mad 233

[146]  (1991) 2 SCC 716

[147]  See also: BC Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484.  Bhagat Ram Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh: AIR 1983 SC 454.

[148]  2011 AIR-SCW  5919: 2011-10 SCC 106

[149]  Quoted in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001, by RM Sahai, J.

[150]AIR 1962 SC 853

[151]  Referred to in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001, by RM Sahai, J.

[152]  Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001

[153]  (2009) 12 SCC 78

[154]  B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484

[155]  AIR 1963 SC 779:  B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484.

[156]  B.C. Chaturvedi Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 484

[157] AIR 2003 SC 1462

[158]Damoh Panna Sagar Rural Regional Bank Vs. Munna Lal Jain: AIR 2005 SC 584

[159]Workmen of Balmadies Estates Vs. Management Balmadies Estate: Supp AIR 2008 SC 1366; 2008 4 SCC 517.

[160]J.D. Jain v. Management of State Bank of India and Anr. (1982) 1 SCC 143;

Referred to in Workmen of Balmadies Estates Vs. Management Balmadies Estate: Supp AIR 2008 SC 1366; 2008 4 SCC 517.          

[161]  Vidyodaya Trust Vs. Mohan Prasad: AIR 2008 SC 1633.

[162]  Azizor Rahman Choudhury Vs. Ahidennessa Choudharani: AIR 1928 Cal. 225

[163]AIR 1928 All 454 (FB). Referred to in Bhagauti Prasad KhetanVs. Laxminathji Maharaj: AIR 1985 All 228.

[164]AIR 1961 All 73.  Referred to in Bhagauti Prasad Khetan Vs. Laxminathji Maharaj: AIR 1985 All 228.

[165]AIR 1917 PC 33.    Referred to in Bhagauti Prasad Khetan Vs. Laxminathji Maharaj: AIR 1985 All 228.

[166]  Quoted with approval in Sridhar Vs. Sri Jagannath Temple, AIR 1976 SC 1860. Referred to in Bhagauti Prasad Khetan Vs. Laxminathji Maharaj: AIR 1985 All 228.

[167]  Thenappa Chettiar  Vs.Karuppan Chettiar: AIR 1968 SC 915 

[168]  AIR 1922 PC 235; (1921) ILR 48 Cal. 1019

[169]  See also: Satish Chandra GiriVs. Dharanidhar Singha Boy: AIR 1940 PC 24.

[170]  Mrs. Kalidha Adib Begum And Anr. Vs. S.A. Bashirunnissa Begum Hussaini : 1970-83 MadLW 116

[171]  Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College Vs. The State: AIR 1962 SC 458;  Siddheshwar Sahkari Sakhar Karkhana Vs. Commr of IT: AIR 2004 SC 4716; Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301; Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973. Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Vs. Dist Regtr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005  SC 2306; State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378.                 

[172]  Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab: AIR 1985  SC 973; Damyanti Naranga Vs. Union of India: AIR 1971 SC 966; Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Vs. Dist Regtr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005  SC 2306

[173]  Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Vs. Dist Regtr, Co–operative: AIR  2005 SC 2306;  Syed Munir Hoda Vs. Bader Sayeed: TLMAD-2012-0-2262;   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: : (2011) 13 SCC 774; State of U.P. Vs. C.O.D. Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society Ltd : AIR 1997  SC  1413.

[174]  Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society   Vs. Dist Regtr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005  SC 2306

[175]  AIR 1997  SC  1413.   Quoted in Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regtr:  AIR 2005  SC  2306; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B D Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774;  Chandigarh Housing Board Vs. Devinder Singh: AIR 2007 SC 1723.

[176]  Hree Vitthal Sahakari Sahakar Karkhana Ltd  Vs. Wadikuroli Vividh Karyakari Seva Society Ltd. 2011-4 BCR 290

[177]  AIR 1947 Oudh 28

[178]  AIR 1925 Mad. 1070

[179]  AIR 1922 PC 325; See also Janardhana Mishra Alias Janardhana Prasad Vs. State (1996) 1 Mad LJ 588

[180]  SrinivasChariar and another Vs. C.N. Evalappa Mudaliar: AIR 1922 PC 325.    See also: Janardhana Mishra Alias Janardhana Prasad Vs. State (1996) 1 Mad LJ 588;  Idol of A M Kamakala Kameshwarar Temple Vs. Sri Siddaraja Manicka Prabha Temple: 2011-6 Mad LJ  386; Deputy Commissioner Judicial Vs. M Perumal: 2003-3 Mad LJ  151 .

[181]  1987- 62   Comp. Cases 301

[182]  AIR 1966 SC 170

[183]  See Chapter: COURT’S JURISDICTION TO INTERFERE IN THE INTERNAL AFFAIRS

[184]  With respect to Companies, see: Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwala: AIR 2003 SC 2696;      R. Prakasam Vs. Sree Naryana Dharma Paripalana: (1980) 50 Comp. Cases 611(Ker);      R. R. Rajendra Menon Vs. Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256

[185]  Firm of Illuri Subbayya Chetty Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh: AIR 1984 SC 322; Antony Vs. Thandiyode Plantations: 1995 (2) KLT 512. Parayakadu Nalukulangara Devaswom Vs. Padmanabhan: 1983 KLJ 232: 1983 KLT 803;  Dhulabhai Vs. State of M P : AIR 1969 SC 78; R. Prakasam Vs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: (1980) 50 Comp. Cases 611(Ker).    

[186]  (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256

[187]AIR 1958 MP 323 (FB).

[188]  A few States give power in the Act to the Government to supersede societies.

[189]AIR 1970 MP 154 

[190]  (2002) 5 SCC 685

[191]  ILR 1997 Kar 3127

[192]  J. K. Cotton Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. Vs. State of UP, AIR1990 SC 1808; Union Of India Vs. Gopal Chandra Misra, AIR 1978 SC 694

[193]  Sarbjit Singh Vs. All India Fine Arts and Crafts Society: ILR 1989-2 Del 585.

[194]  Shri Sarbjit Singh Vs. All India Fine Arts and Crafts Society: ILR (1989) II Delhi 585

[195]  AIR 2015 SC 1960

[196]  AIR 2002 Ker 325:  Followed: Veeramachaneni Venkata Narayana Vs. Dty Registrar: ILR 1975 AP 242; Hindurao Vs. Krishnarao, AIR 1982 Bom. 216;  Jagdev Singh Vs. The Registrar, Co-operative Societies, Haryana:  AIR 1991 P & H 149; Narayanan Nair Vs. Joint Registrar, 1982 KLT 602;     Bar Council of Delhi Vs. Bar Council of India, AIR 1975 Delhi 200.

[197]  Jyoti Basu   Vs. Debi Ghosal(1982) 1 SCC 691

[198]  Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del  1031; Girish Mulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[199]   Awari Devanna Vs Divisional Co Operative Officer: 1994-1 ALT 363; K. Srinivas VS Commissioner of Fisheries: 2009 3 ALD 1; 2009 2 ALT 604.

[200]   Institute of Chartered Accountants of India Vs. L.K. Ratna: AIR 1987 SC 71; C.B. Gautam Vs. Union of India: (1993) 1 SCC 78.

[201]   2009 3 ALD 1; 2009 2 ALT 604



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Dissolution of Societies and Clubs

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Synopsis.

  • 1.         Introduction
  • 2.         Dissolution: Intention of Founders
  • 3.         Dissolution on Unanimous Decision
  • 4.         No Beneficial Interest
  • 5.         Dissolution and Fundamental Principles
  • 6.         Dissolution – Power of Governing Body
  • 7.         Dissolution – Power Given to Gov. Body is Distinct
  • 8.         ‘Forthwith’ Meaning
  • 9.         Voting by Proxy
  • 10.      Dissolution: Property Goes to Another Society.
  • 11.      Effect of Sec. 14 on a Defunct Society
  • 12.      Effect of Withdrawal of Majority of the Members
  • 13.      Dissolution of Societies by Court
  • 14.      Dissolution of Societies by Registrar
  • 15.      Dissolution: Not Answer for Ills – Civil Court Jurisdiction
  • 16.      Can the Members Convert a Society into a ‘Trust’?
  • 17.      Dissolution & Unification of Churches
  • 18.      S. 14 not Applicable to Literary/Scientific Clubs
  • 19.      Can a Society be Transformed as Trust, by Resolution
  • 20.      Effect of Unification of a Trust and a Registered Society
  • 21.      Escheat

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act,1860:

  • 13. Provision for dissolution of societies and adjustment of their affairs
  • Any number not less than three-fifths of the members of any society may determine that it shall be dissolved, and thereupon it shall be dissolved forthwith, or at the time then agreed upon, and all necessary steps shall be taken for the disposal and settlement of the property of the society, its claims and liabilities according to the rules of the said society applicable thereto, if any, and if not, then as the governing body shall find expedient,
  • Provided that, in the event of any dispute arising among the said governing body or the members of the society, the adjustment of its affairs shall be referred to the principal court of original civil jurisdiction of the district in which the chief building of the society is situate; and the court shall make such order in the matter as it shall deem requisite.
  • Assent required:
  • Provided that no societies shall be dissolved unless three-fifths of the members shall have expressed a wish for dissolution by their votes delivered in person, or by proxy, at a general meeting convened for the purpose:
  • Government consent:
  • Provided that 4 [whenever any Government] is a member of, or a contributor to, or otherwise interested in any society registered under this Act, such society shall not be dissolved 5 [without the consent of the Government of the 6 [State] or registration].
  • 14. Upon a dissolution no member to receive profit
  • If upon the dissolution of any society registered under this Act there shall remain, after the satisfaction of all its debts and liabilities, any property whatsoever, the same shall not be paid to or distributed among the members of the said society or any of them, but shall be given to some other society, to be determined by the votes of not less than three-fifths of the members present personally or by proxy at the time of the dissolution, or in default thereof, by such court as aforesaid:
  • Clause not to apply to Joint-stock Companies: Provided, however, that this clause shall not apply to any society which has been founded or established by the contributions of share-holders in the nature of a Joint-stock Company.

1. Introduction

A society or a club can be dissolved by its members, on appropriate grounds and adopting the procedures laid down by the Bye laws (and the Act, if any,  applicable). It can also be done by the Registrar, Court or Government, if the provisions of the Act applicable so provides.

If a society is formed for attaining a specific purpose, it will be dissolved on fulfilling that purpose. Sections 13 and 14 of the Societies Registration Act provide for dissolution of societies and the consequences of such dissolution.

Since the Societies Registration Act provides a particular procedure for dissolution, the same has to be done as per that procedure. Because, if a thing is prescribed to be done in a particular way, it can be done in only that way, and by no other way.[1]

2. Dissolution: Intention of Founders

It is not open for the majority of an association to alter the fundamental principles upon which it is founded.[2] When the intention of the founders of an unregistered society or a club (as expressed in the bye laws or as manifested in any other binding mode) is to use its property for the benefit of the present and future members, then the members of a particular time are not entitled to put an end to (and appropriate) the same by themselves.  The same rule applies to public or permanent trust predicated by the founders or by the bye laws.

Underhill, in his treatise ‘Law of Trusts and Trustees’, explained it thus:

  • “However, the crucial difference surely is that no absolutely entitled members exist if the gift is on trust for future and existing members, always being for the members of the Association for the time being. The members for the time being cannot under the Association Rules appropriate trust property for themselves for there would then be no property held on trust as intended by the testator for those persons who some years later happened to be the members of the Association for the time being.”[3]

The bye laws considered in Shanti Swarup Vs. Radhaswami Satsang Sabha, Dayal Bagh,[4] provided the terms for dissolution as under: ‘The society shall stand dissolved in case no Satsang Guru reappeared within two years of the death of the last Satsang Guru’. It was held that such bye laws were invalid and inoperative, they being militated against the provisions of Section 13 of the Societies Registration Act, 1860.

3. Dissolution on Unanimous Decision

If the Rules of an unregistered society or a club do not contain a provision for the dissolution by vote of majority (or by a specified majority), its dissolution could be brought about only by a unanimous decision of its members.[5]

4. No Beneficial Interest

In the Unani Tibia College case[6], the Supreme Court held as to beneficial enjoyment of property of a registered society as under:

  • “During the subsistence of a society, the right of the members is to ensure that the property will be utilized for the charitable objects set out in the memorandum and these did not include any beneficial enjoyment.  Nor did the members of the society acquire any beneficial interest (that is, ‘proprietary interest’ or interest pertaining to owner) on the dissolution of the society. … We are clearly of the opinion that that right is not a right of property within the meaning of Article 19(1)(f).” (Para 23).

5. Dissolution and Fundamental Principles

It is not open for the majority of the members of an association to alter the fundamental principles upon which it is founded unless such a power is specifically reserved.[7]

It is observed by our Apex Court, with respect to a private religious trust, in Profulla Chorone Requitte Vs. Satya Chorone Requitte[8] as under:

  • “According to English Law, beneficiaries in a private trust, if sui juris or of one mind, have the power or authority to put an end to the trust or use the trust fund for any purpose and divest it from its original object. Whether this principle applies to a private endowment or debutter created under Hindu Law, is a question on which authorities are not agreed. In Doorganath Roy Vs. Ram Chander Sen, (1876) 4 Ind App 52 (PC), it was observed that while the dedication is to a public temple, the family of the founder could not put an end to it but ‘in the case of a family idol, the consensus of the whole family might give the (Debutter) estate another direction’ and turn it into a secular estate.  Subsequently, in Pramatha Nath Mullick Vs. Pradymna Kumaar Mullick (1925) 52 Ind App 245, the Judicial Committee clarified that the property cannot be taken away from the idol and diverted to other purposes without the consent of the idol through its earthly agents who, as guardians of the deity, cannot in law consent to anything which may amount to an extinction of the deity itself”.

It is held in Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh:[9]

  • “Rule of Law demands and dictates that the people follow the Law. The Constitution, whether of the State or of a Society registered under the Societies Act, is paramount. …. The doctrine of factum valet is applicable to cure the violation of a directory provision or a mere matter of form but does not cure the violation of the fundamental principles or the essence of the transaction.

Fundamental Rules Cannot Not Be Altered

In Noel Frederick Barwell Vs. John Jackson AIR 1948 All 146 it was held as under:

  • “51. It has been argued by Mr. Pathak on the basis of this decision and the decision of the House of Lords in Hole v. Garnsey (1930) 1930 A.C. 472, already referred to, that the rules of every association may be divided into two classes – the rules relating to fundamentals and the ordinary rules. Learned Counsel went on to urge that the fundamental rules could not be altered even by a unanimous vote of the members, though, if the rules provided for amendments, the other rules could be ant ended. It is not necessary for me to go into this question as the point does not arise in this case, but if I may say so without meaning any disrespect, the cases cited above have entirely been misunderstood. All that their Lordships intended to say was that the rules of any club being framed for the purpose of carrying on the objects of the club, ordinarily any power to amend such rules must be limited to the contemplated scope of the original rules and that under the general powers of amendment the alteration should not affect the foundation of the club or should not be incompatible with its fundamental objects.
  • 52. Dealing with this question Lord Han – worth, Master of the Bolls, in Doyle v. White City Stadium Ltd (1935) 1 K.B. 110 said:
  • ‘When these rules as altered are still for the purpose of carrying out the original purpose of the society or body of persons, the altered rules are made binding on the plaintiff. If there was an attempt fundamentally to alter the purpose for which the rules had been originally drawn up, the prospective agreement to adhere to-fresh rules, or any alteration in the rules, would not apply. It is quite plain from the decision in Thelluson v. Viscount Valentia (1907) 2 Ch. 1 that if and so long as the rules are akin to the purpose for which a society exists, there is no inherent, objection to an alteration of those rules or to further rules being made for the same purpose’.”

If Principles of Trust in a Club, It is in a Very Limited Sense

In Noel Frederick Barwell Vs. John Jackson AIR 1948 All 146 it was held further as under:

  • “58. The next argument of learned Counsel is based on the law of trust. He has urged that the property of the club vests in the committee of management and the ordinary and temporary members are all beneficiaries and that under the law of trust all beneficiaries must join in the extinction of the trust. In a sense, “the office bearers of any public body or institution including a club, are trustees, but I am afraid this cannot be of much assistance to learned counsel. There is no question in this case of the right of the officers of the club to put an end to it and I have already said that if there is a trust it is in a very limited sense. This is a case where the members of the club have passed a resolution by a majority, that the club should be dissolved, and the decision must, therefore, to my mind, rest on the decision of two simple questions, firstly whether the rules of the club have made any provision with regard to its dissolution and, if so, whether the rules have been complied with, and secondly, if there is no such rule, whether the resolution is valid and should be given effect to.”

In this decision the minority judgment pointed out, as to trust, as under:

  • “Finally it is said that the committee of the club are trustees of the club property and that the trust could only be extinguished with the consent of all the beneficiaries. But if a trust exists, it is created by the rules of the club and the trustees held the trust property subject to those rules; and if the rules permit of a dissolution at the will of the majority of the members then with the winding up of the club there is an extinguishments of the trust.”

6. Dissolution – Power of Governing Body

            A registered society is dissolved on resolution of the members of the society with required majority. Sections 13 and 14 of the SR Act provide for dissolution of societies and the consequences of such dissolution.  If the rules of the society do not lay down rules for disposal and settlement of the property on dissolution, the governing body is expressly authorized to do the same as it ‘finds expedient’. 

7. Dissolution – Power Given to Gov. Body is Distinct from Society

In Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College, Delhi Vs. The State of Delhi,[10] the Constitution Bench of our Apex Court held that the governing body is given a legal power somewhat distinct from that of the society itself.   It is observed:

  • “Section 13 provides for dissolution of societies and adjustment of their affairs. It says in effect that on dissolution of a society necessary steps shall be taken for the disposal and settlement of the property of the society, its claims and liabilities, according to the rules of the society; if there be no rules, then as the governing body shall find it expedient provided that in the event of any dispute arising among the said governing body or the members of the said society, the adjustment of the affairs shall be referred to the court. Here again the governing body is given a legal power somewhat distinct from that of the society itself.”

8. ‘Forthwith’ Meaning

In Bidya Deb Burma Vs. District Magistrate Tripura, Agartala,[11] our Apex Court interpreted ‘forthwith’ as under:

  • “When a Statute requires that something shall be done ‘forthwith’ or ‘immediately’ or even ‘instantly’, it should probably be understood as allowing a reasonable time for doing it.”

9. Voting by Proxy

See Chapter: Amendment of Bye laws

10. Dissolution: Property Goes to Another Society.

As per the Societies Registration Act, on dissolution, the left-behind-property of a society goes to another society as determined by the members of the society or by the court (S. 14) for being managed by ‘some other society’ and to be utilized for like purposes.[12]

11. Effect of Sec. 14 on a Defunct Society

Various State enactments empower the Registrars of Societies to dissolve societies.

In Mrigan Maity Vs. Daridra Bandhab Bhandar[13] it is observed that though only a few members of the society  have shown any interest in matters pertaining to the society for 36 years or so, it might  still not be presumed that the society was defunct that would warrant dissolution under the So. Rgn. Act.

From the object and scheme of the Societies Registration Acts it is clear that though the registration of a society may be cancelled by the Registrar or Court for it becomes defunct, the same would not set free the society from the clutches of the Societies Registration Act as to the provisions for dissolution.

12. Effect of Withdrawal of Majority of the Members from a Society

Where the membership in a society has been reduced to a few as massive portion of the members had been withdrawn, the validity of the resolutions taken by the General Body of such remaining members cannot be discarded as the decision of minority.

In JN Chaudhary Vs. State of Haryana[14]  where all members of a Co-operative Society except 10 out of 278 have been  withdrawn and thus the society practically reduced to a defunct one, our Apex Court considered the validity and correctness of the General Body resolution of the society in view of which a land was put to auction sale, and upholding the sale it was observed:

  • “… In a matter where the decision has been taken collectively by the General Body reflected in the form of a resolution passed by the General Body, it would be unjust and inappropriate to nurture a lurking doubt and keep suspecting the decision by entertaining the version of a handful who might be disgruntled or might be genuine but would be difficult to be gauged by any court so as to overrule the General Body resolution and accept the view of the minority based on no evidence except assumption and speculation”.

13. Dissolution of Societies by Court

There are no detailed provisions or meticulous particulars in the Societies Registration Act, 1860 for the dissolution of a society under the orders of the Court. But various States’ Acts and amendments provide for the same.

Section 25 of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955 provides that an application can be made by the State Government, or one tenth of the members of the society, to the District Court and court may after enquiry pass the following orders:

  • Removing the existing governing body;
  • Appointing a fresh governing body;
  • Framing a scheme for the better and efficient management; and
  • Dissolving the society.

Sub Section (1) of Sec. 13B of the Societies Registration Act, 1860 as amended in the State of UP provides for dissolution of a Society by Court on any of the following grounds:

  • (a) the society has contravened any provision of this Act or of any other law for the time being in force and it is just and equitable that the society should be dissolved;
  • (b) the number of the members of the society is reduced below seven;
  • (c) the society has ceased to function for more than Three Years preceding the date of such application;
  • (d) that the society is unable to pay its debts or meet its liabilities, or
  • (e) the registration of the society has been cancelled on the ground that its activities have been or are or will be opposed to public policy.

The court acts upon the application of the Registrar or on an application made by not less than one-tenth of its members. The court also acts upon an application of the District Magistrate on the ground that the activities of the society constitute a public nuisance or are otherwise opposed to public policy.

Section 25 of West Bengal Act also provides for dissolution of a society by Court on similar grounds. 

14. Dissolution of Societies by Registrar

Sec. 13A of the Societies Registration Act, 1860 as amended in the State of UP provides the power of the Registrar to dissolve a Society. If there are reasonable grounds to believe that any of the grounds mentioned in clauses (a) to (e) of sub-section (1) of Section 13B exists he shall send to the society a notice calling upon it to show-cause within such time as may be specified in the notice why the society be not dissolved. In case the society fails to show any cause or if the cause shown is considered by the Registrar to be unsatisfactory, the Registrar may move the Court for making an order for the dissolution of the Society.  Various State enactments empower the Registrars of Societies to dissolve societies.  The grounds include:

  • Carrying on any unlawful activity;
  • Object clause has not been fulfilled; 
  • Office/society ceased to function for a particular period;
  • Members are below the required number;
  • Society has been declared/become insolvent;
  • Activities are against the Governmental policy;
  • Contravened any law including the So. Regn. Act; 
  • Not managing its affairs properly,
  • Business of the society is being carried out fraudulently or not in accordance to the bye laws or objects.

15. Dissolution is Not an Answer for all Ills – Civil Court Jurisdiction

Holding that the dissolution of a society is not an effective answer for all ills of a society or complaints of the members, it is observed by Karnataka High Court in Ram Vs. Murlidhar[15] that the power of the Registrar  (Under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act, 1960) to dissolve the society might not be a proper answer to the grievances and the complaints of the plaintiffs when the plaintiffs were not seeking for any dissolution of the society but for proper management.

16. Can the Members Convert a Society into a ‘Trust’?

Society and trust are different concepts in the eye of law. Therefore, there cannot be a ‘transfer or conversion’ of society to trust or vice-versa.[16] The Karnataka High Court, in Chief Controlling Revenue Authority Vs. H Narasimhaiah[17] it is held that the documents as to conversion of the properties of a society into a trust property fall within the meaning of “settlement” under the Stamp Act. (It may be noted that, in this case, the court did not consider whether ‘trust’ is an ‘institution’ and whether such a change amounts to, or result in, dissolution of the society.)

In Shri Digambar Jain Vs. Sub Registrar, Stamps, Indore[18] it is held in a similar situation that the documents would be ‘Declaration of Trust’ and not a ‘Conveyance’.

17. Dissolution & Unification of Churches

In Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti[19] there was no resolution showing compliance with the procedure for dissolution as required under the Societies Registration Act, and all the materials on record only talked about amalgamation. Therefore it was held that the procedure for dissolution of the society had not been conformed to the requirements set out in Section 13 of the Societies Registration Act.

18. S. 14 not Applicable to Literary/Scientific Clubs

Sec. 14 of the So. Regn. Act reads:

  • 14. Upon a dissolution no member to receive profit: If upon the dissolution of any society …  any property … shall be given to some other society…

Clause not to apply to Joint-stock Companies: Provided, however, that this clause shall not apply to any society which has been founded or established by the contributions of share-holders in the nature of a Joint-stock Company.

Sec. 14 lays down that upon the dissolution of a society registered under this Act, the property of that society shall not be distributed among the members, but shall be given to some other society, as directed in this Section.

In the proviso to this Section, it is stated that this Clause does not to apply to Joint-stock Companies. It is clear that the Associations ‘founded or established by the contributions of share-holders in the nature of a Joint-stock Company’ ‘for any literary, scientific, or charitable purpose’[20] can also be registered under the So. Regn. Act.

19. Can a Society be Transformed as Trust, by Resolution

Societies Registration Act (S. 14) provides special procedure for dissolution of societies. The left-behind-property of a Society, on dissolution, goes to another Society as determined by the members of the Society or by the court. Either during the subsistence of a Society or at the time of its dissolution the members of a Society do not have beneficial enjoyment of its property.[21]  In companies, the share-holders hold the property as their own.[22]

The property of a registered Society cannot absolutely vest in its members. In Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College, Delhi Vs. The State of Delhi[23] it is held, with respect to the privileges conferred by registration of a society, as under:

  • “Thus something in the nature of perpetual succession is conceded by the provision that the society’s property is to vest in the trustees for the time being of the society for the use and benefit of the society and its members and of all persons claiming through the members according to the society’s rules, and further (and this is the most noteworthy provision) that the property shall pass to succeeding trustees without assignment or transfer.”

The members of a registered Society are trustees for the future members who have to continue the aim and objects of the Society as envisaged by the founders or as manifested in the Rules or Bylaws. Such property ‘shall continue to exist in perpetuity and it would not cease to exist by a resolution’ of the society;[24] and therefore the members of a society do not have the right to annihilate the characteristics of the society and transfer or transform the same to a trust. In Pamulapati Buchi Naidu College Committee, Nidubrolu Vs. Govt. of AP[25] it is observed:

  • “If what is vested in the College Committee or its governing body is a right of management simpliciter, there is no question of the members of the society or the members of the governing body being beneficially interested in its property.”
  • “The Societies Registration Act, therefore, does not create in the members of the registered society any interest other than that of bare trustees. What all the members are entitled to, is the right of management of the properties of the society subject to certain conditions.” [26]

Underhill, in his treatise, ‘Law of Trusts and Trustees’, explained it thus:

  • “However, the crucial difference surely is that no absolutely entitled members exist if the gift is on trust for future and existing members, always being for the members of the Association for the time being. The members for the time being cannot under the Association rules appropriate trust property for themselves for there would then be no property held on trust as intended by the testator for those persons who some years later happened to be the members of the Association for the time being”.[27]

20. Effect of Unification of a Trust and a Registered Society

Trusts and societies can be dissolved only by adhering to the special procedures for the same. Unification of a registered society with a trust, under the resolutions, will not dissolve the society, automatically. Similarly, unless the properties vested in a trust are divested in accordance with law, a lawful merger cannot be claimed. Registered societies and trusts have to resort to the lawful modes for amalgamation.[28]

21. Escheat

If a club or society is defunct and no one claims that the club or society functions, the principles and law on escheat allows the vesting of property in Government. But in case of dispute, the onus will be heavy on the State to make out a case of escheat or bona vacantia.


[1]   See: Indian National Congress (I) Vs. Institute of Social Welfare: AIR 2002 SC 1258; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. The Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22-Dlh-1031; Patna Improvement Trust Vs. Smt. Lakshmi Devi: 812 SCR [1963] Supp.; State of Bihar  Vs. JAC Saldanh: (1980) 1 SCC 554: AIR 1980 SC 326; Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti:  (2013) 15  SCC 394; Nazir Ahmed case: AIR 1936 PC 253.

[2]   Prasanna Venkitesa Rao Vs. Srinivasa Rao: AIR 1931 Mad. 12.         See also: Profulla Chorone Requitte Vs. Satya Chorone Requitte: AIR 1979 SC 1682.

[3]      Quoted in Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001- Para 69.

[4]      AIR 1969 All 248

[5]      Noel F Barwell Vs. John Jackson: AIR 1948 All 146.         It is considered in Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar: AIR1959  All 598;        See also: Jamiat Ulama Vs. Maulana Mahmood Asad Madni: ILR 2008 -17 Dlh 1950;        Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Addl. Registrar Co-Op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[6]      Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic& Unani Tibia College Vs. The State: AIR 1962 SC 458.        Relied on in Dharam Dutt Vs. Union Of India: AIR  2004 SC1295.

[7]   Prasanna Venkitesa Rao Vs. Srinivasa Rao: AIR 1931 Mad. 12.      Relied on: Milligan Vs. Mitchel: 40 ER 852,      Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun: (1904) AC 515.  

[8]     AIR 1979 SC 1682

[9]     2007-4 Raj LW 3547

[10]  AIR 1962 SC 458 (para13)

[ 11] AIR 1969 SC 323

[12]  Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani T. College Vs. The State: AIR 1962 SC 458: Para 23.

[13]   2011-4 Cal LT 226

[14]    AIR  2014 SC 2018

[15] 2008-2 Kant LJ 141; 2008 AIHC 1391

[16]   See Chapter: ‘Incidents of Trust in Clubs and Societies’.

[17]   AIR 1991 Kar 392

[18]   AIR 1970 MP 23 (FB)

[19]   2013 AIR (SCW) 5782; (2013) 15  SCC 394

[20]   See S. 20.

[21] Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani T College Vs. The State:  AIR 1962 SC 458– Para 23.

[22]    Pamulapati Buchi Naidu College Committee, Nidubrolu Vs. Govt. of AP: AIR 1958 AP 773.

[23]    AIR 1962 SC 458

[24] Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai: AIR 2005 SC 2544: 2005 (10) SCC 760. Followed in Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti: 2013 AIR (SCW) 5782: AIR 2013 SC (CIV) 2849; (2013) 15  SCC 394.

[25]    AIR 1958 AP 773

[26]    See also: Raj Kumar Gaba Vs. State of UP: 2012-49 VST 252; Commissioner of Income Tax Vs. Merchant Navy Club: 1974-96 ITR 261; Gurdwara Prabandhak Committee Vs. Jagmonan Singh: ILR  1971-2 Del 515.

[27]    Quoted in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs.  Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001- Para 69.                

[28] Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti: (2013) 15 SCC 394.



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Amendment of Bye laws of Societies and Clubs

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Synopsis

  • 1.      Introduction
  • 2.      Meaning of ‘Purpose’
  • 2.      No Alteration of Fundamental Principles and Trust
  • 3.      Principles of Trust are Inbuilt in Societies and Clubs
  • 4.      Power to Amend the Rules Is Implicit
  • 5.      Amendment: Provision Mandatory
  • 6.      No Indirect Amendment Allowable
  • 7.      Society, and not Court, Determine Validity of Amendment
  • 8.      Voting by Proxy
  • 9.      Halsbury’s Laws: Alteration must be in Good Faith for the Benefit of the Co.
  • 10.    Amendment Comes into Effect before Registration
  • 11.    No Power on Registrar to Grant Approval to Amendment
  • 12.    Amalgamation
  • 13.    Can a Society be Transformed as Trust, by Resolution

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act, 1860:

  • 12. Societies enabled to alter, extend or abridge their purposes: Whenever it shall appear to the governing body of any society registered under this Act, which has been established for any particular purpose or purposes, that it is advisable to alter, extend, or abridge such purpose to or for other purposes within the meaning of this Act,
  • or to amalgamate such society either wholly or partially with any other society,
  • such governing body may submit the proposition to the members of the society in a written or printed report,
  • and may convene a special meeting for the consideration thereof according to the regulations of the society;
  • but no such proposition shall be carried into effect unless such report shall have been delivered or sent by post to every member of the society ten days previous to the special meeting convened by the governing body for the consideration thereof,
  • nor unless such proposition shall have been agreed to by the votes of three-fifths of the members delivered in person or by proxy,
  • and confirmed by the votes of three-fifths of the members present at a second special meeting convened by the governing body at an interval of one months after the former meeting.

1. Introduction

Since the right to form an association is a constitutional right, the right to continue the association as per its bye laws is also a constitutional right.[1]

Except the rights with respect to alter, extend or abridge the ‘purposes’, as provided under Section 12, the Societies Registration Act, 1860 does not specifically state anything as to the amendment of Memorandum or Rules and Regulations. The provisions in the bye laws of the society govern the amendment.

2. No Alteration of Fundamental Principles of Foundation and Trust

Any action taken contrary to the bye laws would be ultra vires.[2] Even the entire members of an association, altogether, cannot legally do a thing which is ultra vires. But, they are at liberty to amend their bye laws in accordance with law. Nevertheless the power of amendment is not unlimited – it should not be hit by the doctrines of illegalities and ‘basic principles of foundation’ or ‘basic structure’.

It is held in Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh:[3]

  • “Rule of Law demands and dictates that the people follow the Law. The Constitution, whether of the State or of a Society registered under the Societies Act, is paramount. As people are to follow the Law in a State, so the members of a Society are duty-bound to follow the Constitution of the Society. After all, the Constitution is the soul of the Society. The Society, therefore, cannot function in contravention of its Constitution. .… In case the action of the Sabha is contrary to the tenor and spirit of its Constitution, the said action cannot be sustained by a Court of law. The doctrine of factum valet is applicable to cure the violation of a directory provision or a mere matter of form but does not cure the violation of the fundamental principles or the essence of the transaction.”

In Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam[4] the Division Bench considered the relevant statutory Rule under which meeting of the governing body of a college had to be convened and pointed out that acts in violation of the Rules would be void, unlawful and illegal and was liable to be set aside.

It is not open for the majority of the members of an association to alter the fundamental principles upon which it is founded, unless such a power is specifically reserved. This principle laid down in Milligan Vs.  Mitchel,[5] Attorney General Vs. Anderson[6] and Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun[7] is referred to in Prasanna Venkitesa Rao Vs. Srinivasa Rao.[8]

House of Lords in Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun[9] (by a majority of 5-2) found that the minority was entitled to the assets of the Free Church. It was observed that when men subscribe money for a particular object, and leave it behind them for the promotion of that object, their successors have no right to change the object endowed. It was held that, by adopting new standards of doctrine (and particularly by abandoning its commitment to ‘the establishment principle’, which was held to be fundamental to the Free Church), the majority had violated the conditions on which the property of the Free Church was held.

In Noel Frederick Barwell Vs. John Jackson (1948)[10] it was held as under:

  • “51. It has been argued by Mr. Pathak on the basis of this decision and the decision of the House of Lords in Hole v. Garnsey (1930) 1930 A.C. 472, already referred to, that the rules of every association may be divided into two classes – the rules relating to fundamentals and the ordinary rules. Learned Counsel went on to urge that the fundamental rules could not be altered even by a unanimous vote of the members, though, if the rules provided for amendments, the other rules could be ant ended. It is not necessary for me to go into this question as the point does not arise in this case, but if I may say so without meaning any disrespect, the cases cited above have entirely been misunderstood. All that their Lordships intended to say was that the rules of any club being framed for the purpose of carrying on the objects of the club, ordinarily any power to amend such rules must be limited to the contemplated scope of the original rules and that under the general powers of amendment the alteration should not affect the foundation of the club or should not be incompatible with its fundamental objects.
  • 52. Dealing with this question Lord Han – worth, Master of the Bolls, in Doyle v. White City Stadium Ltd (1935) 1 K.B. 110 said:
  • ‘When these rules as altered are still for the purpose of carrying out the original purpose of the society or body of persons, the altered rules are made binding on the plaintiff. If there was an attempt fundamentally to alter the purpose for which the rules had been originally drawn up, the prospective agreement to adhere to-fresh rules, or any alteration in the rules, would not apply. It is quite plain from the decision in Thelluson v. Viscount Valentia (1907) 2 Ch. 1 that if and so long as the rules are akin to the purpose for which a society exists, there is no inherent, objection to an alteration of those rules or to further rules being made for the same purpose’.”

3. Principles of Trust are Inbuilt in Societies and Clubs

Actions of persons in fiduciary position should subserve their position as such. In Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai[11] it was pointed out by our Apex Court that in terms of Section 5 of the Societies Registration Act, only if the property of a society is not vested in trustees the same would be deemed to have been vested for the time being in the governing body of a society.[12]

The trustees or the governing body administer the ‘property of the society’ as per its bye laws so as to fulfill or attain the ‘aim and objects’ the founders viewed.  They acquire and hold the property for and on behalf of the members of the society subject to the trust and obligations imposed by law, the bye laws and the fundamental principles upon which it is founded. These propositions lead to the unerring conclusion that our law brings-in principles of trust in the affairs of the societies and clubs. [13]  

4. Power to Amend the Rules Is Implicit

The Memorandum of Association is a contract amongst the members of the Society. The authority to frame, amend, vary and rescind such rules, undoubtedly, vests in the General Body of the Members of the Society. The power to amend the rules is implicit in the power to frame rules; [14] provided, as shown above, it should not hit the ‘basic principles of foundation’.

Even when there is no specific power to amend the bylaws or Rules, an (unregistered) association can amend the same (without destroying its ‘Basic Structure’), as this power is ‘sui generis‘. In other words, such powers can also be taken to be derived out from inherent authority vest with the club or society, especially since they are voluntary (unregistered) associations function under the fundamental guarantees extended by the Constitution of the Country. Therefore, there may be no scope to explore deep to find out the genesis of this right. But, once the Societies Registration Act or the bye laws provide a particular procedure for amendment of bye laws, the same has to be strictly observed, as shown below.

5. Meaning of ‘Purpose’

Section 1 of the Societies Registration Act refers to ‘purpose’ and Section 2, the ‘object’. The connotations conveyed by these two terms have to be derived from the wordings of these two sections.   

Sections 1 and 2 of the Societies Registration Act reads:

  • 1. Societies formed by memorandum of association and registration –   Any seven or more persons associated for any literary, scientific, or charitable purpose, or for any such purpose as is described in section 20 of this Act, may, …..
  •   2. Memorandum of association – The memorandum of association shall contain the following things, that is to say, the name of the society; the object of the society; ……..

6. Amendment: Difference between ‘Purpose’ Clause and other Clauses of Bylaws

Subject to the provisions in the Act, if any, applicable and the bye laws, the final authority of every society and club shall vest in the general body[15] of the members in general meeting, summoned in such manner as may be specified in the bye-laws.

The provision for amendment in Sec. 12 is stringent. But, it is confined to object-clause alone. It is mandatory.[16] Once the Societies Registration Act or the bye laws provide a particular procedure for a particular affair (such as amendment of bye laws, election or dissolution), the same has to be carried on as per that procedure. Because, if a thing is prescribed to be done in a particular way, it can be done in only that way, and by no other Way.[17] Now the following questions may arise-

  • Is there difference between amendment of ‘object-clause’ and other provisions of Bylaws?
  • If there is difference, how other provisions are to be amended?

Answer:

  • Prima-facie, it can be seen that thee is difference.
  • Other provisions of bylaws are to be amended as provided under the bylaws.
  • If no provision in the bylaws, the amendment can be effected by a simple majority in a validly convened general body of the Society or Club. But, no doubt, natural justice would demand prior notice to the members of the society or club as to the amendment.
  • If an amendment is effected otherwise than by adopting the procedure laid down in Sec. 12 (complying natural justice as stated above), and a dispute comes as to whether the amendment involved the ‘variation of the purpose’ stated in Sec. 12 or not, it will have to be resolved by a civil court.
  • No Indirect Amendment Allowable – It is held in Modern India Ltd. Vs. Belvedere Court Condominium[18] that where a clause in the bye laws must remain un-amendable by virtue of the provisions of the bye laws, no indirect amendment can be allowed. The bye laws constitute a contract between the association and its members, and also between the members inter-se. Hence the members are bound-by the bye laws. The defendants are, therefore, estopped from acting to the contrary.

7. Society, and not the Court, to Determine Validity of Amendment

It is for the members, and not the court, to determine whether or not the alteration of its Rules is for the benefit of the association or company; and the court will not readily interfere with an alteration made in good faith, if the amendment is made after considering all relevant factors. All members are bound by a valid alteration whether they voted for or against it.[19] What is in the interest of the society is primarily for the society alone to decide and it is not for an outside agency to say.[20]

It is observed in In re, Goneshberi Tea Co. P Ltd.[21] as under:

  •  “If the shareholders of the company after considering all relevant factors are of opinion that by making contributions to Labour Welfare Funds they would satisfy various aspirations of the workers and ensure smooth running of the company, it would not be proper for the Company Law Board to impose its own view on them.”

In Greenhalgh v. Arderne Cinemas[22] it is held that ‘a share holder has no right to assume that his company’s articles would always remain in a particular form and he cannot object to an alteration as fraudulent provided it was passed bona fide and did not unfairly discriminate.’

But, in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma Mathews, [23] the Supreme Court observed:

  • “Inasmuch as the Malankara Association was vested with control over the religious and communal affairs of the entire Malankara Christian Community, it was held desirable and necessary that the Association must ‘truly and genuinely reflect the Will of the said community’. For ensuring it, it was observed: [24] ‘Its composition must be so structured as to represent the entire spectrum of the community. A powerful body having control over both spiritual and communal affairs of the Malankara Church should be composed in a reasonable and fair manner. ……… It was held that it is necessary to substitute cl. (68) (now cl. (71)) and other relevant clauses of the Constitution to achieve the aforesaid objective which would also affirm the democratic principle, which appears to be one of the basic tenets of this church’.”

8. Voting by Proxy

Proxy is not a common law right. It is the creature of law of agency.[25] Therefore,  proxy shall not be entitled to attend the meetings or to vote in a Company or other Associations unless the enactment concerned or the bye laws applicable specifically provide for the same.

The relationship between the member and his proxy being that of a principal and agent, the rights and obligations, including the matters as to (i) competency, (ii) revocation, (iii) limitations, (iv) entitlement of the agent to compensation, (v) effect of revocation upon third parties, (vi) termination of authority etc., are governed by the law of contract.[26]

9. Halsbury’s Laws of England

Alteration must be in Good Faith for the Benefit of the Company

Subject to the principles of public-policy, any person or group can change their persuasions. The validity of the amendment of the bye laws of a society is tested by Courts, if so required, on the touch-stone of good-faith and doctrine of ultra-vires. Halsbury’s Laws of England[27] reads as to alteration of articles of a company as follows:

  • “Any alteration must be made in good faith for the benefit of the company as a whole, that is, of the corporators as a general body. Subject to this, articles may be freely altered. It is for the shareholders and not the court to determine whether or not the alteration is for the benefit of the company and the court will not readily interfere with an alteration made in good faith unless it is of such a character that no reasonable person could have regarded it as made for the benefit of the company. The alteration may affect the rights of the member as between himself and the company by retrospective operation, since the shares are held subject to the statutory power of altering the articles.”

10. Amendment Comes into Effect before Registration

The Societies Registration Act does not require registration of ‘alteration’ in the Rules and Regulations. Therefore, it cannot be held that registration of the amendment is a condition precedent for giving effect to such an alteration.

In Managing Committee, Khalsa Middle School Vs. Mohinder Kaur[28] the Supreme Court drew a distinction between the provisions of the Companies Act, 1956 and the Societies Registration Act and observed:

  •        “In the absence of any requirement in the Societies Registration Act that the alteration in the Rules and Regulations must be registered with the Registrar, it cannot be held that registration of the amendment is a condition precedent for such an alteration to come into effect. .. The said amendment should be treated to have come into effect from the date on which the resolution making the said amendment was passed …”

11. No Power Upon the Registrar to Grant Approval to Amendment

There is no provision in the Societies Registration Act expressly conferring power upon the Registrar to grant his approval to the amendments carried out to any bye-laws by a registered society.

12. Amalgamation

Registered societies can be amalgamated only by resorting to the lawful modes for amalgamation in the So. Registration Act.[29] A Society can be merged into another society alone, and not into a Trust.[30] Upon amalgamation one society ceases to exist, and its losses cannot be adjusted against profits of amalgamated society.[31]

13. Can a Society be Transformed as Trust, by Resolution

See Chapter: Dissolution of Societies and Clubs


[1]   Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies, Kerala Vs. TA Kuttappan: (2000) 6 SCC 127;         Damyanti Naranga Vs. Union of India: AIR 1971 SC 966;         K. Nithyanandam Vs. State of Tamil Nadu : 2006 (1) CTC 1;         Zoroastrian Co -operative Housing Society Vs. District Registrar: AIR 2005 SC 2306.

[2]   Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: (2005) 11 SCC 73: AIR 2005 SC 4074;          Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Addl. Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439. 

[3]    2007-4 Raj LW 3547

[4]    1998 (1) GLR 38

[5]      40 ER 852

[6]      (1888) 57 LJ Ch 543

[7]      (1904) AC 515:

[8]      AIR 1931 Mad. 12. See also: Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547;          Allahabad High School Society Vs. State of UP: 2010-5 ADJ 734, 2010-82 All LR 83;         P. Jayader Vs. Thiruneelakanta Nadar Chinnaneela Nadar: ILR  1966-2 Mad 92.

[9]      (1904) AC 515

[10] AIR 1948 All 146

[11]    AIR 2005 SC 2544.         See also:  Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas: (2013) 15  SCC 394.

[12]    Relied on in Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti: (2013) 15 SCC 394. 

[13]    See: Chapter: Incidents of Trust in Clubs and Societies

[14]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774; AIR 2011  (SCW) 5804

[15]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del  1031;         Girish Mulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[16]    Ram Charan Agarwala Vs. Shridhar Misra: AIR 1962 All 610;         Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar: AIR 1959 All 598.

[17]    See: Indian National Congress (I) Vs. Institute of Social Welfare: AIR 2002 SC 1258; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. The Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22-Dlh-1031; Patna Improvement Trust Vs. Smt. Lakshmi Devi: 812 SCR [1963] Supp. State of Bihar Vs. J.A.C. Saldanha (1980) 1 SCC 554: AIR 1980 SC 326; Vinodkumar M. MalaviaVs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti:  (2013) 15  SCC 394; Nazir Ahmed case: AIR 1936 PC 253.

[18] 2014-4 BCR 790.

[19]    Hari Chandana Yoga Deva v. Hindustan Co-op. Insurance Society: AIR 1925 Cal 690

[20]    State of Maharashtra Vs. Karvanagar Sahakari Griha (2000) 9 SCC 295;         Zoroastrian Co -operative Housing Society Vs. District Registrar AIR  2005 SC 2306.

[21]    (1964) 34 Comp Cases 556, 565 (Cal)

[22]    (1950) 2 All ER 1120 (CA)

[23]    AIR 1996 SC 3121 (Jeevan Reddy and SC Sen JJ.).  Shai, J did not concur with this view.

[24]    Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma Mathews: AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[25]   Nand Prasad Vs. Arjun Prasad: AIR 1959 Pat  293.

[26]   B. Ramachandra Adityan Vs. TN Mercantile Bank Shareholders Assn: 2009-5 CTC 727; SRMST Narayanan Chettiar Vs. Kaleeswarar Mills: AIR 1952 Mad 515

[27]    Para 554 (Vol. 7(1) 4th Edn., Reissue, 1988)

[28] (1993) Supp. 4 SCC 26 ; AIR 1993 SCW 3006.         Sindhi Edn. Society Vs. Chief Secty. Govt of Delhi: AIR 2010 SCW 5393; 2010-8 SCC 49

[29]    Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti: (2013) 15 SCC 394.

[30]   Janta Junior High School, Sonhita VS State of UP: 2016-3 LBESR 748: 2016-34 LCD 2722

[31]   Rajasthan R. S. S.  & Ginning Mills Fed.  Ltd.  Vs Dy.  Commissioner of Income Tax, Jaipur: 2014-11 SCC 672.



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Individual Membership Rights in Societies & Clubs, and their Enforcement

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Synopsis

  • 1.      Court’s Jurisdiction in Civil Disputes of Associations
  • 2.      Instances When Court Interferes
  • 3.      Limitations to the Rule of Majority
  • 4.      General Law of Contracts and Companies Act
  • 5.      No Suit Where Statutory Authorities Have Jurisdiction
  • 6.      When Minority can File Suits without Sanction of Majority
  • 7.      Individual Membership Rights and Qualified Minority Rights
  • 8.     Qualified minority rights
  • 9.      Individual Membership Rights and Corp. Membership Rights
  • 10. Individual Can Maintain Cause of the Collective Body
  • 11.   Foss Vs. Harbottle
  • 12.    Exceptions to the Rule in Foss Vs. Harbottle
  • 13.    Derivative Action
  • 14.   Theoretical Sources for Court-Intervention
  • 15.   When Court Interferes

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act, 1860:

  • 6. Suits by and against societies – Every society registered under this Act may sue or be sued in the name of the president, chairman, or principal secretary, or trustees, as shall be determined by the rules and regulations of the society, and, in default of such determination, in the name of such person as shall be appointed by the governing body for the occasion.
  •    Provided that it shall be competent for any person having a claim or demand against the society, to sue the president or chairman, or principal secretary or the trustees thereof, if on application to the governing body some other officer or person be not nominated to be the defendant.

Court’s Jurisdiction in Civil Disputes of Associations of Persons

The civil courts have jurisdiction to deal with civil disputes pertaining to property and person.[1] The courts will not ordinarily interfere with the internal affairs of associations of persons. The jurisdiction of a civil court to interfere with the internal affairs of associations is ‘rather limited’.[2] Courts interfere in the internal matters of associations, on proper grounds, to safeguard its affairs in general, so also to protect the lawful interests of the individual members of such associations. Beyond the general jurisdiction of courts to intervene and set right illegalities, the jurisdiction thereof is obtained by Courts from three sources:  

  • (i)  contract, [3]
  • (ii) court is the protector of all charities[4] and
  • (iii) formation of associations is, besides common law right as well as statutory right, a fundamental right[5] protected by our courts.

Instances When Court Interferes

See Chapter: Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs.

Limitations to the Rule of Majority

Rights of minority shareholders in a company, or of minority members of an association are protected

  • (a) by the common/general law pertaining to contract and associations, and
  • (b) by the provisions of the enactments applicable.

In N K Mohapatra Vs. State[6] it is observed:

  • “Even though rule of majority prevails, it cannot be so in certain cases. A proper balance of rights of majority and minority shareholders is essential for smooth functioning of the company. Attempt is to be made to maintain that balance by admitting, on principle, the rule of majority but limiting it, at the same time by number of well defined minority rights. The exceptions under the common law are, however, as exceptions to the rule in Foss v. Horbottle (1843) 2 Hare 461. Majority cannot confirm:
  •  (i)  any act which is illegal or ultra vires the company;
  •  (ii) any act which is a fraud on the minority.
  • Reason for this exception is that if minority shareholders were denied right to bring an action on behalf of themselves and all others, their grievance would never reach the Court because the wrong-doers themselves being in control would not allow the company to sue.  Various rights are given to minority shareholders under the Act. Under the general law …. the majority of members must not commit a fraud on minority but must act bona fide for benefit of the company as a whole. Thus, in Cook v. Deeks (916) I AC 554, an individual shareholder was able, despite Foss’s case (supra), to bring an action to recover company’s property from those who had taken it and who, by their voting power, prevented the company itself from suing. Again, an alteration of articles must not be in fraud of the minority. Chapter V I of the Act deals with prevention of oppression and mismanagement. Ss. 397 and 398 deal with the procedure for getting relief in cases of oppression and mismanagement respectively.”

General Law of Contracts and Companies Act

In TAK Mohideen Pichai Taraganar Vs.  Tinnevelly Mills Co.[7] it was held that the general right of suit cannot be considered to have been taken away merely because of some ‘regulatory’ provisions.

 Relying on this decision, it is held in Avanthi Explosives P. Ltd. Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge, Tirupathi[8] that the general law of contracts is the basis of the rights of parties and that the Companies Act merely ‘regulates’ these rights and does not create any new right or remedy. Unless there is an exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil court, by words express or implied, the suit is maintainable, and no such exclusion has been held existing by the courts in respect of individual rights.

No Civil Suit Where Statutory Authorities Have Jurisdiction

The dismissal of the suit was upheld by our Apex Court in Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai[9] holding that the civil court has no jurisdiction where bar is imposed in relation to a matter whereover the statutory authorities (under BPT Act) have the requisite jurisdiction. It is observed that in such a case, if only a question arises which is outside the purview of the Act or in relation to a matter unconnected with the administration or possession of the trust property, the Civil Court may have jurisdiction. It is also pointed out in this decision that a society created under a statute must conform to its provisions and the courts would interfere in case of its violation.[10]

When Minority can File Suits without Sanction of Majority

Certain rights of minority shareholders in a company, or of minority members of an association, are protected by our courts. [11] Such rights can be classified, generally, under following heads.

  • (i)   Individual Membership Rights
  • (ii)  Qualified Minority Rights
  • (iii) Corporate membership rights
  • (iv) Exceptions to the Rule in Foss Vs. Harbottle
  • (v)  Derivative Action

Kalinga Tubes Ltd Vs. Shanti Prasad Jain

In Kalinga Tubes Ltd Vs. Shanti Prasad Jain[12] it is observed as under:

  • “The rule of supremacy of the majority, usually referred to as the Rule in Foss v. Harbottle, (1848-2 Hare 461), is subject to considerable qualification which can be grouped under three heads:
  • (a) individual membership rights,
  • (b) qualified minority rights, and
  • (c) exceptions, properly called, to the Rule in Foss v. Harbottle, which are
    • (i) an act which is ultra vires the Company or illegal;
    • (ii) an act which constitutes a fraud against the minority and the wrongdoers are themselves in control of the Company; and
    • (iii) a resolution which requires a qualified majority but has been passed by simple majority.”

It is further observed that the ‘alternative remedy’ is available under two conditions

  • (i) the affairs of the Company are conducted in manner oppressive to some part of the members, and
  • (ii) the Court must find a case for winding-up order under the just and equitable clause but such winding up would unfairly prejudice the members.

Palmer on Company Law

Palmer on Company Law lays down that the rights a share carries are

  • (a) principal rights
  • (b) rights of an ancillary character and
  • (c) corporate and individual membership rights.[13] It is observed:

With respect to principal rights, it is stated:

  • “The Principal rights which a share may carry are –
  • (1) The right to dividend if, while the company is a going concern, a dividend is duly declared;
  • (2) the right to vote at the meetings of members; and
  • (3) the right, in the winding up of the company, after the payment of the debts to receive a proportionate part of the capital or otherwise to participate in the distribution of assets of the company.”

With respect to ancillary rights, it is stated:

  • “Apart from these principal rights and duties, others of ancillary character are carried by a share, e.g., the following rights of the shareholder:
  • (a) to receive notice of general meetings unless the articles otherwise provide;
  • (b) to receive a copy of every balance sheet (and of the documents annexed there to) which is to be laid before the general meeting;
  • (c) to receive a copy of the memorandum, and the articles;
  • (d) to inspect and obtain copies of the minutes of general meetings;
  • (e) to inspect copies of Directors’ service contracts;
  • (f) to inspect the various registers to be maintained by the company without charge.”

The author continues:

  • “Apart from those principal and ancillary rights which a share carries, the shareholder is further entitled to the numerous corporate and individual membership rights  which the constitution of the company or the Acts themselves give him; examples of these rights are:
  • (a) to petition the court for the winding up of the company;
  • (b) to petition for the alternative remedy”

The law on the matter is summed up as under:

  • “To sum up: The holding of a share in a company limited by shares generally carries the right to receive a proportion of the profits of the company and of its assets in the winding up, and all other benefits of membership, combined with an obligation to contribute to its liabilities, all measured by a certain sum of money which is the nominal value of the share, and all subject to the memorandum and articles of the company.”

Individual Membership Rights and Qualified Minority Rights

The ‘individual membership right’ is the right to maintain oneself in full membership of a society or a company with all the rights and privileges pertaining to that status.[14] The principal individual membership rights recognized in law were the right to vote and stand as a candidate in elections.

But its scope was widened accepting, by courts, that this right implies the right to insist strict observance of the legal rules, statutory provisions and provisions in the memorandum and articles which cannot be waived by a bare majority of shareholders.

Starlite Real Estate (ASCOT) Mauritius Ltd. Case

In Starlite Real Estate (ASCOT) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited[15]  it is observed as under: 

  • “There is a clear distinction between individual and corporate membership rights of shareholders. A member can always sue for wrongs done to himself in his capacity as a member. The individual rights of a member arise in part from the general law. … … The dividing line between personal and corporate rights is not always very easy to draw. The Courts, however, incline to treat a provision in the memorandum or articles as conferring a personal right on a member, if he has a special interest in its observance distinct from the general interest which every member has in the company adhering to the terms of its constitution. In an action for violation of personal rights a single shareholder suing alone and not even on behalf of other shareholders may make the company a defendant and obtain his reliefs. Where a wrong has been done to the company and an action is brought to restrain its continuance or to recover the company’s property or damages or compensation due to it, it is a derivative action.”[16]

The individual membership rights can be exercised by any individual shareholder.[17] Following are expressed as rights “under the contract”, “emanating from his membership” in Starlite Real Estate (ASCOT) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited:[18]

  • “to have his name entered and kept on the register of members;
  • to vote at meetings of members;
  • to receive dividends which have been duly declared;
  • to exercise pre-emption rights conferred by the articles and
  • to have his capital returned in proper order of priority on a winding up or on a properly authorized reduction of capital.”

It is further demonstrated that “under the general law” he is entitled

  • “to restrain the company from doing acts which are ultra vires;
  • to have a reasonable opportunity to speak at meetings of members;
  • to move amendments to resolutions proposed at such meetings to transfer his shares;
  • not to have his financial obligations to the company increased without his consent; and
  • to exercise the many rights conferred on him by the Companies Act, such as his right to inspect various documents and registers kept by the Company.”

Life Insurance Corporation of India Vs. Escorts Limited

Our Apex Court held in Life Insurance Corporation of India Vs. Escorts Limited[19] as under: 

  • “The rights of a shareholder are:
  • (i)   to elect Directors and thus to participate in the management through them;
  • (ii) to vote on resolutions at meetings of the Company;
  • (iii) to enjoy the profits of the Company in the shape. of dividends;
  • (iv) to apply to the Court for relief in the case of oppression;
  • (v) to apply to the Court for relief in the case of mismanagement;
  • (vi) to apply to the Court for winding up of the Company;
  • (vii)to share in the surplus on winding up” and transfer of shares.”

To enforce ‘individual membership rights’, a member of a Company or an association can file suits in his personal capacity; that is, without the sanction of majority and without impleading the company, club or society as a co-plaintiff or defendant. They are rights which cannot be waived by a bare majority of shareholders.

The following are the well recognised individual membership rights.[20]

  •  (i)  Right to vote,
  • (ii) right to stand as a candidate as a director/ office-bearer and 
  • (iii) set-right illegal acts.

Nagappa Chettiar Vs. Madras Race Club

In Nagappa Chettiar Vs. Madras Race Club,[21] a suit filed for declaration that the meeting of the general body held on 7/11/1947 was invalid and that the managing committee comprising of certain defendants purported to have been elected at the said meeting was not entitled to assume office and for consequential injunction, it is held:

  • “A share-holder is entitled to institute a suit to enforce his individual rights against the Company such as his right to vote or his right to stand as a director of a company at an election ……….. It is open to a majority always to set right a thing which was done by the majority either illegally or irregularly if thing complained of was one which the majority of the company were entitled to do legally and was within the powers of the company, by calling a fresh meeting.  That is the reason why in such cases the court refuses to interfere at the instance of a share-holder even in a representative action brought by him. If the majority, however, acts in an oppressive manner, it is not as if the minority are without a remedy. …… From this it follows that a share-holder or share-holders are entitled to bring an action:
  •  (i) In respect of matters which are ultra vires the company and which the majority of share-holders were incapable of sanctioning;[22]
  • (ii) Where the act complained of constitutes a fraud on the minority and
  • (iii) Where the action of the majority is illegal“.

Joseph Vs. Jos

Referring the individual membership rights and the corporate membership rights of members in a Company, the Kerala High Court (KK Mathew, J.), in Joseph Vs. Jos,[23] pointed out that an individual membership right is a right to maintain himself in full membership with all the rights and privileges appertaining to that status; and that this right implies that the individual shareholder can insist on the strict observance of the legal rules, statutory provisions and provisions in the memorandum and articles which cannot be waived by a bare majority of shareholders.[24]

Qualified Minority Rights

Contra-distinct to individual membership rights, to enforce the qualified minority rights the co-operation of the minority group of a specified size within the corporate body is required (Paras 59.02 and 58.04 of Palmer).[25] The qualified minority rights enable the minority to preserve, in important matters, the status which is founded on the original contract of shareholders and the company.

In Mathrubhumi Printing and Publishing Co. Ltd. Vs. Vardhaman Publishers Ltd. [26] it is pointed out from the Companies Act, 1956 that the proceedings to enforce qualified minority rights could be initiated only under Section 397 or Section 398 read with Section 399 of the said Act.

Individual Membership Rights and Corporate Membership Rights

An Individual Can Maintain Cause of the Collective Body 

The Kerala High Court in Joseph Vs. Jos[27] observed as under:

  • “…  There are two kinds of rights for a member of the company, one the individual membership right, and the other the corporate membership right. So far as the corporate membership rights are concerned, a shareholder can assert those rights only in conformity with the decision of the majority of the shareholders. An individual membership right is a right to maintain himself in full membership with all the rights and privileges appertaining to that status. …”

Where the right of an individual is affected or infringed and he has no other effective remedy, and where there are no vitiating circumstances such as delay, latches, etc., it is held in Committee of Management Arya Kanya Pathshala Inter College Vs. State of U P that the cause of the collective body will be maintainable at the instance of an individual.[28] 

Foss Vs. Harbottle[29]

In Foss Vs. Harbottle, the minority shareholders of a company raised claim for damages against some of the directors. But the court held – it could not interfere, for the majority resolved that no action should be taken against the directors. This rule had been applied in several cases later, vide MacDougall Vs. Gardiner [30]

The rule in Foss Vs. Harbottle is that any action in a civil court, in which a wrong is alleged to have been done to a company, has to be brought in the name of the company itself.

Exceptions to the Rule in Foss Vs. Harbottle

Nevertheless, several exceptions were later admitted to the rule in Foss Vs. Harbottle. Palmer’s Company Law recognises[31] the following exceptions whereby the majority cannot confirm: [32]

  • 1. an act which is ultra vires the company or illegal;
  • 2. an act which constitutes a fraud against the minority and the wrong-doers arc themselves in control of the company; or
  • 3. a resolution which requires a qualified majority but has been passed by a simple majority.

Another important exception was later on added to the rule in Foss v. Harbottle: that is, “justice requires that the courts should intervene“. In Heyting Vs. Dupont,[33] it is held:   

  • “….there are cases which suggest that the rule is not a rigid one and that exception will be made where the justice of the case demands it.”

Important Indian Cases Applied the Exceptions:

  • (1) T.A.K. Mohideen Pichai  Taraganar Vs. Tinnevelly Mills Co. Ltd.[34] Suit for declaration  that the plaintiffs were the validly elected and that the defendant company had no power to nominate such  directors.
  • (2) Pydah Venatachalapathi Vs. Guntur Cotton, Jute and Paper Mills Co. Ltd.[35] Suit for a declaration that the defendant ceased to hold office.
  • (3) M.K. Srinivasan Vs. Watrap S. Subrahmanya Ayyar.[36] Suit for a declaration that the appointments of certain directors should be declared illegal and for a direction to order a poll for electing five shareholders as directors in the vacancies
  • (4) A. S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram.[37]
  • (5) Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay.[38]
  • (6) Sree Krishna Jute Mills Ltd. Vs. Mothey Krishna Rao.[39] Application for a direction to the secretary and treasurer of the firm to hand over the records, account books, pass books, keys, etc., to the applicant. The objection of the respondents that the petitioners should have filed a suit and not a company petition was upheld.
  • (7) Nagappa Chettiar Vs. Madras Race Club.[40] Suit for a declaration that the meeting of the general body held was invalid and that the managing committee comprising of certain defendants purported to have been elected at the said meeting was not entitled to assume office.
  • (8) M.R.S. Rathnavelusami Chettiar Vs.  M.R.S. Manichavelu Chettiar.[41] Suit for a declaration that the removal from office of the managing director was illegal.
  • (9) Star Tile Works Vs. N. Govindan.[42] Suit for a declaration that the entire proceedings of a meeting were void and illegal.
  • (10) Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar.[43]
  • (11) Muni Lal Peshawaria Vs. Balwant Rai Kumar.[44] Suit for the taking of accounts and for distribution of surplus assets in the course of the winding up.
  • (12) Joseph Vs. Jos.[45] Suit for a declaration that the proceedings of the meeting regarding the election of certain directors were null and void.
  • (13) Panipat Woollen and General Mills Co. Ltd. Vs. R.L.  Kaushik.[46]  Suit for a declaration that the plaintiff was a director and that one of the directors was not properly elected.
  • (14) S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce.[47] 
  • (15) Gokul Chit Funds and Trades P. Ltd. Vs. K. Thoundasseri Kochu Ouseph Vareed.[48] Application filed on the company side of the High Court that an election held on   8/09/1975, was illegal and contrary to the provisions of the Act was held not maintainable and the party was directed to file a civil suit.
  • (16) Bhagawandas Garg Vs. Canara Bank Ltd.[49]    Suit for recovery of money against the Canara Bank in respect of the deposit amount payable by the plaintiff in respect of twelve shares.
  • (17) R. Prakasam Vs. Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam .[50] Suit for a declaration that the annual general meeting was not duly and validly convened that the election of the president, vice-president, directors, etc., made at a meeting was invalid.
  • (18) Marikar (Motors) Vs. M.I. Ravi Kumar.[51] Suit for a declaration that the co-option of certain defendants as directors was illegal.
  • (19) Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge Tirupathi.[52]
  • (20) Sardar Kanwaldeep Singh and other Vs. Assistant Registrar Firms, Societies and Chits, Faizabad.[53]
  • (21) Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam. [54] The Division Bench considered the Rule with regard to the convening of a meeting of the governing body and pointed out that it was a statutory Rule and commission of act in violation of the Rules in passing an order or interfering in the management of the affairs of the college must be held to be void, unlawful and illegal, and was liable to be set aside and/or quashed.
  • (21) Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh.[55]
  • (22) Starlight Real Estate (Ascot) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited.[56]

A Society or a club, as in the case of a company, acts as provided in the bylaws or through its resolutions. In Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab and Haryana[57]  it is held by our Apex Court with respect to a Co-operative Society:

  • “Once a person becomes a Member of a Co-operative Society, he loses his individuality qua the society and he has no independent rights except those given to him by the statute and the by-laws. He must act and speak through the society; or rather, the society alone can act and speak for him qua rights or duties of the society as a body.”

The legal actions with respect to a registered society have to be brought by the people authorised to sue under Sec. 6 of the So. Regn. Act. In case of an unregistered society or a club, the legal action has to be initiated by all its members (or by one or more members in a representative action).

Derivative Action

When the directors of a company or the governing body of an association fail to take action on behalf of the company or association, the members thereof, even if minority, will be permitted by courts to proceed on behalf of the company or association. Such rights also arise from the ‘exceptions to Foss Vs. Harbottle’. It is actually a derivative action on behalf of the company as it is necessitated or derived when there is illegal action or inaction on the part of the directors. It is essentially and primarily for the benefit of the company as opposed to personal rights of members.[58] 

In Starlight Real Estate (Ascot) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited[59] referring to ‘Company Actions in the Modern Set-Up’ by S.C. Sen, First Edition, ‘The New Frontiers of Company Law’ by S.C. Sen, 1971 Edition and ‘Guide To Companies Act’, by A. Ramaiya, 17th Edition, the law on this point is summarized by Manmohan Singh, J.,  as under:

  • “In company jurisprudence, company actions are divided into different groups:-
  • (a) Actions by the Company – for enforcement of Company’s rights. 
  • (b) Derivate actions – i.e., actions by shareholders for enforcement of the Company’s rights (as distinguished from class rights of shareholders). 
  • (c) Representative actions – i.e., actions by shareholders for enforcement of their class or corporate rights. 
  • (d) Personal actions by shareholders – for enforcement of their personal rights.”

In Sohan Nayyar Vs. Lt Governor of Delhi[60] it is held by the Delhi High Court as under:

  • “(1) In the case of Corporations, where there are members, a suit may be maintained by the Corporation acting through its directors. If the directors refuse to act or the action complained of is that of the directors themselves, then such a suit can be maintained by the majority shareholders in the name of the Corporation.
  • (2) If the action is challenged by the minority shareholders when the directors refuse to act, then the action or suit has to be brought by the minority shareholders[61] in their own name. This may be done by them acting jointly or there may be a representative suit by a class of shareholders or members.
  •  (3) In the case of an arbitration award which is filed in Court, the objections may be filed by the parties thereto or if the parties refuse to file objections or fail to file objections, then a person claiming under them can also file objections provided they can show some interest in the subject-matter of the award or reference, as the case may be.
  • (4) The principle which applies to appeals, namely, that third parties can also file objections, even though not parties to the suit, applies also to objections against ail award being made a rule of the Court subject to the same limitations, i.e., the objectors must show that they have an interest in the subject-matter of award or reference and they obtain leave of the Court which should normally not be refused.
  • (5) In the case of arbitration awards against a Corporation which have been filed in the Court, members of the Corporation can maintain objections as they are debarred from filing a suit because of S. 32 of the Arbitration Act, to challenge the award or the arbitration agreement, as the case may be. These objections can be filed on the same basis as a suit can be filed by majority or minority shareholders of a company, which means that if the majority shareholders object to the award they can do so in the name of the company and if the minority shareholders challenge the same, they can do so in their own names.
  • (6) In order to determine whether it is the majority or minority shareholders who are maintaining the objections, the Court can even call a meeting of the company.”

Theoretical Sources for Court-Intervention

The theoretical sources for court-intervention for enforcing the doctrine of ‘individual membership rights’ can be laid down as under:

(i) Courts enforce contract.

The general law of contract is the genesis of the rights of shareholders in a Company or of members of an association. The Companies Act merely regulates the general law of contract which is the basis of the rights of parties and does not create any new rights or remedies.  Unless there is an exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil court, by words express or implied, the suits are maintainable, and no such exclusion has been held existing by the courts in respect of individual rights. [62]

(ii) Courts ensure rule of law

Courts ensure rule of law and intervene to prevent illegality and fraud especially in ‘public matters’ and where ‘fiduciary relationship’ is involved.

In Asansol Electric Supply Co Vs. Chunilal Daw: 1970-75 Cal WN 704 it is observed: 

  • “The majority can always set right a thing which was done by the minority either illegally or irregularly, if the thing complained of was one which the majority of the share-holders were entitled to do legally and was within the powers of the company, by calling afresh meeting. In such cases, the court will refuse to interfere at the instance of a share-holder even in a suit brought in a representative capacity. But, the question is, if the majority acts in an oppressive manner or does an act which is ultra vires the company, whether the minority has any remedy against the same. There is no difference of opinion that a suit at the instance of the Company is always maintainable, but if the majority of the share-holders act illegally, they will not permit the minority share-holders to use the name of the company for any suit for the purpose of correcting the illegal acts done by the majority or for any other relief against them.”

In Avanthi Explosives P. Ltd. Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge, Tirupathi: 1987-62 CC 301 (AP), it is observed as under:

  • “The rule in Foss Vs. Harbottle, [1843] 2 Hare 461 does not apply to such acts as referred to above inasmuch as the majority cannot sanction those acts. A resolution which is ultra vires or illegal or is a fraud on the minority or is not bona fide or for the benefits of the company as a whole or is intended to discriminate between the majority shareholders and the minority shareholders, is illegal and can be questioned by a separate action in the civil court. The reason for this is that if the minority were denied that right, their grievance could never reach the court because the wrongdoers themselves being in control, do not allow the company to sue. In some cases, it has been held that further exceptions to the rule in Foss v/s. Harbottl, [1843] 2 Hare 461, are permissible in cases in which “justice requires that the courts should intervene” to assist an otherwise minority shareholder. In Heyting v/s. Dupont,, [1964] 1 WLR 843, Harman L.J. said (at page 854) : “….there are cases which suggest that the rule (in Foss Vs. Harbottle, [1843] 2 Hare 461) is not a rigid one and that exception will be made where the justice of the case demands it.”[63]

In Fraser v. Whalley[64] it was observed:

  • “…  I have no doubt that the Court will interfere to prevent so gross a breach of trust. I say nothing on the question whether the policy advocated by the directors, or that which I am told is to be pursued by Savin, is the more for the interest of the company. That is a matter wholly for the shareholders. I fully concur in the principle laid down in Foss  Vs. Harbottle, (1843) 2 Hare 461 : (67 E. R. 189) as to that, but if the directors can clandestinely and at the last moment use a state resolution for the express purpose of preventing the free action of the shareholders, this Court will take care that when the company cannot interfere, the Court will do so.”[65]

(iii) Courts take cognisance of civil rights unless barred.

No express provision in the Companies Act or in the So. Regn. Act excluding the jurisdiction of civil courts. When there is no express provision excluding jurisdiction of the civil courts, such exclusion can be implied only in cases where a right itself is created and the machinery for enforcement of such right is also provided by the statute. If the right is traceable to general law of contract or it is a common law right, it can be enforced through civil court, even though the forum under the statute also will have jurisdiction to enforce that right.[66]

(iv) Suits for redressal of individual wrongs cannot be rejected as matters concerned with internal management.[67]

(v) The ‘individual membership rights’ are rights traceable to general law of contract or  that pre-existed in common law and not first introduced by the enactments relating to Companies or Societies.

In Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh[68] it is held: 

  • “If the right is traceable to general law of contract or it is a common law right, it can be enforced through civil court, even though the forum under the statute also will have jurisdiction to enforce that right.”

It is observed in Starlite Real Estate (ASCOT) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited[69] as under:

  • “…. The individual rights of a member arise in part from the general law. Under the contract emanating from his memberships, he is entitled to have his name entered and kept on the register of members, to vote at meetings of members, to receive dividends which have been duly declared….”[70]

A right pre-existing in common law is recognised by the statute and a new statutory remedy for its enforcement provided, without expressly excluding the civil courts jurisdiction, then both the common law and the statutory remedies might become a concurrent remedies leaving open an element of election to the persons of inherence.[71]

When Court Interferes

See Chapter: Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs.


[1]      Narayan Nagappa Hegde v. Shankar Narasimha Bhatta: AIR 1966 Kar 5; K V Joseph Vs. Devayani Amma: AIR  1999  Ker 181. Dhulabhai Vs. State of MP: AIR 1969 SC 78 ; Premier Automobiles Ltd. Vs. Kamlekar Shantaram Wadke:  AIR 1975 SC 2238, Munshi ram Vs.Municipal Committee, Chheharta: AIR 1976 SC 1250, Jitendra Nath Biswas Vs.M/s. Empire of India & Ceylone Tea Co.:  AIR 1990 SC 255, Saraswathi Vs. Lachanna:  (1994) 1 SCC 611.

[2]      TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144

[3]      Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College, Delhi Vs. The State: AIR 1962 SC 458;  Siddheshwar Sahkari Sakhar Karkhana Vs. Commir. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716; Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301; Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973; Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. District Registrar: AIR 2005 SC 2306; State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378; B.C.C.I. Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[4]      C Chikka Venkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa: 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296; Narayan Krishnaji Vs. Anjuman E Islamia: AIR 1952 Kar 14: Thenappa Chattier Vs. Kuruppan Chhietier: AIR 1968 SC 915. Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastotate: AIR 2007 SC 1337

[5]      A P Dairy Development Corpn. Vs. B Narasimha Reddy: AIR 2011 SC 3298; Dharam Dutt Vs. Union of India: AIR 2004 SC 1295.

[6]      AIR  1994 Ori 301

[7]      AIR 1928 Mad 571

[8]      1987-62 CC 301; APLJ 1985 3 219

[9]      AIR 2005 SC 2544.

[10]    See also: The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha wamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282; Ratilal Panachand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1954 SC 388.

[11]    R. C. Copper v. Union of India ( AIR 1970 SC 564). 

[12]    AIR 1963 Ori. 189

[13]    Khadija Vs. P.K. Mohammed P. Ltd: 1985-58 CC 543; ILR  1983-2 Ker 374.

[14]    CL Joseph Vs. Jos AIR 1965 Ker 68

[15]    2016-195 CC 434

[16]    Referred to in Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 CC 359.

[17]    Mathrubhumi Printing and Publishing Co. Ltd. Vs. Vardhaman Publishers Ltd.: 1992-73 CC 80; ILR1992-2 Ker 134.

[18]    2016-195 CC 434

[19]    AIR 1986 SC 1370.

[20]    Nagappa Chettiar Vs. Madras Race Club : AIR 1951 Mad 831,         CL Joseph Vs. Jos AIR 1965 Ker 68; Star Tiles Works Vs. N. Govindan AIR 1959 Ker  254

[21]    AIR 1951 Mad 831; [1949] 19 Comp Cases 175.

[22]    See Burland Vs. Earl, 1902 AC 83

[23]   AIR 1965 Ker 68

[24]    Quoted in Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 Comp Cases 359.

[25]    Mathrubhumi Printing and Publishing Co. Ltd. Vs. Vardhaman Publishers Ltd.: 1992-73 CC 80; ILR1992-2 Ker 134.

[26]    1992-73 CC 80; ILR1992-2 Ker 134.

[27]    AIR 1965 Ker 68. Quoted in Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 Comp Cases 359.

[28]    2011- 2 ADJ 65.

[29]    [1843] 2  Hare 461

[30]    [1875] 1 Ch 13.

[31]    Referred to in  S Manmohan Singh Vs. S Balbir: ILR  1975-1 Del 427

[32]    Also see: Edwards v. Halliwell [1950] 1 All ER 1064 (CA).  Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge Tirupathi 1987- 62   Comp. Cases 301.

[33]    [1964] 1 WLR 843 (CA). Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge Tirupathi: 1987- 62   Comp. Cases 301.

[34]    AIR 1928 Mad 571.

[35]    AIR 1929 Mad 353.

[36]    [1932] 2 Comp Cases 147; AIR 1932 Mad 100.

[37]    AIR 1941 Bom. 312

[38]    AIR 1946 Bom 516

[39]    [1947] 17 Comp Cases 63 (Mad); AIR 1947 Mad 322.  

[40]    AIR 1951 Mad 831; [1949] 19 Comp Cases 175.

[41]    [1951] 21 Comp Cases 93; AIR 1951 Mad 542.

[42]    AIR 1959 Ker  254.

[43]    AIR 1959 All 598

[44]    [1964] 34 Comp Cases 717, AIR 1965 Punj 24. 

[45]    AIR 1965 Ker 68; [1964] 34 Comp Cases 931 (Ker).

[46]    [1969] 39 Comp Cases 249 (P&H).

[47]    AIR 1969 Mad 42

[48]    [1977] 47 Comp Cases 264 (Ker).

[49]    [1978] 1 WR 504; [1981] 51 Comp Cases 38 (AP).

[50]    [1980] 50 Comp Cases 611 (Ker).

[51]    [1982] 52  Comp Cases 362 (Ker).

[52]    1987- 62   Comp. Cases 301

[53]    AIR 1994 All 161

[54]    [1998 (1) GLR 38].          Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[55]    2016-198 CC 359.

[56]    2016-195 CC 434

[57]    AIR1985 SC 973

[58]    Starlight Real Estate (Ascot) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited: 2016-195 CC 434.

[59]    2016-195 CC 434

[60]    AIR 1983 Del 301

[61]    The Court referred to Estmanco (Kilner House) Ltd. v. Greater London Council, (1982) 1 All ER 437 and  Daniels v. Daniels (1978) 2 All ER 89, See also: Onyx Musicabsolute Com Pvt Ltd Vs. Yash Raj Films Pvt Ltd: 2008-6 BCR 418. Escorts Ltd Vs. Union Of India: 1985-57 CC 241.

[62]    Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge, Tirupathi: 1987- 62 CC 301. Starlite Real Estate (ASCOT) Mauritius Limited Vs. Jagrati Trade Services Private Limited, 2016-195 CC 434

[63]    Quoted in Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 CC 359

[64]    (1864) 2 H. and M. 10: (11 L. T. 175)

[65]    Quoted in Nanalal Zaver Vs. Bombay Life Assurance Co Ltd: AIR  1950 SC 172

[66]    Raja Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India: [1988] 171 ITR 254.  Referred to in Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 Comp Cases 359.

[67]    R.  Prakasam v. Sree Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam [1980] 50 Comp Cases 611 (Ker). Referred to in Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge, Tirupathi: 1987- 62   Comp Cases 301.

[68]    2016-198 CC 359

[69]    2016-195 CC 434

[70]    Quoted in Rajeev Saumitra Vs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 CC 359.

[71]    Dhulabhai Vs. State of MP: AIR 1969 SC 78.



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Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Revenue Records, ‘Mutation’ & Survey Records will not Confer Title; They merely Raise a Presumption on Possession

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract

It is Settled – Revenue Records will not confer title

  • Sawarni v. Inder Kaur, (1996) 6 SCC 223
  • Balwant Singh v. Daulat Singh, (1997) 7 SCC 137
  • Suman Verma v. Union of India, (2004) 12 SCC 58; 
  • Gurunath Manohar Pavaskar v. Nagesh Siddappa Navalgund, AIR 2008 SC 901
  • State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319
  • Faqruddin v. Tajuddin, (2008) 8 SCC 12;
  • Rajinder Singh v. State of J&K, (2008) 9 SCC 368; 
  • Narasamma v. State of Karnataka, (2009) 5 SCC 591
  • Union of India v. Vasavi Co-op.  Housing Society Ltd. , AIR 2014 SC 937; 2014-2 SCC 269,
  • Municipal Corporation, Aurangabad v. State of Maharashtra, (2015) 16 SCC 689; 
  • T. Ravi v. B. Chinna Narasimha, (2017) 7 SCC 342;
  • Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import & Export Co., (2019) 3 SCC 191; 
  • Prahlad Pradhan v. Sonu Kumhar, (2019) 10 SCC 259;
  • Ajit Kaur v. Darshan Singh, (2019) 13 SCC 70.
  • Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import and Export Co. (2019) 3 SCC 191
  • Jitendra Singh v.  The State of Madhya Pradesh (2021 SCC OnLine SC 802) [M.R. Shah,  Aniruddha Bose, JJ.]
  • P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2024-1 CTC 547; 2023-4 CurCC(SC) 278
  • Laxkshmi B. v. Suku, 2024-1 KerHC 380
  • The State of Punjab vs Bhagwantpal Singh Alias Bhagwant Singh, 10 July, 2024: 2024 INSC 518
  • Ram Balak Singh v. State of Bihar, 2024 INSC 360, 01 May 2024 [Pankaj Mithal and Prasanna Bhalachandra Varale, JJ.]

Revenue Records Prove Possession

  • Gurunath Manohar Pavaskar v. Nagesh Siddappa Navalgund, AIR 2008 SC 901 (Revenue record merely raises a presumption in regard to possession)
  • State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319 (Revenue records merely show possession of a person)
  • Zila Panchayat Etah v. Om Prakash Shah, 01 Sep 2017; 2017 0 Supreme(SC) 1418 (There is statutory presumption of correctness of revenue entries which has not been rebutted in the instant case.)
  • Krishnamurthy S.  Setlur v.  O.V.  Narasimha Setty, 2019-9 SCC 488 (Revenue records prove possession)

Survey Authorities Not to decide Title; Only Conclusive proof – Boundaries recorded correctly (when survey was made)

  • Kannan v. Kannan, (1964 KLT 228), 
  • The Cheriyanad Grama Panchayath v. The State of Kerala,  (2019 (5) KHC 699),
  • Venugopalan Nair v. Saraswathy Amma, (2013 (4) KLT 717),
  • Karthyayani v. Balakrishnan, (2014 (2) KLT Suppl. 67 (Ker.),
  • Ibrahim v. Saythumuhammed, (2013 (4) KLT 435)
  • Prahlad Pradhan v. Sonu Kumhar, (2019) 10 SCC 259
  • Achama Alexander v. Asst. Director, Survey and Land Records, 2022 (2) KHC 131: 2022-3 KLT 198.
  • Thomas v. Philip, 2022(4) KerHC 451;
  • Elambilan Nani Amma v. Mulavana Antony (K. Babu, J,), 2023-7 KHC 418.

Statutory Presumption of correctness of revenue entries

In Zila Panchayat Etah v. Om Prakash Shah, 01 Sep 2017; 2017 0 Supreme(SC) 1418, it is held as under:

  • There was absolutely nothing to rebut the Nazul Khasra or the records maintained by the municipality and Zila Parishad. The appellant had pleaded Survey numbers in its written statement very clearly and had adduced evidence in this regard. There was absolutely nothing to discard the documentary evidence adduced by the appellant and rely upon oral ipse dixit evidence of the plaintiff-respondent. There is statutory presumption of correctness of revenue entries which has not been rebutted in the instant case. The plaintiff-respondent was claiming his ownership on the property in question, but no documentary evidence had been adduced on his behalf indicating that they were the owners of the property in question. Absence of entry in relevant documents of ownership also negates case of plaintiffs. Thus the property in question was clearly under the ownership of the Government.”

Revenue Records Does Not Confer Title

In Union of India v. Vasavi Co-op.  Housing Society Ltd. , AIR 2014 SC 937; 2014-2 SCC 269, it is held as under:

  • “17. This Court in several Judgments has held that the revenue records does not confer title. In Corporation of the City of Bangalore v. M. Papaiah and another (1989) 3 SCC 612 held that
    • “it is firmly established that revenue records are not documents of title, and the question of interpretation of document not being a document of title is not a question of law.”
  • In Guru Amarjit Singh v. Rattan Chand and others (1993) 4 SCC 349 this Court has held that “that the entries in jamabandi are not proof of title”.
  • In State of Himachal Pradesh v. Keshav Ram and others (1996) 11 SCC 257 this Court held that
    • “the entries in the revenue papers, by no stretch of imagination can form the basis for declaration of title in favour of the plaintiff.”

Revenue records can support claim of ownership when corroborated

In State of Haryana & Anr. Vs. Amin Lal (Vikram Nath,  Prasanna B.Varale JJ), 2024-4 CurCC(SC) 222, it is held as under:

  • Revenue records are public documents maintained by government officials in the regular course of duties and carry a presumption of correctness under Section 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. While it is true that revenue entries do not by themselves confer title, they are admissible as evidence of possession and can support a claim of ownership when corroborated by other evidence.

Survey conclusive proof – Boundaries determined & Recorded Correctly

  • Elambilan Nani Amma v. Mulavana Antony (K. Babu, J,), 2023-7 KHC 418

Part – 1

Revenue Records are Not Documents of Title.

P. Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K Patkar (2023 SCC Online SC 1483; 2024-1 CTC 547; 2023-4 CurCC(SC) 278) is a latest decision (Dipankar Datta, Bela M. Trivedi, JJ.) in this matter which held as under:

  • 12. 11. It is trite law that revenue records are not documents of title.
  • 13. This Court in Sawarni v. Inder Kaur(1996) 6 SCC 223 held that mutation in revenue records neither creates nor extinguishes title, nor does it have any presumptive value on title. All it does is entitle the person in whose favour mutation is done to pay the land revenue in question.
  • 14. This was further affirmed in Balwant Singh v. Daulat Singh (Dead) by LRs(1997) 7 SCC 137 wherein this Court held that mere mutation of records would not divest the owners of a land of their right, title and interest in the land.
  • 15. In Jitendra Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh2021 SCC OnLine SC 802, this Court after considering a catena of judgments, reiterated the principle of law as follows:
    • “6. …… mutation entry does not confer any right, title or interest in favour of the person and the mutation entry in the revenue record is only for the fiscal purpose.”
  • 16. We may also profitably refer to the decision of this Court in Sita Ram Bhau Patil v. Ramchandra Nago Patil (Dead) by LRs.(1977) 2 SCC 49 wherein it was held that there exists no universal principle that whatever will appear in the record of rights will be presumed to be correct, when there exists evidence to the contrary.
  • 17. In the present case, the Commissioner’s order (Special Deputy Commissioner of Inams) distinctly denying the rights of occupancy to the plaintiff’s vendor is evidence that renders these revenue entries unworthy of acceptance.
  • 18. An examination of the sale deed executed in favour of the plaintiff, also tilts the balance against him. The deed simply states that the plaintiff’s vendor traces her title not to a grant in her favour by the government, but through a sale deed executed in her favour. Further, there is a categorical recital in the deed that the property is neither Inam land nor tenanted land, and that there is no legal impediment to the sale of such property. Some element of mischief being present is clear inasmuch as a relevant fact was concealed, i.e., the plaintiff’s vendor had indeed applied for occupancy rights under the Act but had failed to secure them. Such an application would never have been necessary, had the property not been Inam or tenanted land, thus laying bare the deficiency in the plaintiff’s title. The High Court, while observing that there existed a lawfully registered sale deed in favour of the plaintiff, failed to identify this inherent defect in the title claimed by the plaintiff.”

Revenue entries or mutations do not confer or Extinguish title

Mutation is the process of updating land/revenue records kept by the Government, especially after a change in ownership.

  • Revenue entries are not documents of title and do not ordinarily confer or extinguish title in the land : Ram Balak Singh v. State of Bihar, 2024 INSC 360, 01 May 2024 [Pankaj Mithal and Prasanna Bhalachandra Varale, JJ.]

It is a settled proposition of law (i) that the mutation entry in revenue documents will not confer any right, title or interest in favour of any person and (ii) that the mutation in the revenue record is only for the fiscal purpose. After pointing out these legal propositions it is observed in Jitendra Singh vs The State Of Madhya Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 802, as under:

  • “6. Right from 1997, the law is very clear. In the case of Balwant Singh v. Daulat Singh (D) By Lrs., reported in (1997) 7 SCC 137 , this Court had an occasion to consider the effect of mutation and it is observed and held that mutation of property in revenue records neither creates nor extinguishes title to the property nor has it any presumptive value on title. Such entries are relevant only for the purpose of collecting land revenue. Similar view has been expressed in the series of decisions thereafter.
  • 6.1 In the case of Suraj Bhan v. Financial Commissioner, (2007) 6 SCC 186 , it is observed and held by this Court that an entry in revenue records does not confer title on a person whose name appears in record-of-rights. Entries in the revenue records or jamabandi have only “fiscal purpose”, i.e., payment of land revenue, and no ownership is conferred on the basis of such entries. It is further observed that so far as the title of the property is concerned, it can only be decided by a competent civil court. Similar view has been expressed in the cases of Suman Verma v. Union of India, (2004) 12 SCC 58; Faqruddin v. Tajuddin (2008) 8 SCC 12; Rajinder Singh v. State of J&K, (2008) 9 SCC 368; Municipal Corporation, Aurangabad v. State of Maharashtra, (2015) 16 SCC 689; T. Ravi v. B. Chinna Narasimha, (2017) 7 SCC 342; Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import & Export Co., (2019) 3 SCC 191; Prahlad Pradhan v. Sonu Kumhar, (2019) 10 SCC 259; and Ajit Kaur v. Darshan Singh, (2019) 13 SCC 70.”

Revenue Documents do not Confer ‘Title’; It Raises Presumption on Possession

Our Apex Court, in Gurunath Manohar Pavaskar v. Nagesh Siddappa Navalgund, AIR 2008 SC 901 (SB Sinha. J.), has held that a revenue record is not a document of title; and that it merely raises a presumption in regard to possession.

In Gurunath Manohar Pavaskar v. Nagesh Siddappa Navalgund (supra) , held as under:

  • “A revenue record is not a document of title. It merely raises a presumption in regard to possession.” (Quoted in: State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319).

It is pointed out in this case that in proper cases (for revenue record is not a document of title) declaration is required .

It is also laid down in this decision as under:

  • Presumption of possession and/ or continuity thereof both forward and backward can also be raised under Section 110 of the Indian Evidence Act. The Courts below, were, therefore, required to appreciate the evidence keeping in view the correct legal principles in mind.” (Quoted in: State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319).

It is observed by the Apex Court, in State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319 (following Gurunath Manohar Pavaskar v. Nagesh Siddappa Navalgund, AIR 2008 SC 901),

  • “13. …. Even, a revenue record is not a document of title. It merely raises a presumption in regard to possession.” (Quoted in M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1).
  • “16. The courts below erred in holding, that revenue records confer title, for the reason that they merely show possession of a person.”

Read Similar Articles

Revenue record Proves Possession; Presumption of truth Attached

It is held in Krishnamurthy S.  Setlur v.  O.V.  Narasimha Setty, 2019-9 SCC 488, that revenue record proves possession. it is said as under:

  • “14. In our considered view, the High Court has not given any cogent reasons for coming to the conclusion that KS was not in possession of the property. His name figured in the revenue record from 1963 to 1981 as the owner in possession. Presumption of truth is attached to revenue record which has not been rebutted.”

Presumption of Correctness on Entries in the Revenue Record

In Vishwa Vijai Bharti vs Fakhrul Hasan, AIR 1976 SC 1485 it is held as to the presumption of correctness on revenue-records as under:

  • “It is true that the entries in the revenue record ought, generally, to be accepted at their face value and courts should not embark upon an appellate inquiry in to their correctness. But the presumption of correctness can apply only to genuine, not forged or fraudulent, entries. The distinction may be fine but it is real. The distinction is that one cannot challenge the correctness of what the entry is the revenue record states but the entry is open to the attack that it was Made fraudulently or surreptitiously. Fraud and forgery rob a document of all its legal effect and cannot found a claim to possessory title.”

Revenue record do Not confer Presumptive Value on Title

The argument as to ownership based upon entries in the revenue records had been negated in Prahlad Pradhan  v. Sonu Kumhar, (2019) 10 SCC 259. It was held that the revenue record would not confer title to the property nor do they have any presumptive value on the title.

  • “5. The contention raised by the appellants is that since Mangal Kumhar was the recorded tenant in the suit property as per the Survey Settlement of 1964, the suit property was his self-acquired property. The said contention is legally misconceived since entries in the revenue records do not confer title to a property, nor do they have any presumptive value on the title. They only enable the person in whose favour mutation is recorded, to pay the land revenue in respect of the land in question. As a consequence, merely because Mangal Kumhar’s name was recorded in the Survey Settlement of 1964 as a recorded tenant in the suit property, it would not make him the sole and exclusive owner of the suit property.” (Quoted in Prabhagiya Van Adhikari Awadh Van Prabhag v. Arun Kumar Bhardwaj (SC): 2021). See also: Narasamma & Ors. Vs. State of Karnataka & Ors. (2009) 5 SCC 591).

It is also held:

  • “Revenue records are not documents of title”. (P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2024-1 CTC 547; 2023-4 CurCC(SC) 278).

An entry in Panchayat Register

Shivraya v. Bakkappa,1995 Supp3 SCC 400, held as under:

  • “An entry in Panchayat Register is not an entry which could establish title in favour of the plaintiff.”

PRESUMPTION under Sec. 114, Evid. Act read with Sec. 35.

Sec. 35 Evd. Act speaks on ‘an entry in any public or other official book, register or record or an electronic record’. Sec. 35 Evd. Act speaks as to presumption.

Besides direct evidence, or admission, the contents of a document can also be proved by circumstantial evidence or by invoking presumption. ‘Common course of natural events’, ‘human conduct’ etc. under S. 114, can be used to prove the existence and genuineness/truth of a document.

Sec. 35 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “35. Relevancy of entry in public record or an electronic record made in performance of duty: An entry in any public or other official book, register or record or an electronic record, stating a fact in issue or relevant fact, and made by a public servant in the discharge of his official duty, or by any other person in performance of a duty specially enjoined by the law of the country in which such book, register, or record or an electronic record is kept, is itself a relevant fact.

Illustration (e) of Sec. 114, Evd. Act, demonstrates that presumption as to ‘regularity’ can be invoked on Judicial and official acts, in proper cases, over and above ‘common course of natural events’, ‘human conduct’ etc. that are brought-forth under the body of S. 114.  ‘Regularity’ in Illustration (e) is not exactly the presumption as to ‘correctness or truth’. For such presumption, we have to resort the main section, Sec. 114 – that is, ‘common course of natural events’, ‘human conduct’, etc..

Referring relevant provisions of Himachal Land Revenue Act, 1954 and Sec. 35 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, it is held by our Apex Court in Partap Singh v. Shiv Ram: AIR 2020 SC 1382, that Record-of-rights (Revenue document) carries the ‘presumption of correctness‘.

In Inder Singh v. S. Raghbir Singh, AIR 1978 P&H 98, it is observed as under:

  • “The principle is that an official record, kept by a person, upon whom there is a public duty to make entries in it only after satisfying himself of the truth of those entries, is presumed to be correct. Such a document itself is evidence of the truth of its contents unless and until its falsity can be demonstrated by any of the various methods by which the evidentiary value of any public book, register or document may be attacked.”

In Shiv Ram v. Shiv Charan Singh, AIR 1964 Raj 126, it is observed as under

  • “Where Sec. 35  properly comes into play, an entry made by a public servant in any public or official book in the discharge of his official duty becomes relevant by itself, and no other proof of such entry is required as a matter of law by our Evidence Act, but this, does not exclude the possibility that such an entry may become admissible otherwise if it is properly proved to have been made by a person ordinarily competent to make it.” (Quoted in Mayadhar Nayak vs Sub-Divisional Officer, Jajpur, AIR 1982 Ori 221).

In Durairaju v. Neela, 1976 CriLJ 1507, Ratnavel Pandian, J., it was held that it was the duty of the court, before making the order for maintenance, to find though in a summary manner, the paternity of the child. It was held that Ex. P. 1, the intimation received by the Municipality from the Government Hospital, and Ex. P. 2 a copy of the birth extract made on the basis of Ex, P. 1, were not sufficient to raise presumption of paternity for, the medical officer who made the entries in Ex. P. 1 had not been examined. The author of the information is not mentioned in Ex. P. 1. PW 2 herself had not stated that she mentioned to the doctor that the child was born to her through the petitioner. In the absence of such evidence, the document could not by itself prove the relevant entries made thereon. It was also observed that to prove a document under Section 35 it must be shown that the document was prepared by a public servant in discharge of his official duty or by any person in performance of a duty specially enjoined by the law.

Record of Rights and the Record of Permanent Settlement – Accepted

Our Apex Court in Sukhdev Singh v. Maharaja Bahadur of Gidhaur, AIR 1951 SC 288, as under:

  • “This brief review of evidence is sufficient to show that appellant has not been able by clear and conclusive evidence to rebut the presumption arising from the Record of rights and the record of Permanent Settlement and he has failed to establish his claim”.

In Vallikunnil Janaki Amma v. Sree Amruthamangalam Kshethram Moorthi, Kozhikode, 2014 (1) KHC 57, Kerala High Court Court referring to the decision of the Apex Court in Sukhdev Singh v. Maharaja Bahadur of Gidhaur, AIR 1951 SC 288, held as under:  

  • “Even though Ext. A2 is only an extract of the Settlement Register/ Adangal extract which may not by itself prove or confer title to a party in whose name the property stood registered, it can be accepted as evidence of title when there is no contra evidence. Admittedly it is adjacent to Amruthamangalam temple. The temple compound and this suit property which is adjacent to the temple are shown to be of Amruthamangalam Devaswom as per revenue record. In these circumstances, the contention that this property did not and does not belong to the temple/Devaswom cannot be sustained at all.” (Referred to in: Kunhimangalam Devaswam v. State of Kerala, 6 April, 2022, Anil K. Narendran, J.)

Inam RegistersBurden to Prove Higher Title on Who Challenges it

In Narayan Bhagwantrao Gosavi Balajiwale v. Gopal Vinayak Gosavi, AIR 1960 SC 100, it was said as under:

  • “In view of these admissions, the question of burden of proof, as we have already pointed out, is really academic, and if any burden lay upon any party, it was upon the appellant to displace by cogent and convincing evidence that these admissions were erroneous and need not be accepted in proof.”
  • These admissions are two-fold; they concern the nature of the properties in dispute and the nature of the idol. Added to these are the decisions of the Inam Commissioner in respect of the villages, which were recorded as Devasthan inams at the instance of Damodar, who appealed against the order to record them as personal inams. The value to be attached to the decisions of the Inam Commissioner had come up for consideration before the Judicial Committee in a series of cases.
  • It is sufficient to refer to only one of them. In Chetty v. Venkatachellapathi Guru Swamigal (1919 – L.R. 46 IA 204), the Judicial Committee while dealing with the Inam Register for the year 1864 which had been produced for their inspection, attached the utmost importance to it. It observed :
    “It is true that the making of this Register was for the ultimate purpose of determining whether or not the lands were tax-free. But it must not be forgotten that the preparation of this Register was a great act of State, and its preparation and contents were the subject of much consideration under elaborately detailed reports and minutes. It is to be remembered that the Inam Commissioners through their officials made enquiry on the spot, heard evidence and examined documents, and with regard to each individual property, the Government was put in possession not only of the conclusion come to as to whether the land was tax-free, but of a statement of the history, and tenure of the property itself. While their Lordships do not doubt that such a report would not displace actual and authentic evidence in individual cases; yet the Board, when such is not available, cannot fail to attach the utmost importance, as part of the history of the property, to the information set forth in the Inam Register.”
  • The nature and quantum of the right and interest in the land was thus gathered from the Inam Registers and enquiries, which preceded them.
    Thus, it was doubly necessary for the appellant to bring before the Court all the documents in which his title was created, recognised or confirmed. He has, however, filed only a selection, and has refrained from bringing into evidence all the material in his possession which as late as 1931 was available to him. We have pointed out above that in 1931 he caused a history of the Sansthan to be published, and it refers to numerous documents, which have not found their way into Court. The learned Judges of the High Court also mentioned this fact, and stated that in view of the failure of the appellant to prove conclusively that a higher title than the one made out before the Inam Commission was available to him, no reliance could be placed upon such documents as had been exhibited.” 

Nemo Dat Quod Non Habet

In P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2024-1 CTC 547; 2023-4 CurCC(SC) 278), after pointing out that the revenue records are not documents of title, it is held as under:

  • “18. It is settled law that a vendor cannot transfer a title to the vendee better than he himself possesses, the principle arising from the maxim nemo dat quod non habet, i.e., “no one can confer a better title than what he himself has”. In the present case, the plaintiff’s vendor having been denied the right of title in the land by the Commissioner’s order, could not have conveyed the same to her vendee.”
  • “22. Contention advanced on behalf of the plaintiff that through the record of rights the plaintiff has established his title by a preponderance of probabilities is not sustainable. As noted above, the plaintiff failed to produce a single document of title in respect of the suit property. In a dispute with respect to determination of title, merely pointing out the lacunae in the defendant’s title would not suffice. Having instituted the suit for declaration, the burden of proof rested on the shoulders of the plaintiff to reasonably establish the probability of better title, which the plaintiff in the present case, has manifestly failed to do.”

Transfer of Registry Rules, 1966

Rule 15 and 16 of the Transfer of Registry Rules, 1966, of the Kerala State read as under:

  • Rule 15 : “With the help of the details furnished in the statement in Form ‘A’ prepared by the Village Officers and such further information as the Tahsildar may receive from parties and village officials at the time of enquiry regarding the fact of possession and enjoyment, payment of tax and other particulars, the Tahsildar shall determine the person in whose name the transfer of registry shall be made. No case shall be rejected solely for the default of appearance of the parties as it is the immediate concern of the Land Revenue Department to keep the thandaper accounts (Chitta) upto date and bring into it the names of the real land-holders who shall be held liable for the payment of Government revenue due on the land.”
  • Rule 16 : “The summary enquiry and the decision thereon is only an arrangement for fiscal purposes and does not affect the legal rights of any person in respect of the lands covered by the decisions in transfer of registry cases. The question of legal rights is always subject to adjudication by civil courts and pattas will be revised from time to time in accordance with judicial decisions.”

Following propositions can be culled out from the very rules of The Transfer of Registry Rules made applicable in the State of Kerala (Rule 15 and 16):

  1. It is the duty of the Tahsildar to determine the person in whose name the transfer of registry shall be made.
  2. It is the immediate concern of the Land Revenue Department to keep the thandaper accounts (Chitta) up to date.
  3. It is the immediate concern of the Land Revenue Department bring into the thandaper accounts (Chitta) the names of the real land-holders who shall be held liable for the payment of Government revenue due on the land.
  4. No case shall be rejected solely for the default of appearance of the parties.
  5. Only a summary enquiry is to be made by the Revenue authorities.
  6. The summary enquiry and the decision thereon is only an arrangement for fiscal purposes.
  7. The summary enquiry and the decision thereon do not affect the legal rights of any person in respect of the lands covered by the decisions in transfer of registry cases.
  8. The question of legal rights is always subject to adjudication by civil courts.
  9. And, pattas will be revised from time to time in accordance with judicial decisions.

Mutation’ Only (Mainly) for Fiscal Purposes;Legal Rights subject to civil court decision

In Sawarni v. Inder Kaur and Ors., (1996) 6 SCC 223, it was held that mutation in revenue records neither creates nor extinguishes title, nor does it have any presumptive value on title. (Referred to in: P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2023 4 CurCC(SC) 278)

In Balwant Singh v. Daulat Singh, (1997) 7 SCC 137 it was held that mere mutation of records would not divest the owners of a land of their right, title and interest in the land. (Referred to in: P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2023 4 CurCC(SC) 278)

In Jitendra Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 802, it was held as under:

  • “6. … mutation entry does not confer any right, title or interest in favour of the person and the mutation entry in the revenue record is only for the fiscal purpose.” (Quoted in: P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2023 4 CurCC(SC) 278)

In Sita Ram Bhau Patil v. Ramchandra Nago Patil, (1977) 2 SCC 49, it was held that there exists no universal principle that whatever will appear in the record of rights will be presumed to be correct, when there exists evidence to the contrary. (Referred to in: P.  Kishore Kumar v. Vittal K.  Patkar, 2023 4 CurCC(SC) 278)

Patta As Such Does Not Confer Title

In Union of India v. Vasavi Co-op.  Housing Society Ltd. , AIR 2014 SC 937; 2014-2 SCC 269, it is continued as under:

  •  “18. The Plaintiff has also maintained the stand that their predecessor-in- interest was the Pattadar of the suit land. In a given case, the conferment of Patta as such does not confer title. Reference may be made to the judgment of this Court in Syndicate Bank v. Estate Officer & Manager, APIIC Ltd. & Ors. (2007) 8 SCC 361 and Vatticherukuru Village Panchayat v. Nori Venkatarama Deekshithulu & Ors. (1991) Supp. (2) SCC 228.
  • 20. We are of the view that even if the entries in the Record of Rights carry evidentiary value, that itself would not confer any title on the plaintiff on the suit land in question. Ext.X-1 is Classer Register of 1347 which according to the trial court, speaks of the ownership of the plaintiff’s vendor’s property. We are of the view that these entries, as such, would not confer any title. Plaintiffs have to show, independent of those entries, that the plaintiff’s predecessors had title over the property in question and it is that property which they have purchased.”

Patta is not a document of title. It can be Mortgaged as Title-Deed u/s. 58, TP Act

In Angu Pillai v. M.S.M. Kasiviswanathan Chettiar, AIR 1974 Mad 16, it was noticed as under:

  • “15.In Indian law, deposit of patta has been held to constitute a valid equitable mortgage, though patta is not in itself a deed of title, but is only an evidence of title. This Court has consistently taken the view that the main object of tender of patta is merely to give information of the land revenue payable and the details of the property and that the exact weight to be given to the patta would depend upon the circumstances of the case. In Dohganna v. Jammanna, AIR 1931 Mad 613 it is pointed out that in case of pattas in respect of a land in Zamindari, if the land be at the disposal of the landlord at the time of granting the patta, prima facie such patta would not be mere bill of rent but something more and that if it is not so it would not create any rights in the pattadar in derogation of the rights of a person who would be entitled to the land subject to the proper and regular payment of rent. The question directly arose before a Bench of this Court in Official Assignee v. Basudevadoss, AIR 1925 Mad 723, as to whether a deposit of patta is enough to constitute an equitable mortgage. The Bench answered the question in the affirmative. Srinivasa Aiyangar, J. who delivered the leading judgment in that case, has pointed out that the answer to the question as to whether the pattas in respect of a land is a document which would be sufficient, by being deposited, to evidence the intention required for an equitable mortgage would vary according to the conditions of the country and the consciousness on the part of the members of the community and that though a patta is not a document of title still a deposit of the same with intent to create an equitable mortgage would create an equitable mortgage.” (Quoted with approval in: Syndicate Bank v. Estate Officer,  AIR 2007 AIR SC 3169; 2007-8 SCC 361)

Not to Set Aside Patta; for, Patta was Prepared not after hearing

In Godavarma Valia Raja v. Bhoothi Swamiyar,  AIR 1952 TC/Ker 408, ir is observed as under:

  • Therefore, so far as the assessment is concerned it was not at all necessary to set aside the order of the Settlement Officer. It is only in case the Devaswom impeaches the order in so far as it refused to issue patta in favour of the Devaswom for some of the properties claimed by it that the Devaswom would be bound to set aside the order. Therefore, there is no substance in the contention that the plaintiff was bound to set aside the decision of the settlement Officer mentioned in the notice, Ex. VIII. The further question for consideration is whether the plaintiff was bound to set aside the patta, Ex. G. There is nothing to show that the patta was prepared after hearing the plaintiff or after giving him an opportunity to show cause why the assessment should not be fixed in the manner in which it was fixed in Ex. G. The preparation of the patta appears to have been a mere executive order of the Settlement Officer. It was not an order passed between two parties. Again, even if the declaration asked for in the plaint is allowed it will not have the effect of setting aside the patta. It will only have the effect of correcting the patta with respect to the assessment.”

Part – IISurvey and Boundaries Act

“The Survey and Demarcation of lands by the State have a Purpose”

In Achuthan Unni v. Vally, 1962 KLT 1010, it is held as under:

  • “3. The survey and demarcation of lands by the State have a purpose; they are intended to identify the different pieces of land so as to regulate the rights of landholders. Bights in land will normally be presumed to be in terms of the survey divisions. When a person is admitted or found to be in possession of a survey division, the presumption is of such possession being extensive with the survey division concerned; and he is not to be constrained to prove his possession of every inch of it. It is then for the person who asserts the contrary to prove by positive evidence that a defined portion thereof is in his adverse possession and has been lost to the owner thereof. If the court finds the same, the Land Records will be corrected accordingly sub-dividing the original survey division so as to demarcate each holding with separate survey number.”

In Damodara Panicker v. Ayyappan Kutty, 1962 KLT 637; 1962 KHC 153, it is held as under:

  • 5. Where the disputed land is a narrow strip, (in this case, it is of width ranging from two or three feet) at the verge of the plaintiff’s land adjoining the defendants’ property it would in most cases, be difficult to prove its actual possession as such. If the remaining portion of the plaintiff’s land is admitted or found to be in the plaintiff’s possession, the same must be held to extend to the border, unless there be clear evidence to the contrary. In other words, when a person is admitted or found to be in possession of his land identified by a Survey Number and the dispute by the adjoining landholder concerns only a narrow strip at the mutual boundary, the possession of the former will be presumed to be coextensive with the relative survey division and the burden will be on the party claiming the encroachment to prove his adverse possession thereof for over the statutory period (of 12 years). [See: Achuthan Unni v. Vally, 1962 KLJ 400].” (Quoted in: n Susi v. Sujathan, 2022-1 KHC 671, K Babu, J. and in Kathirummal Chirammal Karthyayani v. Kunnool Balakrishnan, 2014-2 KHC 108; 2014-2 KLJ 289; 2014 Supp2 KLT 67)

In Kathirummal Chirammal Karthyayani v. Kunnool Balakrishnan, 2014-2 KHC 108; 2014-2 KLJ 289; 2014 Supp2 KLT 67 (N.K. Balakrishnan, J.), the argument of the appellant in the Second Appeal was laid down by the court as under:

  • “5. The learned counsel for the appellant submits that the appellant who was examined as PW1 had a definite case that her property extends up to the ‘chal’ and the ridge on the eastern side of the property and so the findings entered by the appellate court that the boundary of the respondents’ property should be along the ‘EF’ line, cannot be accepted at all. Simply because resurvey was conducted and a plan was drawn by the Survey Authorities, it cannot be said that the appellant’s property does not extend up to the dotted line shown by the Commissioner, which is actually the natural boundary of the property, it is argued.”

Dismissing the second appeal, it is held as under:

  • “12. If it is a case where large extent of property lying in a different survey number is claimed by the plaintiff based on a survey record alone, when actually it is in the possession of the defendant, the plaintiff has to seek recovery of possession of that large extent of property which is in the possession of the defendant. So far as the case on hand is concerned, it is only a very narrow strip of land lying along the boundary line. Hence, the presumption should be that the person, who has got title to the property and whose boundary extends up to the line stated above is in possession of that narrow strip of land as well.”

Survey conclusive proof – Boundaries determined & Recorded Correctly

In Elambilan Nani Amma v. Mulavana Antony (K. Babu, J.), 2023-7 KHC 418, it is observed as under:

  • “It is also trite that the decisions of the survey authorities under Chapter II of the Act (Kerala Survey and Boundaries Act) will not affect the right and title of the property acquired by a party as per a valid title deed. The right and title to property have to be determined not with reference to the survey demarcation but based on other cogent materials, the primary of which is the title deed. The record of the survey result shall be conclusive proof that the boundaries were determined and recorded therein correctly. (Vide: Cheriyanad Grama Panchayath v. The State of Kerala and Ors. (2019 (5) KHC 699, Venugopalan Nair v. Saraswathy Amma (2013 (4) KLT 717), Karthyayani v. Balakrishnan [2014 (2) Suppl. 67 (Ker.)], Ibrahim v. Saythumuhammed (2013 (4) KLT 435) and Achama Alexander (Died. Lrs impleaded) and Others v. Assistant Director, Survey and Land Records and Others (2022 (2) KHC 131).”

The record of the survey result shall be conclusive proof that the boundaries were determined and recorded therein correctly (when survey was made). This view is fortified by the decisions of the Kerala High Court in: 

  • Kannan v. Kannan (1964 KLT 228), 
  • The Cheriyanad Grama Panchayath v. The State of Kerala  (2019 (5) KerHC 699),
  • Venugopalan Nair v. Saraswathy Amma (2013 (4) KLT 717);
  • Karthyayani v. Balakrishnan (2014 (2) KLT Suppl. 67 (Ker.);
  • Ibrahim v. Saythumuhammed (2013 (4) KLT 435);
  • Achama Alexander v. Asst. Director, Survey and Land Records (2022 (2) KerHC 131: 2022-3 KLT 198);
  • Thomas v. Philip, 2022(4) KerHC 451;
  • Elambilan Nani Amma v. Mulavana Antony, 2023-7 KHC 418

Determine Boundaries by Survey Authorities

Kerala High Court held in Thomas v. Philip, 2022(4) KerHC 451 (K. Babu, J.) to the following effect:

  • The Survey and Boundaries Act, 1961 empowers the survey authorities to determine the boundaries of different sub-divisions.
  • The Survey and Boundaries Act, 1961 empowers the survey authorities to determine the boundaries of different sub-divisions.
  • It is predominantly based on possession.
  • As per the Act, the survey officer has the power to determine and record any boundary as undisputed in respect of which no dispute is brought to his notice.
  • Where a boundary is disputed, the survey officer shall, after making such inquiries as he considers necessary, determine the boundary and record it in accordance with his decision with reasons in writing for arriving at that decision.

Presumption as to maps or plans made by authority of Government

Section 82 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, provides as under:

  • “82. Presumption as to maps or plans made by authority of Government: The Court shall presume that maps or plans purporting to be made by the authority of the Central Government or any State Government were so made, and are accurate; but maps or plans made for the purposes of any cause must be proved to be accurate.”

In title declaration Suits, Survey Plan & Revenue Records are Less significant.

In Laxkshmi B. v. Suku, 2024-1 KerHC 380, it is observed as under:  

  • “16. … When a suit for recovery of possession has been filed on the strength of title or in a suit for title declaration, title would prevail over revenue records and resurvey numbers. To put it differently, tax receipts, survey plan, resurvey plan or revenue records do not confer title to anybody, when there is title deed in relation to the said property in favour of the title holder. Therefore, in suits involving title dispute, title would prevail over revenue records, if it is found on measurement that the property covered by the title deed is identified properly justifying the declaration of title and recovery of possession on the strength of title. The said reliefs never be denied merely on the ground that in the revenue records/resurvey records, the said portion of the property is not shown as the property of the plaintiffs.

Survey Authorities Not to decide title

  • It is not for the survey authorities to decide the question of the title (based on resurvey records).
  • The decision of the survey authorities shall not affect the right and title of the properties acquired by a party as per a valid title deed.

Properties Identified on Title Deeds

  • The properties of the parties are to be identified based on the title deeds.
  • The changes in the extent of the property in the resurvey would not confer title.

Title and Possession decided by Civil Court

The title and possession are matters to be decided by a Civil Court.

Merely because a portion of the plaintiff’s property is shown in the resurvey records as with defendant’s survey number, it cannot lead to an inference that possession was with the defendant.

In Sundaresan Nair v. Mallan Nadar, the Kerala High Court (2012 – K. Vinod Chandran, J.) held as under:

  • “The questions of law regarding conclusiveness of the re-survey conducted under the Survey Act is held against the appellants and in favour of the 1st respondent/plaintiff. Necessarily, the resurvey conducted under Section 13 has to yield to the adjudication by the competent Civil Court with respect to the identity based on title.”

Power of Survey Officer to determine disputed boundary

In Cheriyanad Grama Panchayat v. State of Kerala, 2019 (4) KLT 916, it is laid down as under:

  • Section 10 of the Act authorizes the survey officer to re-define the boundary lines of a particular survey already settled by old survey records.
  • Section 6 and 7 of the Act do not empower survey officer to re-define any boundary line of a particular survey which was already settled and finalised in an earlier survey (except for the purpose of Section 5 of the Act which deals with the situation wherein certain area was taken away by sea erosion or action of river.)
  • Section 4 of the Act also permits a survey of the land, but its purpose should be understood in relation to the necessity to have a re-survey, certainly, not for altering the earlier survey records, but for recording the further divisions of property out of a large extent within a particular survey.

In Achama Alexander v. Assistant Director, Survey and Land Records (K. Babu, J.), 2022-2 KHC 131; 2022-3 KLT 198, it is observed as under:

  • “24. A reading of Sec. 10 of the Act makes it candidly clear that the survey authority is only empowered to determine the disputes regarding the fixation of boundary between owners of land comprised in a particular survey division. The act of determination envisaged in Sec. 10 of the Act essentially draws a dividing line based on ownership within a particular survey or, in other words, Sec. 10 of the Act does not authorise the Survey Authority to redefine the boundary line of a particular survey already settled by old survey records. Section 10 of the Act does not empower the survey authority to change the ownership of a particular sub-division and make it part of another survey sub-division.”

Sec. 10 of the Kerala Survey and Boundaries Act reads as inder:

  • “10. Power of Survey Officer to determine and record a disputed boundary with reasons– (1) Where a boundary is disputed, the Survey Officer shall, after making such inquiries as he considers necessary, determine the boundary and record it in accordance with his decision with reasons in writing for arriving at that decision.
  • (2) Notice of every decision of the Survey Officer under sub-section (1) shall be given in the prescribed manner to the parties to the dispute and other registered holders of the lands, the boundaries of which may be affected by the decision.

Petitioner to Prove claim (Lease); cannot rely Inconsistencies of Respondents

In OT Alexander v. State of Kerala, LAWS (KER) 2021-5. 23, High Court of Kerala (N. Nagaresh, J.) did not accept the argument of the petitioner in the Writ Petition, against the Government Order for resumption of the land, for the absence of materials to establish the lease of 1933 claimed by the Petitioner.  The prime contention of the petitioner was that the land was originally granted to the predecessors-in-interest of the petitioner, under Ground Rent Patta by erstwhile Collector of South Malabar District during the British regime in 1933; and that Land assigned under Ground Rent Patta could not be resumed by the Government.

The petitioner claimed that the transferees of the original leasee sold their right to a bank. The Bank (State Bank of Travancore) sold the property to a Company in 1995. The petitioner purchased the property from the Company as per the Sale Deed of the year 2004. The petitioner has been paying property tax to the Cochin Corporation. The action for resumption of land by the District Collector was on the ground that the sale deed between SBT and the Company was illegal. Pointing out that the petitioner cannot base his claim on inconsistencies of the respondents, the High Court did not accept the arguments against the resumption of land by the Collector.

Part – III

Land Reforms Act

In Harikumar P. R.  v. State of Kerala, 2013-2 KerLT 44, 2013-1 KHC 847, it is held as under:

  • Title to property is not what is decided in the Land Board proceedings in a ceiling case (under Land Reform Act) as between the declarant and the State, though such issues may be germane while exemptions or identification of excess, are to be decided by the Land Board, as between the declarant and other parties appearing before the Land Board. If the Government have the case that the paramount title to the land rests with them, they would be at liberty to initiate action in accordance with law.” (quoted in: Harrisons Malayalam Limited v. State of Kerala, 2018-2 KERLT 369, 2018-2 KHC 719,)

Part – IV

Presumptions in Favour of Govt. Lands

(a) There is a presumption in favour of Government – all lands which are not the property of any person or which are not vested in a local authority, belong to the Government.

(b) In order to defeat the title of the Government, a claimant has to establish a clear title which is superior to or better than the title of the Government.

(c) In Pierce Lessley & Company Ltd. v. Violet Ouchterlong Waoshare, AIR 1969 SC 843, it was held as under –

  • “In this country escheat is not based on artificial rules of common law; and is not an incident of feudal tenure.  It is incident sovereignty and rests on principle of ultimate ownership by the State of all property within the jurisdiction.”

(d) In Chotte Khan v. Muhammed Obedulla Khan, AIR 1953 Nag. 361, held

  • “… The State is the ultimate owner of all property situate within its boundaries”.

(e) In Ameer Hussain v. Deputy Director of Consolidation, 1978 RD 204, 1977 AWC 1, it is held that it would be deemed that the disputed land vested in State and if the other side fails, in law,  it would be taken that the land was vested in State. (Followed in: Mohd. Shafiq v. Assistant Director of Consolidation, 2011-9 ADJ 24)

(f)  In R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203, it was held as under:

  • “15. …… All lands which are not the property of any person or which are not vested in a local authority, belong to the government. All unoccupied lands are the property of the government, unless any person can establish his right or title to any such land. This presumption available to the government, is not available to any person or individual.

(g) The law as to title of property is laid down in Union of India v. Ibrahim Uddin, 2012(8) SCC 148 as under –

  • “The appellate courts examined the title of Government instead the plaintiff/respondent No. 1.  Such a course was not warranted.  The title of Government cannot be disputed.  In any event, possession of Government for decades is not disputed.  The plaintiff shifted the case from time to time; but failed to prove his title……….   The said courts did not realize that this was not the issue to be determined, rather the issue had been as to whether the plaintiff was the owner of the suit-land.”

(h) In Government of Kerala v. Joseph, AIR 2023 SC 3988 – It was pointed out –

  • “When the land subject to proceedings wherein adverse possession has been claimed, belongs to Government, the court is duty-bound to act with greater seriousness, effectiveness, care and circumspection as it may lead to destruction of a right/title of the State to immovable property.”

(i) In R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203, it was held as under:

  • “15. Suits for declaration of title against the government, though similar to suits for declaration of title against private individuals differ significantly in some aspects.
  • The first difference is in regard to the presumption available in favour of the government. All lands which are not the property of any person or which are not vested in a local authority, belong to the government. All unoccupied lands are the property of the government, unless any person can establish his right or title to any such land. This presumption available to the government, is not available to any person or individual. …”

(j) In State of Kerala v. Pathrose Mathai, 1970 Ker LJ 517; 1969 KerLT 507, it was held as under:

  • “There is also no presumption that a person who enters Government land, improves the same & keeps possession, is exercising acts hostile to the title of the State. This is because it is not uncommon for persons to enter upon Government land & reclain and improve such land in the hope of ultimately getting registry or lease of such land.”

Period of Limitation – 30 years

R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203, continues (as regards period of limitation) as under:

  • ” … The second difference is in regard to the period for which title and/or possession have to be established by a person suing for declaration of title. Establishing title/possession for a period exceeding twelve years may be adequate to establish title in a declaratory suit against any individual. On the other hand, title/possession for a period exceeding thirty years will have to be established to succeed in a declaratory suit for title against government. This follows from Article 112 of Limitation Act, 1963, which prescribes a longer period of thirty years as limitation in regard to suits by government as against the period of 12 years for suits by private individuals. The reason is obvious. Government properties are spread over the entire state and it is not always possible for the government to protect or safeguard its properties from encroachments. Many a time, its own officers who are expected to protect its properties and maintain proper records, either due to negligence or collusion, create entries in records to help private parties, to lay claim of ownership or possession against the government.
  • Any loss of government property is ultimately the loss to the community. Courts owe a duty to be vigilant to ensure that public property is not converted into private property by unscrupulous elements.
  • 16. Many civil courts deal with suits for declaration of title and injunction against government, in a casual manner, ignoring or overlooking the special features relating to government properties. Instances of such suits against government being routinely decreed, either ex parte or for want of proper contest, merely acting upon the oral assertions of plaintiffs or stray revenue entries are common. Whether the government contests the suit or not, before a suit for declaration of title against a government is decreed, the plaintiff should establish, either his title by producing the title deeds which satisfactorily trace title for a minimum period of thirty years prior to the date of the suit (except where title is claimed with reference to a grant or transfer by the government or a statutory development authority), or by establishing adverse possession for a period of more than thirty years.
  • In such suits, courts cannot, ignoring the presumptions available in favour of the government, grant declaratory or injunctive decrees against the government by relying upon one of the principles underlying pleadings that plaint averments which are not denied or traversed are deemed to have been accepted or admitted.


Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act

Will

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Adjudication as to Proper Stamp under Stamp Act

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Contents in nutshell

Following are clear from the Section 31 of The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 (Similar provisions are there in the State Stamp Acts also).

  • If only a document is not stamped or there is a doubt as to proper stamp, then only the question of ‘adjudication’ under the Stamp Act comes into consideration.
  • Similarly, the proposition that all instruments executed outside India should be placed for ‘adjudication’ is incorrect.

Also Read: Time-Limit For Adjudication of Unstamped Documents, before Collector

Unstamped or Insufficiently Stamped Pro-note

Unstamped or insufficiently stamped promissory note cannot be marked in evidence. The weight of authority is on the side that says it is incurable. Hence no secondary evidence can also be lead on the same. It cannot be used for collateral purpose also. But the creditor can prosecute a suit upon ‘original consideration’; or invoking the procedure law that permits prosecution of a suit on lost promissory note, i.e., under Order 7, Rule 16 CPC, that deals with Suits on Lost Negotiable Instruments.

If proper stamp duty Paid no Requirement of Adjudication

The Madras High Court, in Manoharan v. Velu, (1998) III M.L.J 272, held that a power of attorney executed on proper stamp need not be produced before the Collector for the purpose of certification or adjudication that the full duty with which it is chargeable has been paid. It was observed Manoharan v. Velu as under:

  • “5. This power document satisfies the definition ‘power of attorney’ as defined in Sub-sec.(21) of Sec.2 of the Act. It is not in dispute that this power document is engrossed on Indian Non-Judicial stamp paper of the value of Rs.5, which is the proper stamp duty, payable on that instrument. On these facts, the question that arises for consideration is whether the said power document should be  necessarily produced before the Collector to certify by endorsement on such instrument that the full duty with which it is chargeable has been paid or not. To decide this question, the court has to necessarily look into Secs.31 and 32 of the Act. Sec.32 of the Act starts with the following words’ “When an instrument brought to the Collector under Sec.31, is etc., etc. Therefore, if the provisions of Sec.32 of the Act have to be applied, then the instrument should have been necessarily produced under the provisions of Sec.31 of the Act before the Collector concerned. Sec.31 of the Act enable a person bringing to the Collector any instrument whether executed or not and whether previously stamped or not, to have his opinion as to the duty (if any) with which it is chargeable and thereupon the Collector on payment of a fee, shall determine the duty (if any) with which, in his judgment the instrument is chargeable. Sub-sec.(2) of Sec.31 of the Act deals with the power of the Collector to collect materials, in order to determine the stamp duty, if any, chargeable on the instrument produced before him.
  • Therefore, it is clear that only in a case where the opinion of the Collector is sought for regarding the payment of the proper stamp duty, the Collector gets the power to proceed in accordance with Sec.31 of the Act, Once the Collector gets the jurisdiction under Sec.31 of the Act in the manner I have stated above, then only Sec.32 of the Act gets attracted.
  • 6. Since in this case, the instrument has been charged with the proper stamp duty payable under the Act and since it has not been produced by the power of Attorney Agent of the deceased second plaintiff before the  Collector, the Collector does not get any jurisdiction at all to go into that question. The argument the learned counsel for the respondents that the requirement of producing such an instrument before the Collector is mandatory, (Where the instrument had been executed outside India) cannot be sustained. The Proviso to the main section of the Act cannot alter the scope of the very section itself. To attract clause (b) of the Proviso to Sub-sec.(3) of Sec.32 of the Act necessarily the document whether it is executed in India or outside India should have been produced before the Collector under Sec.31(1) of the Act. So long as the document was not produced before the Collector, under Sec.31(1) of the Act seeking his opinion on proper stamp duty chargeable, there is no question of relying upon or referring to the Proviso to Sub- sec.(3) of Sec.32 of the Act.”

Kerala High Court, quoting above portions from Manoharan v. Velu, it was held in Anitha Rajan v. Revenue Divisional OfficerAIR 2010 Ker 153, that it was not necessary to produce the power of attorney, even if executed outside India, for adjudication if it was sufficiently stamped. The High Court definitely held further that the Village Officer, Nattika Village erred in directing the petitioner to produce the (sufficiently stamped) original power of attorney before the Revenue Divisional Officer for adjudication under sections 31 and 32 of the Kerala Stamp Act, 1959.

Impounding of Documents, When Produced; Cannot Wait Till it is Exhibited

In Yogesh Kumar Sikka v. Monika (2019) the P & H High Court held as under:

  • “12. Court cannot say that it would impound the document only when the document is tendered in evidence for marking. There may be instances where duty and penalty payable may be very high and the party may not choose to rely upon such insufficiently stamped document in order to avoid stamp duty and penalty. In such circumstances, it would result in loss of revenue to the exchequer. The power of impounding a document is to collect stamp duty and penalty whenever there is an escape of duty. Therefore, when it is brought to the notice of the Court that a document is insufficiently stamped, the Court exercising its power under S. 33 of the Act has to pass an order at the first instance for impounding the document. Though there is a discretion vested in the Court to exercise powers under S. 33 and 34 of the Act, no Court can hold that it would wait till the document is tendered in evidence. In such circumstances, there may be chances of loss of revenue to the exchequer.”

Copy of a Deed Cannot be Impounded; it cannot be Validated by Impounding

Our Apex Court, in Jupudi Kesava Rao v. Pulavarthi Venkata Subbarao, AIR 1971 SC 1070, followed the Privy Council decision in Raja of Bobbili v. Imuganti China Sitaramaswami Garu, 23 Madras 49, where the Judicial Committee held as under:

  • “These clauses throughout deal with, and exclusively refer to, the admission as evidence of original documents which, at the time of their execution, were not stamped at all, or were insufficiently stamped. It is only upon production of the original writ, that the Collector has the power given him or the duty imposed upon him, of assessing and charging tie penalty, a duty which he must, in that case, perform by writing an indorsement upon the writ submitted to him, which then, and not till then, becomes probative in law.”

The Supreme Court observed that the reason for non-production of original, in this aspect, is immaterial. It is sated as under:

  • “The decisions of different High Courts make it quite clear that the cause of the non-production of the original instrument is immaterial, i.e. whether it was lost or whether it was destroyed or even if it was the allegation of the party seeking to prove its contents by alleging that the document was suppressed by his opponent.”

In Hariom Agrawal v. Prakash Chand Malviya , AIR 2008 SC 166, it is held as under:

  • “8. It is clear from the decisions of this Court and a plain reading of Ss. 33, 35 and 2(14) of the Act (Madhya Pradesh Stamp Act) that an instrument which is not duly stamped can be impounded and when the required fee and penalty has been paid for such instrument it can be taken in evidence under Sec. 35 of the Stamp Act. Ss. 33 or 35 are not concerned with any copy of the instrument and party can only be allowed to rely on the document which is an instrument within the meaning of Sec. 2(14). There is no scope for the inclusion of the copy of the document for the purposes of the Indian Stamp Act. Law is now no doubt well settled that copy of the instrument cannot be validated by impounding and this cannot be admitted as secondary evidence under the Indian Stamp Act, 1899.”

Read Blogs:

Is ‘Impounding’ totally Independent from ‘Admissibility’

Karnataka High Court (N. Kumar, J.), in Rekha S. Chandru v. Chikka Venkatappa (2015), authoritatively held relying on Javer Chand v. Pukhraj Surana, AIR 1961 SC 1655, that when a document was already marked by the trial Court in evidence, the objection regarding stamp duty cannot be raised at a later stage.

  • “Once a document has been admitted in evidence, as aforesaid, it is not open either to the Trial Court itself or to a Court of Appeal or revision to go behind that order. Such an order is not one of those judicial orders which are liable to be reviewed or revised by the same Court or a Court of superior jurisdiction.”

Should an opportunity be given to cure defect, by paying deficit Stamp Duty?

In Kalaivani @ Devasena v. J. Ramu, 2010(1) CTC 27,  it was held that an opportunity should be given to the party who produces the document with insufficient stamp, to pay the deficit stamp duty and penalty so that the document could be exhibited; and that if penalty is not paid, the document should be impounded. It is held as under:

  • “24. .. It is well settled that even an unregistered document is admissible in evidence for collateral purpose provided it is adequately stamped under the Stamp act. If the document is both unstamped and unregistered, as the document in question here, it is no doubt true that it cannot be looked into for collateral purpose also. But such a document should not be thrown out at the threshold itself and an opportunity must be extended to the party who wants to mark the document on his side by directing him to pay the deficit stamp duty along with the penalty upto date, then the document could be admitted in evidence for collateral purpose. If the person does not pay the Court, then the document is to be impounded and sent to the Collector for taking action under the law.”


End Notes

Section 31 of The Indian Stamp Act, 1899 speaks as under:

  • “31. Adjudication as to proper stamp.
  • (1) When any instrument, whether executed or not and whether previously stamped or not, is brought to the Collector, and the person bringing it applies to have the opinion of that officer as to the duty (if any) with which it is chargeable, and pays a fee of such amount (not exceeding five rupees and not less than [fifty naye paise]) as the Collector may in each case direct, the Collector shall determine the duty (if any) with which, in his judgment the instrument is chargeable.
  • (2) For this purpose the Collector may require to be furnished with an abstract of the instrument, and also with such affidavit or other evidence as he may deem necessary to prove that all the facts and circumstances affecting the chargeability of the instrument with duty, or the amount of the duty with which it is chargeable, are fully and truly set forth therein, and may refuse to proceed upon any such application until such abstract and evidence have been furnished accordingly: Provided that—
  • (a) no evidence furnished in pursuance of this section shall be used against any person in any civil proceeding, except in an enquiry as to the duty with which the instrument to which it relates is chargeable; and
  • (b) every person by whom any such evidence is furnished, shall, on payment of the full duty with which the instrument to which it relates, is chargeable, be relieved from any penalty which he may have incurred under this Act by reason of the omission to state truly in such instrument any of the facts or circumstances aforesaid.”

Instruments not duly stamped, inadmissible

Sec. 35, Indian Stamp Act reads as under:

  • “35. Instruments not duly stamped inadmissible in evidence, etc.–No instrument chargeable with duty shall be admitted in evidence for any purpose by any person having by law or consent of parties authority to receive evidence, or shall be acted upon, registered or authenticated by any such person or by any public officer, unless such instrument is duly stamped:
  • Provided that—(a) any such instrument  shall, be admitted in evidence on payment of the duty with which the same is chargeable, or, in the case of an instrument insufficiently stamped, of the amount required to make up such duty, together with a penalty of five rupees, or, when ten times the amount of the proper duty or deficient portion thereof exceeds five rupees, of a sum equal to ten times such duty or portion;
  • (b) where any person from whom a stamped receipt could have been demanded, has given an unstamped receipt and such receipt, if stamped, would be admissible in evidence against him, then such receipt shall be admitted in evidence against him, then such receipt shall be admitted in evidence against him on payment of a penalty of one rupee by the person tendering it;
  • (c) where a contract or agreement of any kind is effected by correspondence consisting of two or more letters and any one of the letters bears the proper stamp, the contract or agreement shall be deemed to be duly stamped;
  • (d)  nothing herein contained shall prevent the admission of any instrument in evidence in any proceeding in a Criminal Court, other than a proceeding under Chapter XII or Chapter XXXVI of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898 (5 of 1898);
  • (e) nothing herein contained shall prevent the admission of any instrument in any Court when such instrument has been executed by or on behalf of  the Government or where it bears the certificate of the Collector as provided by section 32 or any other provision of this Act.

Unstamped document cannot be looked at even for any collateral purpose

Privy Council in Ram Rattan v. Parma Nath, AIR 1946 PC 51, held that section 35 of the Stamp Act prohibited the unstamped (or inadequately stamped) document from being looked at even for any collateral purpose, as it enacts that no instrument chargeable with duty shall be admitted in evidence ‘for any purpose’. The unstamped (or inadequately stamped) document becomes admissible on payment of penalty under Stamp Act or on payment of the stamp duty after impounding.

Pay Duty With Penalty to Admit Unstamped Deed for Collateral Purpose

In Yellapu Uma Maheswari v. Buddha Jagadheeswararao, (2015) 16 SCC 787, the Apex Court held in the suit for declaration of title that an unregistered document can be relied upon for collateral purposes i.e. to prove his possession, payment of sale consideration and nature of possession; but not for primary purpose i.e. sale between the plaintiff and defendant or its terms. It is held as under:

  • “In a suit for partition, an unregistered document can be relied upon for collateral purpose i.e. severancy of title, nature of possession of various shares but not for the primary purpose i.e. division of joint properties by metes and bounds. An unstamped instrument is not admissible in evidence even for collateral purpose, until the same is impounded. Hence, if the appellant-defendant wants to mark these documents for collateral purpose it is open for them to pay the stamp duty together with penalty and get the document impounded and the trial court is at liberty to mark Exts. B-21 and B-22 for collateral purpose subject to proof and relevance.” 

Section 49 of the Registration Act expressly states admissibility of unregistered documents  in evidence for collateral purposes. The word ‘collateral’ signifies something beyond or parallel. According to Law Lexicon it means “that which is by the side, and not the direct line; that which is additional to or beyond a thing” (Amit Khanna.  Vs Suchi Khanna, 2008-10 ADJ 426; 2009-75 AllLR 34; 2009-1 AWC 929).

The Supreme  Court observed in Sri Venkoba Rao Pawar v. Sri S. Chandrashekar, AIR 2008 SCW 4829, that the collateral purpose/transaction must be independent of, or divisible from the transaction which requires registration.

The Apex Court in K.B. Saha and Sons Private Limited, 2008 AIR SCW 4829, has laid down the principle in respect of the collateral purpose.

  •        “34. From the principles laid down in the various decisions of this Court and the High Courts, as referred to here-in-above, it is evident that :-
  1.        A document required to be registered is not admissible into evidence under section 49 of the Registration Act.
  2.       Such unregistered document can however be used as an evidence of collateral purpose as provided in the Proviso to section 49 of the Registration Act.
  3.        A collateral transaction must be independent of, or divisible from, the transaction to effect which the law required registration.
  4.       A collateral transaction must be a transaction not itself required to be effected by a registered document, that is, a transaction creating, etc. any right, title or interest in immovable property of the value of one hundred rupees and upwards.
  5.      If a document is inadmissible in evidence for want of registration, none of its terms can be admitted in evidence and that to use a document for the purpose of proving an important clause would not be using it as a collateral purpose.

Section 36 of the Stamp Act – Once admitted shall NOT be called in question

Section 36 of the Stamp Act provides as under:

  • “36. Admission of instrument where not to be questioned – Where an instrument has been admitted in evidence such admission shall not except as provided in Section 61, be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceeding on the ground that the instrument has not been duly stamped “.

Order Admitting Document, Not liable to be Reviewed or Reversed in Appeal

The Apex Court held in Javer Chand v. Pukhraj Surana, AIR 1961 SC 1655, as under:

  • “Where a question as to the admissibility of a document is raised on the ground that it has not been stamped, or has not been properly stamped, it has to be decided then and there when the document is tendered in evidence. 
  • The Court has to judicially determine the matter as soon as the document is tendered in evidence and before it is marked as an exhibit in the case. …
  • Once a document has been marked as an exhibit in the case and the trial has proceeded all along on the footing that the document was an exhibit in the case and has been used by the parties in examination and cross-examination of their witnesses, S. 36 of the Stamp Act comes into operation. Once a document has been admitted in evidence, as aforesaid, it is not open either to the Trial Court itself or to a Court of Appeal or revision to go behind that order.
  • Such an order is not one of those judicial orders which are liable to be reviewed or revised by the same Court or a Court of superior jurisdiction.”

Objection be raised when Document Tendered

Our Apex Court held in Sirikonda Madhava Rao v. N. Hemalatha, 12 April, 2022 (referring Javer Chand v. Pukhraj Surana, (1962-2 SCR 333 and Shyamal Kumar Roy v. Sushil Kumar Agarwal, 2006-11 SCC 331) that after marking a document unopposed, it is not open to the parties, or even the court, to reexamine the order or issue. In this case. a document purporting to be an unregistered and insufficiently-stamped sale deed was marked as an Exhibit. The High Court directed that the aforesaid document should be de-marked and not be treated as an exhibit.It is said by the Supreme Court –

  • “Once a document has been admitted in evidence, such admission cannot be called in question at any stage of the suit or proceedings on the ground that the instrument has not been duly stamped. Objection as to admissibility of a document on the ground of sufficiency of stamp, has to raised when the document is tendered in evidence. Thereafter, it is not open to the parties, or even the court, to reexamine the order or issue.”

In Lothamasu Sambasiva Rao v. Thadwarthi Balakotiah, AIR 1973 AP 342, and several other decisions it was held that Section 35 was only a bar to the admissibility of an unstamped or insufficiently stamped document; and that when it had been admitted in evidence it could not have been, afterwards, withdrawn. See also:

  • Pankajakshan Nair v. Shylaja: ILR 2017-1 Ker 951;
  • Dundappa v. Subhash Bhimagouda Patil: 2017-3 AIR(Kar)(R) 570;
  • Savithramma R. C. v. Vijaya Bank; AIR 2015 Kar 175;
  • Jayalakshmamma v. Radhika: 2015 4 KarLJ 545;
  • K. Amarnath v. Smt. Puttamma: ILR 1999 Kar. 4634
  • Nanda Behera v. Akhsaya Kumar Behera, 2017AIR (CC) 1893

Shall not admit Unless Duly Stamped

The following two forceful propositions stand paradoxical and incongruent.

  1. Section 33 of the Stamp Act casts a duty on every authority including the Court to examine the document to find out whether it is duly stamped or not, irrespective of the fact whether an objection to its marking is raised or not. There is a duty upon every Judge under Sec. 35 of the Indian Stamp Act not  to  admit a document that is not duly stamped even if no objection to mark it.
  2. The court should not exclude an insufficiently stamped (or unstamped) deed once marked without objection under Sec. 36 of the Indian Stamp Act.

The Karnataka High Court held in Smt. Savithramma R.C v. M/s. Vijaya Bank, AIR 2015 Kar 175, as under:

  • “6. From the aforesaid statutory provisions and the decisions, it is clear that a duty is cast upon every judge to examine every document, which is produced or comes before him in the performance of his functions. On such examination, if it appears to the Judge that such instrument is not duly stamped, an obligation is cast upon him to impound the same. This duty is to be performed by the Judge irrespective of the fact whether any objection to its marking is raised or not. Hence, there is a need for diligence on the part of the Court having regard to the statutory obligation under Section 33 of the Karnataka Stamp Act. Section 34 of the Karnataka Stamp Act* mandates that an instrument, which is not duly stamped shall not be admitted in evidence. If any objection is taken to the admissibility of the evidence, it shall be decided then and there. If this document is found to be insufficiently stamped, then in terms of the proviso(a) to Section 34, the Court shall call upon the person, who is tendering the said document to pay duty and ten times penalty and thereafter admit the document in evidence. If duty and penalty is not paid, the document shall not be admitted in evidence.
    • *Corrosponding to Sec. 35, Indian Stamp Act
  • If such an objection is not taken at the time of admitting the said instrument in evidence, and the insufficiently stamped document is admitted in evidence then Section 35** of the Act provides that such admission shall not be called in question at any stage of the same suit or proceedings on the ground that the instrument has not been duly stamped.
    • **Corrosponding to Sec. 36, Indian Stamp Act
  • It has nothing to do with impounding the document. A duty is cast upon every judge to examine every document that is sought to be marked in evidence. The nomenclature of the document is not decisive. The question of admissibility will have to be decided by reading the document and deciding its nature and classification. Even while recording ex parte evidence or while recording evidence in the absence of the Counsel for the other side, the Court should be vigilant and examine and ascertain the nature of the document proposed to be marked and ensure that it is a document which is admissible. The Court should not depend on objections of the other Counsel before considering whether the document is admissible in evidence or not. Section 33 of the Stamp Act casts a duty on the Court to examine the document to find out whether it is duly stamped or not, irrespective of the fact whether an objection to its marking is raised or not”

Should Court Sit Silent and Question Unstamped Documents Afterwards

Though Smt. Savithramma R.C v. M/s. Vijaya Bank (supra) clarified the position with great clarity. As shown above, it pointed out-

  • “6. …. The Court should not depend on objections of the other Counsel before considering whether the document is admissible in evidence or not. Section 33 of the Stamp Act casts a duty on the Court to examine the document to find out whether it is duly stamped or not, irrespective of the fact whether an objection to its marking is raised or not”

Therefore, it is not definite-

  • whether the court should be unfailingly diligent enough not to mark an unstamped or insufficiently stamped document,or
  • whether the court should sit silent and mark the document if it is not opposed, or
  • whether the court should raise its eye-brows after marking it unopposed.

It is yet to be solved after considering all relevant aspects.

Referring Sec. 36 of the (Indian) Stamp Act, Karnataka High Court pointed out in Nanda Behera v. Akhsaya Kumar Behera, 2017AIR (CC) 1893, relying on Javer Chand v. Pukhraj Surana, AIR 1961 SC 1655, and Yellapu Uma Maheswari v. Buddha Jagadheeswara Rao, (2015) 16 SCC 787, as under:

  • “12. Thus where a question as to the admissibility of a document is raised on the ground that it has not been stamped or has not been properly stamped, it has to be decided then and there when the document is tendered in evidence. Once the Court, rightly or wrongly, decides to admit the document in evidence, so far as the parties are concerned, the matter is closed. Parties to a litigation, where such a controversy is raised, have to be circumspect and the party challenging the admissibility of the document has to be alert to see that the document is not admitted in evidence by the Court. The Court has to judicially determine the matter as soon as the document is tendered in evidence and before it is marked as an exhibit. Once a document has been admitted in evidence, it is not open either to the trial court itself or to a Court of Appeal or revision to go behind that order. Such an order is not one of those judicial orders which are liable to be reviewed or revised by the same Court or a Court of superior jurisdiction. An unregistered document can be relied upon for collateral purpose i.e. severancy of title, nature of possession of various shares but not for the primary purpose i.e. division of joint properties by metes and bounds. An unstamped instrument is not admissible in evidence even for collateral purpose, until the same is impounded. If the petitioner wants to mark the documents for collateral purpose, it is open to him to pay the stamp duty together with penalty and get the document impounded. Thereafter the trial court shall consider the same for collateral purpose subject to proof and relevance.”

In Omprakash v. Laxminarayan, (2014) 1 SCC 618, the Apex Court observed as under:

  • “From a plain reading of the aforesaid provision (S. 35 of the Stamp Act), it is evident that an authority to receive evidence shall not admit any instrument unless it is duly stamped. An instrument not duly stamped shall be admitted in evidence on payment of the duty with which the same is chargeable or in the case of an instrument insufficiently stamped, of the amount required to make up such duty together with penalty. As we have observed earlier, the deed of agreement having been insufficiently stamped, the same was inadmissible in evidence. The court being an authority to receive a document in evidence to give effect thereto, the agreement to sell with possession is an instrument which requires payment of the stamp duty applicable to a deed of conveyance. Duty as required, has not been paid and, hence, the trial court rightly held the same to be inadmissible in evidence.” 

The Apex Court upheld the observation of the MP High Court in Writ Petition No. 6464 of 2008, overruling the impugned judgment (Laxminarayan v. Omprakash 2008 (2) MPLJ 416). The MP High Court had observed as under:

  • “8. A document would be admissible on basis of the recitals made in the document and not on basis of the pleadings raised by the parties. ….
  • 9. It would be trite to say that if in a document certain recitals are made then the Court would decide the admissibility of the document on the strength of such recitals and not otherwise. In a given case, if there is an absolute unregistered sale deed and the parties say that the same is not required to be registered then we don’t think that the Court would be entitled to admit the document because simply the parties say so. The jurisdiction of the Court flows from Sec. 33, 35 and 38 of the Indian Stamp Act and the Court has to decide the question of admissibility. With all humility at our command we overrule the judgment in the matter of Laxminarayan (supra).”

Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

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Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India