Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs of a Club or Society

Saji Koduvath.

Introduction.

It is trite law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of civil courts is not readily inferred in civil disputes. The normal rule, as laid down under Section 9 of Code of Civil Procedure, is that the civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature, except the cognisance of which is either expressly or impliedly excluded.[1]

That is, unless by express mode or by necessary implication barred, civil courts’ jurisdiction permeates into every civil matter including that of the private associations and even clubs. When the affairs of such institutions, associations etc. are governed by statutes, the courts test the validity of their actions on the touch stone of such statutes. If such bodies are not directly governed by any statute but being administered under their own rules, bye laws etc., their impugned actions are tested in the light of those rules or bye laws. The courts enquire whether their acts were in conformity with those rules and bye laws, and following the principles of natural justice.[2]

2. Sources of Civil Court’s Jurisdiction

The jurisdiction of a civil court to interfere with the internal affairs of associations is ‘rather limited’.[3] Courts get jurisdiction to interfere with the internal affairs of associations if there are cogent grounds such as acts without jurisdiction, acts in violation of the principles of natural justice, acts with malafides, etc. Beyond the general jurisdiction of courts to intervene and set right illegalities, the jurisdiction thereof is obtained by Courts from three sources:

  • (i)   contract – on the premise that bye laws bind its members as a contract.[4]
  • (ii) court is the protector of all charities[5] and
  • (iii) formation of associations is, besides common law right and statutory right, a fundamental right[6] protected by our courts.

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act, 1860:

  • 6. Suits By and Against Societies – Every society registered under this Act may sue or be sued in the name of the president, chairman, or principal secretary, or trustees, as shall be determined by the rules and regulations of the society, and, in default of such determination, in the name of such person as shall be appointed by the governing body for the occasion.
  • Provided that it shall be competent for any person having a claim or demand against the society, to sue the president or chairman, or principal secretary or the trustees thereof, if on application to the governing body some other officer or person be not nominated to be the defendant.

3. Disputes be Redressed by the Mechanism Provided by the Rules

In Kowtha Suryanarayana Rao Vs. Patibandla Subrahmanyam[7]  it is held as follows:

  • “It is a well established principle that, provided that the acts of the management are within the powers of the society itself any dispute between individual members of the society and those responsible for its management must be decided by the machinery provided by the rules and not in a Court of law. It is only when an act is ultra vires the society that a member is entitled to come to a Civil Court and have the act of the management which is ultra vires declared to be void.”

In Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD  Kaushik[8] it is observed that in matters of internal management of an association, the courts normally do not interfere, leaving it open to the association and its members to frame a particular bye-law, rule or regulation which may provide for eligibility and or qualification for the membership and/or providing for limitations/restrictions on the exercise of any right by and as a member of the said association.

It is further held in this decision that the Memorandum of Association is a contract amongst the members of the Society and that these are rules which govern internal control and management of the Society. The authority to frame, amend, vary and rescind such rules, undoubtedly, vests in the General Body of the Members of the Society. The power to amend the rules is implicit in the power to frame rules.

Other remedies must be exhausted

It is well settled legal proposition that once a person becomes a member of the association, such a person loses his individuality qua the association and he has no individual rights except those given to him by the rules and regulations and/or bye-laws of the association.Courts will not delve in the internal disputes of an association unless it is shown[9] that the aggrieved parties have worked out and exhausted their remedies[10] (but, failed to resolve disputes)under the bye laws, before:

  • (a) the machinery or body (domestic tribunals)[11], if any,  provided in its bye laws,[12] or
  • (b) the body or authority which has to take (expressly or impliedly) cognisance of the matter, under its bye laws, or
  • (c) the authorities under the statute, if any, holds the field.[13]

In the following decisions the Supreme Court held that where hierarchy of appeals is provided by the statute, party must exhaust the statutory remedies before resorting to writ jurisdiction:

  • G. Veerappa Pillai vs. Raman and Raman Ltd., AIR 1952 SC 192,
  • Asst Collector of Central Excise vs. Dunlop India Ltd. AIR 1985 SC 330,
  • Ramendra Kishore Biswas vs. State of Tripura, AIR 1999 SC 294,
  • Shivgonda Anna Patil vs. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1999 SC 2281,
  • C.A. Abraham vs. I.T.O. Kottayam and Others, AIR 1961 SC 609,
  • Titaghur Paper Mills Co. vs. State of Orissa, AIR 1983 SC 603,
  • H.B. Gandhi vs. M/s Gopinath and Sons, 1992 (Supp) 2 SCC 312,
  • Whirlpool Corporation vs. Registrar of Trade Marks, AIR 1999 SC 22,
  • Tin Plate Co. of India Ltd. vs. State of Bihar, AIR 1999 SC 74,
  • Sheela Devi vs. Jaspal Singh, 1999 (1) SCC 209 and
  • Punjab National Bank vs. O.C. Krishnan, 2001 (6) SCC 569.

The general principle is that when the Act and the Rules made thereunder are silent on a particular aspect, we have to look for guidance into the broad scheme of the Act and the intention of the legislature.[14] This principle applies, with full vigor, to the bye laws of voluntary associations.

In the celebrated decision, TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria,[15] the Supreme Court held that a member of a Masonic lodge was bound to abide by the rules of the lodge, and if the rules provide for expulsion, he shouldbe expelled only in the manner provided by the rules;[16]and that the lodge was bound to act strictly according to the rules.[17]

  • See also Chapter: Expulsion of Members & Officers’ Removal.

Dissent and Disagreement be Resolved under the Party Constitution

In the ‘floor test case’ (Maharashtra Assembly), Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary, Governor of Maharashtra (decided on May 11, 2023), the Supreme Court held as under: 

  • “88. The political imbroglio in Maharashtra arose as a result of party differences within the Shiv Sena. However, the floor test cannot be used as a medium to resolve internal party disputes or intra party disputes. Dissent and disagreement within a political party must be resolved in accordance with the remedies prescribed under the party constitution, or through any other methods that the party chooses to opt for.”

4. Courts Interfere if Genuine Disputes or Manifest Illegality

If dispute arises among the members of the society as to the validity of the governing body of a society[18]the civil courts can adjudicate such matters. In DB Enterprise Vs. Juhu Chandan Co-Op Hsg. Ltd.[19] disputes arose among two groups of members of the society as to whether the Development Agreement has been validly entered into by the society on behalf of its members such as to bind them. Several members disputed that the agreement had not been validly entered into. Observing that it was impossible to accept that the agreement was against the interest of the members, to the question whether these disputes were genuine, the court considered the events elaborately that have transpired since initial proposal of the agreement, it was held that the society was bound by the Agreement.

But, in cases where a special forum is provided to settle disputes regarding management, as in Sec. 23 of the AP Societies Registration Act, 2001, the civil court jurisdiction is expressly or impliedly barred.[20]

The jurisdiction of courts’ interference in matters of associations is limited; and the decisions taken by the associations are respected.[21] A simple breach of any Rule will not give rise to a cause of action for a member.[22]  Courts will be slow to interfere with the decisions of the associations and the domestic tribunals,[23]including that in the election matters; because, the success of a winning candidate at an election cannot be lightly interfered with.[24]

Generally, the Court will not:

  • appreciate the evidence and record its own findings of fact.[25]
  • act as a Court of Appeal.[26]
  • interfere with finding of fact of a domestic tribunal on the ground of inadequacy or insufficiency of evidence.[27]
  • interfere with finding of fact on the ground that different view could possibly be taken on the evidence available on the record.
  • interfere with appreciation of the evidence on record and recorded the findings of fact of a domestic tribunal.[28]
  • interfere with finding of guilt.[29]
  • interfere with discharging duties by the elected office bearers of an Association.
  • go into the truth of the allegations/charges.[30]
  • interfere so long as the association acting within the power conferred on it under the Articles of Association.

The court will examine only:

  • Whether jurisdictional error.
  • Whether procedural errorin decision making process.[31]
  • Whether the action is perverse,or based on no evidence or grounds.
  • Whether the action is illegal.
  • Whether the action is malafide or arbitrary exercise of power.

And, the Court will interfere if:

  • action without jurisdiction.
  • manifest illegality including violation of the principles of natural justice.[32]
  • illegality of the act or omission goes to the root of the matter.[33]
  • manifest perversity or something that shocks the conscience of the Court.
  • malafide or arbitrary exercise of power.[34]
  • without cogent and compelling grounds.
  • the impugned acts are based on no evidence[35] i.e., where they are perverse[36] or based on conjectures or surmises.
  • the alleged violation is so grave that it could not be condoned by the general body.[37]
  • jurisdictional error apparent on the face of the record committed by the domestic tribunal.[38]
  • the impugned acts do not carry a reasonable degree of probability (but need not be so high as is required in a criminal case).[39]
  • no reasonable or ordinary prudent man[40] would on given facts and circumstances come to the conclusion reached by the quasi-judicial authority on the basis of the evidence on record.[41]
  • the impugned acts are made at the dictates of the superior authority.[42]
  • in order to resolve stalemate,as both sides did not want an election to be conducted.[43]
  • set right the illegalities and put the election process in motion in accordance with the Bye laws.[44]

When Injunction is granted by the Civil Courts

  • Breach of  Obligation ‘existing in his (pff’s) favour’ (Sec. 38 (1) Sp. Relief Act). According to sec, 2 (a) Sp. Relief Act, “Obligation” includes every duty enforceable by law.
  • Must be to enforce individual civil rights: Sec. 4 Sp. Relief Act; Sec. 9 CPC
  • Plaintiff must have personal interest:  Sec. 41(j) Sp. Relief Act
  • Discretion of the court:   Sec. 36 Sp. Relief Act.

5. Violation of the Principles of Natural Justice

               See notes below under the heading ‘Natural Justice’

6. Sec. 38 of the Specific Relief Act

Sec. 38 of the Specific Relief Act reads:

  • “38. Perpetual injunction when granted. (1) Subject to the other provisions contained in or referred to by this chapter, a perpetual injunction may be granted to the plaintiff to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in his favour, whether expressly or by implication.
  • (2) When any such obligation arises from contract, the Court shall be guided by the Rules and provisions contained in Chapter II.
  • (3) When the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff’s right to, or enjoyment of property, the Court may grant a perpetual injunction in the following cases, namely;
    • (a) where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff;
    • (b) where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused, or likely to be caused, by the invasion;
    • (c) where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief;
    • (d) where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial proceedings.

Under Sec. 38 of the Specific Relief Act the court is expressly authorised to grant injunctions to prevent breach of an obligation existing in favour of the plaintiff or where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff. The word obligation is defined in Sec. 3 of the Specific Relief Act in a wider sense to include ‘every duty enforceable by law’. The word trust is also used in a wider sense in this Act as seen from the definition clause.[45]

7. Instances When Court Interferes with Acts of Management of an Association

It is observed by the Supreme Court in Rajahmundry Electric Supply Corporation Limited Vs. A. Nageswara Rao[46] as under:

  • “It is no doubt the law that Courts will not, in general, intervene at the instance of shareholders in matters of internal administration, and will not interfere with the management of a company by its directors, so long as they are acting within the power conferred on them under the Articles of Association.”

In a properly instituted suit the Court interferes with the acts of management of a society or club when the acts are:

  • (1) ultra virus or act without jurisdiction;[47]
  • (2) fraud[48]
  • (3) illegal[49]
  • (4) in violation of the Rules oragainst statutory provisions,[50]
  • (5)  rules/bye-laws not followed[51]
  • (6) against an order having the force of law;[52]
  • (7)  violation of the principles of natural justice[53]
  • (8)  oppressive;[54]
  • (9)   mismanagement[55]
  • (10) mala fide, or not in good faith;[56]
  • (11)  arbitrary,[57]
  • (12) irrational,
  • (13)  relevant factors were not considered
  • (14) irrelevant factors were considered
  • (15) decision, which no reasonable person would have taken.[58]
  • (16) ensuring democratic set-up or will of the community.[59]
  • (17) disciplinary action on trumpery charges.
  • (18) disciplinary action: grounds/reasons unjustifiable.[60]
  • (19) acts dishonestly[61]
  • (20) acts under the provisions of the bye laws which are opposed to public policy or not reasonable.[62]
  • (21)action not supported by any evidence[63] or based on conjectures or surmises[64]
  • (22) evidence perverse[65]
  • (23)exercise of discretionary power unreasonably[66]

8. When Courts Interfere with the Acts of a Domestic Tribunal:[67]

A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure.[68]In Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley[69] the Calcutta High Court held that the court can set aside the decision of a domestic tribunal

  • (A) when the tribunal oversteps the limits of its jurisdiction;
  • (B) when it violates the principles of natural justice and
  • (C) when it acts dishonestly,[70] actuated by bias, bad faith and the like.

In Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India,[71]our Apex Court held as under:

  • “Lord Greene said in 1948 in the famous Wednesbury Case[72]  that when a statute gave discretion to an administrator to take a decision, the scope of judicial review would remain limited. He said that interference was not permissible unless one or the other of the following conditions was satisfied, namely the order was:
    • contrary to law, or
    • relevant factors were not considered, or
    • irrelevant factors were considered; or
    • the decision was one which no reasonable person could have taken.”

9. Individual Wrongs and Internal Management

A suit for redressing individual wrongs done by a director of a company or a governing body member of a society cannot be considered as merely a matter concerned with internal management.[73]

10. Unfair Clause in a Contract is Amenable to Judicial Review

It is held in LIC of India Vs. Consumer Education & Research Centre[74] that an unfair and untenable or irrational clause in a contract is unjust and amenable to Judicial Review. In common law a party was relieved from such contract.

11. Rule Contrary to the Rules of Natural Justice, Void

While considering Section 2 (b) of the Karnataka Societies Registration Act (similar provision to Sec. 15 of the Societies Registration Act), the High Court of Karnataka (RP Sethi, G. Patri Basavana Goud JJ.), in Lingappa Police Patil Vs. Registrar of Societies,[75] it is held that the Rule of the Society which declared a person would cease to be a member merely on his default to make the subscription, without even providing him an opportunity to show cause for not making the payment within a specified period appeared ‘to be very harsh’; and that ‘confiscatory and deprivatory provisions made, resulting in civil consequences, should not have been allowed’ to be incorporated in the bye laws.  The Division Bench struck down the impugned Rule it being contrary to the provisions of the Act. It is on the principle that rules of natural justice require that that no person can be condemned unheard.[76]

12. No Member can Question Bye Laws

The Constitution or bye-laws of a society is paramount;[77] and, it is the soul of the Society.[78]

Bye laws of a Society are made by the founding members of the society for regulating its affairs. The decisions of its general body bind the members.[79] Subject to the provisions of the Act, if any, applicable and the bye laws, the final authority[80] of every association vests in the general body of the members in general meeting, summoned in such manner as specified in their bye-laws.

In Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. District Registrar, Co-op. Societies (Urban)[81] it is held that when one joins a society his rights in the society are governed by the provisions of the statute and the bye laws. A member of the society has no independent right qua the society and it is the society that is entitled to represent as the corporation aggregate. No individual member is entitled to assail the constitutionality of the provisions of the Act, rules and the bye laws. The stream cannot rise higher than the source.

13. Jurisdiction of Civil Courts is ‘Rather Limited’: Principles

In U.P. Financial Corporation Vs. Naini Oxygen and Acetylene Gas[82] it is observed:

  • “However, we cannot lose sight of the fact that the Corporation is an independent autonomous statutory body having its own constitution and rules to abide by, and functions and obligations to discharge. As such, in the discharge of its functions, it is free to act according to its own light.  The views it forms and the decisions it takes are on the basis of the reformation in its possession and the advice it receives and according to its own perspective and calculations. Unless its action is mala fide, even a wrong decision taken by it is not open to challenge. It is not for the courts or a third party to substitute its decision, however more prudent, commercial or business like it may be, for the decision of the Corporation. Hence, whatever the wisdom [or the lack of it] of the conduct of the Corporation, the same cannot be assailed for making the Corporation liable.”

In Prem Narain Tandon Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh[83] it is observed:

  • “Universities are autonomous bodies and the Courts should be reluctant, as far as possible, to interfere with the internal administration of the University. There should be no occasion for any interference unless there is a palpable violation of law, which has occasioned injustice in a broad and general sense.”[84]

An association itself is the best custodian of its interests;[85] and its decisions are binding on all members unless displaced by appropriate remedy under law.[86] When an authority is vested with the power to take an action, it also includes the power to recall or revoke that action, subject of course to any restraint, regulation or bar imposed, expressly or by implication, by law.  Therefore, unless and until there is a law, rule or bye-law prohibiting a person or authority from doing a particular act, that person or authority if vested with the final authority to take any decision for managing its affairs said authority or person is competent to take any decision, revise, review or revoke any earlier decision taken by it.[87]

The jurisdiction of civil courts is ‘rather limited’[88] in the internal disputes of the associations of persons; and, they will not assume jurisdiction so long as they are or acting within the power conferred on them.[89]

Courts Interfere When Illegalities Go To the Root of the Matter

The courts set right abuses in the matters of associations.But, it will not ordinarily explore or interfere with internal matters of associations, unless there are cogent grounds; or illegalities that go to the root of the matter or ultra vires (Anand Prakash Vs. Assistant Registrar, AIR 1968 All 22), such as, acts without jurisdiction, malafides, acts in violation of the principles of natural justice etc.

In ShridharMisraVs.JaichandraVidyalankar[90] it is observed:  

  • “Ordinarily, the civil court will not interfere with the internal management of a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act at the instance of some of the members of the Society. But this rule is subject to the following exceptions: 
  • (1) Where the impugned action is ultra vires the Society;
  • (2) the act complained of constitutes a fraud; and
  • (3) where the impugned action is illegal.
  • If a case falls under any of these exceptions, it is open to some of the members of the Society to file a suit in the civil court challenging the act done in the name of the Society.”

14. Forbearance – Principles

Forbearance (not absolute restraint[91]) of courts in internal matters of an association is based on the following principles:

1 . Autonomous bodies[92]

Autonomy indicates that the body is subordinate to none[93] though it may be working under administrative control of another body, such as a Ministry.[94]

A society is the best custodian of its interests.[95]

What is in the interest of the society is primarily for the society alone to decide and it is not for an outside agency to say.[96]

Article 19(1)(c) of our Constitution guarantees freedom to form associations or unions. Right to form an association enjoins with it a right to continue to be associated with it, as well as to ensure that only those persons are admitted to the association whom they voluntarily admitted.[97] It includes in itself the right of lawful functioning and administration, as autonomous[98] or self governing bodies (including one formed for the administration of a trust[99]). Such institutions are entitled to carry on its affairs without being interfered by external forces, unless it could be shown that the act complained of is null and void, or makes out a case of malafides.[100] Court will not interfere in the internal autonomy of educational institutions[101]or the acts of a Principal of a School (who is primarily responsible for maintenance of discipline[102]).

Article 43B of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.

When the administrators of an autonomous[103] body primarily responsible for maintenance of its internal discipline, whether it be a voluntary association, educational institution[104] or an industry, takes action against an erring member, student or employee, courts will not meddle with such actions or substitute its decision, however more prudent[105] it may be, unless there are fundamental vitiating circumstances, such as breach of the principles of natural justice, manifest perversity or something that shocks the conscience of the Court.

Our Apex Court, in Shyam Lal Yadev Vs. Kusum Dhawan,[106] it is expressed  that it would be strange jurisprudence which would paralyse autonomous bodies if courts could intervene on some ipse dixit to undo acts of internal management against employees especially when the power of the employer was made out.

2. Members’ rights merge in the rights of association: A person who forms an association or joins the society as a member, enters into a contract with the bye laws or regulations of the association. His rights merge in the rights of the society or association and are controlled by the Act and the bye-laws of the society or association.[107]

3. Rule of majority[108] is one of the basic principles of all voluntary associations, in our democratic set-up. And, therefore, courts will not interfere either with the lawful decisions of the associations or with its ‘policy matters’[109] and discretionary actions[110] exercised by the authorities under the powers given by the bylaws, expressly or impliedly. It is up to the members to propose amendments.[111] Company Court will not interfere with the commercial wisdom of the shareholders.[112]

4. Right of management includes right to resolve internal disputes: The right of management includes the right to resolve internal conflicts and disputes. Disputes between individual members of the society and those responsible for its management must be decided by the machinery provided by the rules and not in a Court of law.[113]

In Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[114] Sahai, J. observed: “… But, for purposes of enforcing discipline within a church religious body may constitute a tribunal to determine whether its rules have been violated by any other member or not and what will be the consequence of that violation. In such case the tribunals so constituted are not in any sense courts, they derive no authority from the statutes and they have no power of their own to enforce their sentence. Their decisions are given effect to by the courts as decision of the arbitrators whose jurisdiction rests entirely on the agreement of the parties.”

5.  A society cannot be left without a remedy; and Presupposed to have provisions to resolve disputes: The Constitution or bye-laws of a society is paramount,[115] and it is the soul of the Society.[116] The society cannot be left without a remedy for its internal administration, as law does not contemplate a vacuum.[117] The doctrine of necessity, a common law doctrine, is applied to tide over the situations where there are difficulties; and a solution has to be found out rather than allowing the problem to boil over.[118]  The members of an association are free to resolve their disputes internally under their bye laws; and the club/society or its domestic tribunal is entitled to decide all internal matters as it thinks right.[119] It is presupposed to have the provisions, expressly or impliedly, to resolve the internal disputes by themselves.[120]In proper cases,it can constitute a tribunal. An association is free to enforce discipline within the association, by itself; for,

  • (a) an association is autonomous; and, in its very nature, formed under the principles of democracy and doctrines of collective wisdom, as miniature replica of a republic; and
  • (b) the members are united on consensual basis;[121] and are voluntarily submitted themselves to the administration under the bye laws.

6. Scheme of the Bye Laws will Speak for Silences: When the Act and the Rules made thereunder are silent on a particular aspect, we have to look into the broad scheme[122] of the Act and the intention of the legislature for guidance.[123]The same principle can be applied to the bylaws and affairs of an association also.

7. Implied Bar: Rights created by Enacted Law or by Bylaws :The right to appoint and/or remove the directors of a company is created by the Companies Act; and these are the matters of internal management which itself provides machinery for the enforcement of such right. Therefore, the Civil Courts jurisdiction in such matters is impliedly barred.[124]  Same is the position in case of rights conferred by the bye laws applicable to an association.

8. Doctrines of Alternate/Special Remedy and  Equally Efficacious Remedy: Courts will not delve in the internal disputes of an association unless it is shown[125] that the aggrieved parties have worked out and exhausted[126] their remedies[127]  under the bye laws; ie. before domestic tribunals[128] or other authority.[129]

Where a right or liability is created by a statute which gives a special remedy for enforcing it, the remedy provided by that statute alone must be availed of.[130] Right conferred by a rule is always subject to the qualifications prescribed and limitations imposed thereunder.[131] These principles apply to the rights and liabilities arise from the bye laws of a society also. Courts will not, ordinarily, interfere where there is an appropriate or equally efficacious remedy available.[132]

9. Election–rights:  Not common law rights: The rights to vote, contest election etc. are neither fundamental nor common law rights. They are statutory rights regulated by the statutory provisions. Where a statute provides for election to an office and if it provides a machinery for determination of disputes arising out of election, the aggrieved person should pursue his remedy before the forum provided by the statute. It is not permissible to invoke the jurisdiction of the courts bypassing the machinery designated by the Act for adjudication of the election disputes. But exceptional or extraordinary circumstances may exist to justify bypassing the alternative remedies.[133]

10.  Court Interference Results Frustration: If the process of election is allowed to be freely interfered with by the courts, possibly no election will be completed without court’s order; and the basic purpose of having election and getting an elected body to run the Administration will be frustrated.[134]

11. Cannot stall the formation of the governing body: No member has a right to claim injunction so as to stall the formation of the governing body.[135]

12. Right of Ratification: A society cannot function otherwise than in accordance with its constitution. But, the Gen. Body can ratify a directory provision.[136] It is a recognised principle of law.[137] A simple breach of any Rule, especially when it is ‘technical’,[138]will not give rise to a cause of action for any member.  In other words, the alleged violation should be so grave that it could not be condoned or ratified by the general body,[139] or by a lawful correction; or there is manifest illegality, or act or omission that goes to the root of the matter.

13. Irregular Notice may be Ratified: In the nature and circumstances of a particular matter, an irregular notice may be ratified by the appropriate body at a subsequent meeting as observed in Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-Operative Societies.[140]

14. Sufficiency of Notice: When a question arose as to whether the provision in the Co-operative Rules that provides 15 clear days notice for moving a no-confidence motion was directory or mandatory, following the Supreme Court decision in Narasimhiah Vs. Singri Gowda[141] it was held in VA Jose Vs. Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies[142] that the provision was only directory since the legislature had not provided any consequence that was to follow if 15 clear days notice had not been given and since the petitioner did not explain in what manner he was prejudiced for not getting 15 clear days notice. It was also held that the petitioner being participated in the disputed meeting, he had no right to challenge the invalidity in the notice for convening the meeting.

15. Success of a winning candidate cannot be lightly interfered: The success of a winning candidate at an election cannot be lightly interfered with; more so, when no fault of his.[143] If ultimately, the suit is dismissed, the court cannot compensate for granting a temporary injunction.[144]

Internal Management And Suit By Individual Members

As regards the internal management of the society, whether the society as such, and not its individual members, has to sue is considered in Ram Charan Agarwala Vs. Shridhar Misra.[145] It was held as under:

  • “There have been a large number of cases both in India as also in England where courts has to consider whether a suit can be brought in respect of the internal management of a company otherwise than in the name of the company itself, by individual members thereof. There is good authority for the proposition that the case of society registered under the Act is similar to that of a club or a joint-stock company, (See A. S. Krishnan v. M. Sundaram, AIR 1941 Bom 312). A Full Bench of this Court in the case of 1947 All LJ 637 (AIR 1948 All 146) (supra), has held that the same principles apply to a club which applied to a joint-stock company. In the leading case on the subject Foss v. Harbottle (1843) 2 Hare 461, it was held that the normal rule is that the corporation should sue in its own name and in its corporate character, or in the name of some one whom the law has appointed to be its representative. Mozley v. Alston, (1847) 16 LJ Ch 217, is an authority for the proposition that ordinarily individual share-holders cannot sustain a Bill in their own names in respect of a matter common to all or relating to the internal management of the company. In the case of Mac Doughall v. Gardiner (1875) 1 Ch D 13, the Court held that it could not interfere in the internal management of a company and dismissed an action brought by one Share-holder on behalf of himself and all other share-holders excluding the Directors, against the Directors and the company complaining against certain matters decided at a meeting. To the same effect is the decision of the Bombay High Court in Bhajekar v. Shinkar, AIR 1934 Bom 243 and of the Madras High Court in Nagappa v. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831. The Bombay High Court took the same view in S. Sidhantalankar v. Arya Samaj Bombay, AIR 1946 Bom 516, which was a case of a registered society. This general rule however has got an exception as pointed out in the Madras and Bombay cases referred to above. The exception is that a share-holder can bring an action even with regard to an internal management of a company if (1) the action of the majority is ultra vires the company; (2) where the act complained of constitutes a fraud on the minority; (3) where the action of the majority is illegal and (4) where a special resolution is required by the Article of the Company and the assent of the majority to such special resolution is obtained by a trick, or even where a Company authorised to do a particular thing only by a special resolution does it without a special resolution duly passed.”

15. In Proper Cases Courts Interfere; May Appoint Receivers

Though not specifically sought for in relief, in proper cases, Courts order election and appoint receivers.

The courts interfere and grant proper relief in a given situation[146]disregarding the technicalities. For example:

  • (i)   where the issue was not properly expressed and it was of formal nature;[147]
  • (ii) when a larger relief was prayed for and the claim for the same was not duly established but the evidence justified grant of smaller relief;[148]
  • (iii) where the relief, as originally sought, has become obsolete or unserviceable or a new form of relief will be more efficacious on account of developments subsequent to the suit or even during the appellate stage;[149] and
  • (iv) to promote substantial justice; subject, of course to the absence of other disentitling factors or just circumstances where equity justifies bending the rules of procedure, where no specific provision or fair play is violated – as procedure is the handmaid and not the mistress of the judicial process.[150]

Kerala High Court, in KP Muhammed  Vs.  M Abdurahiman,[151]  held that when there was no validly elected committee for the proper management of an association, the civil courts would have jurisdiction to order election of the committee even if it was not sought for by the parties.

16. Court Examines Reasons of Supersession of Societies

While dealing with CP and Berar Municipalities Act, it is held by the Full Bench in Municipal Commissioner, Kareli Vs. State of MP[152] that the Court has power to examine the sufficiency of reasons. It was observed:

  • “In a democratic society it is of the essence that democratic institutions are allowed to function and not superseded on trumpery charges inadequately brought home or unreasonably accepted. The Courts will be vigilant to see that such over-reaching powers are kept within the four corners of the statute granting them. We think that the fact that a reasonable opportunity to show cause has been made a condition precedent to the exercise of the power and that reasons for the super-session have to be notified to the electorate shows that there is not to be a subjective appraisal but that the reasons must be sufficient under the Act and an objective test is indicated. The requirements of the law are not satisfied by accepting insufficient or inadequate reasons for super-session. We think that the Courts are at liberty to examine the reasons for this limited purpose in addition to the purposes which the learned Judges of the earlier Division Bench (Mangalmurti and Mudholkar JJ.) have already indicated in their order.”

17. Right of Parishioners to Sue against Third Parties

Gaspari Louis Vs. Rev. Fr. CP Gonsalves[153]was a case brought by the Vicar of a Roman Catholic church for arrears of rent due from the tenants of church property.It was observed by the Privy Council that this Church was part and parcel of the Universal Catholic Church and that its parishioners must be assumed to be bound by the Law of the Church, ie., the Canon Law.And, that if this Church had erected rules different from the rules of the Catholic Church in its temporal affairs (for administration by a body known as the junta composed of the heads of houses in the village), then those rules were to be proved in the same way that a custom would have to be proved in a Court of Law.

As per the Canon Law of the Catholic Church the church property vests in the hands of the Bishop or the Vicar.  But, in Latin Archdiocese of Trivandrum Vs. Seline Fernandez[154]  it is found, the parish being by law a public juridic person, that the plaintiffs (the elected representatives of the parishioners entrusted with the administration of the church) were competent to represent the juridic person and that they were competent to initiate civil proceedings before a Civil Court with the ultimate aim of protecting the property belonging to the church.  It is further held that by reading the Canon as a whole, the sanction of the ordinary was not necessary for initiation of such proceedings.

Parallel Administration within a Church, Not Allowable

Running parallel governance at the cost of Church by creating factionalism within the constituent parish churches is not permissible. It is settled proposition of law that when a mode is prescribed for doing a thing, it can be done only in that manner and not otherwise.[155]

18. Courts Act as Guardian, as Societies have No Right to Mismanage

Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution are not absolute

Our Apex Court in I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate[156] while dealing with the affairs of the Indian Evangelical Lutheran Church, a large congregation registered themselves under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 which also carried on secular activities of running a large number of schools and hospitals, it is held as follows:

  • “Keeping in view the interest of the general public, we see no reason as to why in a case of mismanagement of such charitable organisations, although run by minorities, the Court cannot oversee its functions. The Courts, indisputably, act as guardian of such societies. [See Guruvayoor Devaswom Managing Committee Vs. CK Rajan: AIR 2004 SC 561: (2003) 7 SCC 546.] Even otherwise, rights under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution are not absolute and unfettered. The right to manage, it goes without saying, does not carry with it a right to mismanage.”

19. If Mismanagement, So. Regn. Act no bar for Court Interference

Section 25 of the Karnataka Societies Registration Act provides for an enquiry into the constitution and working of the registered society by the Registrar on his own motion or on the application of the majority of the members or on the complaint given by 1/3rd members of the society. The Act further gives power to the Registrar to issue notice for general body meeting of the society and require the governing body of the society to call a general meeting and to determine such matters as may be directed by him. The Registrar has the ancillary powers to summon any person and examine him.

Following Kodava Samaj, Bangalore Vs. District Registrar of Registration of Societies, Bangalore[157] it is held in Advocates Association Vs. District Registrar and Registrar of Societies[158] that under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act the Registrar has power to direct the society to hold an election, because an enquiry into the constitution and working of the registered society would include the enquiry into the propriety of continuation by a Working Committee and the need to elect a new committee if the existing working committee functions contrary to the bye-laws of the society. Section 25 (2) (c) should be read so as to include a power in the Registrar to direct the holding of the election to the general body if the occasion demands.

The regulatory powers as to registration of a Society vested with the Registrar do not confer any authority on the Registrar to interfere with the affairs, including the election process, of the Society. The scope of exercising power under Section 4 of the Societies Registration Act is only to the limited extent of examining whether the list furnished is false or bogus. The above referred limited purpose is fulfilled the moment the list is furnished pursuant to an election. If the parties have any grievance against selection, they are free to approach the civil court.[159] When more than one return is filed, the Registrar has got the power to find out as to which one he should accept. There may not be an elaborate enquiry. Prima facie he has to satisfy as to which return is to be accepted. Such an enquiry made by the Registrar and the decision taken from it does not become final. The dispute can be taken up before a competent court as to who are the members of the governing body.[160]

Several State-Societies-Registration-Acts and Amendments to the Societies Registration Act provide for enquiry by Registrar into the constitution, working and financial conditions of the society. In D Dhanapal Vs. D David Livingstone[161] it is held that the suit filed for declaration that the plaintiff continues to be the Secretary of the Society is maintainable. Section 36 of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act does not reveal any express bar to the Civil Courts. Section 36 is merely an enabling provision. If the aggrieved party approaches the Registrar or the Registrar acts on his own motion, then, it shall be lawful for the Registrar to conduct an enquiry and communicate the report of the enquiry. It does not mean to deem it as a bar to the jurisdiction of the Civil Court. There must be at least some implication to show that the Civil Court cannot entertain such suits.

It may be true that the question of mismanagement of a society can be raised as a subject matter before the Registrar under Section 25 of the Karnataka So. Regn. Act; but, the members of the society who are aggrieved by those matters of mismanagement,redressal which are not expressly or impliedly provided for under the Actor for those matters for which precise provisions are lacking in the Act, can certainly maintain a suit.[162]

The Delhi High Court held in Premvati Vs. Bhagwati Devi,[163]that where shareholders complain of mismanagement or oppression and of acts prejudicial to the interest of the company or prejudicial to public interest, the civil court may entertain a suit by the shareholders and grant appropriate reliefs.

20. Service of Priest & Administration of an Institution – Secular Acts

The appointment and the service of the priest or Archaka are secular matters and not spiritual.Though the performance of the ritual ceremonies is an integral part of the religion, the person who performs the ceremonies is not a part of spiritual ceremonies itself. With respect to spiritual ceremonies right can be claimed but not with respect to the person who performs it or associates himself with the performance of spiritual ceremonies which is not a right under Article 25. This is a secular right.[164] Therefore the court can interfere in such affairs, if cogent grounds exist.

In Jamsheed Kanga Vs. Parsi Panchayath Funds and Properties[165] while dealing with Towers of Silence, the last resting place of the Parsis, it is held that though the performance of religious service, according to the tenets of the faith is an integral part of religious faith and belief, the service of the Priest is a secular act; and that the administration of a religious institution or an endowment made for religious purposes is a secular activity. Hence, it has been held that the Legislature is competent to enact a law regulating the administration and governance of a religious or charitable institution or endowment.

21. Interference in Religious Decisions: Church of North India Case

While considering the question whether unification of churches, registered under both Societies Registration Act and Bombay Public Trusts Act, was a religious decision falls under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution over which the courts have no jurisdiction, it has been observed by our Apex Court in Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai[166] that it was a well accepted principle that a society created under a statute must have conformed to its provisions and the courts would interfere in case of its violation.

22. Court Interference – Illegal Expulsion & Ex-communication

Expulsion from society visits a member with harsh adversities. The courts interfere with illegal Expulsions and Ex-communications.[167]

23. Court Interference in Faith Matters: PMA Metropolitan Case

It was contented in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma[168]that the various decisions,[169] would indicate that Explanation 1 to Section 9 CPC embraced questions relating to the religious faith, doctrine and belief; and saved only those suits where the right to property or to an office was contested. But Sahai, J. did not entertain the argument. Sahai, J. observed:

  • “The jurisdiction of courts depends either on statute or on common law. The jurisdiction is always local and in absence of any statutory provision the cognisance of such dispute has to be taken either by a hierarchy of ecclesiastical courts established in the country where the religious institutions are situated or by a statutory law framed by the Parliament. Admittedly no law in respect of Christian Churches has been framed, therefore, there is no statutory law. Consequently any dispute in respect of religious office in respect of Christians is also cognisable by the civil court.”

24. Principles of Enforcing Decisions of Tribunals of Religious Bodies

While considering the question whether the ex-communication of the Catholicos by the Patriarch of Antioch was valid, in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[170]Sahai, J. observed as under:

  •  “A church is formed by the voluntary association of individuals. And the churches in the commonwealth are voluntary body organised on a consensual basis their rights apart from statutes will be protected by the courts and their discipline enforced exactly as in the case of any other voluntary body whose existence is legally recognised. Therefore, all religious bodies are regarded by courts of law in the same position in respect of the protection of their rights and the sanction given to their respective organisations. It is further settled that discipline of a church cannot affect any person except by express sanction of the civil power or by the voluntary submission of the particular person.

But, for purposes of enforcing discipline within a church religious body may constitute a tribunal to determine whether its rules have been violated by any other members or not and what will be the consequence of that violation. In such case the tribunals so constituted are not in any sense courts, they derive no authority from the statutes and they have no power of their own to enforce their sentence. Their decisions are given effect to by the courts as decision of the arbitrators whose jurisdiction rests entirely on the agreement of the parties.”

25. Church Disputes: Courts Inquire into the Laws

It is observed further in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma[171] as follows:

  • “In Dame Henriette Brown Vs. Les Cure Et Marguilliers De L’oeuvre Et Fabrique De Notre Dame De Motrea,[172] the Privy Council while following the decision in Long[173] held that where a church was merely a private and voluntary religious society resting only upon a consensual basis courts of justice were still bound when due complaint was made that a member of the society was injured in any manner of a mixed spiritual and temporal character to inquire into the laws and rules of the tribunal or authority which inflicted the alleged injury and ascertain whether the act complained of was law and discipline of the church and whether the sentence was justifiably pronounced by a competent authority. The decision in Long has been followed in this country[174] in Anadrav Bhikajiphadke Vs. Shankar Daji Charya[175] where certain persons brought a suit that their right of worship in the sanctuary of a temple was being infringed, it was held that the right of exclusive worship of an idol at particular place set up by a caste was civil right.”

It is held further:

  • “A Church is either Episcopal or congregational. It cannot be Episcopal in spiritual matters and congregational in temporal matters. …. That is the fundamental difference in congregational and Episcopal. In the former it vests in the parishioners. But in the latter, in endowment. …..”

A Division Bench of Madras High Court in Gaspari Louis Vs. Gonsalves[176] held that, unlike the Church of England which was described as ‘established Church’, the Roman Catholic Church was described as a voluntary association in the English cases.[177]  The Canon Law postulates a detailed procedure for the administration of the Church and its property and so long as the church retains the status of a Roman Catholic Church the diocesan Bishop alone would have the right in both the spiritual and the temporal matters in respect of the church and its property.

In S Robert Vs. M Kanagappan[178] it is held:

  • “Therefore we hold that once the church in question was constructed and consecrated by Arch Bishop of Trichy Diocese, the church and its properties would vest in the Pope and the fourth respondent, Arch Bishop as a delegate of the Pope, is entitled to the spiritual and temporal powers over the church and its properties. As already observed, though the church was constructed with the funds mostly provided by the Roman Catholic public of Vakkampatti village, when the church was consecrated according to the Roman Catholic rites, the church and its properties would vest in the fourth respondent.
  • Can.1254 and 1257 make it clear that the Catholic Church has the inherent right, independently of any secular power to acquire, retain, administer and alienate temporal goods, in pursuit of its proper objectives and all temporal goods would be regulated by the Canons as well as by their own statutes. Sub-clause (2) of Can.1257 provides that unless it is otherwise expressly provided, temporal goods belonging to a private juridical person are regulated by its own statutes, not by these Canons. Sub-clause (2) of Can. 1257 deals only with the temporal goods belonging to a private juridical person, and a body of Roman Catholic public in the village are not private juridical persons within the meaning of Canon Law.
  • It is, no doubt, true that it will be open to the church authorities and the Roman Catholic public of a particular village to regulate or to enter into an agreement with the villagers as to the mode of control over the church and its properties and in the absence of any agreement produced by the appellants herein, it must be held that the church and its properties vest only in the authority of the fourth respondent, viz., Arch Bishop of Trichy Diocese and the respondents 2 and 3 are the delegate of the Arch Bishop to exercise the spiritual and temporal powers over the church in question and its properties.
  • ……. Therefore, on the basis of the law, particularly, the law governing the church in question, we hold that the church and its properties vest only in the fourth respondent herein and it is open to him to exercise his power through his delegates, namely, respondents 2 and 3. It is true that it would be open to the fourth respondent to authorise villagers to administer the secular affairs of the church, but the plaintiffs have not established that they were authorised by the fourth respondent to administer the secular affairs of the church and even if they were so authorised, they would exercise the power of administration as authorised agents of the fourth defendant and not de hors the authorisation. Equally, it would have been open to the villagers to form a trust to retain the administrative control over the church and its properties at the time of consecration of church subject to the grant of consent by the fourth respondent for retaining such a control.
  • ….. It is, no doubt, true that it is open to the plaintiffs to show that notwithstanding the provisions of the Canon Law, the temporal affairs of the church are being governed by the custom of the Roman Catholic public of Vakkampatti village. If the custom is established, then, the Roman Catholic people of Vakkampatti village can claim right over the church and its properties by way of custom.”

A Division Bench of Madras High Court as early as in the year 1915, in Michel Pillai Vs. Rt. Rev. Bartle[179] held:

  • “According to Canon Law a Roman Catholic Church becomes, as soon as it is consecrated, the property of the church authorities, irrespective of the fact that any particular worshipper or worshippers contributed to its construction.  The Bishop and other church authorities have the exclusive right to the internal management of the church, whether relating to secular or religious matters, such as accommodating the congregation inside the church and prescribing the part to be taken by the congregation in the services and the ceremonies.”[180]

In Major Arch Bishop Vs. Lalan Tharakan,[181]  Kerala High Court, observing that the Catholic Church was a voluntary association governed under the Canon Law and that the properties of the church were vested with church authorities, it was held that the (parish)church was a legal person and that it was not a public trust to attract Sec. 92 CPC.

But, it may be pointed out that the courts in India, from early times, took the view that the religious institutions where public or a section of public worship, as of right, have the incidents of ‘public trust’.

26. Church Disputes: Court Inquires, Whether the Sentence Justifiable

Referring to Dame Henriette Brown Vs. Les Cure Et Marguilliers De L’oeuvre Et Fabrique De Notre Dame De Motrea,[182] and Long Vs. Bishop of Capetown,[183]it is observed in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma[184] that the courts of justice would inquire into the laws and rules of the tribunal or authority which inflicted the alleged injury and ascertain whether the act complained of was law and discipline of the church and whether the sentence was justifiably pronounced by a competent authority.

27. Court Cannot Determine Whether Bylaws Fair or Unfair.

The associations and clubs are at liberty to frame their bye laws and Rules.They may have different kinds of the posts, and may prescribe their own election process, so also the manner of holding the elections.[185]It is trite law that the courts will not interfere in the internal matters of an association, unless there are cogent grounds. In Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[186]Sahai, J. (minority) observed:

  • “Before concluding it may be observed that while highlighting the relationship between Malankara Association and the Parish Churches, it was submitted by Mr Parasaran that the provisions in the Constitution permitting every church to send same number of representatives irrespective of the strength of churches was not very fair. May be. But this is a provision governing matters not only of administration of churches but of faith and religion. The Malankara Association is like the executive body of the Malankara Church to exercise control over religion and temporal matters. The court’s function is restricted to ensure its proper implementation and not to determine whether the provisions in the Constitution framed by the religious body was fair or unfair. Religion is not governed, necessarily, by logic. In any case, it is not in the domain of secular courts to substitute its own opinion of fairness.”

28. Court Interference for Ensuring Will of the Community

But, in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma Mathews, AIR 1996 SC 3121, (subsequent to AIR 1995 SC 2001) Jeevan Reddy and SC Sen, JJ. observed:

  • “Inasmuch as the Malankara Association was vested with control over the religious and communal affairs of the entire Malankara Christian Community, it was held desirable and necessary that the Association must ‘truly and genuinely reflect the Will of the said community’. For ensuring it, it was observed: ‘Its composition must be so structured as to represent the entire spectrum of the community. A powerful body having control over both spiritual and communal affairs of the Malankara Church should be composed in a reasonable and fair manner. It was held that judged from the above angle, clause (68) of the 1934 Constitution cannot be said to be a fair one inasmuch as the said clause provided for representation Parish Churchwise. ….”

29. Court Interference for Ensuring Democratic Set-up in Associations

Right to form associations or unions is a Fundamental Right guaranteed by our Constitution.[187] A democratic set up in such associations or unions, subject to its bye laws, is envisioned in that right itself, if it is infringed Courts interfere to set-right abuses.

In Raju C Raphael Vs. Regency Club[188] the suit was filed for a declaration that the amendments brought into the bye-laws of the first defendant club, with respect to the subscription, were illegal, unsustainable and without any force. The trial court found that the amendments were passed unanimously by the members who attended the meeting and therefore, it was held that the plaintiffs were not entitled to get an order of temporary injunction. The appellate court confirmed the order. It was challenged in the High Court in Writ Petition. The Kerala High Court taking note of the fact that more than 3/4th of the members of the club would not be able to exercise their franchise and considering the grievance of the petitioners that such an election would not result in a democratic set up in the club, the High Court, without interfering the concurrent findings of the fact, permitted all the members of the club, who pay the subscription in accordance with the amended bye-laws within a specified time, to exercise their votes in the election.

30. Mismanagement: Judged not by Result; but by Situation

The degree of prudence expected from a manager of an endowment would be the prudence which an ordinary man would exercise with the knowledge available to him; and the transactions of such managers would have to be judged not by the result, but by what might have been expected to be its results at the time they were entered into.[189]

31. Doctrine of ‘Conditions of Modern Life’

In KC Kappor Vs. Radhika Devi,[190] the Supreme Court has held that the expression “compelling necessity” (qua alienation of property held by a trustee-Kartha) must be interpreted with due regard to the ‘conditions of modern life’. Our Apex Court quoted with approval the Bombay decision, Nagindas Maneklal Vs. Mahomed Yusuf Mithcella.[191]

32. Principle of Non Interference: Rule of Majority

Rajiv Sahai Endlaw J., in Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India,[192] has held that the principle of non interference in internal management of clubs was evolved on the premise of such clubs being governed by the rule of majority. As a general rule, the courts will not interfere in matters of internal administration of a Company or a voluntary association. It is for the majority of shareholders or members to decide the manner in which the affairs of the company or the association are to be conducted. [193]

33. Judicial Review: Exceptions to Foss Vs. Harbottle

It was propounded in Foss Vs. Harbottle,[194] that a Civil Court would not interfere with the internal management of a company.  Following exceptions to this rule are laid down, with respect to the internal management of voluntary associations, in Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay[195], Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar[196] and Nagappa Chettiar Vs. The Madras Race Club.[197]

  • (1) action ultra virus the society;
  • (2) action constitutes a fraud ; and
  • (3) action illegal.

In Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam[198] the Division Bench considered the Rule with regard to the convening of a meeting of the governing body and pointed out that it was a statutory Rule and commission of act in violation of the Rules in passing an order or interfering in the management of the affairs of the college must be held to be void, unlawful and illegal, and was liable to be set aside and/or quashed.[199]

The power of the court to have judicial review over the decisions of a society is very limited. Civil Court has jurisdiction to deal with a suit by minority members on the ground of

  • oppression and
  • mismanagement.[200]

In AS Krishnan Vs. M. Sundarum[201], it was held by Kania, J.  that the position of a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act is like that of a club or a Joint Stock Company. In order to redress a wrong done to the Company, action should prima facie be brought by the Company itself. But where the persons against whom the relief is sought themselves hold and control the majority of the shares of the Company and will not permit an action to be brought in the name of the Company, the share-holders complaining can bring an action in their own names.

34. Court Interference: Fraud and Coercion

A decision taken playing fraud on the minority would not bind the society or club. The majority does not have any right to coerce the minority also.[202]

35. Court Interference: TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria

In TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria[203] the Supreme Court has pointed out the powers of Courts to interfere in the affairs of a society as under:

  • “The jurisdiction of a Civil Court is rather limited; it cannot
    • obviously sit as a court of appeal from decisions of such a body;
    • it can set aside the order of such a body, if the said body
      • acts without jurisdiction or
      • does not act in good faith or
      • acts in violation of the principles of natural justice…”

36. Court Interference: Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Hosg. Society Case

While dealing with the issue regarding allotment to members by a Housing Co-operative Society, the Supreme Court, held in Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Vs. Presiding Officer, Delhi Co-op. Tribunal[204] that the courts would not interfere with the discretionary affairs of a society except when it was

  • arbitrary,
  • irrational,
  • mala fide,
  • against any statutory provision or
  • against order having the force of law.

37. When Court Sets Aside Decision of Domestic Tribunal

A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure. It is held in Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar[205] as under:

  • “It is not the province and the function of this Court to lay down either the time or the mode and manner in which autonomous and high-powered bodies like the Syndicate of the appellant-University are entitled to conduct their business in the meetings. They are equally masters of their own procedure and unless there is an infraction of the clear statutory rules in carrying out their duties and in conforming to the procedure prescribed by law, this Court would be ill-advised to render any gratuitous advice to them in their autonomous field in dealing and disposing of their business.”

In Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley[206] following principle has been laid down by the Calcutta High Court:

  • “A domestic tribunal cannot do anything it likes, throwing everything to the winds. But the jurisdiction of the Court is of a very limited character. Generally speaking, the court can set aside the decision of a domestic tribunal on one of the three basic considerations set out below:
  • A. When the tribunal oversteps the limits of its jurisdiction.
  • B. When it violates the principles of natural justice.
  • C. When it acts dishonestly,[207] actuated by bias, bad faith and the like.”

Lord Denning, Master of Rolls, in the Court of Appeal in England observed, in the matter of a non-statutory domestic tribunal, as under:[208]

  • “Is a party who is charged before a domestic tribunal entitled as of right to be legally represented, much depends on what the rules say about it. When the rules say nothing, then the party has no absolute right to be legally represented. It is a matter for the discretion of the tribunal. They are masters of their own procedure: and, if they, in the proper exercise of their discretion, decline to allow legal representation, the Courts will not interfere….”

Quoting Lord Denning our Supreme Court observed in J K Aggarwal Vs. Haryana Seeds Development Corporation[209] as under:

  • “The right of representation by a lawyer may not in all cases be held to be a part of natural justice”.

38. Scope of Judicial Review: Wednesbury-Principle

In Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India,[210] our Apex Court held as under:

  • “Lord Greene said in 1948 in the famous Wednesbury case[211] that when a statute gave discretion to an administrator to take a decision, the scope of judicial review would remain limited. He said that interference was not permissible unless one or the other of the following conditions was satisfied, namely the order was
    • contrary to law, or
    • relevant factors were not considered, or
    • irrelevant factors were considered; or
    • the decision was one which no reasonable person could have taken.”

39. Court Does Not Sit in Appeal

It is trite law that the Court does not sit in appeal over the findings of the enquiry officer. The Supreme Court in the celebrated decision, TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria,[212]  it is held that jurisdiction of courts to interfere in cases involving expulsion of a member from the organisation is extremely limited, and the Court’s enquiry is confined to find out whether the decision making is within the four corners of the rules, and the Courts cannot sit in appeal over the decisions of the organisation.[213]

It is held by our Apex Court in Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar[214] as under:     

  • “We are at any rate not sitting in appeal against the findings of a Domestic Tribunal set up to enquire into the allegations of misconduct levelled against a team official of a participating team. We are not, therefore, reappraising the material that has been assembled by the Probe Committee and relied upon to support its finding. The finding is by no means without basis or perverse to call for our interference with the same.”

40. Ouster of Civil Court Jurisdiction – General Principles

Following principles as to ouster of Civil Court jurisdiction are important[215].

  • Firstly, bar of jurisdiction of a Civil Court is not to be readily inferred. A provision seeking to bar jurisdiction of Civil Court requires strict interpretation.
  • Secondly, the court would normally lean in favour of a construction, which would uphold the retention of jurisdiction of the Civil Court.
  • Thirdly, the burden of proof in this behalf shall be on the party who asserts that the Civil Court’s jurisdiction is ousted.

41. Natural Justice: Rules and Subsidiary Rules

Formerly, only two rules were recognised:

  • Nemo debet esse judex propria causa
  • Audi alteram partem

Subsequently, more subsidiary rules were recognised, such as:

  • Without bias
  • Right to reasons.

If principles of natural justice are not adumbrated in the rules, it is read into the same.[216] In the absence of suffering any disqualification by a member of a society by virtue of its rules and regulations, the court cannot add any further qualification.

See Chapter: Expulsion of Members.

42. Natural Justice: Commonsense Justice

Whether an order in violation of natural justice is bad or not is depended on facts and circumstances of each case.[217] Its essence is good consciousness in a given situation; nothing more but nothing less.[218]

In Keshav Mills Co Ltd. Vs. Union of India[219]our Supreme Court held:

  • “We do not think it either feasible or even desirable to lay down any fixed or rigorous yard-stick in this manner. The concept of Natural Justice cannot be put into a straight-jacket. It is futile, therefore, to look for definitions or standards of Natural Justice from various decisions and then try to apply them to the facts of any given case. The only essential point that has to be kept in mind in all cases is that the person concerned should have a reasonable opportunity of presenting his case and that the administrative authority concerned should act fairly, impartially and reasonably..”

In Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Election Commissioner[220] our Apex Court expounded the purport of natural justice following the principles laid down in AK Kraipak Vs. Union of India[221] as under:

  • “The aim of the rules of natural justice is to secure justice or to put it negatively to prevent miscarriage of justice. These rules can operate only in areas not covered by any law validly made. In other words they do not supplant the law of the land but supplement it. The concept of natural justice has undergone a great deal of change in recent years.     In the past it was thought that it included just two rules namely:  (1) no one shall be a judge in his own case (Nemo debet esse judex propria causa) and (2) no decision shall be given against a party without affording him a reasonable hearing (Audi alteram partem). Very soon thereafter a third rule was envisaged and that is that quasi-judicial enquiries must be held in good faith, without bias and not arbitrarily or unreasonably. But in the course of years many more subsidiary rules came to be added to the rules of natural justice. Till very recently it was the opinion of the courts that unless the authority concerned was required by the law under which it functioned to act judicially there was no room for the application of the rules of natural justice. The validity of that limitation is now questioned. If the purpose of the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice one fails to see why those rules should be made inapplicable to administrative enquiries. Often times it is not easy to draw the line that demarcates administrative enquiries from quasi-judicial enquiries. Enquiries which were considered administrative at one time are now being considered as quasi-judicial in character. Arriving at a just decision is the aim of both quasi-judicial enquiries as well as administrative enquiries. An unjust decision in an administrative enquiry may have more far reaching effect than a decision in a quasi-judicial enquiry. As observed by this Court in Suresh Koshy George Vs. University of Kerala (AIR 1969 SC 198) the rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. What particular rule of natural justice should apply to a given case must depend to a great extent on the facts and circumstances of that case, the framework of the law under which the enquiry is held and the constitution of the Tribunal or body of persons appointed for that purpose. Whenever a complaint is made before a court that some principle of natural justice had been contravened the court has to decide whether the observance of that rule was necessary for a just decision on the facts of that case.”

The Supreme Court, in Uma Nath Pandey Vs. State of UP,[222]further explained the of principles of natural justice as follows:

  • “7. The crucial question that remains to be adjudicated is whether principles of natural justice have been violated and if so, to what extent any prejudice has been caused, it may be noted at this juncture that in some cases it has been observed that where grant of opportunity in terms of principles of natural justice do not improve the situation, ‘useless formality theory’ can be pressed into service.
  • 8. Natural justice is another name for common sense justice. Rules of natural justice are not codified canons. But they are principles ingrained into the conscience of man. Natural justice is the administration of justice in a common sense liberal way. Justice is based substantially on natural ideals and human values. The administration of justice is to be freed from the narrow and restricted considerations which are usually associated with a formulated law involving linguistic technicalities and grammatical niceties. It is the substance of justice which has to determine its form.
  • 9. The expressions ‘natural justice’ and ‘legal justice do not present a watertight classification, It is the substance of justice which is to be secured by both, and whenever legal justice fails to achieve this solemn purpose, natural justice is called in aid of legal justice. Natural justice relieves legal justice from unnecessary technicality, grammatical pedantry or logical prevarication. It supplies the omissions of a formulated law. As Lord Buckmaster said, no form or procedure should ever be permitted to exclude the presentation of a litigant’s defence.
  • 10. The adherence to principles of natural justice as recognised by all civilised States is of supreme importance when a quasi-judicial body embarks on determining disputes between the parties, or any administrative action involving civil consequences; is in issue. These principles are well settled. The first and foremost principle is what is commonly known as audi alteram partem rule. It says that no one should be condemned unheard. Notice is the first limb of this principle. It must be precise and unambiguous. It should apprise the party indeterminately of the case he has to meet. Time given for the purpose should be adequate so as to enable him to make his representation. In the absence of a notice of the kind and such reasonable opportunity, the order passed becomes wholly vitiated. Thus, it is but essential that a party should be put on notice of the case before any adverse order is passed against him. This is one of the most important principles of natural justice. It is after all an approved rule of fair play. The concept has gained significance and shades with time. When the historic document was made at Runnymede in 1215, the first statutory recognition of this principle found its way into the ‘Magna Carta’. The classic exposition of Sir Edward Coke of natural justice requires to ‘vocate, interrogate and adjudicate’. In the celebrated case of Cooper Vs. Wandsworth Board of Works the principle was thus stated: ‘(E)ven God himself did not pass sentence upon Adam before he was called upon to make his defense. “Adam” (says God), “Where art thou? Hast thou not eaten of, the tree whereof I commanded thee that thou shouldest not eat?”

Violation of the Principles of Natural Justice

Our Apex Court, in Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Vs. K S Gandhi[223] observed that the applicability of the principles of natural justice is not a rule of thumb or a straight jacket formula as an abstract proposition of law; and that whether omission to record reasons by a domestic tribunal vitiates the impugned order or is in violation of the principles of natural justice depends on the facts of the case, nature of the inquiry and the effect of the order/decision on the rights of the person and attendant circumstances. In this decision, following the ratio in Ghazanfar Rashid v. Board, H.S. and I. Edn., U.P[224]  Full Bench, it is observed that, though it is open to the High Court to interfere with the order of the quasi judicial authority if it is not supported by any evidence or if the order as passed in contravention of the statutory provisions of the law or in violation of the principles of natural justice, the court has no jurisdiction to quash the order merely on the ground that the evidence available on record is insufficient or inadequate or on the ground that different view could possibly be taken on the evidence available on the record. Court should be slow to interfere with the decisions of domestic tribunal. Authority’s appreciation of the problem must be respected.

In All Saints High School Hyderabad Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh[225] our Apex Court held pointed out that the decision of a domestic tribunal can be interfered with if there is want of good faith or when there is victimisation or when the management has been guilty of basic error or violation of principles of natural justice or when the material findings are completely baseless or perverse.[226]

If Per Se Illegal, Question of Natural Justice Does Not Arise

In State of MP Vs. Shyama Pardhi, the Supreme Court while considering the appointment of a person in government service who had not possessed the prerequisite qualification and it was found to be in breach of the statutory rules, it was held that the question of violation of the principles of natural justice did not arise.[227]

43. Society Can Function Only In Accordance With Constitution

  • But the Gen. Body Can Ratify Violation of a Directory Provision
  • Bye laws and Doctrine of Factum Valet

The principle of ratification is a recognised principle of law and can be safely invoked by the societies, in appropriate cases.[228]

It is held in Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh[229]:

  • “Rule of Law demands and dictates that the people follow the Law. The Constitution, whether of the State or of a Society registered under the Societies Act, is paramount. As people are to follow the Law in a State, so the members of a Society are duty-bound to follow the Constitution of the Society. After all, the Constitution is the soul of the Society. The Society, therefore, cannot function in contravention of its Constitution.
  • To permit the Society to function in violation of its Constitution is to encourage illegal actions and omissions. The Court cannot be a party to an illegal action. In fact, one of the functions of the judiciary is to ensure that people adhere to the Constitution and the statutory laws. … In case the action of the Sabha is contrary to the tenor and spirit of its Constitution, the said action cannot be sustained by a Court of law.
  • The doctrine of factum valet is applicable to cure the violation of a directory provision or a mere matter of form but does not cure the violation of the fundamental principles or the essence of the transaction.”

44. Society or Entire-Members Should be Parties to the Litigation

Acts of a society that are in violation of law and against the basic principles of its foundation, natural justice, etc. can be challenged in a court of law. But, if it relates to an unregistered society or an unincorporated club, its entire members should be made parties to such actions. For this matter, Order 1 Rule 8 CPC can be invoked. A registered society is expressly authorised  to sue or be sued invoking the provisions under Sec. 6 of the So. Regn. Act; and Order 1 Rule 8 CPC need not be invoked.

Kania, J., in A.S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram,[230] observed as under:

  • “In my opinion as the position of the members of this society is similar to that of the share holders of the company and as the acts of the defendants which are challenged are in respect of the society it is necessary that the society should be a party to this litigation. I do not think is competent to the plaintiff either alone or representing himself and the other members of the society other than defendants to bring a suit. The only grievance in respect of the disputed acts can be of the society, it is not open to the plaintiff, without ascertaining the wishes of the society, to file a suit on behalf of himself and all other except the defendants. The reason for that conclusion is obvious. Even if the Court decides in favour of the plaintiff, the society can call meeting of its members tomorrow, confirm the act of the defendants and confirm their position as members of the managing committee, thus rendering the decision of the Court a nullity. … In the absence of the society as a party to this litigation, I am of opinion that the suit as framed is not maintainable and the Court has no jurisdiction to try the suit in the absence of the society.”

But it may be noted that the observations of Kania, J. that ‘the suit as framed is not maintainable and the Court has no jurisdiction to try the suit in the absence of the society’ are to be taken as a suit filed under Sec. 6 of the So. Regn. Act in view of Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic&Unani Tibia College, Delhi Vs. The State of Delhi;[231] Illachi Devi Vs. Jain Society Protection of Orphans India;[232] Tata Vs. Tata.[233]In these decisions it has been held that a society is not a legal person.

45. Whether the Societies Registration Act Overrides the BPTA

Our Apex Court, in Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti[234] it is held:

  • “… The argument that as per Article 254 of the Constitution, the Societies Registration Act overrides the BPTA or that the Societies Registration Act and BPTA are in conflict, does not stand either, since both the statutes are not in conflict with each other. On the contrary, they are in consonance with each other regarding the administration and regulation of public and religious trusts.”

46. Final Authority, General Body

Bye laws of a Society are made by the founding members of the society for regulating its affairs. All members of the society are bound by it.[235] The decisions of its general body also bind the members.[236] Subject to the provisions in the Act, if any, applicable and the bye laws, the final authority[237] of every society and club shall vest in the general body of the members in general meeting, summoned in such manner as may be specified in the bye-laws.

But, it is not open for the majority of an association to alter the fundamental principles upon which it is founded.[238]

47. Court will Interfere to Prevent Gross Breach of Trust

In Piercy Vs. S. Mills and Co. Ltd.[239] their Lordships observed:

  • “I cannot look upon the Directors otherwise than as trustees for a public Company, and I must judge of the propriety of their conduct in this matter on the ordinary principle applicable to cases of trustee and cestuique trust. If shares are issued with indecent haste and scramble … ….for a different purpose, I have no doubt that the Court will interfere to prevent so gross a breach of trust.
  • If they were issued with the immediate object of controlling the holders of greater number of shares in the Company and of obtaining the necessary statutory majority for passing a special resolution, then it will not be valid or bona fide exercise of power.”[240]

48. Duty of Director Board to Obtain Views of the General Body

In AM Prakasan Vs. State of Kerala[241] it is held that Sec. 27 of the Kerala Co-op. Societies Act provides that the General Body is the final authority of a society subject to the provisions of the Act, the Rules and the bye laws; and that the Director Board of a Co-operative Society has a duty to place before the General Body and apprise them, the situation of waiving the huge amount of interest in a loan transaction, releasing security property and the fact that there is a likelihood of suffering any loss; and ascertain the views and opinion of the General Body on the same.

In Dipankar Dey Vs. State of Assam[242]  the writ petition, as regards the timing of a school, was disposed of directing the authorities, particularly, the President of the managing committee to convene a meeting of the general body (which is the supreme body) within a period of 6 weeks and the decision that may be adopted in the said general body meeting would hold the field.

49. General Principles in Company Law Apply

With respect to the individual membership rights of members of societies registered under the Societies Registration Act, the general principles governing the right of suit of an individual share holder or a member of the company would apply.[243] Legal status of society registered under the Societies Registration Act is similar to that a club or a joint sector company.[244]Following are recognised by Courts as individual membership rights in a company.[245]

  • Right to vote,
  • right to stand as a candidate for election as a director and
  • set-right illegal acts.

50. Sec. 9 of the CPC – Exclusion Not Readily Inferred

Sec. 9 CPC reads:

  • “9. Courts to try all civil suits unless barred. The courts shall (subject to the provisions herein contained) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognisance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
  •   Explanation 1.- A suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of a civil nature, notwithstanding that such right may depend entirely on the decision of questions as to religious rites or ceremonies.
  •   Explanation II.- For the purposes of this section, it is immaterial whether or not any fees are attached to the office referred to in Explanation I or whether or not such office is attached to a particular place. “

Under section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure the Civil Courts have got jurisdiction to entertain suits of civil nature unless the same is expressly or impliedly barred by statute.[246] An exclusion of jurisdiction of Civil Court cannot be readily inferred. But in respect of any matter which the Tribunal or the appellate authority is empowered to determine by the Companies Act or any other law for the time being in force the Civil Courts would not  have jurisdiction to entertain such suit[247] by virtue of implied bar.

51. Sec. 9 of the CPC – Supreme Court Decisions:

Dhulabhai Case

Often questions come before the courts: whether the Civil Courts have jurisdiction in matters of a society with respect to decisions taken by internal tribunals of the societies, conduct of elections, convening of meetings, violation of bye laws, etc. In the landmark decision, Dhulabhai Vs. State of M.P.,[248] guidelines were given by the Supreme Court in respect of matters which could be tried by the Civil Courts. It reads as under:

  • “(1) Where the statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the Civil Court’s jurisdiction must be held to be excluded if there is adequate remedy to do what the Civil Courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, does not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • (2) Where there is an express bar of the jurisdiction of the court, an examination of the scheme of the particular Act to find the adequacy or the sufficiency of the remedies provided may be relevant but is not decisive to sustain the jurisdiction of the Civil Court. Where there is no express exclusion the examination of the remedies and the scheme of the particular Act to find out the intendment becomes necessary and the result of the inquiry may be decisive. In the latter case it is necessary to see if the statute creates a special right or a liability and provides for the determination of the right or liability and further lays down that all questions about the said right and liability shall be determined by the tribunals so constituted, and whether remedies normally associated with actions in Civil Courts are prescribed by the said statute or not.
  • (3) Challenge to the provisions of the particular Act as ultra vires cannot be brought before Tribunals constituted under that Act. Even the High Court cannot go into that question on a revision or reference from the decision of the tribunals.
  • (4) When a provision is already declared unconstitutional or the constitutionality of any provision is to be challenged, a suit is open. A writ of certiorari may include a direction for refund if the claim is clearly within the time prescribed by the Limitation Act but it is not a compulsory remedy to replace a suit.
  • (5) Where the particular Act contains no machinery for refund of tax collected in excess of constitutional limits or illegally collected a suit lies.
  • (6) Questions of the correctness of the assessment apart from its constitutionality are for the decision of the authorities and a civil suit does not lie if the orders of the authorities are declared to be final or there is an express prohibition in the particular Act. In either case the scheme of the particular Act must be examined because it is a relevant enquiry.
  • (7) An exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is not readily to be inferred unless the conditions above set down apply.”

Premier Automobiles Limited vs. Kamalakar Shantharam Wadke[249]

In this judgment, the Supreme Court set out the principles applicable to the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in relation to an industrial dispute as under:

  • “(1) If the dispute is not an industrial dispute, nor does it relate to enforcement of any other right under the Act, the remedy lies only in the Civil Court.
  • (2) If the dispute is an industrial dispute arising out of a right or liability under the general or common law and not under the Act, the jurisdiction of the civil Court is alternative, leaving it to the election of the suitor concerned to choose his remedy for the relief which is competent to be granted in a particular remedy.
  • (3) If the industrial dispute relates to the enforcement of a right or an obligation created under the Act, then the only remedy available to the suitor is to get an adjudication under the Act.
  • (4) If the right which is sought to be enforced is a right created under the Act such as Chap. V.A. then the remedy for its enforcement is either S.33C or the raising of an industrial dispute, as the case may be.”

The Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation and Another vs. Krishnakanth.[250]

The seven principles evolved in this case read as follows:

  • (1) Where the dispute arises from general law of contract, i.e. where reliefs are claimed on the basis of the general law of contract, a suit filed in civil court cannot be said to be not maintainable, even though such a dispute may also constitute an industrial dispute within the meaning of Section 2(k) or Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
  • (2) Where, however, the dispute involves recognition, observance or enforcement of any of the rights or obligations created by the Industrial Disputes Act, the only remedy is to approach the forums created by the said Act.
  • (3) Similarly, where the dispute involves the recognition, observance or enforcement of rights and obligations created by enactments like Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 which can be called sister enactments; to Industrial Disputes Act and which do not provide a forum for resolution of such disputes, the only remedy shall be to approach the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act provided they constitute industrial disputes within the meaning of Section 2(k) and Section 2A of Industrial Disputes Act or where such enactment says that such dispute shall be either treated as an industrial dispute or says that it shall be adjudicated by any of the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act. Otherwise, recourse to civil court is open.
  • (4) It is not correct to say that the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act are not equally effective for the reason that access to the forum depends upon a reference being made by the appropriate Government. The power to make a reference conferred upon the Government is to be exercised to effectuate the object of the enactment and hence not unguided. The rule is to make a reference unless, of course, the dispute raised is a totally frivolous one ex facie. The power conferred is the power to refer and not the power to decide, though it may be that the Government is entitled to examine whether the dispute is ex facie frivolous, not meriting an adjudication.
  • (5) Consistent with the policy of law aforesaid, we commend to Parliament and the State Legislatures to make a provision enabling a workman to approach the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal directly i.e. without the requirement of a reference by the Government in case of industrial disputes covered by Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act. This would go a long way in removing the misgivings with respect to the effectiveness of the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act.
  • (6) The certified Standing Orders framed under and in accordance with the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 are statutorily imposed conditions of service and are binding both upon the employers and employees, though they do not amount to statutory provisions. Any violation of these Standing Orders entitles an employee to appropriate relief either before the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act or the civil court where recourse to civil court is open according to the principles indicated herein.
  • (7) The policy of law emerging from Industrial Disputes Act and its sister enactments is to provide an alternative dispute-resolution mechanism to the workmen, a mechanism which is speedy, inexpensive, informal and unencumbered by the plethora of procedural laws and appeals upon appeals and revisions applicable to civil courts. Indeed, the powers of the courts and tribunals under the Industrial Disputes Act are far more extensive in the sense that they can grant such relief as they think appropriate in the circumstances for putting an end to an industrial dispute.

Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation and Another vs. Krishna Kant[251]

The legal position summarized read as under:

  • “(1) Where the dispute arises from general law of contract, I.e. where reliefs are claimed on the basis of the general law of contract, a suit filed in civil court cannot be said to be not maintainable, even though such a dispute may also constitute an “industrial dispute” within the meaning of Section 2(k) or Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
  • (2) Where, however, the dispute involves recognition, observance or enforcement of any of the rights or obligations created by the Industrial Disputes Act, the only remedy is to approach the forums created by the said Act.
  • (3) Similarly, where the dispute involves the recognition, observance or enforcement of rights and obligations created by enactments like Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 which can be called “sister enactments” to Industrial Disputes Act and which do not provide a forum for resolution of such disputes, the only remedy shall be to approach the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act provided they constitute industrial disputes within the meaning of Section 2(k) and Section 2A of Industrial Disputes Act or where such enactment says that such dispute shall be either treated as an industrial dispute or says that it shall be adjudicated by any of the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act. Otherwise, recourse to civil court is open.
  • (4) It is not correct to say that the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act are not equally effective for the reason that access to the forum depends upon a reference being made by the appropriate Government. The power to make a reference conferred upon the Government is to be exercised to effectuate the object of the enactment and hence not unguided. The rule is to make a reference unless, of course, the dispute raised is a totally frivolous one ex facie. The power conferred is the power to refer and not the power to decide, though it may be that the Government is entitled to examine whether the dispute is ex facie frivolous, not meriting an adjudication.
  • (5) Consistent with the policy of law aforesaid, we commend to Parliament and the State Legislatures to make a provision enabling a workman to approach the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal directly i.e. without the requirement of a reference by the Government in case of industrial disputes covered by Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act. This would go a long way in removing the misgivings with respect to the effectiveness of the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act.
  • (6) The certified Standing Orders framed under and in accordance with the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 are statutorily imposed conditions of service and are binding both upon the employers and employees, though they do not amount to “statutory provisions.” Any violation of these Standing Orders entitles an employee to appropriate relief either before the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act or the civil court where recourse to civil court is open according to the principles indicated herein.
  • (7) The policy of law emerging from Industrial Disputes Act and its sister enactments is to provide an alternative dispute-resolution mechanism to the workmen, a mechanism which is speedy, inexpensive, informal and unencumbered by the plethora of procedural laws and appeals upon appeals and revisions applicable to civil courts. Indeed, the powers of the Courts and Tribunals under the Industrial Disputes Act are far more extensive in the sense that they can grant such relief as they think appropriate in the circumstances for putting an end to an industrial dispute.”

In Secretary of State v. Hindustan Cooperative Insurance Societies Ltd., AIR 1931 PC 149, it is pointed out that if dispute arises under a Special statute and no remedy is provided, then the provisions of the General Statutes would be applicable more so when the special statute is not itself a complete code.

In R.M.A.R.A. Adaikappa Chettiar v. Ra. Chandrasekhara Thevar, 1947 (74) I.A. 264, the Privy Council held that where a legal right is in dispute and the ordinary Courts of the country are seized of such dispute, the Courts are governed by the ordinary rules of procedure applicable thereto, and an appeal lies, if authorized by such rules, notwithstanding that the legal right claimed arises under a special statute which does not in terms confer a right of appeal.

Writ and Civil  Court jurisdiction

Disputes as to the internal management of a society are to be raised by way of civil suit and they cannot be made the subject matter of a writ petition.[252] The Supreme Court, in State of Madhya Pradesh Vs. Bhailal Bhai[253] it was pointed out that the remedy provided in a writ jurisdiction is not intended to supersede completely the modes of obtaining relief by an action in a civil court or to deny defence legitimately open in such actions. The power to give relief under Article 226 of the Constitution is a discretionary power. Similar view has been reiterated in following decisions:

  • N.T. Veluswami Thevar vs. G. Raja Nainar, AIR 1959 SC 422,
  • Municipal Council, Khurai vs. Kamal Kumar, AIR 1965 SC 1321,
  • Siliguri Municipality  vs. Amalendu Das, AIR 1984 SC 653,
  • S.T. Muthusami vs. K. Natarajan, AIR 1988 SC 616,
  • R.S.R.T.C. vs. Krishna Kant, AIR 1995 SC 1715,
  • Kerala State Electricity Board vs. Kurien E. Kalathil, AIR 2000 SC 2573,
  • A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu vs. S. Chellappan, 2000 (7) SCC 695
  • L.L. Sudhakar Reddy vs. State of AP, 2001 (6) SCC 634,
  • Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami vs. St. of Mahstra., 2001 (8) SCC 509,
  • Pratap Singh vs. State of Haryana, 2002 (7) SCC 484 and
  • GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. vs. IT Officer, 2003 (1) SCC 72,

52. Sec. 9 of the CPC: Civil Courts Jurisdiction, Impliedly Barred

Section 9 of the C.P.C. says that courts to try all suits unless their cognisance is either expressly or impliedly barred. Exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil court is not to be readily inferred, unless such exclusion must either be expressed or clearly implied,[254] is a trite law. It is held by our Apex Court in Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India[255] as under:

  • “Generally speaking, the broad guiding considerations are that wherever a right, not pre-existing in common law, is created by a statute and that statute itself provided a machinery for the enforcement of the right, both the right and the remedy having been created and a finality is intended to the result of the statutory proceedings, then, even in the absence of an exclusionary provision the civil courts jurisdiction is impliedly barred. If, however, a right pre-existing in common law is recognised by the statute and a new statutory remedy for its enforcement provided, without expressly excluding the civil courts jurisdiction, then both the common law and the statutory remedies might become a concurrent remedies leaving open an element of election to the persons of inherence.”

In Justice G. P. Singh’s (former Chief Justice, M. P. High Court) “Principles of Statutory Interpretation”[256], it is stated:

  • “As laid down by Willes, J. and affirmed by high authorities -there are three classes of cases in which a liability might be established, founded upon statute. One is where there was a liability existing at common law, and that liability is affirmed by a statute which gives a special and peculiar form of remedy different from the remedy which existed at common law; there, unless the statute contains words which expressly or by necessary implication exclude the common law remedy, the party suing has his election to pursue either that or the statutory remedy. The second class of cases is, where the statute gives the right to sue merely, but provides no particular from the remedy; there, the party can only proceed by action at common law. But there is third class, viz. where a liability not existing at common law is created by a statute which at the same time gives a special and particular remedy for enforcing it – The remedy provided by the statute must be followed, and it is not competent to the party to pursue the course applicable to cases of the second class.”[257]

In Bal Mukund Bairwa,[258] it has been explained that if the infringement of the Standing Orders is alleged, the civil court’s jurisdiction may be held to be barred but if the suit is based on the violation of principles of common law or constitutional provisions or on other grounds, the civil court’s jurisdiction may not be held to be barred.

The legal position that Standing Orders have no statutory force and are not in the nature of delegated/subordinate legislation is clearly stated in Krishna Kant.[259] In this case it was stated that the certified Standing Orders framed under and in accordance with the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 were statutorily imposed conditions of service and are binding both upon the employers and employees, though they do not amount to ‘statutory provisions’ and any violation of these Standing Orders entitles an employee to appropriate relief either before the forum created by the Industrial Disputes Act or the civil court where recourse to civil court is open according to the principles indicated therein.

53. William Williamson Kerr in ‘Law of Injunction’

Regarding the power of a Civil Court to grant injunction William Williamson Kerr, in Sixth Edition of Law of Injunction, has pointed out as follows:

  • “Where parties contribute funds which are laid out on property which all enjoy in common, such as clubs, societies, associations, etc., the members of which have agreed to bind themselves by certain rules, they are bound by their rules, and the court will not interfere, except in cases of breach of trust or oppression:
  • (a) The jurisdiction of the Court in such cases is founded on the common interest of every member in the property of the club, society, etc., and on the common right of every member to require that the rules to which he has subscribed shall be properly carried out;
  • (b) But although in the case of an ordinarily constituted club, in which members have rights of property, a member whose rights have been interfered with by the committee is entitled to ask the Court to consider whether the rules of the club have been observed, whether anything has been done which is contrary to natural justice, and whether the decision complained of has been come to bona fide.”

Kerr further pointed out that in such a situation the court has a duty to see that the proceedings were conducted on the common principles of ordinary justice. If a meeting is called irregularly or if it is not summoned with proper notice the court can interfere in such a situation[260].

54. Ouster of Jurisdiction of Courts under the Companies Act

Section 430 of the Companies Act, 2013 (Sec. 10 of Companies Act, 1956) deals with jurisdiction of courts. It reads:

  • ‘No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered to determine by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force and no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force, by the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal.’

It is clear that the civil court jurisdiction is ousted only with respect to matters ‘empowered to determine by or under this Act’.

55. No Power to Registrar to Direct Fresh Election; It is with Civil Court[261]

It is also held in CMS Evangelical Suvi David Vs. District Registrar[262] that the power under Sub-Section (9) of Section 36 cannot be stretched to a power on the Registrar to direct the registered society to hold fresh election. A direction to hold fresh election would amount to indirectly setting aside the earlier election and such power is not conferred on the Registrar under any of the provisions of the Act.

So long as the election is not declared invalid in the manner known to law, no direction for fresh election could be ordered. Validity of the election could very well be decided only by the competent Civil Court as the parties are entitled to let in their evidence to sustain their respective claims. If the Registrar satisfies himself as to the particulars furnished in Form VII as correct, he should enter the names in the register maintained for that purpose. In the event he does not satisfy as to the particulars and thereby does not accept Form VII, he has to issue a direction relegating the parties to approach the civil Court for appropriate orders.

56. District Courts’ Jurisdiction in Societies Registration Act, Limited

First proviso of Sec. 13, Societies Registration Act, 1880, lays down that in the event of any dispute arising among the governing body or the members of the society while in its dissolution, the adjustment of its affairs shall be referred to the principal court of original civil jurisdiction of the district in which the chief building of the society is situate; and the court shall make such order in the matter as it shall deem requisite.

57. Special Forum: Limited Jurisdiction

Several State (Societies Registration) Acts/Amendmentsprovide for a special forum – District Court – as the forum to entertain and try suits or applications for certain specific matters as to the administration of the societies. If limited jurisdiction alone is conferred to such forum, it follows as a matter of law that the forum has been prohibited from granting any other relief.[263]

The bye laws bind its members as a contract.[264] Therefore, breach of contractual obligations, both express and implied, with respect to matters arising from the byelaws of a Society, give rise to a cause of action in civil court. When a special statute (Societies Registration Act) provides for a special remedy, it has to be adhered to.  If such special remedy or extraordinary[265] jurisdiction[266] isan enabling provision, limited to specified  reliefs[267]and provides for a summary remedy,it cannot be said that civil court jurisdiction for claiming regular reliefs is ousted.[268]In any case, the aggrieved persons will not be left without any remedy at all, in respect of matters which are not specifically provided for in these provisions as it will brought-in arbitrary and inequitable results.[269]In BalawwaVs.Hasanabi[270] it is held that the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is ousted only in respect of such reliefs as could be granted by the Special Tribunal under the Special Statute (Karnataka Land Reforms Act, 1961); but in other respects the jurisdiction of the Civil Court was not ousted.

If the enabling provisions provide for a summary remedyalone and they do not derogate expressly or impliedly[271] the authority of the general statute, jurisdiction under the general statute cannot be taken as ousted.[272]

Andhra Pradesh Societies Registration Act, 2001

Sec. 23 of the AP Societies Registration Act, 2001 states as follows:

  • “23. Dispute regarding management: In the event of any dispute arising among the committee or the members of the society, any member of the society may proceed with the dispute under the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, or may file an application in the District Court concerned and the said court shall after necessary inquiry pass such order as it may deem fit.”

It is held by AP High Court[273] that the right to move the District Court under Section 23 of the Act was an effective remedy provided by the statute.

2001 AP Act is not a special enactment, Excluding general principles in CPC

In Terapalli Dyvasahata Kumar v. S.M.Kantha Raju (Rohinton Fali Nariman, Sanjay Kishan Kaul), AIR 2017 SC 4055; 2018-11 SCC 769, an application was filed under section 23 of the Andhra Pradesh Societies Registration Act, 2001,  in the court of the IV Additional District Judge, Visakhapatnam, in relation to a registered society which was registered in Kakinada. An objection was taken, by way of an interlocutory application, about the maintainability of the application on the ground that only the district court in Kakinada would have jurisdiction as the society was registered at Kakinada. The trial judge rejected the said application on the ground that a part of the cause of action arose in Visakhapatnam, and applying the principle of Section 20 (c) of the Code of Civil Procedure, held that the main application under Section 23 was maintainable at Visakhapatnam. Aggrieved by the said order, a revision was filed before the High Court.  The High Court took the view that the Act is a special Act and, as such, general principles enunciated in the Code of Civil Procedure cannot be applied and held that the District court, which would have jurisdiction, would be the District court, within whose jurisdiction the society was registered. The Supreme Court set aside the judgment of the High Court, finding as under:

  • “(18) In this view of the law, we set aside the judgment of the Andhra Pradesh High Court dated 19.09.2006. We must indicate that the impugned judgment is wrong on two counts. First, in applying the definition of “the Court” to “District Court” mentioned in Section 23, and then concluding that it would refer only to the principal Court of original jurisdiction of one particular place. It is also wrong in stating that as the 2001 Andhra Pradesh Act is a special enactment, general principles applicable under the Code of Civil Procedure would not apply, for the reasons given by us above”.

Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act

Section 36 of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act reads as under:

  • “36. Power of Registrar to inquire into the affairs of registered society:
  •        (1) The Registrar may, of his own motion or on the application of a majority of the members of the committee of a registered society or on the application of not less than one third of the members of that registered society, or if so moved by the District Collector, hold, or direct some person authorised by the Registrar by order in writing in this behalf to hold an inquiry into the constitution, working and financial condition of that registered society.
  •        (2) An application to the Registrar under sub-section (1) shall be supported by such evidence as the Registrar may require for the purpose of showing that the applicants have good reason for applying for an inquiry.
  •        (3) The Registrar may require the applicants under sub-section (1) to furnish uch security as he thinks fit for the costs of the proposed inquiry, before the inquiry is held…………..”

This Section provides for enquiry into the affairs of registered societybythe Registrar. If the aggrieved party approaches the Registrar or the Registrar acts on his own motion, then, it shall be lawful for the Registrar to conduct an enquiry and communicate the report of the enquiry. It is merely an enabling provision. It does not mean to deem it as a bar to the jurisdiction of the Civil Court. There must be at least some implication to show that the Civil Court cannot entertain such suits.[274]

Section 25 of the TC Literary Scientific and Charitable So.Regn. Act, 1955

S. 25(1) of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955 reads as under:

  • “25. Application to Court for dissolution, framing a scheme, etc: – (1) When an application is made by the State Government or ten percent of the members on the rolls of a society to the District Court within the jurisdiction of which the Society is registered, the court may, after enquiry and on being satisfied that it is just and equitable, pass any of the following orders:-
  • (a) removing the existing governing body and appointing a fresh governing body; or
  • (b) framing a scheme for the better and efficient management of the society; or
  • (c) dissolving the society.”

It is obvious that Section 25 of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955, which provides for the three remedies enumerated in this section through the District Court (on an application ‘made by the State Government or ten percent of the members’), serves only as an enabling provision; because, sans this enabling provision, one or more members of the society have to adopt the regular or ordinary legal recourse (ie. invoking the jurisdiction of the Civil Court) for redressal when an action of the society is ultra virus the society or constitutes a fraud or illegality.[275] This section is confined to matters expressly stated therein. Nothing is there in this section which either expressly or impliedly ousts the jurisdiction of a civil court, particularly in matters relating to convening of General Body or conducting of elections.[276]

ParayakaduNalukulangaraDevaswom Vs. PadmanabhanHarshas[277] was a suit instituted by a member of a society praying for issuing an injunction restraining the defendants from convening the General Body meeting of the society on the ground that it was illegal and opposed to the provisions of the bye-law, and also for issuance of a commission to convene the general body in accordance with the provisions of the bye-law of the society.  The Kerala High Court negatived the contention of the defendants that the suit was barred in view of Sec. 25 of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955 and that the District Court alone had got jurisdiction to entertain a suit. The Court, observing that the question of jurisdiction had to be primarily determined (at the time of considering the maintainability of the suit) with reference to the allegations and averments in the plaint, pointed out that it had been alleged in the plaint that the defendants had convened a General Body in violation of the provisions in the bye-laws and in fraud of the right of the members of the Society.

The remedy available to one or more members is not barred, for providing an enabling remedy in the special statute ‘on an application made by ten percent of the members’.

But, subsequently, in Kerala Vyapari Vyavasayi Vs. Kerala Vyapari Vyavasayi Ekopana Samithi[278] it is observed (obitor) that a declaration that the election to the governing body of the Society, which was holding the office, as null and void, in effect and substance, amounted to the removal of the existing governing body; and that such a declaration could be prayed for, only by invoking S. 25 of the Act, and not by filing a suit in the ordinary civil court. The Court observed that the Act has created new rights and liabilities as far as societies registered thereunder are concerned; and that S. 25 provided a specific forum for granting the reliefs enumerated in Clause (a), (b) and (c) of sub-s. (1) of S. 25. The stipulation that the aforesaid reliefs can be sought for only in the manner specifically mentioned therein will not affect the exclusive nature of the jurisdiction conferred on the District Court. The exclusion of jurisdiction as above can be inferred not only from the fact that the District Court which is the principal civil court of original jurisdiction of the district concerned is specified for conducting the enquiry and granting the reliefs on its satisfaction but also from the fact that the right of appeal under S. 27 of the Act is conferred on the High Court. However, since that Legislature has enumerated the nature and kinds of disputes which are to be enquired into and the reliefs that could be sought for, it admits no doubt that other kinds of disputes are outside the purview of the District Court exercising power under S. 25 of the Act. The question that immediately arises is which other forum the aggrieved person should approach for reliefs not covered by S. 25. The answer is S. 9 of the C. P. C. Hence, in respect of all other matters involving disputes of a civil nature, it is competent for the ordinary civil courts to entertain, try and dispose of the suits.

Societies Registration Act as amended by State of U.P.

Section 25 of the Societies Registration Act as amended by State of U.P. reads as under:

  • “25(1) The prescribed authority may, on a reference made to it by the registrar or by a least one-fourth of the members of a society registered in Uttar Pradesh, hear and decide in a summary manner any doubt or dispute in respect of the election or continuance in office of an office -bearer of such society, and may pass such orders in respect thereof as it deems fit:
  • Provided that the election of an office-bearer shall be set aside where the prescribed authority is satisfied –
  • (a) that any corrupt practice has been committed by such office-bearer; or
  • (b) that the nomination of an candidate has been improperly rejected; or
  • (c) that the result of the election in so far it concerns such office bearer has been materially affected by the improper acceptance of any nomination or by the improper reception, refusal or rejection of any vote or the reception of any vote which is void or by any non -compliance with the provisions of any rules of the society.
  • Explanation I. – …………….. ………… …
  • Explanation II. – ………………… ……..
  • Explanation III. –  ……………. ………..

Section 25 of the Societies Registration Act as amended by State of U.P. endows the ‘prescribed authority’ with the right to hear and decide in a summary manner disputes in respect of the election or continuance in office of office-bearers of societies.

But, when disputed questions of fact are involved, summary proceedings under Section 25 of the Act, 1860 will not be a bar for seeking remedy before the Civil Court as the summary proceedings under Section 25 is not an efficacious remedy.[279]

Cooperative Societies Acts

Co-operative Societies Acts provide that disputes touching the business of a society shall be referred to the Registrar for arbitration. But, it does not encompass dispute arising out of a disciplinary proceeding between such society and its officers and servants; and therefore, in the absence of such provision for compulsory arbitration of such dispute the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is not barred.[280]

58. Legality of Meeting not be Adjudicated by Ednl. Authorities

Where there is no express exclusion, the Civil Courts examine the remedies and the Scheme of the Act to find out the intendment of the legislature, as to implied exclusion, in a proper case. In any event, the legality or correctness of the meeting held and the decisions taken by the society are not matters to be adjudicated upon by the appellate authorities constituted under the Educational Act and the Rules.[281].

59. Suit to Declare Plaintiff Continues as Secretary: Maintainable

Several State-Societies-Registration-Acts and Amendments to the Societies Registration Act provide for enquiry by Registrar into the constitution, working and financial conditions of the society. In D DhanapalVs. D David Livingstone[282] it is held that the suit filed for declaration that the plaintiff continues to be the Secretary of the Society is maintainable.

60. Whether Writ Petition Maintainable Against Societies

The main concern as to maintainability ofa writ is whether the society discharges public duty or not.Availability of alternative remedy may not operate as absolute bar against the exercise of the writ jurisdiction.[283]Various decisions of our Apex Court also say that a society is not ‘State’ within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India and thusnot amenable to writ jurisdiction. [284]

It is also pointed out that availability of efficacious statutory remedy bars writ jurisdiction.[285]

The Supreme Court held that the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is an ‘authority’ for the purpose of issuance of Writs[286] by the courts.  The BCCI is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and it came to be a deemed society by virtue of Section 4 (2) of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act, 1975.

Our Apex Court appraised that, as a member of ICC, it represented the country in the international fora; it exercised enormous public functions; and it had the authority to select players, umpires and officials to represent the country in the international fora. The Writ Petitions against Co-operative Societies are maintainable in certain circumstances. When the action complained in the Writ Petition is of any statutory violation on the part of the Co-operative Society, a Writ Petition will lie.

In Sand Carriers Owners Union Vs. Board of Trustees for the Port of Calcutta,[287] it had been held:

  • “Unincorporated associations are not legal persons and as such, writ petitions are not maintainable. An association could be formed to protect the interest of consumers, tenants or other groups with the common interest but such group cannot move writ application. No aspect of the representative law has been changing more rapidly than the law governing standing and the standing barrier has been substantially lowered in recent years, but on the basis of the law relating to standing as in England or in America as also in India, it can be held without any difficulty that the writ petition at the instance of an association is not maintainable where the association itself is not affected by any order. The members of such association may be affected by common order and may have common grievance, but for the purpose of enforcing the rights of the members, writ petition at the instance of such association is not maintainable. The door of the writ Court could be made open at the instance of persons or authorities under the aforesaid four categories and to hold that every Tom, Dick and Harry can move the writ application would render the standing requirement meaningless and would introduce a procedure which is not judicially recognised.”

The action of the Co-operative Society, if falls in a public domain or breach of the public duty is complained of, writ may also lie. However, in the absence of breach of any statutory duty or public duty, a Writ Petition cannot be entertained against a Co-operative Society.[288]

In Supriyo Basu Vs. WB Housing Board[289] it has been held by our Apex Court that it is undisputed that a Co-operative Society is constituted on agreement between members thereof who had agreed to abide by the provisions of the Co-operative Societies Act, the Rules framed thereunder or the bye-laws framed by the Society. The Society is undisputedly not a department of the State and is also not a creature of a statute but merely governed by a statute. Only if it is established that the mandatory provision of a Statute has been violated, a writ petition could be maintainable. In the facts of Satwati Deswal Vs. State of Hariyana[290] it was held by our Apex Court that the Writ Petition was maintainable even though alternate remedy was available.

61. Court Interference on PIL:

Take-over and Appointment of Administrator by Court: When No Action was taken by Authorities

In a Public Interest Litigation in Sanjay Gupta Vs. State of M.P.[291] it was pleaded that due to irregularities and mismanagement of the society the future of near about 1200 students who were getting education in the college and schools run by a Society was in dark. The petitioner prayed to takeover the society and to appoint an administrator. The Court found that in spite of the adverse reports, no action had been taken by the authorities. Observing that the right to receive proper education is a part and parcel of Article 21 of the Constitution and considering the judgment of the Supreme Court in State of Uttaranchal Vs. Balwant Singh Chaufal[292] it was held that a writ petition in the shape of PIL was maintainable.

The Court appointed the Additional Collector, Gwalior as Administrator of the Society and gave directions for election and investigation in regard to financial irregularities in the light of Sec. 32 and 33 of the M.P. Societies Registrikaran Adhiniyam, 1973.

62. Disciplinary Action: Termination of Service

The jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the case of contract of service is only to grant damages if there is a wrongful termination of service; and the civil court has no power to interdict the disciplinary proceedings. The Civil Court cannot order reinstatement or enforcing the contractual service. It cannot grant the relief of injunction restraining the Management from taking the action, more so when the proposed action is only an enquiry into the conduct of the employee.[293] The Civil Court has no right to enforce the contract of personnel service and the well recognised exceptions are noticed by the Supreme Court in Executive Committee of U. P. State Warehousing Corporation Vs. Chandra Kiran Tyagi.[294]

  • “From the two decisions of this Court referred to above, the position in law is that no declaration to enforce a contract of personnel service will be normally granted. But there are certain well-recognised exceptions to this rule and they are: To grant such a declaration in appropriate cases regarding
  • (1) a public servant, who has been dismissed from service in contravention of Article 311.
  • (2) Reinstatement of a dismissed worker under Industrial law by Labour or Industrial Tribunals.
  • (3) A statutory body when it has acted in breach of a mandatory obligation, imposed by statute. “

63. Fiduciary Position of Governing Body Members

Directors of a company stand in a fiduciary[295] position and they are legally bound to exercise their powers for the company’s benefit. They have to protect the interest of the company and its shareholders. They cannot take part in any resolution under which they gain any benefit. If interested directors take part in such transactions there would be an irregularity and it renders the resolutions voidable at the instance of the company.[296] The term ‘fiduciary’ as an adjective means ‘in the nature of a trust, having the characteristics of a trust, analogues to a trust; relating to or founded upon a trust or confidence’. Mere confidence[297] also cannot result in a fiduciary relationship.

The term ‘fiduciary’ as an adjective means ‘in the nature of a trust, having the characteristics of a trust, analogues to a trust; relating to or founded upon a trust or confidence’. ‘Fiduciary relationship’ invariably involves dominion over property which is wholly lacking in the case of a contract of suretyship or guarantee, that the surety has not received anything nor has he been given dominion with money or property and that he has no liability to account. There is no fiduciary capacity involving liability to account in relation to another. Mere confidence also cannot result in a fiduciary relationship.[298]

Black’s Law Dictionary defines ‘fiduciary relationship’ as:

  • “A relationship in which one person is under a duty to act for the benefit of the other on matters within the scope of the relationship.fiduciary relationships – such as trustee-beneficiary, guardian-ward, agent-principal, and attorney-client – require the highest duty of care. fiduciary relationships usually arise in one of four situations : (1) when one person places trust in the faithful integrity of another, who as a result gains superiority or influence over the first, (2) when one person assumes control and responsibility over another, (3) when one person has a duty to act for or give advice to another on matters falling within the scope of the relationship, or (4) when there is a specific relationship that has traditionally been recognised as involving fiduciary duties, as with a lawyer and a client or a stockbroker and a customer.”

64. Law Does not Permit Transfer of Trust

Court Cannot Sanction Drastic Amendment to Trust

Trust is a confidential relationship which involves a special duty of loyalty to the purpose or object of the trust.  There is no principle of law or precedent which permits transfer of trust in favour of another body of persons.[299]

It is not open for the majority of the members of an association to alter the basic or fundamental principles upon which it is founded, unless such a power is specifically reserved. This principle in Milligan Vs. Mitchel,[300]Atttorney General Vs. Anderson[301] and Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun[302] is referred to in Prasanna Venkitesa Rao Vs. Srinivasa Rao.[303] Court cannot sanction any drastic amendment which would destroy the basic purpose for which the trust was created.It is held that no deviation from the object of the trust would be allowed; and the properties would not be allowed to be sold to the members of their community for whose benefit the trust is created and the properties were acquired.[304]

65. Duty of Courts as Ultimate Protector of All Charities

Court has Jurisdiction to Enforce Trusts

In AA Gopalakrishnan Vs. Cochin Devaswom Board[305] while adverting to the need for protecting the properties of deities, temples and Devaswom Boards, our Apex Court observed that it isalso the duty of Courts to protect and safeguard the properties of religious and charitable institutions from wrongful claims or misappropriation.[306]In Doongarsee Shyamji Vs. Tribhuvan Das[307] it was pointed out that where the Shebait of a temple has done something which is obviously adverse to the interest of the institution the court would allow a disinterested third party to file a suit, provided such a suit is filed in the interest of the foundation or the deity, as the case may be.[308]

As in the case of English Law, Indian Law also accepts court as the ultimate protector of all charities.[309] It is the guardian of the public charitable trust/institution.[310] Court has jurisdiction to enforce trusts.[311]In Subramannaiya Vs. Abbinava[312]  it was observed by the Privy Council (Wadsworth, J.) that it was the duty of the court to protect the trust property from misappropriation and diversion from the objects to which it was dedicated. It was observed: 

  • “It is the duty of the court to protect the trust property from misappropriation and diversion from the objects to which it was dedicated. When the trust property is without a legal guardian, owing to any defects in the machinery for the appointment of a trustee or owning to unwillingness of the legal trustee to act, it would be a monstrous thing if any honest person recognised as being in charge of the institution and actually controlling its affairs in the interest of the trust should not be entitled, in the absence of any one with a better title, to take these actions which are necessary to safeguard the interests of the trust”.

66. Non-convening of the Meetings and Acquiescence

Non-convening of Annual General Meetings is a serious allegation against the office-bearers of a Society.  But in proper cases courts can invoke doctrine of acquiescence.

In TJ Thomas Vs. CS Joseph[313] reliefs were claimed under the provisions of the Companies Act read with 3 and 4 of the Kerala Non-Trading Companies Act, 1961 alleging, inter alia, that the respondents were not convening the Annual General Meetings regularly. The prayers were rejected because it had come out in evidence that the non-convening of the meetings was due to the inaction on the part of petitioners; that the petitioners, if they were really interested in the affairs of the Sangam, should have taken appropriate steps at the appropriate time and seen that the Annual General Meetings were convened without fail; and that the conduct of the petitioners in this regard would show that they had without demur, acquiesced in the various activities of the respondents.

67. Fiduciary Relationship Will Not be Allowed to be Varied

Though, generally, the Indian Trusts Act applies to private trusts, the principles in Sec. 46 and 47 of the Indian Trusts Act (a trustee cannot renounce or delegate duties) are applied to various affairs of fiduciary relationship,[314] by our Courts, as they contain the common law principles of the universal rules of equity, justice and good conscience upheld by the English judges.

In State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. BansiDhar[315]  it is held by VR Krishna Iyer J. as under:

  •  “But while these provisions (of Indian Trusts Act)  proprio vigore do not apply, certainly there is a common area of legal principles which covers all trusts, private and public, and merely because they find a place in the Trusts Act, they cannot become ‘untouchable’ where Public Trusts are involved. Case must certainly be exercised not to import by analogy what is not germane to the general law of trusts, but we need have no inhibitions in administering the law by invoking the universal rules of equity and good conscience upheld by the English Judges, though also sanctified by the statute relating to private trusts. The Courts below have drawn inspiration from Section 83 of the Trusts Act and we are not inclined to find fault with them on that score because the provision merely reflects a rule of good conscience and of general application.”[316]

Sec. 46 and 47 of the Indian Trusts Act read:

  • S. 46: A trustee who has accepted the trust cannot afterwards renounce it except (a) with the permission of a principal Civil Court of Original Jurisdiction, or (b) if the beneficiary is competent to contract, with his consent, or (c) by virtue of a special power in the instrument of trust.
  • S. 47: A trustee cannot delegate his office or any of his duties either to a co-trustee or to a stranger, unless (a) the instrument of trust so provides, or (b) the delegation is in the regular course of business or (c) the delegation is necessary, or (d) the beneficiary, being competent to contract, consents to the delegation.

Sec. 46 and 47 of the Indian Trusts Act make it clear: a fiduciary relationship and duties[317] attached thereto should not be allowed  to  be  unilaterally  terminated  or  varied,  as  it would  be against the interests of society in general.These principles would apply with equal force to servants and, in fact, to anybody who has entered on another’s property in a fiduciary capacity [318]

68. Governing Body Not to Benefit

It is the duty of the trustee to administer the trust solely in the interest of the beneficiaries. He is not permitted to place himself in a position where it would be for his own benefit or to violate his duty to the beneficiaries.[319] Trustee has to act gratuitously unless sanctioned in the trust deed.[320]Section 32 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 which provides that the trustee is entitled to get reimbursement out of the trust property all expenses properly incurred in relation to the execution of the trust property and for preservation of the trust property is a principle of the English law of Trusts which has been incorporated in the Indian Trusts Act. Such principles are applied to public trusts also. 

The same is the position in case of governing body members of a society also.[321]

69. S. 88, Trusts Act Encompass Societies and Clubs Also

Section 88 of the Indian Trusts Act expressly refers to director of a company ‘or other person’. It reads as under:

  •  “88. Where a trustee, executor, partner, agent, director of a company, legal adviser, or other person bound in a fiduciary character to protect the interests of another person, avails himself of his character, and gains for himself any pecuniary advantage or,
  • where any person so bound enters into dealings under circumstances in which his own interests are, or may be, adverse to those of such other person, and thereby gains for himself a pecuniary advantage, he must hold for the benefit of such other person the advantage so gained.”

It is legitimate to comprehend that the words ‘or other person’ in Sec. 88 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 encompass the governing bodies of societies and clubs also.

70. Liability of So: No Personal Liability on Members & Gov. Body

Someswara Swamy Vari Devastanam Vs. Dasam Suryanarayana[322] it is held as under:

  • “The wording of the above Section (Sec. 8) is clearly indicating that whenever there is a decree against the society, the members of the society cannot be made liable for the payment of debt due from the society and the decree cannot be enforced against the members of the society in their individual capacity.
  • In Swami Satchitanand Vs. The 2nd Addl. Income-tax Officer, Kozhikode, AIR 1964 Kerala 118, the Kerala High Court held that a society registered under Societies Registration Act is a legal entity. It is capable of suing and being sued as such. A tax imposed on a Society, though it has been styled as an ‘Association of persons’ is still a tax on the society and not on its members. It is not possible, therefore, to say that the tax imposed on a Society is a tax imposed on the members of the Society. In K. C. Thomas Vs. R. L. Gadeock, AIR 1970 Patna 163, a division bench of Patna High Court while considering the scope of Section 8 of the Societies Registration Act, held that a registered Society can sue and be sued in its own name, can own its own property and can employ its own servants. Any person agreeing to serve under the Society or in any of its institutions must be deemed to hold the post under the Society. A society registered under the Act may not be a body corporate, quite distinct from its members.
  • In Chanumolu Anil Kumar Vs. Vasu Cotton and Ginning Mills, 1989 (2) APLJ 196. It is laid down that in the suit against a Company and is Directors, which is decreed, in the absence of any fraud or other allegations, the decree cannot be executed against the Directors. It is open to the executing Court to construe the decree as a decree against the Company alone and not against the Directors.
  • In the case covered by the above decision, the Directors were also shown as defendants describing them in their capacities in their Companies and the decree directs the defendants to pay the decree amount. The Court held that such a decree cannot be considered as a personal decree and a decree cannot be passed against the Directors and such decree would be a nullity. In Devuri Appala Raju Vs. KolliRamayamma, 1983 (1) ALT 420, a Single Bench of this Court held that a decree passed against the personal property of the legal representatives in violation of Section 52 CPC is a nullity and therefore in executable.
  • Section 8 of the Act which imposes a bar for imposing liability on the members of the society and the decree passed against the members of the society in their individual capacity is a nullity. The decree passed against the office bearers of the society cannot be up held as the decree against them in their personal capacity.”

Arrears of sales tax due from a society registered under the Societies Registration Act could not be recovered personally from an ex-president of the society.[323] Merely because of a person having been its president for some time will not be liable for payment of the dues of a Co-Operative Society.[324]

A company has a legal personality of its own, distinct from its members, and, therefore, in the absence of a contract, or a statutory provision, making the director personally liable for the dues of the company, he cannot be proceeded against for realisation of those dues.[325]

 In K. Paramasivam Pillai Vs. Board of Revenue,[326] the Madras High Court held that sales tax assessed under the Madras General Sales Tax Act, 1959, on a canteen attached to a recreation club of members of the gazetted and non-gazetted staff of the Tirunelveli Collectorate was not realisable personally from the honorary secretary of the canteen, since the liability was not personal to him.

In Nalin Behari Roy Vs. Bisweswar Bhattacharjya[327] it is observed that for the mere fact that the society was not a registered one, it would not entitle a person to recover the loans from the office bearer, personally.

Liability of Directors and Trustees on Accout of Ultra Vires Acts

In re: Bennett (1892),[328] the Articles of Association of the company provided that no dividend or bonus should be payable except out of profits. No profits were made by the company; but the directors paid interest to the shareholders out of the capital of the company. The Court of Appeal, affirming the judgment of the court of the first instance, held that the payment of interest out of the capital was ultra vires. Lindley, L.J. observed:

  • “As soon as the conclusion is arrived at that the company’s money has been applied by the directors for purposes which the company cannot sanction, it follows that the directors are liable to replace the money, however honestly they may have acted.”[329]

71. Liability of Director Board Members u/s 138, N.I. Act

See Chapter: Management of Societies and Clubs.

72. Granting Temporary Injunction

Stultifying the functioning of the associations and its governing body, normally courts will not grant temporary injunctions. The courts will always consider the balance of convenience in a pragmatic way and probe whether granting temporary injunction prejudicial and detrimental to the interests of the institution.[330]

73. Effect of Failure to File Documents U/S 4 or of Becoming Defunct

Non-renewal does not infer, society is defunct

Non-renewal of the registration of a society may be a bar to avail the benefits offered to registered societies, but the same by itself will not lead the inference that the society is not in existence.[331] In the event of becoming a society defunct, or failure to file documents under Sec. 4 of the So. Regn. Act, there is no bar to revive its activities and to conduct the election of the office bearers. The courts cannot set aside such elections on the sole ground that certain statutory provisions have not been complied with by it.[332]

74. Court’s Jurisdiction in Expulsion of a Member from a Political Party

See Chapter: Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

75. Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

See Chapter: Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

76. No Civil Suit Where Statutory Authorities Have Jurisdiction

The dismissal of the suit was upheld by our Apex Court in Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai[333] holding that the civil court has no jurisdiction where bar is imposed in relation to a matter whereover the statutory authorities (under BPT Act) have the requisite jurisdiction. It is observed that in such a case, if only a question arises which is outside the purview of the Act or in relation to a matter unconnected with the administration or possession of the trust property, the Civil Court may have jurisdiction. It is also pointed out in this decision that a society created under a statute must conform to its provisions and the courts would interfere in case of its violation.[334]

77. Plea of Malafide or Fraud Requires Strict Proof

The Supreme Court in JN Chaudhary Vs. State of Hariyana, [335]reiterated the law and held that where a collective decision was taken by majority of the General Body of a Co-operative Society, then the same could not be ignored and bypassed at the instance of handful of members. When the decision was taken by majority in terms of the Rule, it could not be overruled by minority even on the ground of malafide or fraud unless it was established through strict proof of evidence. It was further observed that it was a well known dictum that mala fide was always easy to allege but difficult to prove as the same cannot be held as proved relying on assumption, speculation and suspicion.

With respect to ‘malafides’ the Supreme Court has laid down as follows in Ratnagiri Gas and Power Vs. RDS Projects[336]:

  •  “The law casts a heavy burden on the person alleging malafides to prove the same on the basis of facts that are either admitted or satisfactorily established and/or logical inferences deductible from the same. This is particularly so when the petitioner alleges malice in fact in which event it is obligatory for the person making any such allegation to furnish particulars that would prove malafides on the part of the decision maker. Vague and general allegations unsupported by the requisite particulars do not provide a sound basis for the Court to conduct an inquiry into their veracity. As and when allegations of malafides are made, the persons against whom the same are levelled need to be impleaded as parties to the proceedings to enable them to answer the charge. In absence of the person concerned as a party in his/her individual capacity it will neither be fair nor proper to record a finding that malice in fact had vitiated the action taken by the authority concerned. A judicial pronouncement declaring an action to be malafide is a serious indictment of the person concerned that can lead to adverse civil consequences against him. Courts have, therefore, to be slow in drawing conclusions when it comes to holding allegations of malafides to be proved and only in cases where based on the material placed before the Court or facts that are admitted leading to inevitable inferences supporting the charge of mala fides that the Court should record a finding in the process ensuring that while it does so, it also bars the person who was likely to be affected by such a finding. …… Between `malice in fact’ and `malice in law’ there is a broad distinction which is not peculiar to any system of jurisprudence. The person who inflicts a wrong or in injury upon any person in contravention of the law is not allowed to say that he did so with an innocent mind. He is taken to know the flaw and can only act within the law. He may, therefore, be guilty of `malice in law’, although, so far as the state of his mind was concerned he acted ignorantly, and in that sense innocently. `Malice in fact’ is a different thing. It means an actual malicious intention on the part of the person who has done the wrongful act.
  • …… It is an act which is taken with an oblique or indirect object. It is an act done wrongfully and wilfully without reasonable or probable cause, and not necessarily an act done from ill feeling and spite. Mala fide exercise of power does not imply any moral turpitude. It means exercise of statutory power for “purposes foreign to those for which it is in law intended. “ It means conscious violation of the law to the prejudice of another, a depraved inclination on the part of the authority to disregard the rights of others, where intent is manifested by its injurious acts. Passing an order for unauthorised purpose constitutes malice in law. (See: Addl. Distt. Magistrate, Jabalpur Vs. Shivkant Shukla, AIR 1976 SC 1207 : Union of India thr. Govt. of Pandicherry Vs. V. Ramakrishnan, (2005) 8 SCC 394 :(AIR 2005 SC 4295; 2005 AIR SCW 5147); and Kalabharati Advertising Vs. Hemant Vimalnath Narichania, AIR 2010 SC 3745).”

78. Tribunals are not Bound by Technical Rules

Domestic tribunals are not bound by technical rules of evidence and procedure as are applicable to Courts means not only on direct evidence but also on probabilities and circumstantial evidence. There is no scope for importing the principles of criminal trial while considering the probative value of probabilities and circumstantial evidence by a domestic tribunal.The enquiry held by domestic tribunals must be fair and the delinquent must be given adequate opportunity to defend themselves and holding such enquiries, the tribunal must follow the rules of natural justice. If not supported by any evidence, the Court may be justified to quash the order or open to the High Court to interfere with the order of the quasi judicial authority. [337] A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure.[338]

79. Complaint only if personally affected:

Courts will entertain a complaint on election-matter, and interfere, only if the person who complaints is personally affected.[339] He should have been a candidate or acquired the right to vote.

Locus Standi of an Individual Member to Challenge Election

In Tej Bahadur vs Shri Narendra Modi, AIR 2021 SC 217,  the Apex Court considered the question of the validity of the appellant’s nomination since that had a direct bearing on the question whether he had a right to question the election. After finding that the appellant was not a duly nominated candidate, it is held as under:

  • “We find that the averments in the petition do not disclose that the appellant has a cause of action which invest him with right to sue. It is settled that where a person has no interest at all, or no sufficient interest to support a legal claim or action he will have no locus standi to sue. The entitlement to sue or locus standi is an integral part of cause of action. In T. Arivandandam v. T.V. Satyapal (1977) 4 SCC 467, V.R. Krishna Iyer J., speaking for this Court held that if on a meaningful – not formal – reading of the plaint it is manifestly vexatious, and meritless, in the sense of not disclosing a clear right to sue, it should be nipped in the bud at the first hearing.”

A member of a Society does not have the right to challenge Election unless his rights are personally affected by the impugned action. An individual member cannot challenge an order finalising a voter list. He should have been a candidate or acquired the right to vote. (Ram Pal Singh Vs. State of U P: LAWS (ALL)-2015-5-99.   Referred to: Ram Pyare Lal Vs. State of U.P. 2015-3 ADJ 577;  Also See: Vimla Devi Vs. Deputy Director of Education, 1997-3 ESC 1807;  2010 (1) ADJ 262)

The Apex Court held in Bar Council of Delhi Vs. Surjeet Singh, AIR 1980 SC 1612:

  • A voter could challenge the election.
  • Merely because he took part in the election by standing as a candidate or by exercising his right of franchise, he cannot be estopped from challenging the whole election when the election was glaringly illegal and void based on the obnoxious proviso. There is no question of approbation and reprobation at the same time in such a case.
  • A voter could come to the High Court even earlier before the election was held. But merely because he came to challenge the election after it was held it cannot be said that he was guilty of any laches and must be non-suited only on that account.

In Committee of Management, Sri Kachcha Baba Inter College, Varanasi Vs. Regional Committee, Pancham Mandal (2007-7 ADJ 414; 2007-3 All LR 14; MANU/UP/2165/2007)  it was held that a group of members of the General Body (and not by a rival committee of management) had no locus standi to challenge the result of the elections (Referred to in Satya Narain Tripathi Vs. State of U P: 2008 – 2 ADJ 222, 2008-71 ALLLR 698).

There were divergent views, in UP, on the right of an individual member to file a writ petition. In certain cases (Dr. P.P. Rastogi v. Meerut University, Meerut, 1997-1 UPLBEC 415; Smt. Vimla Devi v. The Deputy Director of Education, Agra Region, Agra, 1997-3 ESC 1807; Bhagwan Kaushik v. State of U.P., 2006-2 UPLBEC 1372; Amanullah Khan v. State of U.P. , 2009-75 All LR 29) it was held that an individual member had no right to file the writ petition. The other set of decisions (Kamla Kant Agrawal v. State of U.P., 2008-7 ADJ 601; Committee of Management, Janta Inter College, Sultanpur, District Haridwar v. Joint Director of Education, I Region, Meerut, 1999-1 UPLBEC 170; Ratan Kumar Solanki v. State of U.P., 2010-1 ADJ 262) observed that the writ petition could be maintained, subject to the existence of efficacious alternative remedy, when there was a breach of right of a person affecting his right to form an association, which was a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution, or there was a breach of the Statute. Both the divergent views had been considered by a Division Bench in Committee of Management, Arya Kanya Pathshala Inter College, Bulandshahar v. State of U.P. (2011-2 ADJ 65). The Division Bench observed as under:

  •  “There is no such proposition that an individual member cannot, in no circumstance, challenge the election of the Committee of Management….. It is clear that the question as to whether an individual member has locus to challenge the election of Committee of Management depends on facts of each case…..” (See: Laxman Singh Vs. State of UP, ADJ 2014-9 242, AWC 2014-5 4382, LBESR 2014-3 415)

80. Manner of Holding the Election, Within Powers of the Associations:

The associations and clubs are within their powers to decide their Bye laws and Rules, under which they may have different kinds of the posts prescribing different kinds of election process, and the manner of holding the election.[340]

81. General Law of Contracts and Companies Act

Bye laws bind its members as a contract.[341] In TAK Mohideen Pichai Taraganar Vs. Tinnevelly Mills Co.[342] it was held that the general right of suit cannot be considered to have been taken away merely because of some ‘regulatory’ provisions.

 Relying on this decision, it is held in Avanthi Explosives P. Ltd. Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge, Tirupathi[343] that the general law of contracts is the basis of the rights of parties and that the Companies Act merely ‘regulates’ these rights and does not create any new right or remedy. Unless there is an exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil court, by words express or implied, the suit is maintainable, and no such exclusion has been held existing by the courts in respect of individual rights.

82. Validity of Election: Jurisdiction with Courts; Not with Registrar.

Though Section 36(1) of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act, 1975 empowers the Registrar, either of his own motion or on the Application of a majority of the members of the committee of management or on the Application, of not less than one third of the members of the Society to hold an enquiry into the Constitution, working and financial condition of a registered Society, it is held in S. Thamil Arasan President of Chennai Vyasarpadi Nadar Nagar Progressive Association Chennai Vs. R. Narayanan[344] that the Registrar is not competent to enquire into the validity of an election, while performing a mere ministerial function; the jurisdiction is vested with the Courts.

83. If Violation of Bye laws Court Sets Right the Illegalities

In V. Arulkumar Vs. Tamil Nadu Government Nurses Association[345] it is held that the court has to necessarily see as to whether the conduct of elections was in accordance with the Bye laws of the Association. If the same was in total violation of the Bye laws of the Association the court was certainly empowered to set right the illegalities and put the election process in motion to be performed in accordance with the Bye laws. Therefore it was held that the suit was maintainable.

84. In Proper Cases Courts Order Election and Appoint Receivers

As shown above, in K.P. Muhammed Vs. M. Abdurahiman[346], both sides did not want an election to be conducted; and both were aiming at the administration or control of the Society, and for that purpose, they were not so eager or anxious to have an election conducted in the manner suggested by the Court. The Kerala High Court, in order to resolve the stalemate, ordered an election and appointed Receivers to manage its affairs.

85. Ordinarily, Courts will not Interfere with Election Process

In Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik, (2011) 13 SCC 774,  our Apex Court held:

“Since 1952 this Court has authoritatively laid down that once election process has started the courts should not ordinarily interferewith the said process by way of granting injunction.”

In Jagan Nath Vs. Jaswant Singh, (1954) SCR 892 (Also See: Jayanta Samal Vs. Kulamani Behera: 2004 13 SCC 552), it is observed: 

“… It is also well settled that it is a sound principle of natural justice that the success of a candidate who has won at an election should not be lightly interfered with and any petition seeking such interference must strictly conform to the requirements of the law.”

Remedies with respect to the disputes as to elections will have to be sought for after elections are over. This time-honoured principle is emphasised in the following decisions also.

  • Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath, AIR  2016 SC 1094.
  • N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer, AIR 1952 SC 64
  • Nanhoo Mal and Others Vs. Hira Mal, (1976) 3 SCC 211
  • Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Chief Election Commr., AIR 1978 SC 851.
  • Boddula Krishnaiah Vs. State Elec. Commissioner, A.P., AIR 1996 SC 1595
  • Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami Vs. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2001 SC 3982; Followed in Ahmednagar Zilla SDV P Sangh Vs. State of Maharashtra, (2004) 1 SCC 133.   
  • Anugrah Narain Singh Vs. State of U.P., (1996) 6 SCC 303
  • Election Commissioner of India Vs. Ashok Kumar, AIR 2000 SC 2977
  • Abdulla Khan Vs. State of Orissa, 2008 (Supp.) O.L.R. 251
  • Abdul Latheef C.K. Vs. K.M. Haneefa, 2015-3 Ker LT 299.
  • Medical Council of India Vs. Regar/Returning Officer, TN, AIR 2014 Mad 34
  • Avtar Singh Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurudwara Mgmnt. Comtee, (2006) 8 SCC 487. 
  • C. Subrahmanyam Vs. K. Ramanjaneyullu, (1998) 8 SCC 703.
  • Ashok Kumar Jain Vs. Neetu Kathoria, (2004) 12 SCC 73 (Also see: Harcharan Singh Vs. Mohinder Singh: AIR 1968  SC 1500; Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. The Chief Election Commissioner: AIR 1978  SC 851; Jyoti Basu Vs. Debi Ghosal: AIR  1982  SC  983; Harikrishna Lal Vs. Bau Lal Marandi: 2003-8 SCC 613; Shyamdeo Pd. Singh Vs. Naval Kishore Yadav: 2000-8 SCC 46; Election Commission of India Vs. Ashok Kumar : AIR 2000 SC 2977).
  • K.K. Shrivastava Vs. Bhupendra Kumar Jain, AIR 1977 SC 1703.

It is observed in Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath (AIR  2016 SC 1094: Referred: Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer: AIR 1952 SC 64;  Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami Vs. State of Maharashtra: 2001 (8) SCC 509; Nanhoo Mal and others Vs. Hira Mal: 1976 (3) SCC 211) while considering election to Dental Council of India under Section 3 (a) of the Dentists Act, 1948:

“So far as the issue with regard to eligibility of Respondent no.1 for contesting the election is concerned, though prima facie it appears that Respondent No.1 could contest the election, we do not propose to go into the said issue because, in our opinion, as per the settled law, the High Court should not have interfered with the election after the process of election had commenced. The judgments referred to herein above clearly show the settled position of law to the effect that whenever the process of election starts, normally courts should not interfere with the process of election for the simple reason that if the process of election is interfered with by the courts, possibly no election would be completed without court ‘s order. Very often, for frivolous reasons candidates or others approach the courts and by virtue of interim orders passed by courts, the election is delayed or cancelled and in such a case the basic purpose of having election and getting an elected body to run the administration is frustrated. For the aforestated reasons, this Court has taken a view that all disputes with regard to election should be dealt with only after completion of the election.”

In K.K. Shrivastava Vs. Bhupendra Kumar Jain, AIR 1977 SC 1703, with respect to election to the Bar Council of Madhya Pradesh under the Advocates Act our Apex Court held:

“Where there is an appropriate or equally efficacious remedy the Court should keep its hands off. This is more particularly so where the dispute relates to an election. Still more so where there is a statutorily prescribed remedy which almost reads in mandatory terms.” See also: Abdul Latheef C.K. Vs. K.M. Haneefa:  2015-3 Ker LT 299.

86. Standard of Proof in Election Matters:

The election of a returned candidate will not be set aside unless there are cogent and convincing reasons (Kalyan Kumar Gogoi Vs. Ashutosh Agnihotri: AIR 2011 SC 760). In election matters the standard of proof is high and burden is on the election petitioner. The court proceedings on election disputes are akin to criminal proceedings (Md. Majid Hussain Vs. Md. Aqueel, AIR 2015 AP 21, that See also: Tanaji Ramchandra Nimhan Vs. Swati Vinayak Nimhan: AIR  2006 SC 1218). It is held in Gajanan Krishnaji Barat Vs. Dattaji Raghobaji Meghe, 1995-5 SCC 347, that in an election petition, based on allegations of commission of corrupt practice, the standard of proof required is, generally speaking, that in a criminal trial (Also see: Md. Majid Hussain Vs. Md Aqueel, AIR 2015 AP 21, Tanaji Ramchandra Nimhan Vs. Swati Vinayak Nimhan: AIR  2006 SC 1218). The onus lies heavily on the petitioner to establish the charge of corrupt practice and in case of doubt the benefit goes to the returned candidate.

It is pointed out in Seth Gulabchand v. Seth Kudilal, [1966]3 SCR 623 (Referred to in Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879), that the rules applicable to circumstantial evidence in criminal cases would not apply to civil cases. The ordinary rules governing civil cases of balance of probabilities will continue to apply. Mere preponderance of probabilities or presumptions cannot be the basis to challenge an election.

Courts Sparingly Exercise Jurisdiction – Must be cogent and compelling grounds.

The decision taken by the concerned authority during the course of election is not open to judicial review except on the ground of mala fide or arbitrary exercise of power (Manish Kansal Vs. State of U P: LAWS(ALL)-2015-5-194). Courts will not interfere with discharging duties by the elected office bearers of an organisation, without cogent and compelling grounds. A simple breach of any Rule will not give rise to a cause of action for any member unless there is manifest illegality, or act or omission that goes to the root of the matter.  In other words, the alleged violation should be so grave that it could not be condoned by the general body (See: A. S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: A. I. R. 1941 Bom. 312; Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598;   Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay, AIR 1946 Bom 516 ; NagappaVs. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831).


[1]      MP Electricity Board, Jabalpur Vs. M/s. Vijaya Timber: AIR 1997 SC 2364.

[2]      Capt. D.K. Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018 AP 48; Arunachal Pradesh Congs. Committee Vs. KalikhoPul: AIR 2015 Gauhati 179.

[3]      TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144

[4]      Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College Vs. State of Delhi: AIR 1962 SC 458; Siddheshwar Sahkari Sakhar Karkhana Vs. Commr. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716; Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301; Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973. Zoroastrian Co-op. Hsing. Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005 SC 2306; State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378; BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[5]      C Chikka Venkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa: 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296; Narayan Krishnaji Vs. Anjuman E Islamia: AIR 1952 Kar 14: Thenappa Chattier Vs. Kuruppan Chhietier: AIR 1968 SC 915. Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastotate: AIR 2007 SC 1337

[6]      A P Dairy Development Corpn. Vs. B Narasimha Reddy: AIR 2011 SC 3298; DharamDuttVs. Union of India: AIR 2004 SC 1295.

[7]      AIR 1940 Mad 902.

[8]    (2011) 13 SCC 774

[9]      Madras Gymkhana Club Vs. KC Sukumar: 2010-1 CTC 199.

[10]    A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu Vs. S. Chellappan: 2000 (7) SCC 695: AIR 2000 SC 3032; Superintending Engineer Periyar Electricity Distribution Circle Erode Vs. Pavathal: 2002-2 CTC 544; 2002-1 Mad LJ 515. G. Bala Subrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264; AP Arya Vysya Mahasabha  Vs. Mutyapu Sudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227; Umesh Shivappa Ambi Vs. Angadi Shekara Basappa: (1998) 4 SCC 529: AIR 1999 SC 1566; Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487; Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh: AIR  2006 SC 52; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774; NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[11]    Ujjal TalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224. Rashmi Bala Saxena Vs. Jiwaji University Gwalior: AIR  1989 MP 181

[12]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774

[13]    G. Bala Subrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264; AP Arya Vysya Mahasabha  Vs. Mutyapu Sudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227.

[14]    V.VirupakshappaVsDangadiHanumanthappa: AIR 1978  Kar 131

[15]    AIR 1963 SC 1144.             

[16]    See also: Capt. DK Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018 AP 48; M. Sekar Vs. The Tamil Nadu State Council of the CPI: 2015-7 MLJ 689.

[17]    Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Asson. of Bihar: AIR  2015 SC 3194;         D. Dwarakanantha Reddy Vs. Chaitnya Bharathi Educational Society : AIR 2007 SC 1794

[18]   SM Zaheer Alam Teachers Training College Vs. State of Bihar: AIR  2015 Pat 124

[19]   2009-5 BCR 776

[20]   See Notes under: ‘Special Forum: Limited Jurisdiction’

[21]    Maharashtra State Board of S and H Secondary Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879;         Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[22]    Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaihandra: AIR 1959 All 598; Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay; AIR 1946 Bom 516 ; Nagappa Vs. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831.

[23]    Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and H S Edn Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879, (agreed with ratio in Ghazanfar Rashid Vs. Board, H.S. & I. Edn., U.P: AIR 1970 All 209)

[24]    Kalyan Kumar Gogoi Vs. AshutoshAgnihotri:AIR 2011 SC 760. Referred to in:Ashok Vs. Rajendra Bhausaheb Mulak: 2012-12 SCC 27;  Ravinder Kumar Rawal Vs. V.K. Sood: ILR 2011-2  P&H 704.See also: Jagan NathVs. Jaswant Singh (1954) SCR 892. Jayanta Samal Vs. Kulamani Behera: 2004-13 SCC 552

[25]    State of West Bengal Vs. A.K. Shaw: AIR 1990 SC 2205: Relied on in Dharamraj Vs. Chhitan: 2006 12 SCC 349

[26]    Sterling Computers Limited Vs. M/s. M & N Publications: [(1993) 1 SCC 445]; Administrative Law, Prof. Wade Referred to. Union of India Vs. SB Vohra: AIR 2004 SC 1402 Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragoha: AIR 1980 SC 1524.

[27]    Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragohain: AIR 1980 SC 1524; Syed Yakoob Vs. K.S. Radhakrishnan 1964 (5) SCR 64

[28]    State of West Bengal Vs. A.K. Shaw :AIR 1990 SC 2205

[29]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[30]    Transport Commissioner, Madras v. A. Radhakrishna Moorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332.

[31]    Transport Commissioner, Madras Vs. A. Radhakrishna Moorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332.

[32]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144; Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley AIR 1969 Cal 224; All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association, 1994 55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, 2013-201 DLT 433. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879

[33]    ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598; Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay: AIR 1946 Bom 516 ; Nagappa Vs. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831. N Thippanna Vs. State of Karnataka: 1982-2 Kant LJ 313; Joseph Vs. Kothamangalam Co-op. M. Society Ltd: 1994 (1) Ker LT 828;Bar Council of Delhi Vs. Surjeeth Singh: AIR 1980 SC 1612; Relied on in N Thippanna Vs. State of Karnataka:1982-2 Kant LJ 313; Devassy Vs. Asst. Registrar of Cooperative Societies: ILR 1976 (1) Ker. 95; Gopalan Vs. Joint Registrar of Cooperative Societies 1985 Ker LT 446.

[34]    Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India [(2006) 2 SCC 1; See also: UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224.  All Saints High School Hyderabad Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh: AIR  1980 SC 1042; See as to labour dispute: Management of Travancore Knitting Co Tiruppur Coimbatore Vs. K Muthuswamy: AIR  1962 Mad 398; Regional Manager, UPSRTC., Etawah Vs. HotiLal AIR 2003 SC 1462; Damoh Panna Sagar Rural Regional Bank Vs. Munna Lal Jain AIR 2005 SC 584.

[35]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[36]    Transport Commissioner, Madras v. A. Radhakrishna Moorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332.

[37]    AS Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312

[38]    Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragohain AIR 1980 SC 1524

[39]    Miller Vs. Minister of Pensions: [1947] All E L R 372 (Denning J.) Referred to in Maharashtra State Board Secondary and H S Edn Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879 . Also see: Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743

[40]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[41]    State of West Bengal Vs. A.K. Shaw: AIR 1990 SC 2205

[42]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[43]    K.P. Muhammed Vs. M. Abdurahiman:  LAWS (KER)-2013-3-137

[44]    V. Arulkumar Vs. Tamil Nadu Government Nurses Association: 2015-5 CTC 17

[45]    Rotopacking Materials Industry Vs. Ravider Kumar Chopra: 2003(6) BCR 6; Sm. Parul Bala Roy Vs. Srinibash Chowmal: AIR 1952 Cal 364; Arun Kumar MitraSekh Sajahan Vs. Gorachand Saheb Sekh: AIR 2005 Cal 178.

[46]    AIR 1956 SC 213

[47]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144. Kalyan Kumar Dutta Gupta Vs. B.M. Verma: AIR 1995 Cal. 140 (DB); Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India: ILR 2009-19 Dlh 216; Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: AIR 2005 SC 4074;  Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439; Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam:1998 (1) GLR 38; UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224. Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragohain: AIR 1980 SC 1524.

[48]    Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay AIR 1946 Bom 516, ShridharMisra Vs. JaichandraVidyalankar AIR 1959 All 598 ; NagappaChettiar Vs. The Madras Race Club AIR 1951 Mad 831; Sardar Kanwaldeep Singh Vs. AR Firms, Societies and Chits, Faizabad: AIR 1994 All 161; S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce:  AIR 1969 Mad 42; AS Krishnan Vs.M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312. Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam [1998 (1) GLR 38]; Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. AR Co-operative Societies: AIR 1962 All 439.

[49]    Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs.A R Co-op Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[50]    Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam:1998 (1) GLR 38. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879

[51]    Kalyan Kumar Dutta Gupta Vs. B.M. Verma: AIR 1995 Cal. 140 (DB). Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India: ILR 2009-19 Dlh 216.

[52]    Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Hous. Society Vs. PO, Delhi Co-op. Tribunal: AIR 1998 SC 2410.         

[53]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144; UjjalTalukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley AIR 1969 Cal 224; All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association, 1994 55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, 2013-201 DLT 433. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879

[54]    NK Mohapatra Vs. State: AIR  1994Ori 301.

[55]    CDS Financial Services (Mauritius) Ltd. Vs. BPL Communication: (2004) 121 Com Cas 374;  Marikar Motors Vs. M.I. Ravikumar : [1982] 52 Com Cas 362 (Ker); Pradip Kumar Sarkar Vs. Luxmi Tea Co. Ltd. [1990] 67 Com Cas 491 (Cal.); The appeal from this decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court in Luxmi Tea Co. Ltd. Vs. Pradip Kumar Sarkar, [1990] 67 Com Cas 518 (SC); Premvati Vs Bhagwati Devi, ILR 2007-16 Dlh 1514.

[56]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144; Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Vs. Presiding Officer: AIR  1998 SC 2410; Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley AIR 1969 Cal 224; All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association, 1994-55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, 2013-201 DLT 433.

[57]    Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Ltd. Vs. Presiding Officer:  AIR 1998 SC 2410.

[58]    Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India: AIR  2006 SC 980 (Wednesbury-Principle considered).Dharamraj Vs. Chhitan: 2006 -12 SCC 349; Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677; Workmen of Firestone Tyre Rubber Co  Vs. Management,Sheikh: AIR 1973 SC 1227;

[59]    PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001

[60]    PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001

[61]    UjjalTalukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224; Dr. BK Mukherjea, J. On the Hindu Law of Religious and Charitable Trusts, Tagore Law Lectures: Page: 411.

[62]    Alty Vs. Farrell: (1896) 1 QB 638; Kruse Vs. Johnson: (1898) 2 QB 91, Scott Vs. Pilliner: (1904) 2 KB 855, Repton School Governors Vs. Repton Rural District Council: (1918) 2 KB 133; Chester Vs. Bateson: (1920) 1 KB 829; Attorney General Vs. Denhy: 1925 Ch 596: All referred to in: Municipal Board Vs. Rizwan Beg: AIR 1964 All 544.

[63]    Transport Commissioner, Madras Vs. A. RadhakrishnaMoorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332; Dharamraj Vs. Chhitan: 2006 -12 SCC 349. Workmen of Firestone Tyre Rubber Co  Vs. Management:Sheikh: AIR 1973 SC 1227

[64]    DharamrajVs.Chhitan: 2006 -12 SCC 349. Workmen of Firestone Tyre Rubber Co  Vs. Management:Sheikh: AIR 1973 SC 1227

[65]    Transport Commissioner, Madras v. A. RadhakrishnaMoorthy (1995) 1 SCC 332

[66]    Gaurav A Jain Vs. MP University of Agriculture and Technology: AIR  2004 Raj 247

[67]    UjjalTalukdarVs.Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224.

[68]    Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar: AIR 1977 P & H 21; State of Haryana Vs. Ram Chander: AIR 1976 P & H 381; Sarup Singh Vs. State of Punjab: 1990-1 LLJ 285. Board of High School and Intermediate Edn. Vs. Ghanshyam Das Gupta: AIR 1962 SC 1110 (Local Government Board Vs. Alridge, 1915 AC 120 referred to); Ramesh Kapur Vs. Punjab University, AIR 1965 Punj 120; TriambakPatiTripathi Vs. The Board of H S and Intermediate Edn.:  AIR 1973 All 1; BansiLal Gera Vs. University Of Delhi: 1968-4 DLT 353; University of Madras Vs. Nagalingam : AIR 1965 Mad 107. See as to statutory Tribunal: AnnamalaiVs. R. DoraiswamyMudaliar: 1982 ACJ 371. Sasidharan Vs. State of Kerala: 1980 KerLT  671.

[69]    AIR 1969 Cal 224

[70]    Dr. BK Mukherjea, J. On the Hindu Law of Religious and Charitable Trusts, Tagore Law Lectures: Page: 411.

[71]    AIR  2006 SC 980

[72]    Associated Provincial Picture Houses Vs. WednesburyCorpn. per Lord Greene, MR: (1948) 1 KB 223

[73]    R.  Prakasam Vs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam [1980] 50 Com Cas 611 (Ker); Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Sub. Judge Tirupathi 1987- 62 Comp. Cases 301.

[74]    (1995) 5 SCC 482; AC Muthiah Vs. Board of Control for Cricket in India: (2011) 6 SCC 617; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD  Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774.

[75]    ILR 1997 Kar 3127

[76]    Sarbjit Singh Vs. All India Fine Arts and Crafts Society: ILR 1989-2 Del 585.

[77]    Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh (2007-4 Raj LW 3547). See also: Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: (2005) 11 SCC 73: AIR 2005 SC 4074;  Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Addl. Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[78]    Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547.

[79]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144; Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiroz H. Anita, AIR 1939 Bom 35;  Lennox Arthur Patrick O Reilly  Vs. Cyril Cuthbert Gittens, AIR 1949 PC 313; JN ChaudharyVs. State of Haryana: (2014) 11 SCC 249.

[80]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del 1031; GirishMulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[81]    (2005) 5 SCC 632: AIR 2005 SC 2306. Same view in State of UP Vs. COD Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society: AIR 1997 SC 1413.

[82]    (1995) 2 SCC 754

[83]    AIR 1960 All 205

[84]    Quoted in Kanwal Krishen Dhar Vs. University of J & K: AIR  1969  J & K 108. Rabindra Nath Ghosal Vs. University of Calcutta:  AIR  1992 Cal 207; Shamsuddin Ahmed Vs. Charu Chandra Biswas: AIR 1934 Cal 621;  Delhi Cloth General Mills Co. Vs. Dharam Singh: AIR 1981 Del  157.

[85]    State of Maharashtra Vs. Karvanagar Sahakari Griha (2000) 9 SCC 295;         Zoroastrian Co -operative Housing Society Vs. District Registrar AIR  2005 SC 2306.

[86]    Manav CGHS Limited Vs. PO Delhi Cooperation Tribunal: 2002-100 DLT 428 

[87]    Manav CGHS Limited Vs. PO Delhi Cooperation Tribunal: 2002-100 DLT 428 

[88]    Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC  1144.

[89]    Rajahmundry Electric Supply Corporation Vs. A. NagesnwaraRao: AIR 1956 SC 213.

[90]    AIR 1959 All 598.

[91]    K K Jain Vs. Federation of Indian Export Organisations: AIR  2002 Del 408; GegongApang Vs. SanjoyTassar: AIR  2001 Gau 1; SardarKanwaldeep Singh Vs. Asst Registrar Firms, Faizabad: AIR 1994 All 161.

[92]    Thalapalam Service Co Operative Ltd Vs. Union of India: AIR 2010 Ker  6. Appeal Judgment: Thalappalam Ser. Co-op. Bank Vs. State of Kerala: 2013 (16) SCC 82; 2013 AIR (SC) (CIV) 2758, 2013 AIR(SCW)  5683; Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar: AIR 2015 SC 3194; Delhi Development Horticulture Employees Union Vs. Delhi Admn: AIR  1992 SC 789. ChamanLal Vs. State of Punjab: AIR  2014 SC 3640; A C   Vs. Board of Control for Cricket In India: 2011 AIR (SCW)  3770; KendriyaVidyalayaSangathan Vs. LV Subramanyeswara:  2007 AIR (SCW)  3228; Vipulbhai M. ChaudharyVs. Gujarat Coop. Milk Marketing Federation: AIR 2015 SC 1960.

[93]    Renu Vs. District & Sessions Judge, Tis Hazari : AIR 2014 SC 2175

[94]    T.M. Sampath Vs. Secretary, Ministry of Water Resources: 2015 AIR-SCW 998; Centre for Environment Law, WWF-I Vs. Union of India: AIR 2013 (SC-CIV) 2571)

[95]    Manav CGHS Limited Vs. PO Delhi Cooperation Tribunal: 2002-100 DLT 428.  

[96]    State of Maharashtra Vs. KarvanagarSahakariGriha (2000) 9 SCC 295; Zoroastrian Co -operative Housing Society Vs. District Registrar AIR  2005 SC 2306.

[97]    The Hindi SahityaSammelanVs.Jagdish Swamp, AIR 1971 SC 966.

[98]    Tata Memorial Hospital Workers Union Vs. Tata Memorial Centre: AIR 2010 SC 2943; Thalappalam Ser. Coop. Bank Ltd Vs. State of Kerala: 2013 (16) SCC 82: 2013 Sup AIR (SC) 437; 2013 AIR(SC) (CIV) 2758, 2013 AIR(SCW)  5683.  Palam Ser. Coop. Bank Ltd Vs. State of Kerala: 2013 (16) SCC 82: 2013 Sup AIR (SC) 437; 2013 AIR(SC) (CIV) 2758, 2013 AIR(SCW)  5683.

[99]    Tata Memorial Hospital Workers Union Vs. Tata Memorial Centre: AIR 2010 SC 2943

[100]   Parekh SaloneeKishorbhai Minor Vs. Gujarat Secondary Edn. Board: AIR  1998Guj 55.

[101]   Keshab Chandra Vs. Inspector of Schools AIR 1953 All 623:  Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad AIR 1954 All 636

[102]   Keshab Chandra Vs. Inspector of Schools, AIR 1953 All 623;

Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad: AIR 1954 All 636.

[103]   KowthaSuryanarayanaRao Vs. PatibandlaSubrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad 902.

[104]   Keshab Chandra Vs. Inspector of Schools, AIR 1953 All 623

Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad: AIR 1954 All 636

Gajadhar Prasad Misra Vs. VC of The University of Allahabad: AIR 1966 All 477

Board of High School and Intermediate Edn. Vs. Ghanshyam Das Gupta, AIR 1962 SC 1110

P Senthil Vs. Principal: 2003 Mad 326.

[105]   U.P. Financial Corporation VsNaini Oxygen and Acetylene Gas: (1995) 2 SCC 754

[106]   AIR  1979 SC 1247

[107]   Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743. Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. District Registrar, Co-op. Societies [(2005) 5 SCC 632] 

        State of UP Vs. COD Chheoki Co-op. Society AIR 1997  SC  1413. Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[108]   Jhajharia Bros. Vs. Sholapur S. W. Co. : AIR 1941 Cal 174;

Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India : ILR 2009-19 Dlh216;

Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439;

Rajeev SaumitraVs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 Comp Cases 359.

[109]   SooraramPratap Reddy Vs. District Collector :(2008) 9 SCC 552.

[110]   State of H.P.  Vs. Rajesh ChanderSood: 2016-9 JT 439;

Commissioner of Income Tax Kerala Vs. L W Russel: AIR 1965 SC 49.

[111]   K.P. Haridas  Vs.  K. Vijayan: LAWS(KER) 2014-11-176

[112]   Miheer H. Mafatlal Vs. Mafatlal Industries Ltd.: AIR 1997  SC 506

[113]   KowthaSuryanarayanaRao Vs. PatibandlaSubrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad  902

[114]   AIR 1995 SC 2001

[115]   Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547;

Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: (2005) 11 SCC 73: AIR 2005 SC 4074; 

Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[116]   Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547.

[117]   Lalit Kumar Modi Vs. Board of Control for Cricket:  2011 AIR-SCW 5919: 2011-10 SCC 106

[118]   Lalit Kumar Modi Vs. Board of Control for Cricket:  2011 AIR-SCW 5919: 2011-10 SCC 106

[119]   TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144

[120]   Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad: AIR 1954 All 636.

[121]   A P Dairy Development Corporation Vs. B Narasimha Reddy: AIR 2011 SC 3298;

DharamDuttVs. Union of India: (2004) 1 SCC 712: AIR 2004 SC 1295.

KowthaSuryanarayanaRao Vs. PatibandlaSubrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad 902; 

Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Vs. Dist. Regtr. Co-op. Societies:  AIR 2005 SC 2306;

State of UP Vs. COD Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society Ltd: AIR 1997  SC  1413;

Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[122]   See: Sukumarakurup Vs. District Judge: AIR  1998 Ker 332;

        Government of NCT of Delhi Vs. Union of India: 2018 8 SCC 501.

[123]   V.VirupakshappaVsDangadiHanumanthappa: AIR 1978  Kar 131

[124]   Khetan Industries Private Limited Vs. ManjuRavindrapasadKhetan: AIR  1995 Bom 43

[125]   Madras Gymkhana Club Vs. KC Sukumar: 2010-1 CTC 199.

[126]   See: A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu Vs. S. Chellappan: 2000 (7) SCC 695: AIR 2000 SC 3032; Supntdg. Engineer Periyar Electricity Vs. Pavathal: 2002-2 CTC 544; 2002-1 Mad LJ 515.

G. BalaSubrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264;

A.P. AryaVysyaMahasabha  Vs. MutyapuSudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227;

UmeshShivappaAmbi Vs. AngadiShekaraBasappa: (1998) 4 SCC 529: AIR 1999 SC 1566;

Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487;

Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774;

NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[127]   Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath AIR  2016 SC 1094

        S.T. Muthusami Vs. K. Natarajan AIR 1988 SC 616

        Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh [(2005) 8 SCC 383: AIR  2006 SC 52].

[128]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774

UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224.

RashmiBalaSaxena Vs. Jiwaji University Gwalior: AIR  1989 MP 181;

Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiroz H. Anita; AIR 1939 Bom 35;

        Lennox Arthur Patrick O’ Reilly Vs. Cyril Cuthbert Gittens: AIR 1949 PC 313.

[129]   G. BalaSubrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264;

        AP AryaVysyaMahasabha  Vs. MutyapuSudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227               

[130]   N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer : AIR 1952 SC 64

        Quoted in Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh GurudwaraManagt.Committee(2006) 8 SCC 487.        

[131]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774.

        N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer AIR 1952 SC 64;

        Quoted in Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh GurudwaraManagtComtee. (2006) 8 SCC 487

[132]   UmeshShivappaAmbi Vs. AngadiShekaraBasappa: AIR 1999 SC 1566;

Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487.

Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh: AIR  2006 SC 52; 

Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774;

NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[133]   Gujarat University Vs. N.U. Rajguru:  AIR 1988 SC 66;

See also: Sukumarakurup Vs. District Judge: AIR 1998 Ker 332;

Ram Shankar Chaudhary Vs. Rama Shankar Singh: 1978 JLJ  401; 

JyotiBasuVs. Debi Ghosal AIR 1982 SC 983.

[134]   Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. ViswanathAIR  2016 SC 1094.

Ponnuswami vs. Returning Officer: AIR 1952 SC 64; 

ShriSantSadguruJanardan Swami (MoingiriMaharaj) SahakariDugdhaUtpadakSanstha vs. State of Maharashtra 2001 (8) SCC 509 and  Nanhoo Mal Vs. Hira Mal and others 1976 (3) SCC 211 referred to.

[135]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774.

[136]   AS Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312

        See also: ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598;

        SatyavartSidhantalankarVs.AryaSamaj, Bombay: AIR 1946 Bom 516 ;

        NagappaVs.Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831.

[137]   See: AS Krishnan Vs. M Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312 T.R.

See also: ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra: AIR 1959 All 598;

TR Bhavani Shankar Joshi Vs. GordhandasJamnadas: AIR 1943 PC 66;

Parmeshwari Prasad Gupta Vs. The Union of India: AIR 1973 SC 2389;

Punjabrao Vs. VM Molkar:1974, Mh.L.J. 428;

SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay: AIR 1946 Bom 516 ;

Nagappa Vs. Madras Race Club: AIR 1951 Mad 831.

ShamraoMadhavraoBodhankar Vs. Suresh ShamraoBodhankar: 1986-2 BCR 650.

            TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria: AIR 1963 SC 1144

        Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547

[138]   See: Claude Lila ParulekarVs. Sakal Papers: AIR 2005 SC 4074.

[139]   A.S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312.

[140]   AIR1962 All 439: Shackleton on “Meetings, Law and Practice” quoted.

[141]   AIR 1966 SC 330

[142]   ILR 2007 (1) Ker 10

[143]   Kalyan Kumar Gogoi Vs. AshutoshAgnihotri (AIR 2011 SC 760) Followed in Ravinder Kumar Rawal Vs. V.K. Sood: ILR 2011-2  P&H 704.

[144]   Saheed Sporting Club Vs. Kalyan Ray Choudhury : 2008 CLT Supp 338. AIR 1963 All 518 referred to.

[145] AIR 1962 All 610

[146]   UP State Brassware Corporation Ltd. Vs. UdaiNarainPandey: AIR 2006 SC 586

[147]   Manugobinda Vs. BrajabanduMisra – AIR 1986 Orissa 281

[148]   Lavu Sri Krishna Rao Vs. Dr. MoturiNagendraRao: AIR 2007 A P 25

[149]   Rameshwar Vs. Jot Ram:  AIR 1976 SC 49

[150]   PasupuletiVenkateswarlu Vs. The Motor & General Traders:  AIR 1975 SC 1409.

[151] LAWS(KER) 2013 3 137

[152]   AIR 1958 MadhPra 323 (FB)

[153]   47 IndCas 941: 1918 35 MLJ 407.

[154]   2013(4) Ker LT 283

[155]   Varghese Vs. St. Peters and Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[156]   AIR 2007 SC 1337: 2006-11 SCC 624:  2007  AIR (SCW)  1512

[157]   ILR1993 Kar 2715

[158]   2006-4 AIR Kar R 218: 2006-4 Kant LJ 526    

[159]   Christ Church Mcconaghy School Society, Lucknow Vs. Registrar Firms, Societies And Chits, Lucknow: 2015-5 ADJ 472

[160]   C M Z Musliar Vs. Aboobacker: 1998-1 Ker LT–136: ILR 1998-2 Ker 76. Affirmed in A.P. Aboobaker Musaliar v. Distt.Registrar (G), Kozhikode, 2004(11) SCC 247.

[161]   D Dhanapal Vs. D David Livingstone: 2003-3 Mad LJ 668. State of Andhra Pradesh Vs.ManjetiLaxmiKanthaRao: AIR 2000 SC 2220; PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001 relied on.

[162]   Ram Vs. Murlidhar: 2008-2 Kant LJ 141; 2008 AIHC 1391

[163] ILR 2007-16 Dlh 1514

[164] AS NarayanaDeekshituluVs.. State of AP:  (1996) 9 SCC 548; Varghese Vs. St. Peters and Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[165]   2011 (3) Mh LJ 966.

Referred to: Raja Bira Kishore Deb Vs. The State of Orissa, AIR 1964 SC 1501;

PannalalBansilalPittiVs. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1996) 2 SCC 498;

A.S. NarayanaDeekshituluVs. State of A P: (1996) 9 SCC 548.

[166]   AIR 2005 SC 2544;

The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri LakshmindraThirthaSwamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282; 

RatilalPanachand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1954 SC 388.

[167]   See Chapter: Expulsion of Members

[168]   AIR 1995 SC 2001

[169]   SardarSyednaTaharSaifuddinSaheb Vs. The State of Bombay, 1962 Supp. 2 SCR 496;

Uqamsingh&Mishramal Vs. Kesrimal  1971(2) SCR 836;

ThiruvenkataRamanujaPeddaJiyyangarluValu Vs. PrathivathiBhayankaramVenkatacharlu: AIR 1947 PC 53;

M. AppadoraiAyyangarVs. P.B. Annanqarachariar. AIR 1939 Mad. 102;

Kattalai Michael Pillai&Ors. Vs. J.M. Barthe, AIR 1917 Mad. 431; 

E.C. Kent Vs. E.E.L. Kent. AIR 1926 Madras 59

Sri SinnaRamanuja Jeer. Vs. Sri RangaRamanujaJeer 1962 (2) SCR 509.

[170]   Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[171]   AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[172]   1874-75 (6) PC 157

[173]   Long Vs. Bishop of Capetown: (1863) 1 Moore PC (NS) 411

[174]   1863 (1) Moore PCC (NS) 411

[175]   ILR 7 Bom 323

[176]   35 Mad LJ 407; Referred to in S. Robert Vs. M. Kanagappan: 2003-2 Mad LJ 254

[177]   Long Vs. The Bishop of Cape Town(1863) 1 Moo. PC(NS) 411;

        Merriman Vs. Williams(1882) L.R.7 A.C.484

[178]   (2003)2 MLJ 254

[179]   ILR 39 Mad. 1056

[180]   Quoted in S Robert Vs. M Kanagappan: 2003-2 Mad LJ 254.

[181]   2016(2) Ker LT 791

[182]   1874-75 (6) PC 157

[183]   Long Vs. Bishop of Capetown: 1863 (1) Moore PCC NS 411

[184]   AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[185]   Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[186]   AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[187]   Article 19(1)(c)

[188]   LAWS(KER)-2011-2-223

[189]   JagatNarainVs. Mathura Das AIR 1928 All 454 (FB).

Referred to in Bhagauti Prasad KhetanVs.LaxminathjiMaharaj: AIR 1985 All 228.

[190]   AIR 1981 SC 2128.

[191]   AIR 1922 Bom 122.

[192]   ILR 2009-19Dlh216

[193]   Starlight Real Estate (Ascot) Mauritius Vs. Jagrati Trade Services: 2016-195 Com Cas 434

[194]   (1843) 67 ER 189; 1843-2 Hare 467

[195]   AIR 1946 Bom 516

[196]   AIR 1959 All 598

[197]   AIR 1951 Mad 831

SardarKanwaldeep Singh Vs. Asst. Regtr. Firms, Societies: AIR 1994 All 161;

S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce:  AIR 1969 Mad 42;

AS Krishnan Vs.M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom 312.

[198]   1998 (1) GLR 38

[199]   See also: Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Addl. Regtr. Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[200]   See rulings under company-law: CDS Financial Services (Mauritius) Ltd. Vs. BPL Communication Pvt. Ltd. (2004) 121 Com Cas 374; 

Marikar Motors Vs. M.I. Ravikumar : [1982] 52 Comp Cases 362 (Ker);

Pradip Kumar Sarkar Vs. Luxmi Tea Co. Ltd. [1990] 67 Comp Cases 491 (Cal.);

The appeal from this decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court in Luxmi Tea Co. Vs. Pradip Kumar Sarkar, [1990] 67 Comp Cases 518 (SC) 

[201]   AIR 1941 Bom 312

[202]   See: Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Addl. Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439

[203]   AIR 1963 SC 1144; See also UjjalTalukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224;

All India Wokey s Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association: 1994 55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association: 2013-201 DLT 433.

[204]   (1998) 6 SCC 39                                                          

[205]   AIR 1977 Pj&Hr 21

[206]   AIR 1969 Cal 224; Referred to in  GegongApang Vs. SanjoyTassar: AIR  2001 Gau 1

[207]   Dr. BK Mukherjea, J. On the Hindu Law of Religious and Charitable Trusts, Tagore Law Lectures: Page:411.

[208]   Enderby Town Football Club Ltd. Vs. Football Association (1971 Chancery Div. 591)

[209]   AIR 1991 SC 1221.

[210]   (2006) 2 SCC 1: AIR  2006 SC 980.

[211]   Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. Vs. WednesburyCorpn. per Lord Greene, M.R. :(1948) 1 KB 223;

See also: Tata Cellular Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 11.

[212]   AIR 1963 SC 1144

[213]   See also: All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association: (1994) 55 DLT 607

Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, (2013) 201 DLT 433.

Meghal Homes Vs. NiwasGirni K KSamiti: AIR   2007 SC 3079;

CaptKailashNath Harsh Vs. D C Patel : AIR 1999 Bom 133.

[214]   AIR  2015 SC 3194.

[215]   Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwal: AIR 2003 SC  2696

[216]   S.P. Malhotra Vs. Punjab National Bank: AIR 2013 SC 3739; 

Manohar Vs. State of Maharashtra: AIR 2013 SC 681;

Punjab National Bank Vs. KunjBehariMisra: AIR 1998 SC 2713;

Yoginath D. Bagde Vs. State of Maharashtra : AIR 1999 SC 3734;

State Bank of India Vs. K.P. Narayanan Kutty: AIR 2003 SC 1100;

JA Naiksatam Vs. P and SM, High Court of Bombay: AIR 2005 SC 1218;

P.D. Agrawal Vs. State Bank of India : AIR 2006 SC 2064;

Ranjit Singh Vs. Union of India : AIR 2006 SC 3685;

Canara Bank Vs. ShriDebasis Das : AIR 2003 SC 2041; 

KanwarNutwar Singh Vs. Director of Enforcement: 2010 AIR (SCW) 6427.

[217]   Ex Armymen’s Protection Service Vs. Union of India: AIR 2014 SC 1376;

A.S. Motors Pvt. Ltd Vs. Union Of India:   2013 AIR (SCW) 3830;

MuhammedYunus Khan Vs. State of UP: 2010-10 Scale 2867.      

[218]   U P State Road Transport Corpn. Vs. Musai Ram:1999-3 SCC 372.

[219]   AIR 1973  SC 389

[220]   (1978) 1 SCC 405

[221]   AIR 1970 SC 150

[222]   (2009) 12 SCC 40

[223]   1991 AIR-SCW 879

[224]   AIR 1970 All 209

[225]   AIR  1980 SC 1042

[226]   See as to labour dispute: Management of Travancore Knitting Co Tiruppur Coimbatore Vs. K Muthuswamy: AIR  1962 Mad 398;

Regional Manager, U.P.S.R. T.C. Etawah v. HotiLal AIR 2003 SC 1462

DamohPannaSagar Rural Regional Bank Vs. MunnaLal Jain AIR 2005 SC 584;

[227]            AIR 1996 SC 2219.

     Followed in Mohd.SartajVs. State of UP: AIR 2006 SC 3492.

[228]   AS Krishnan Vs. M Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312

T.R. Bhavani Shankar Joshi Vs. GordhandasJamnadas: AIR 1943 PC 66;

Parmeshwari Prasad Gupta Vs. The Union of India: AIR 1973 SC 2389;

Punjabrao Vs. VM Molkar1974: Mh.L.J. 428;

ShamraoMadhavraoBodhankar Vs. Suresh Shamrao Bodhankar:1986-2 BCR 650.

[229]   2007-4 Raj LW 3547.

See also: Kania, J., in A.S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312.

[230]   AIR 1941 Bom. 312

[231]   AIR 1962 SC 458

[232]   AIR 2003 SC 3397

[233]   AIR 2010 SC 2943

[234]   2013 AIR (SCW)  5782; (2013) 15  SCC 394

[235]   BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club AIR 2005 SC 592.

[236]   TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144;

        Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiroz H. Anita, AIR 1939 Bom 35; 

        Lennox Arthur Patrick O Reilly  Vs. Cyril Cuthbert Gittens, AIR 1949 PC 313;

        J.N. ChaudharyVs. State of Haryana, (2014) 11 SCC 249.

[237]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del 1031;

        GirishMulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[238]   PrasannaVenkitesaRaoVs.SrinivasaRao: AIR 1931 Mad. 12.

[239]   (1920) 1 Ch. 77

[240]   Quoted in Kalinga Tubes Ltd Vs. Shanti Prasad Jain: AIR  1963Ori 189.

[241]   2016-3 KHC 670

[242]   2010-5 GauLJ 294, 2010 4 GauLT 905

[243]   SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay, AIR 1946 Bom 516; 

        ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598;

CL Joseph Vs. Jos AIR 1965 Ker 68;

Star Tiles Works Vs. N. Govindan AIR 1959 Ker  254. 

[244]   A. S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom 312

[245]   NagappaChettiar Vs. Madras Race Club : AIR 1951 Mad 831.

[246]   Rajasthan SRTC Vs. BalMukundBairawa (2009) 4 SCC 299;

Rajasthan SRTC Vs. Krishna Kant (1995) 5 SCC 75;

SantoshPoddarVs. KamalkumarPoddar 1992 (3) Bom.C.R.  310,

Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwal: AIR 2003 SCC  2696,

CDS Financial Services (Mauritius) Vs. BPL Communication: (2004) 121   Com. Cas  374;

V.N. Bhajekar Vs. K.M. Shinkar (1934) 36 Bom LR  483;

ClaudeLilaParulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. (2005) 11 SCC  73: AIR 2005 SC 4074;

SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. The AryaSamaj (1945) 48 Bom LR  341;

Sangramsinh P. GaekwadVs. Shantadevi P. Gaekwad (2005) 123 Com. Cas. (SC) 566;

Star Tiles Works Vs. N. Govindan AIR 1959 Kerala  254;

Maharaja Exports Vs. Apparels Exports (1986) 60 Com. Cas. 353;

Berar Trading Co. Ltd. Vs. GajananGopalrao Dixit (1972) 42 Bom LR 48;

Sarat Chandra Chakravarti Vs. T. Chandra Chatterjee AIR 1924 Calcutta 982;

Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India AIR 1988 SC 752

[247]   M/s Ammonia Supplies Corpn. Vs. M/s. Modern Plastic Containers AIR 1998 SC 3153 ;

Canara Bank Vs. Nuclear Power Corporation Of India Ltd. 1995 Supp. (3) SCC 81 ;

Suguna Poultry Farm Ltd. Vs. Arul Mariamman Textiles: AIR 2005 Mad 72;

R. Prakasam Vs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: 1980 (50) Com. Cas 611;

Khetan Industries Vs. ManjuRavindraprasad AIR 1995 Bombay 43,

LIC Vs. Escorts: (1986) 1 SCC 264,

Kishore Y. Patil Vs. Patel Engineering: AIR 1992 Bom 114,

G.S. Bali Vs. Babulal Jain: 2000 (2) WLN Rajn 13;

R. R. RajendraMenonVs. Cochin Stock Exchange: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256.

[248]   AIR 1969 SC 78 ; See also Premier Automobiles Ltd. Vs.KamlekarShantaramWadke  (1976) 1 SCC 496: AIR 1975 SC 2238,

Munshi ram Vs.Municipal Committee, Chheharta AIR 1976 SC 1250,

JitendraNathBiswasVs.M/s. Empire of India &Ceylone Tea Co. (1989) 3 SCC 582:  AIR 1990 SC 255 

SaraswathiVs.Lachanna  (1994) 1 SCC 611.

[249] AIR 1975 SC 2238

[250] (1995) 5 SCC 75

[251] (1995) 5 SCC 75 : AIR 1995 SC 1715

[252] Dinesh Kumar Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2011 – 21 Del – 3080.

[253] AIR 1964 SC 1006

[254]   RadhaKishan Vs. Ludhiyana Municipality: AIR 1963 SC 1547; 

Maharaja Exports Vs. Apparels Exports: (1986) 60 Comp. Cases 353 (Delhi);

Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwal: (2003)117Comp Cas206 (SC);

CDS Mauritius Vs. BPL Communications (2004) 121 CompCas 375.

KavitaTrehanVs.Balsara Hygiene Products: (1994) 5 SCC 380) ;

RajendraMenon Vs.  Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd. (Vol. 69 Com  Cas  256 (Kerala)) ; Dr. T.M. Paul Vs. City Hospital (Pvt.) Limited (Vol.97 Com  Cases  216 (Kerala)) :

South Eastern Coalfields Ltd. Vs. State of MP: AIR 1998 SC 3153

[255]   Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India: AIR 1988 SC 752

[256]   Seventh Edition: page 531

[257]   See also: Premier Automobiles Ltd. v. KamlekarShantaramWadke: AIR 1975 SC 2238,

Munshi Ram Vs. Municipal Committee, Chheharta: AIR 1976 SC 1250;

JitendraNathBiswas Vs. M/s. Empire of India Ceylone Tea: AIR 1990 SC 255;

SaraswathiVs.Lachanna:  (1994)1 SCC 611.

[258] 2009 AIR SCW 2566

[259] AIR 1995 SC 1715

[260]   See: GegongApang Vs. SanjoyTassar 2003-1 Gau LR 309.

[261]   See Chapter: EFFECT OF REGISTRATION & INCORPORATION

[262]   2005-2 Mad LJ 335

[263]   Official Trustee, WB Vs. SachindraNathChatterjee: AIR 1969 SC 823;

Rukmini Devi TodiVs. Official Liquidator: 2000-3 Cal LT 158.

[264]   Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic&Unani Tibia College Vs. State of Delhi: AIR 1962 SC 458;

SiddheshwarSahkariSakharKarkhanaVs.Commr. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716;

Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301;

Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973.

Zoroastrian Co-op. Hsing. Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005 SC 2306;

State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378;

BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[265]   Iridum India Telecom Vs. Motorola, AIR 2005  SC 514

[266]   See: Shyam Sunder Agarwal And Company Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 1321;

Ram KirpalMisir Vs. Bhagwati Saran Misir: AIR 1949 All 318;

JagarnathSahu Vs. SrikantDube: AIR  1949 All 589;

SatyapramodaThirthaswamulavaru : AIR 1982 AP 24.

[267]   See: PS Santhappan Vs. Andhra Bank: AIR 2004 SC 5251;

Iridum India Telecom Vs. Motorola: AIR 2005  SC 514.

[268]   See: United Bank of India Vs. Achintya Kumar Lahiri: 2007-66 All LR 246, 2007-1 ARC 453.

Dwark  Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwala: AIR 2003 SC 2696;

R. Prakasam Vs. SreeNaryana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: (1980) 50 Comp. Cases 611(Ker);

RR RajendraMenonVs. Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256.

[269]   Firm of IlluriSubbayyaChetty Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh: AIR 1984 SC 322;

Antony Vs. Thandiyode Plantations: 1995 (2) KLT 512; 

Dhulabhai Vs. State of M. P. : AIR 1969 SC 78;

R. PrakasamVs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: (1980) 50 Comp. Cases 611(Ker).

[270]   (2000) 9 SCC 272. Referred to in R Ravindra Reddy Vs. H Ramaiah Reddy: AIR 2010 SC 991; ThimmappaRai Vs. RamannaRai: 2007 AIR (SCW) 3271

[271]   Sec. 41 of the Specific Relief Act applies to these matters.

[272]   RR RajendraMenonVs. Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256.

        See also: Mardia Chemicals Ltd. Vs. Union of India (2004) 4 SCC 311;

Jagdish Singh Vs. Heeralal: AIR 2014  SC 371;

D Dhanapal Vs. D David Livingstone: 2003-3 Mad LJ 668; 

Koh I Noor Tabacco Vs. Presiding Officer Second Labour Court: AIR 1986 Bom 340;

Indian Bank Vs. ABS Marine Products Pvt Ltd: AIR  2006 SC 1899;

State Trading Corpn. Vs. Govt of People Republic of Bangladesh: ILR 1997–1 Del  229;

Kanhaiya Vs. Lllabai: ILR  1971 MP 165. 

[273]   AmbatiRamaiah Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh: 2012 -5 ALT 383;

All India SC, ST Railway Employees Association Vs. E. Venkateswarlu: 2003(3) ALT 674;

C. BabuRao Vs. District Registrar: 2010(1) ALD 452

[274]   D DhanapalVs. D David Livingstone: 2003-3 Mad LJ 668. 

[275]   See:  SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay AIR 1946 Bom 516,

ShridharMisra Vs. JaichandraVidyalankar AIR 1959 All 598 

NagappaChettiar Vs. The Madras Race Club AIR 1951 Mad 831;

SardarKanwaldeep Singh Vs. Asst. Regr. Firms, Societies and Chits: AIR 1994 All 161;

S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce:  AIR 1969 Mad 42;

A. S. Krishnan Vs.M. Sundaram: A. I. R. 1941 Bom. 312.

Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam [1998 (1) GLR 38]

Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[276]   ParayakaduNalukulangaraDevaswom Vs. PadmanabhanHarshas: 1983 Ker LJ 232:  ILR  1983-2 Ker 732: 1983 Ker LT 803.                

[277]   1983 Ker LJ 232:  ILR  1983 2 Ker 732: 1983 Ker LT 803

[278]   2004-1 Ker LT 756, 2004 KHC 122

[279]   NagriPrachariniSabha Vs. VthAddl Dist. and Sess. Judge, Varanasi: 1991 Supp (2) SCC 36

[280] U P Cooperative Cane Union Federation Vs. Liladhar: AIR1981 SC 152.

[281]   K. Nanu Vs. C.H. KunhikrishnaKurup: 2013 Ker LJ 769

[282]   2003-3 Mad LJ 668.

        Also see: State of AP Vs.   ManjetiLaxmiKanthaRao: AIR 2000 SC 2220;

        PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001 relied on.

[283]Janet Jeyapaul Vs. SRM University: 2015 (16) SCC 530,

Unni Krishnan  J P Vs. State of A.P:1993 (1) SCC 645,

Rajkumar v. Director of Education: 2016 (6) SCC 541,

Zee Telefilms Ltd.   Vs. U.O.I: 2005 (4) SCC 649,

Marwari BalikaVidyalaya Vs. AshaShrivastava: 2019 SCC online SC 408,

Mariamma Roy vs. Indian Bank: 2009 (16) SCC 187,

SatwatiDeswal Vs. State of Haryana: 2010 (1) SCC 126,

Maharashtra Chess Association Vs. U.O.I   :2019 SCC Online SC 932  

AnoopJaiswal Vs. Government of India: 1984 (2) SCC 369

Lachoo Memorial College Vs. Mridul Kumar Mathur: LAWS(RAJ) 2021 2 2.

[284]Pradeep Kumar BiswasVs. Indn. Insti. Cheml. Biology: (2002) 5 SCC 111,

Telefilms Ltd Vs. UOI : (2005) 4 SCC 649 

K.K. SaksenaVsICID : (2015) 4 SCC 670.

[285]Ramesh Ahluwalia Vs. State of Punjab: (2012) 12 SCC 331,

CIT Vs. ChhabilDassAgarwal : (2014) 1 SCC 603,

Assistant Collector of Central Excise Vs. Dunlop: (1985) 1 SCC 260,

Bharat BhushanSonaji Vs. Abdul Khalik: (1995) Supp. 2 SCC 593,

Public Service Tribunal Bar Assn. Vs. State of U.P.: (2003) 4 SCC 104

State of UP Vs. Sandeep Kumar Balmiki : (2009) 17 SCC 555

Lachoo Memorial College Vs. Mridul Kumar Mathur: LAWS(RAJ) 2021 2 2.

[286]   Zee Telefilms Ltd. Vs. Union of India (2005) 4 SCC 649;

        Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005   SC 592.

        Board of Control For Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar: AIR  2015 SC 3194.

[287]   AIR 1990 Cal. 176

[288]   Association of Milma Officers’, Thiruvananthapuram Vs State of Kerala: AIR 2015 Ker 137

[289]   AIR 2005 SC  4187.

        Madhya Pradesh RajyaSahakari Bank MaryaditVs. State of MP: AIR 2007 SC 540.

[290]   AIR 2009 SC 2956

[291] 2014-2 MPLJ 520

[292]   (2010) 3 SCC 402

[293] Palakole Co Op Sugars Ltd Vs. P N Raju: 1988-2 ALT 460, 1988-2 APLJ 433

[294] AIR 1970 SC 1244. Quoted in Palakole Co Op Sugars Ltd Vs. P N Raju: 1988-2 ALT 460, 1988-2 APLJ 433

[295]   See: BijiPothen Vs. Thankamma John: 2012(3) Ker LT 658

[296]   NarayandasShreeramSomaniVs.Sangli Bank Ltd. AIR 1966 SC 170;

Seth Mohan Lal   Vs. Grain Chambers Ltd.,  Muzaffarnagar: AIR 1968 SC 772;

        Shackleton on the Law and Practice of meetings, 7th edition (1983), Page 230.

[297]   See: BijiPothen Vs. Thankamma John: 2012(3) Ker LT 658;

        Arti Devi Vs. Central Information Commissioner: 2012-10-ADJ 491.

[298]   See: BijiPothen Vs. Thankamma John: 2012(3) Ker LT 658:

[299]   Abdul Kayua Vs. Alibhai: AIR 1963 SC 309:

        Referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain: ILR 1982-1 Del 11.

[300]   40 ER 852

[301]   (1888) 57 LJ Ch 543

[302]   (1904) AC 515.

[303]   AIR 1931 Mad. 12

[304]   PragjiSavjiVajaVs.ChhotalalNarsidasParmar: AIR 2014-3 Bom R 211: 2013-6 BCR 72.

[305]   AIR 2007 SC  3162

[306]   It is referred to in Mandal Revenue Officer Vs. GoundlaVenkaiah: AIR 2010 SC 744

[307]   AIR 1947 All 375

[308]   Refered to in  Lal Vs. Thakur RadhaBallabhji: AIR 1961 All 73

[309]   C ChikkaVenkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296:

        Narayan Krishnaji Vs. Anjuman E Islamia:  AIR 1952 Kar 14;

        Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier AIR 1968 SC 915

[310]   ChHoshiar Singh Mann Vs. Charan Singh : ILR 2009-19 Dlh 265]

        Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier AIR 1968 SC 915;

        I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate  AIR 2007 SC 1337

[311]   CK Rajan Vs. GuruvayoorDevaswom Managing Committee: AIR 1994 Ker 179 [Appeal Judgment: AIR 2004 SC 561: (2003) 7 SCC 546];

        C  ChikkaVenkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296;

        Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier AIR 1968 SC 915 ;

        ChHoshiar Singh Mann Vs. Charan Singh ILR 2009 (19) Dlh 265;

        I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate:  AIR 2007 SC 1337;

        Sk. Abdul Kayum Vs. MullaAlibhai: AIR 1963 SC 309;

        SubramoniaPillaiChellamPillai Vs. SubramoniaPillaiChathanPillai: AIR 1953 TC 198; 

        M.G. Narayanaswami Naidu Vs. M. Balasundaram Naidu: AIR 1953 Mad 750.

[312]   AIR  1940 Mad. 617.

Quoted in Sankaranarayanan Vs. ShriPoovananatha: AIR  1949 Mad.721

Sobhanadreswara Rice Mill Co. Vs. BrahmachariBavaji Mutt : AIR  1973 AP 292;

        Parshvanath Jain Temple Vs. L.Rs of PremDass: 2009-3-RCR (CIVIL) 133.

[313]   ILR 1988-1 Ker 429

[314]   Bonnerji Vs. Sitanath 49 IA 46:

        referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11.

[315]   AIR 1974 SC 1084

[316]   See also: H E H The Nizams Pilgrimage Money Trust Hyderabad Vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Andhra Pradesh Hyderabad:  AIR 2000 SC 1802;

        Kishore Joo Vs. GumanBehariJooDeo: AIR  1978 All 1.

        Bonnerji Vs. Sitanath 49 IA 46:

        Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11;

Sk. Abdul Kayum Vs. MullaAlibhai : AIR 1963 SC 309.

Shivramdas Vs. B V Nerukar, AIR 1937 Bom 374,

Rambabu Vs. Committee of Rameshwar, (1899) 1 Bom LR 667;

NathiriMenon Vs. Gopalan Nair, AIR 1916 Mad 692.

[317]   Bonnerji Vs. Sitanath 49 IA 46:

        Referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11.

[318]   BalramChunnilalVs.DurgalalShivnarain: AIR1968 MP 81.

[319]   Scott on Trusts Vol. II Sec. 170. The leading case on the subject is KenchVs. Gandford (1726) (White and Tudor Leading Cases in Equity page 693) referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11.

[320]   See: Kishore Joo Vs. GumanBehariJooDeo: AIR  1978 All 1.

[321]   See: B D Wadhwa Vs. HardayalDevgun: ILR 1973-2 – Del  678.

[322]   AIR 2004 AP 223

[323]   State of Punjab v. Amolak Ram Kapoor: [1990] 79 STC 315 (P & H)

[324]   Baby Mathew Vs. Agricultural Income Tax Officer:1994-207 ITR 967

[325]   T.K. Jacob v. Divisional Forest Officer [1993] 2 KLJ 915:

        Referred to in Baby Mathew Vs. Agricultural IT Officer: 1994-207 ITR 967.

        See also: Punalur Paper Mills Ltd. v. District Collector: [1985] KLT 758

[326]   [1963] 14 STC 972 (Mad)

[327]   AIR  1961 Cal 393

[328] [1892] 1 Ch 154

Referred to in BholanathKundu Vs. Official Liquidator, BholanathKundu : 1987-61 CC 10.

[329] Life Insurance Corporation of India Vs. Rajmata Saheb Chowhanji: AIR 1978 SC 1447.

[330]   J K Choudhury Vs. Hem Chandra: AIR 1956 Assm 82;

S Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce: AIR   1969 Mad 42.

[331]   Committee of Management  Vs. Commr, Kanpur Region: 2008 -1 AWC 695; 2008 -1 ADJ 706; 2008-70 All LR 368.

[332]   See: Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate: AIR 2007 SC 1337

[333]   AIR 2005 SC 2544.

[334]   See also: The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri LakshmindraThirthawamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282; and RatilalPanachand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1954 SC 388.

[335]   AIR 2014 SC 2018

[336]   AIR 2013 SC 200

[337]   Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS EdnVs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879, agreed with the ratio in Ghazanfar Rashid Vs. Board, H.S. AIR 1970 All 209. 

[338]   Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar: AIR 1977 Pj&Hr 21

[339]   Ram Pal Singh Vs. State of U P: LAWS (ALL)-2015-5-99. Referred to: Ram PyareLal Vs. State of U.P. 2015 3 ADJ 577;

Indian Sugar Mills Association Vs. Secretary to Government, UP: AIR 1951 All 1;

Dr. P.P. Rastogi Vs. Meerut University, 1997 1 UPLBEC 415;

Vimla Devi Vs. Deputy Director of Education, 1997-3 ESC 1807;  2010 (1) ADJ 262

[340]   Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[341]   Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic&Unani Tibia College Vs. State of Delhi: AIR 1962 SC 458;

SiddheshwarSahkariSakharKarkhanaVs.Commr. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716;

Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301;

Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973.

Zoroastrian Co-op. Hsing. Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005 SC 2306;

State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378;

BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[342]   AIR 1928 Mad 571

[343]   1987-62 CC 301; APLJ 1985 3 219

[344] 2005 (1) CTC 399 : 2005 (2) MLJ 102. Referred to in TheniMelapettai Hindu NadarkalUravinmuraiVs. The District Registrar: 2007 6 MLJ 1528.

[345]   2015-5 CTC 17

[346]   LAWS (KER)-2013-3-137



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Evidence Act

Constitution

Contract Act

Easement

Club/Society

Trusts/Religion

Void, Voidable & Illegal Actions and Sham Transactions

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Contents in a Nutshell.

  1. The expression ‘VOID’ has several facets. It does not mean, in law, absolutely null and void for everything.
  2. Where acts, transactions, decrees, etc. are wholly without jurisdiction or ab initio void, no declaration is needed as a preliminary or introductory step to obtain the substantive relief of injunction or recovery.
  3. Even where the order/decree is void, the party aggrieved cannot decide that the same is not binding upon him. Such order/decree has to be got set-aside.
  4. A ‘voidable’ transaction should be got declared or set aside, before seeking the substantive relief.
  5. Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act directs exclusion of evidence as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso, evidence can be led into to assert that a document was sham.
  6. If a Tribunal abuses its power, or does not act in conformity with the Act or act in violation of its provisions, the jurisdiction of the civil court will not stand excluded.
  7. If no prejudice, an impugned action will not be nullity on the ground of breach of natural justice.
  8. Objection as to the place of suing should have been taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  9. All unlawful or illegal agreements are void; but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal.

Propositions as to Questioning a Deed Where One is NOT a Party: Where one person is not a party to a deed, following propositions can be laid down:

  1. Where a deed is ‘null and wholly void‘ (e.g., unregistered sale/gift), he can simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • Limitation statute will have no application in such cases.
  2. If it is not ‘null and wholly void‘, he cannot simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • But, in such cases, it is not mandatory to seek ‘annulment’ of the deed – by ‘setting it aside’ or ‘cancelling it’.
    • It will be sufficient – to resort to “appropriate proceeding”, for avoiding the same, before a court of law, seeking proper declaration or otherwise.
    • It must be done within the limitation period prescribed.

PART – I
Void’, ‘Void ab initio’ and ‘Voidable

Black’s Law Dictionary defines ‘void’ and ‘void ab initio’  as under:

  • Void.
    • Null; ineffectual; nugatory; having no legal force or binding effect; unable, in law, to support the purpose for which it was intended. Which means there is no legal obligation therefore there will be no breach of contract since the contract is null.
  • Void ab initio.
    • A contract is null from the beginning if it seriously offends law or public policy in contrast to a contract which is merely voidable at the election of one of the parties to the contract.
  • ‘Voidable’
    • An action or transaction is ‘voidable’ if it can remain valid, until it is avoided trough a legal action.

Indian Contract Act, 1872

  • Sec. 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act reads as under:
    • “An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void“.
  • Sec. 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act reads as under:
    • “An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a voidable contract”.

Provisions of Contract Act that deals with VOID contracts are:

  • Sec. 20 Agreement void where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact.
    • Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
  • Sec. 23 What considerations and objects are lawful, and what not.
    • The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless—
      it is forbidden by law ; or
      is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law; or
      is fraudulent ; or
      involves or implies, injury to the person or property of another; or
      the Court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy.
    • In each of these cases, the consideration or object of an agreement is said to be unlawful. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
  • Sec. 24. Agreement void, if considerations and objects unlawful in part.
  • If any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, or any one or any part of any one of several considerations for a single object, is unlawful, the agreement is void.
  • Sec. 25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a promiseto compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.—
    • An agreement made without consideration is void, unless—
    • (1) it is expressed in writing and registered under the law for the time being in force for the registration of [documents], and is made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other ; or unless
    • (2) it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do; or unless;
    • (3) it is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his agent generally or specially authorized in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits.
    • In any of these cases, such an agreement is a contract.
  • Sec. 26. Agreement in restraint of marriage, void.—
    • Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.
  • Sec. 27. Agreement in restraint of trade, void.—
    • Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
  • Sec. 28. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, void.—
    • [Every agreement,
    • (a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
    • (b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto, from any liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any party from enforcing his rights, is void to the extent.]
  • Sec. 29. Agreements void for uncertainty.
    • Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
  • Sec. 30. Agreements by way of wager void.—
    • Agreements by way of wager are void; and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain event on which any wager is made.
  • Sec. 36.Agreement contingent on impossible events void.—
    • Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made.

Provisions of Contract Act that deals with VOIDABLE contracts are:

  • Sec. 19.Voidability of agreements without free consent.—
    • When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
    • A party to a contract whose consent was caused by fraud or misrepresentation, may, if he thinks fit, insist that the contract shall be performed, and that he shall be put in the position in which he would have been if the representations made had been true.
  • Sec. 19A.Power to set aside contract induced by undue influence.—
    • When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
    • Any such contract may be set aside either absolutely or, if the party who was entitled to avoid it has received any benefit thereunder, upon such terms and conditions as to the Court may seem just.
  • Sec. 53.Liability of party preventing event on which the contract is to take effect.—
    • When a contract contains reciprocal promises, and one party to the contract prevents the other from performing his promise, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party so prevented; and he is entitled to compensation from the other party for any loss which he may sustain in consequence of the nonperformance of the contract.
  • Sec 55. Effect of failure to perform at fixed time, in contract in which time is essential.—
    • When a party to a contract promises to do a certain thing at or before a specified time, or certain things at or before specified times, and fails to do any such thing at or before the specified time, the contract, or so much of it as has not been performed, becomes voidable at the option of the promisee, if the intention of the parties was that time should be of the essence of the contract.
  • Sec. 64. Consequences of rescission of voidable contract.—
    • When a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party thereto need not perform any promise therein contained in which he is promisor. The party rescinding avoidable contract shall, if he have received any benefit thereunder from another party to such contract, restore such benefit, so far as may be, to the person from whom it was received.

Void – Different Shades or Facets

  • Ab initio void.
  • Order without jurisdiction.
  • Sham transactions.
  • Illegal, for action without following the principles of natural justice.
  • Illegal, for not following the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • Illegal, for non-compliance of the provisions of the statute. 

In Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, it is held as under:

  • “Thus the expressions void and voidable have been subject matter of consideration on innumerable occasions by courts. The expression void has several facets.
  • One type of void acts, transactions, decrees are those which are wholly without jurisdiction, ab initio void and for avoiding the same no declaration is necessary, law does not take any notice of the same and it can be disregarded in collateral proceeding or otherwise.
  • The other type of void act, e.g., may be transaction against a minor without being represented by a next friend. Such a transaction is good transaction against the whole world. So far the minor is concerned, if he decides to avoid the same and succeeds in avoiding it by taking recourse to appropriate proceeding the transaction becomes void from the very beginning.
  • Another type of void act may be which is not a nullity but for avoiding the same a declaration has to be made. Voidable act is that which is a good act unless avoided, e.g., if a suit is filed for a declaration that a document is fraudulent and/or forged and fabricated, it is voidable as apparent state of affairs is real state of affairs and a party who alleges otherwise is obliged to prove it.
  • If it is proved that the document is forged and fabricated and a declaration to that effect is given a transaction becomes void from the very beginning. There may be a voidable transaction which is required to be set aside and the same is avoided from the day it is so set aside and not any day prior to it. In cases, where legal effect of a document cannot be taken away without setting aside the same, it cannot be treated to be void but would be obviously voidable.”

When Declaration Needed in a Civil Suit

  1. As Introductory/preliminary to grant (1) Injunction or (2) Recovery:
    • Unnikrishnan Vs. Ponnu Ammal: 1999 1 KLT 298: AIR 1999 Ker 405.
  2. When serious denial or cloud on title (or right):
    • Anathula: AIR 2008 SC 2033.
  3. Asserted title or civil right is not clear, simple and straight-forward;
    • or, not well-established (lawful possession).
  4. Make clear what is doubtful – as to legal character and title.
    • ILR 1970-2 (Del) 433: Eg. Suit by trespasser claiming adverse possession: Darshan Kumari Vs. Kaushalya Devi: 1990 JKLR 208; 1991 KashLJ 1 (R.P. Sethi, J) for dispelling cloud: AIR 1953 Gau 162.
  5. Complicated or complexquestions of fact and law to be ‘adjudicated’.
    • (Anathula: 2008 SC 2033)
  6. Insurmountable obstacle
    • Md. Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Raifunnisa : (1996) 7 SCC 767.

Disposal of property by Natural Guardian against S. 8, Hindu M&G Act – Voidable

In Saroj v. Sunder Singh, 2013 (15) SCC 727, it is held as under:

  • “As per clause (a) of sub-section (2) of Section 8 (of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956) no immovable property of the minor can be mortgaged or charged, or transferred by sale, gift, exchange or otherwise without the previous permission of the Court. Under sub-section (3) of Section 8 disposal of such an immovable property by a natural guardian, in contravention of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of Section 8, is voidable at the instance of the minor or any person claiming under him.”

See also: Murugan v. Kesava Gounder, (2019) 20 SCC 633; Vasantkumar v. State of Maharashtra, 2022 SCC OnLine Bom 712.

In Sukhdev Singh v. Jangir Singh, 1976 RLR 101 it is held that the plaintiff had to get the sale set aside and then only he could claim possession.(Referred to in Surta Singh Vs Pritam Singh,AIR 1983 P&H 114 : (1983) 1 ILR (P&H) 344 (FB)

Transfer by Sister – Ab-initio void, not required to be set aside by filing a suit

In Madhegowda v. Ankegowda, (2002) 1 SCC 178,. it is held by our Apex Court as under

  • “25………Undoubtedly Smt Madamma, sister of the minor, is not a “guardian” as defined in Section 4(b) of the Act (Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956). Therefore, she can only be taken to be a “de facto guardian” or more appropriately “de facto manager”. To a transfer in such a case Section 11 of the Act squarely applies. Therefore, there is little scope for doubt that the transfer of the minor’s interest by a de facto guardian/manager having been made in violation of the express bar provided under the section is per se invalid. The existence or otherwise of legal necessity is not relevant in the case of such invalid transfer. A transferee of such an alienation does not acquire any interest in the property. Such an invalid transaction is not required to be set aside by filing a suit or judicial proceeding. The minor, on attaining majority, can repudiate the transfer in any manner as and when occasion for it arises. After attaining majority if he/she transfers his/her interest in the property in a lawful manner asserting his/her title to the same that is sufficient to show that the minor has repudiated the transfer made by the de facto guardian/manager.”

When a person is NOT PARTY to a Suit or a Document, No Need to Annul

It is held in Y. G. Gurukul v. Y. Subrahmanyam, AIR. 1957 AP. 955, as under:

  • “When a person is not eo nomine a party to a suit or a document, it is unnecessary for him to have the deed or the decree annulled, and he can proceed on the assumption that there was no such document or decree.
  • (Followed in Sankaran V. Velukutty, 1986 Ker LT 794.)

In Usman Kurikkal v. Parappur Achuthan Nair, ILR 2012-3 Ker 343; 2012 3 KHC 89, it is held as under:

  • Plaintiff is neither a party to the sale deed nor a party to the resolution empowering the Board to execute the sale deed. The prayer in the plaint is essentially for a declaration that the sale deed is not valid and binding on the plaintiff. The plaintiff has not sought for a cancellation of the sale deed obviously because he was not an executant thereto. The plaintiff can very well ignore the sale deed and need not seek its annulment as has been held in Sankaran v. Velukutty (1986 KLT 794).”

The Supreme Court observed in V.  Kalyanaswamy v. L.  Bakthavatsalam, 2020 3 RCR(Civ) 404; 2020 9 Scale 367, as under:

  • “Plaintiffs-appellants in OS No. 36 of 1963 were not parties to the suit in 1958 and the compromise in OS No. 71 of 1958 will not bind the appellants.”

Deed executed by the predecessors also to be Set Aside

The question of setting aside a deed comes for consideration if it is executed by the predecessors of the plaintiff also.

  • Raj Narayan Sarin v. Lakshmi Devi – (2002)10 SCC 501.
  • Suhrad Singh vs. Randhir Singh – (2010) 12 SCC 112. The suit was relating to a “co-parcenery property”. One among the co-parcener executed the sale deed.  Another co-sharer (non-executant) was a party to the suit.  Court held in para 7: “Where the executants of a deed wants it to be annulled he has to seek cancelation of the deed.  But if a non-executant seeks annulment of a deed he has to seek a declaration that the deed is invalid, or non-est, or illegal or that it is not binding  on him.”
  •  Deccan Paper Mills vs. Regency Mahavir – (2021) 4 SCC 786. Principles in Suhrad Singh v. Randhir Singh – (2010) 12 SCC 112 squarely applied to this case. Suhrad Singh is quoted and followed.

If Title of Plaintiff (Auction Sale) is Nullity, Defendant need Not file a Substantive Suit.

In Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546, the defendants contended that the plaintiff’s title, on the basis of the alleged auction sale ‘was a nullity, as it was ultra vires the legal provisions and on the ground of lack of jurisdiction, non-service of demand notice on all the heirs and co-owners’. It was contended from the part of the (original) plaintiff that the sale proceedings could be challenged only by way of a substantive suit, and that the High Court was right in characterising the challenge to the suit by the defendant as a ‘backdoor method’. The Apex Court held as under:

  • If the title claimed by the plaintiff was a nullity and wholly void, there was no need for any of the defendants including Bajranglal to challenge it by way of a substantive suit. They could always set up nullity of title as a defence in any proceeding taken against them based upon such title. If, in fact, the sale was a nullity, it was non est in the eye of law and all that defendant had to do was point this out. (See in this connection: Ajudh Raz and Ors. v. Moti S/o Mussadi, [1991] 3 SCC 136 and the opinion of the Full Bench of the Bombay High Court in Abdulla Mian v. Government of Bombay, (1942) 44 Bom LR 577.
  • In Vidyadhar v. Manikrao and Anr., [1999] 3 SCC 573, the plaintiff had filed a suit on the basis of a sale deed executed by D-2 in his favour and sought the relief of possession of the property from defendant no. 1 who was an absolute stranger to the sale deed. The question which arose was whether defendant No. l, who was in possession, could justify his possession by urging the nullity of sale transaction between the plaintiff and defendant No. 2. In these circumstances, this Court held (vide para 21):
    • ‘The above decisions appear to be based on the principle that a person in his capacity as a defendant can raise any legitimate plea available to him under law to defeat the suit of the plaintiff. This would also include the plea that the sale deed by which the title to the property was intended to be conveyed to the plaintiff was void or fictitious or, for that matter, collusive and not intended to be acted upon. Thus, the whole question would depend upon the pleadings of the parties, the nature of the suit, the nature of the deed, the evidence led by the parties in the suit and other attending circumstances.’
  • Here, the plaintiffs suit is for ejection of the defendant and for possession of the suit property. She must succeed or fail on the title that she establishes. If she cannot succeed in proving her title, the suit must fail notwithstanding that the defendant in possession may or may not have title to the property. (See in this connection: Brahma Nand Puri v. Neki Puri, [1965] 2 SCR 233 at p. 237).”

Read Blog (Click): Declaration and Injunction

Where title claimed by plaintiff is a nullity, Need not be Challenged

It is held in Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546, that where the title claimed by the plaintiff was a nullity and wholly void, there was no need for any of the defendants including Bajranglal to challenge it by way of a substantive suit and that they could always set up nullity of title as a defence in any proceeding taken against them based upon such title.

Where title claimed is not a nullity, and not wholly void – it should be challenged

It comes out from the decision, Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546 (taking converse postulation of the proposition laid down), that where the title claimed by the plaintiff was not a nullity and not wholly void, the defendants should have challenged the title by way of a substantive suit, ‘recourse to appropriate proceeding’ (as observed in Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552).

There may be several instances where “recourse to appropriate (legal) proceeding” may be necessitated in ‘void’ transactions. Two among such instances are pointed out in Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, as under:

  • “The other type of void act, e.g., may be transaction against a minor without being represented by a next friend. Such a transaction is good transaction against the whole world. So far the minor is concerned, if he decides to avoid the same and succeeds in avoiding it by taking recourse to appropriate proceeding the transaction becomes void from the very beginning.
  • Another type of void act may be which is not a nullity but for avoiding the same a declaration has to be made. Voidable act is that which is a good act unless avoided, e.g., if a suit is filed for a declaration that a document is fraudulent and/or forged and fabricated, it is voidable as apparent state of affairs is real state of affairs and a party who alleges otherwise is obliged to prove it.”

It goes beyond doubt that such suits (including that by by minor) should be filed within the limitation period.

Prepositions as to Questioning a Deed WHERE ONE is NOT a Party:

It is beyond doubt that a party to a document cannot ignore the document without ‘cancelling’ it. In Chellakannuv. Kolanji (R. Banumathi, J.), AIR 2005 Mad 405, it is observed as under:

  • “12. The word “Cancellation” implies that the persons suing should be a party to the document. Strangers are not bound by the documents and are not obliged to sue for cancellation. When the party to the document is suing, challenging the document, he must first obtain cancellation before getting any further relief. Whether cancellation is prayed for or not or even it is impliedly sought for in substance, the suit is one for cancellation. In the present case, when the Plaintiff attacks the Sale Deeds as having been obtained from him under fraud and mis-representation the Plaintiff cannot seek for any further relief without setting aside the Sale Deeds.

In Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Rafiunnisa, 1996 (7) SCC 767, our Apex Court held as follows:

  • “When the plaintiff seeks to establish his title to the property which cannot be established without avoiding the decree or an instrument that stands as an insurmountable obstacle in his way which otherwise binds him, though not a party, the plaintiff necessarily has to seek a declaration and have that decree, instrument or contract cancelled or set aside or rescinded.” 

In such cases the plaintiff need not pay Court Fee for ‘cancellation’ of a deed; it will be sufficient to pay the fee for ‘declaration’.

Where one person is not a party to a deed, following propositions can be laid down:

  1. Where a deed is ‘null and wholly void‘ (e.g., unregistered sale/gift), he can simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • Limitation statute will have no application in such cases.
  2. If it is not ‘null and wholly void‘, he cannot simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • But, in such cases, it is not mandatory to seek ‘annulment’ of the deed – by ‘setting it aside’ or ‘cancelling it’.
    • It will be sufficient – to resort to “appropriate proceeding”, for avoiding the same, before a court of law, seeking proper declaration or otherwise.
    • It must be done within the limitation period prescribed.

Read Blog (Click): Cancellation of Sale Deeds, Settlement Deeds and Trust Deeds & Powers of Sub-Registrar in Registering Deeds

PART – II

VOIDABLE’ Transaction – Declared or Set Aside Before Seeking Substantive Relief

A voidable transaction is to be impeached or set aside before seeking substantive relief. In Narayan v. Babasaheb, (2016) 6 SCC 725, our Apex Court has observed as under:

  • “24. When once a transaction takes place in the name of the minor which is in contravention of the 1956 Act and which is not done for legal necessity, such transaction is voidable and unless such a transaction is sought to be impeached or set aside, the question of recovery of possession of that property does not arise.”

See also:

  • Ranga-nayak-amma v. K.S.   Prakash, (2008) 15 SCC 673.
  • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, (2001) 6 SCC 534.
  • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, Referred to in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588.

‘VOID’ does not mean absolutely null and void for everything

In State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar, AIR 1996 SC 906, it is held as under:

  • “In our opinion, even a void order or decision rendered between parties cannot be said to be non-existent in all cases and in all situations. Ordinarily, such an order will, in fact be effective inter parties until it is successfully avoided or challenged in higher forum. Mere use of the word “void” is not determinative of its legal impact. The word “void” has a relative rather than an absolute meaning. It only conveys the idea that the order is invalid or illegal. It can be avoided. There are degrees of invalidity, depending upon the gravity of the infirmity, as to whether it is, fundamental or otherwise.” (See also: Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552.)

Void act or transaction: When No declaration needed. It can be attacked at any time, in any court, either directly or collaterally, such as:

  1. A void judgment
    • entered by a court which lacks jurisdiction over the parties or the subject matter, or
    • lacks inherent power to enter the particular judgment, or
    • an order procured by fraud
      • Long v. Shorebank Development Corp., (182 F.3d 548 (C.A. 7 III. 1999).
      • Referred to by Kerala High Court in Sulochana Gupta v. RBG Enterprises Pvt.  Ltd.  dt. 09 Sep 2020.
  2. Void acts, void transactions, void decrees
    • wholly without jurisdiction, ab initio void.
      • 2009-4 KLT 840; (2002) 9 SCC 28; 2013 SC 1226;  2009 4 KLT 840.
      • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University AIR 2001 SC 2552, T. Arivanandanam v. T. V. Satyapal, (1977) 4 SCC 467; N. V. Srinivasa Murthy v. Mariyamma, (2005) 5 SCC 548, Manoharlal Chatrath v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi, AIR 2000 Delhi 40.
  3. Void document,
    • then suit for recovery of possession simpliciter can be filed, without the need to seek a declaration about invalidity of the documents.
      • Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation v. Subhash Sindhi Cooperative Housing Society, (2013) 5 SCC 427; State of Maharashtra v. Pravin Jethalal Kamdar: 2000 SC 1099; Sanjay Kaushish v. D.C. Kaushish, AIR 1992 Delhi 118.
    • A void document is not   required   to   be   avoided,   whereas   a   voidable document must be.
      • Ranga-nayak-amma v. K.S.   Prakash, (2008) 15 SCC 673.
  4. Sale which was entirely without jurisdiction,
    • is   non   est   in   the   eye   of   law, and such   a nullity does not, from its very nature, need setting aside.
      • Mahadeo Prasad Singh v. Ram Lochan, (1980) 4 SCC 354;
    • In case the alienation was void, the plaintiff need not get a declaration that the transaction was void, but could institute a suit for possession straightway.
      • Sukhdev Singh v. Jangir Singh, 1976 RLR 101.
  5. When a document is void ab initio,
    • a decree for setting aside the same would not be necessary as the same is non-est in the eye of law, as it would be a nullity.
      • Prem   Singh v. Birbal, (2006) 5 SCC 353  
  6. Order without jurisdiction obtained by collusion
    • Not necessary to bring an independent suit for setting it aside.
      • Gram Panchayat of Village Naulakha v. Ujagar Singh, AIR 2000 SC 3272.
  7. If declaration surplusage
    • Appanna v. Jami Venkatappadu, 1953 Mad.611.
  8. Cannot be & cannot be required to be set aside.
    • Ishar Singh Kripal Singh and Co., 1956 Cal. 321
  9. Sale Deeds Executed Without Consideration Are Void
    • According to Sec. 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, ‘sale’ is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised.
    • If a sale deed is executed without payment of price, it is not a sale. It is of no legal effect. Therefore, void. It could be ignored.  In the light of these legal principles it was found in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that that the respondent-purchasers had no earning capacity and no evidence was adduced by them about the payment of the price mentioned in the sale deeds; and hence, the sale deeds were held as void.
  10. A void deed need not be challenged by claiming a declaration
    • It was also held by the Apex Court in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that a void deed need not be challenged by claiming a declaration; and that a plea thereof can be set up and proved even in collateral proceedings.

Void act or transaction – When Required to be Set Aside

There are instances where it is not permissible for a party to treat the judgment and order as null and void without getting it set aside from the competent court, such as:

  1. When an order is void to one but valid to another.“It is well settled principle of law that even a void order is required to be set aside by a competent Court of law, inasmuch as an order may be void in respect of one person but may be valid in respect of another. A void order is necessarily not non-est. An order cannot be declared to be void in collateral proceedings and that too in the absence of the authorities who were the authors thereof.”
    • M. Meenakshi v. Metadin Agarwal, 2006-7 SCC 470; Quoted in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588. Also See: Anita International v. Sugar Works Mazdoor Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44  
  2. Where legal effect cannot be taken away without setting aside In cases where legal effect of a document cannot be taken away without setting aside the same, it cannot be treated to be void but would be obviously voidable.
    • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, (2001) 6 SCC 534.
  3. Fraud on Character of document (not contents).
    • E.g.: A sale deed was got executed as if it was a lease.
      • See: Prem Singh v. Birbal -(2006) 5 SCC 353; 2014 (3) KLJ 55.
    • In Ningawwa v. Byrappa, AIR 1968 SC 956it is held as under:
    • “The authorities make a clear distinction between fraudulent misrepresentation as to the character of the document and fraudulent misrepresentation as to the contents thereof. With reference to the former, it has been held that the transaction is void, while in the case of the latter, it is merely voidable. In Foster v. Mackinon,1869- 1 4 CP 704,  the action was by the endorsee of a bill of exchange. The defendant pleaded that he endorsed the bill on a fraudulent representation by the acceptor that he was signing a guarantee. In holding that such a plea was admissible, the Court observed: “It (signature) is invalid not merely on the ground of fraud, where fraud exists, but on the ground that the mind of the signer did not accompany the signature; in other words, that he never intended to sign, and therefore in contemplation of law never did sign, the contract to which his name is appended …. The defendant never intended to sign that contract or any such contract. He never intended to put his name to any instrument that then was or thereafter might become negotiable. He was deceived, not merely as to the legal effect, but as to the ‘actual contents’ of the instrument.” This decision has been followed by the Indian courts – Sanni Bibi v. Siddik Hossain, AIR 1919 Cal. 728, and Brindaban v. Dhurba Charan, AIR 1929 Cal. 606.
  4. If an Order is void or non-est.
    • It is required to be set aside.
    • In Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia v. Bombay Enviornmental Action Group (2011 SC) it is held as under:
    • “17. It is settled legal proposition that even if an order is void, it requires to be so declared by a competent forum and it is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
    • 18. In State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth Naduvil (dead) & Ors., AIR 1996 SC 906; Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla & Anr. v. Hind Rubber Industries Pvt. Ltd. etc, AIR 1997 SC 1240; M. Meenakshi & Ors. v. Metadin Agarwal (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (2006) 7 SCC 470; and Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194, this Court held that whether an order is valid or void, cannot be determined by the parties. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum.
    • 19. In State of Punjab & Ors. v. Gurdev Singh, Ashok Kumar, AIR 1991 SC 2219, this Court held that a party aggrieved by the invalidity of an order has to approach the court for relief of declaration that the order against him is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. While deciding the said case, this Court placed reliance upon the judgment in Smith v. East Ellore Rural District Council, [1956] 1 All ER 855 wherein Lord Radcliffe observed:-
    • “An order, even if not made in good faith is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.”
    • 20. In Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba & Ors., AIR 2004 SC 1377, this Court took a similar view observing that once an order is declared non-est by the Court only then the judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned. Such a declaration is permissible if the court comes to the conclusion that the author of the order lacks inherent jurisdiction/competence and therefore, it comes to the conclusion that the order suffers from patent and latent invalidity.
    • 21. Thus, from the above it emerges that even if the order/notification is void/voidable, the party aggrieved by the same cannot decide that the said order/notification is not binding upon it. It has to approach the court for seeking such declaration. The order may be hypothetically a nullity and even if its invalidity is challenged before the court in a given circumstance, the court may refuse to quash the same on various grounds including the standing of the petitioner or on the ground of delay or on the doctrine of waiver or any other legal reason. The order may be void for one purpose or for one person, it may not be so for another purpose or another person.” (quoted in: Anita International v. Tungabadra Sugar Works Maz. Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44)
    • In Anita International v. Tungabadra Sugar Works Maz. Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44, it was held that it was not open either to parties to a lis or to any third parties, to determine at their own, that an order passed by a Court is valid or void, or non est. They must approach a Court of competent jurisdiction, to have the said order set aside, on such grounds as may be available in law.
  5. Even if a Decree/Order is VOID AB-INITIO, Declaration Needed – In Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State of Punjab, (2011) 12 SCC 588, it is held that even if a decree is void ab initio, declaration to that effect has to be obtained by the person aggrieved from the competent court. More so, such a declaration cannot be obtained in collateral proceedings. The Apex Court held as above observing the following earlier decisions as stated under:
    • “11. It is a settled legal proposition that where a person gets an order/office by making misrepresentation or playing fraud upon the competent authority, such order cannot be sustained in the eyes of the law as fraud unravels everything. “Equity is always known to defend the law from crafty evasions and new subtleties invented to evade law”. It is a trite that “Fraud and justice never dwell together” (fraus et jus nunquam cohabitant). Fraud is an act of deliberate deception with a design to secure something, which is otherwise not due. Fraud and deception are synonymous. “Fraud is an anathema to all equitable principles and any affair tainted with fraud cannot be perpetuated or saved by the application of any equitable doctrine”. An act of fraud on court is always viewed seriously. (Vide: Meghmala v. G. Narasimha Reddy, (2010) 8 SCC 383).
    • 12. However, the question does arise as to whether it is permissible for a party to treat the judgment and order as null and void without getting it set aside from the competent court. The issue is no more res integra and stands settled by a catena of decisions of this Court. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum. (Vide: State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth , AIR 1996 SC 906; and Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla v. Hind Rubber Industries, AIR 1997 SC 1240).
    • 13. In Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, this Court held that there cannot be any doubt that even if an order is void or voidable, the same requires to be set aside by the competent court.
    • 14. In M. Meenakshi v. Metadin Agarwal, (2006) 7 SCC 470, this Court considered the issue at length and observed that if the party feels that the order passed by the court or a statutory authority is non-est/void, he should question the validity of the said order before the appropriate forum resorting to the appropriate proceedings. The Court observed as under:-“It is well settled principle of law that even a void order is required to be set aside by a competent Court of law, inasmuch as an order may be void in respect of one person but may be valid in respect of another. A void order is necessarily not non-est. An order cannot be declared to be void in collateral proceedings and that too in the absence of the authorities who were the authors thereof.” (Emphasis added)  Similar view has been reiterated by this Court in Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194.”
      • Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State of Punjab, (2011) 12 SCC 588 is relied on in: Shyam Sundar Singh v. Smt. Sulochana Devi on 23 November, 2021

When Declaration Sufficient; Need NOT be Set Aside

  • “An order may be void for one and voidable for the other. An invalid order necessarily need not be non est; in a given situation it has to be declared as such.”
    • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, Referred to in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588  
  • A party aggrieved by an invalid, void or ultra vires order, he has to approach the court for the relief of declaration that the order is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. It can be avoided automatically, simply seeking a declaration. It need not be set aside.
    • State of Punjab v. Gurdev Singh, Ashok Kumar, AIR 1991 SC 2219, (1991) 4 SCC 1.

Nullity can be raised in Execution or in Collateral proceedings

  1. Order without Jurisdiction
    • With respect to a matter over which an authority has no jurisdiction is a nullity and is open to collateral attack, an order passed by an authority which has jurisdiction over the matter, but has assumed it otherwise than in the mode prescribed by law, is not a nullity. It may be liable to be questioned in those very proceedings, but subject to that it is good, and not open to collateral attack.
      • Central Potteries Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra AIR 1966 SC 932  
  2. If possible in execution or collateral proceedings to establish – null and void
    • Orders of Courts have to be obeyed unless and until they are set aside in appeal/revision. Alternatively in any proceedings for execution or in a collateral proceedings where an order is sought to be enforced or relied on, it is possible for a party to establish that the order is null and void. Then the Court considering the matter, if satisfied, will hold that the order is null and void and therefore not executable or enforceable…………………..”
      • S. Balasubramaniyam v. P. Janakaraju, AIR Kant R 2099. Referred to by Kerala High Court in Sulochana Gupta v. RBG Enterprises Pvt.  Ltd.  dt. 09 Sep 2020.
  3. Void deed need not be challenged; plea can in collateral proceedings
    • It was held by the Apex Court in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that a void deed (for no consideration paid in a sale deed) need not be challenged by claiming a declaration; and that a plea thereof can be set up and proved even in collateral proceedings.

All Illegal Agreements are Void, But the Reverse is Not True

J.B. Pardiwala, J., in Hasvantbhai Chhanubhai Dalal v. Adesinh Mansinh Raval, 2019-2 GujLH 357, observed as under:

  • DIFFERENCE BETWEEN “VOID” AND “ILLEGAL” AGREEMENT:
  • 58. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 has made it clear that there is a thin line of difference between void and illegal agreement.
    • A void agreement is one which may not be prohibited under law, while
      • an illegal agreement is strictly prohibited by law and the parties to the agreement can be penalized for entering into such an agreement.
    • A void agreement has no legal consequences, because it is null from the very beginning.
    • Conversely, the illegal agreement is devoid of any legal effect, since it is started.
    • All illegal agreements are void, but the reverse is not true.
    • If an agreement is illegal, other agreements related to it are said to be void.
    • An agreement that violates any law or whose nature is criminal or is opposed to any public policy or immoral is an illegal agreement.
  • These agreements are void ab initio, and so the agreements collateral to the original agreement are also void. Here the collateral agreement refers to the transaction associated or incidental to the main agreement. The difference between void and illegal agreement can be drawn clearly on the following grounds:
  • [1] An agreement which loses its legal status is a void agreement. An illegal agreement is one which is not permissible under law.
  • [2] Certain void agreements are void ab initio while some agreements become void when it loses its legal binding. On the other hand, an Illegal agreement is void since the very beginning. A void agreement is not prohibited by Indian Penal Code (IPC), but IPC strictly prohibits an illegal agreement.
  • [3] The scope of a void contract is comparatively wider than an illegal contract as all agreements which are void may not necessarily be illegal, but all illegal agreements are void from its inception.
  • [4] A void agreement is not punishable under law whereas an illegal agreement is considered as an offence, hence the parties to it are punishable and penalised under Indian Penal Code (IPC).
  • [5] Collateral agreements of a void agreement may or may not be void i.e. they may be valid also. Conversely, collateral agreements of an illegal agreement cannot be enforceable by law as they are void ab initio.
  • It is quite clear that the void and illegal agreement are very different. One of the factors that make an agreement void is the illegality of the contract, such as contract whose object or consideration is unlawful. Moreover, in both the two agreements loses its enforceability by law.”

What is Illegal and What is Void

In Kantilal Manilal Parekh v. Ranchhoddas K.  Bhatt, AIR 1953 Bom 98, it is said as under:

  • “Now, it must be observed that the words “illegal” and “void” are often loosely used as synonymous terms even by lawyers, jurists and sometimes Judges. None the less, for the purposes of the present discussion it is essential to distinguish between what is illegal and what is merely void. All unlawful or illegal agreements are void; but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal. It is often difficult to determine whether an agreement which is void is or is not also illegal. But a long line of cases in England enables one to deduce certain principles for the purpose of determining whether a contract or agreement in merely void or is illegal.
  • Sir Fredrick Pollock in his Principles of Contract (13th edn.) after reviewing a number of cases lays down the following propositions (p.276) :
    • ‘When conditions are prescribed by statute for the conduct of any particular business or profession, and such conditions are not observed, agreements made in the course of such business or profession – …
    • (e) are void if it appears by the context that the object of the legislature in imposing the condition was the maintenance of public order or safety or the protection of the persons dealing with those on whom the condition is imposed :
    • (f) are valid if no specific penalty is attached to the specific transaction, and if it appears that the condition was imposed for merely administrative purposes … :
    • (h) Where no penalty is imposed, and the intention of the legislature appears to be simply that the agreement is not to be enforced, there neither the agreement itself nor the performance of it is to be treated as unlawful for any purpose’.”

PART – III

Judgment or Order Without Jurisdiction

It is trite law that a decree passed by a Court totally without jurisdiction is a nullity. The law on the point can be summarised as under:

  • Lack of jurisdiction hits a Judgment or Order by, lack of jurisdiction:
    • over the parties, or
    • as to territorial limit,
    • pecuniary limit or
    • the subject matter.
  • Lack of Jurisdiction is also visited by:
    • ‘lack of inherent power’ to enter the particular judgment, or
    • an order procured by fraud or collusion.
  • It is not permissible to treat a Judgment or an Order of a Court/Authority as null and void without setting it aside or declared by the competent court.
    • A judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned if only it is so declared by the Court.
    • It is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
    • Or, it cannot be determined by the parties.
  • If only patent and latent invalidity, or inherent lack of jurisdiction/competence, then only such a declaration is permissible.
  • Where a decree is passed by a Court without jurisdiction was a nullity, its invalidity could not be corrected, even by the consent of the concerned parties.

Though the principle that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity was applied strictly in earlier times, there is a slow change in the attitude of the courts as regards the rigidity to see the Orders and Judgments as without jurisdiction, inasmuch as the courts began to apply the doctrines of prejudice, acquiescence, patent and latent invalidity, etc, in this matter.

Fraud Vitiates all solemn act; Order obtained by practicing fraud is a Nullity

In Jai Narain Parasurampuria v. Pushpa Devi Saraf, it is observed as under:

  • “58. It is now well settled that fraud vitiated all solemn act. Any order or decree obtained by practicing fraud is a nullity.
  • {See – (1) Ram Chandra Singh vs. Savitri Devi & Ors. [(2003) 8 SCC 319]
  • followed in (2) Vice Chairman, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan & Anr. vs. Girdhari Lal Yadav [(2004) 6 SCC 325];
  • (3) State of A.P. & Anr. vs. T. Suryachandra Rao [(2005) 6 SCC 149];
  • (4) Ishwar Dutt vs. Land Acquisition Collector & Anr. [(2005) 7 SCC 190];
  • (5) Lillykutty vs. Scrutiny Committee, SC & ST Ors. [(2005 (8) SC 283];
  • (6) Chief Engineer, M.S.E.B. & Anr. vs. Suresh Raghunath Bhokare [(2005) 10 SCC 465];
  • (7) Smt. Satya vs. Shri Teja Singh [(1975) 1 SCC 120];
  • (8) Mahboob Sahab vs. Sayed Ismail & Ors. [(1995) 3 SCC 693]; and
  • (9) Asharfi Lal vs. Smt. Koili (Dead) by LRs. [(1995) 4 SCC 163].}” 

Pecuniary & Territorial Jurisdiction, and Jurisdiction in the Subject Matter

Generally speaking, the defect on the basis of pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction is not so serious compared to the defect for lack of jurisdiction in the subject matter or inherent lack of jurisdiction. It is reflected in Sec. 21, 21A, 99 and 99A, CPC.

Section 21, 21A, 99 and 99A CPC reads as under:

  • 21. Objections to jurisdiction. (1)] No objection as to the place of suing shall be allowed by any appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity and in all cases where issues or settled at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  • (2) No objection as to the competence of a Court with reference to the pecuniary limits of its jurisdiction shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity, and in all cases where issues are settled, at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  • (3) No objection as to the competence of the executing Court with reference to the local limits of its jurisdiction shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the executing Court at the earliest possible opportunity, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.]
  • 21A. Bar on suit to set aside decree on objection as to place of suing. No suit shall lie challenging the validity of a decree passed in a former suit between the same parties, or between the parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, on any ground based on an objection as to the place of suing.
  • Explanation.-The expression “former suit” means a suit which has been decided prior to the decision in the suit in which the validity of the decree is questioned, whether or not the previously decided suit was instituted prior to the suit in which the validity of such decree is questioned. 
  • 99. No decree to be reversed or modified for error or irregularity not affecting merits or jurisdiction. No decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded in appeal on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the Court.
  • Provided that nothing in this section shall apply to non-joinder of a necessary party.
  • 99A. No order under section 47 to be refused or modified unless decision of the case is prejudicially affected. Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of section 99, no order under section 47 shall be reversed or substantially varied, on account of any error, defect or irregularity in any proceeding relating to such order, unless such error, defect or irregularity has prejudicially affected the decision of the case.

Section 21A CPC takes-in Objection as to Pecuniary Jurisdiction also

In Subhas Mahadevasa Habib v. Nemasa Ambasa Dharmadas, AIR 2007 SC 1828, it is held as under:

  • “Though Section 21A of the Code speaks of a suit not being maintainable for challenging the validity of a prior decree between the same parties on a ground based on an objection as to “the place of suing“, there is no reason to restrict its operation only to an objection based on territorial jurisdiction and excluding from its purview a defect based on pecuniary jurisdiction.

Lack of ‘Subject-Matter-Jurisdiction

Decision on a Labour Dispute by a Civil Court and pronouncement on a civil matter by the Rent Controller are the common examples of lack of ‘subject-matter jurisdiction’.

Our Apex Court held in P. Dasa Muni Reddy v. P. Appa Rao, AIR 1974 SC 2089, that there will be no res judicata if the former suit was filed in a court where it had no jurisdiction over the subject matter. The Court held as under:

  • “The appellant proved that the appellant made a mistake of fact in regard to the building, being outside the mischief of the Act. The appellant instituted the-suit before the Rent Controller in mistake about the underlying and fundamental fact that the building was outside the ambit of the Act. The Civil Court has jurisdiction in the subsequent suit which is the subject of this appeal. The appellant is not disentitled to any relief on the grounds of res judicata or estoppel or waiver. As one cannot confer jurisdiction by consent similarly one cannot by agreement waive exclusive jurisdiction of courts. The Civil Court and not the Rent Control possesses jurisdiction over the building in question.”

In Chief Engineer Hydel Project v. Ravinder Nath, AIR 2008 SC 1315, it was held that the civil court had no jurisdiction to decide the dispute of termination of service of a workman as the labour Court alone had the jurisdiction with respect to the same. The Supreme Court held as under:

  • “Once the original decree itself has been held to be without jurisdiction and hit by the doctrine of coram non judice, there would be no question of upholding the same merely on the ground that the objection to the jurisdiction was not taken at the initial, First Appellate or the Second Appellate stage. It must, therefore, be held that the civil court in this case had no jurisdiction to deal with the suit and resultantly the judgments of the Trial Court, First Appellate Court and the Second Appellate Court are liable to be set aside for that reason alone and the appeal is liable to be allowed.”

With respect to jurisdiction of courts, it is held in Harshad Chiman Lal Modi v. DLF Universal Ltd., AIR 2005 SC 4446, as under:

  • “The jurisdiction of a court may be classified into several categories. The important categories are
    • (i) Territorial or local jurisdiction;
    • (ii) Pecuniary jurisdiction; and
    • (iii) Jurisdiction over the subject matter.
  • So far as territorial and pecuniary jurisdictions are concerned, objection to such jurisdiction has to be taken at the earliest possible opportunity and in any case at or before settlement of issues. The law is well settled on the point that if such objection is not taken at the earliest, it cannot be allowed to be taken at a subsequent stage. Jurisdiction as to subject matter, however, is totally distinct and stands on a different footing. Where a court has no jurisdiction over the subject matter of the suit by reason of any limitation imposed by statute, charter or commission, it cannot take up the cause or matter. An order passed by a court having no jurisdiction is nullity.

No Jurisdiction, and No Territorial or Pecuniary Jurisdiction & Prejudice

In Hasham Abbas Sayyad v. Usman Abbas Sayyad, AIR 2007 SC 1077, it is held by the apex Court as under:

  • “ We may, however hasten to add that a distinction must be made between a decree passed by a court which has no territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction in the light of Section 21 of the CPC; and a decree passed by a court having no jurisdiction in regard to the subject matter of the suit. Whereas in the former case, the appellate court may not interfere with the decree unless prejudice is shown, ordinarily the second category of the cases would be interfered with.”

Availability of Alternative Forum Objection be taken at the Earliest,

It is held by our Apex Court Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan: AIR 1954 SC 340. as under:

  • “The policy underlying sections 21 and 99 of the Civil Procedure Code and section 11 of the Suits Valuation Act is the same, namely, that when a case had been tried by a Court on the merits and judgment rendered, it should not be liable to be reversed purely on technical grounds, unless it had resulted in a failure of justice, and the policy of the Legislature has been to treat objections to jurisdiction both territorial and pecuniary as technical and not open to consideration by an appellate Court, unless there has been a prejudice on the merits.”(Quoted in: Bahrein Petroleum v. P.J. Pappu, AIR 1966 SC 634)

It is held by our Apex Court in Ramesh Chand Ardawatiya v. Anil Panjwani, AIR 2003 SC 2508, as under:

  • “Where there is a special tribunal conferred with jurisdiction or exclusive jurisdiction to try a particular class of cases even then the civil court can entertain a civil suit of that class on availability of a few grounds. An exclusion of jurisdiction of the civil court is not to be readily inferred. (See Dhulabhai v. State of M.P, (1968) 3 SCR 662) An objection as to the exclusion of the civil court‘s jurisdiction for availability of alternative forum should be taken before the trial court and at the earliest, failing which the higher court may refuse to entertain the plea in the absence of proof of prejudice.”

Lack of Jurisdiction 3 Categories

As shown above, defects on pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction are not so fatal as compared to inherent lack of jurisdiction or jurisdiction on the subject matter of the suit. The objections as to the first category has to be raised in the pleadings at the earliest opportunity. If it is not done the party concerned is loses his chance.

The objections to the second category (inherent lack of jurisdiction or jurisdiction on the subject matter) can be raised without pleading and at any stage of the suit or even in execution or collateral proceedings.

The third category in this line is the objection that can be raised in any stage, including appeal or revision, without pleading, but not in execution or collateral proceedings (eg. bar by limitation). Ittyavira Mathai v. Varkey Varkey, AIR 1964 SC 907; Bhawarlal Bhandari v. M/s. Universal Heavy Mechanical Lifting Enterprises, AIR 1999 SC 246.

It is held by our Apex Court in Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan, AIR 1954 SC 340. as under:

  • “It is a fundamental principle well established that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity, and that its invalidity could be set up whenever and wherever it is sought to be enforced or relied upon, even at the stage of execution and even in collateral proceedings. A defect of jurisdiction, whether it is pecuniary or territorial, or whether it is in respect of the subject-matter of the action, strikes at the very authority of the Court to pass any decree, and such a defect cannot be cured even by consent of parties.” (Referred to in : Foreshore Co-operative Housing Society Limited v. Praveen D. Desai (Dead) AIR 2015 SC 2006.)

Suit Barred by Limitation – Decree Overlooking the same is only Illegal, Not Void

Objection need not be pleaded; But, cannot be raised in Execution or Collateral proceedings.

In Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In the case of Ittyavira Mathai v. Varkey Varkey and another, AIR 1964 SC 907, the question which fell for consideration before this Court was if a Court, having jurisdiction over the parties to the suit and subject matter thereof passes a decree in a suit which was barred by time, such a decree would come within the realm of nullity and the Court answered the question in the negative holding that such a decree cannot be treated to be nullity but at the highest be treated to be an illegal decree.”

No Estoppel, Waiver, Acquiescence or Res judicata on any Order Without Jurisdiction

In Hasham Abbas Sayyad v. Usman Abbas Sayyad, AIR 2007 SC 1077, our Apex Court held as under:

  • “The core question is as to whether an order passed by a person lacking inherent jurisdiction would be a nullity. It will be so. The principles of estoppel, waiver and acquiescence or even res judicata which are procedural in nature would have no application in a case where an order has been passed by the Tribunal/ Court which has no authority in that behalf. Any order passed by a court without jurisdiction would be coram non judice being a nullity, the same ordinarily should not be given effect to. (see Chief Justice of Andhra Pradesh and another v. L.V.A. Dikshitulu and others, AIR 1979 SC 193 & M.D. Army Welfare Housing Organization v. Sumangal Services (P) Ltd. (2004) 8 SCC 619).”

Parties to a lis not to determine at their own – that an Order of a Court is void.

Modern trend in decisions emphasise that it is not permissible to treat a Judgment or an Order of a Court/Authority as null and void without setting it aside from the competent court. In Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia v. Bombay Environmental Action Group, AIR 2011 SC 1140; (2011) 3 SCC 363 , it was held as under:

  • “17. It is settled legal proposition that even if an order is void, it requires to be so declared by a competent forum and it is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
  • 18. In
    • State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth Naduvil (dead) & Ors., AIR 1996 SC 906; 
    • Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla & Anr. v. Hind Rubber Industries Pvt. Ltd. etc, AIR 1997 SC 1240; 
    • M. Meenakshi & Ors. v. Metadin Agarwal (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (2006) 7 SCC 470; and 
    • Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194,
  • this Court held that whether an order is valid or void, cannot be determined by the parties. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum.
  • 19. In
    • State of Punjab & Ors. v. Gurdev Singh, AIR 1991 SC 2219,
  • this Court held that a party aggrieved by the invalidity of an order has to approach the court for relief of declaration that the order against him is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. While deciding the said case, this Court placed reliance upon the judgment in Smith v. East Ellore Rural District Council, [1956] 1 All ER 855 wherein Lord Radcliffe observed:-
    • “An order, even if not made in good faith is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.”
  • 20. In
    • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba , AIR 2004 SC 1377,
  • this Court took a similar view observing that once an order is declared non-est by the Court only then the judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned. Such a declaration is permissible if the court comes to the conclusion that the author of the order lacks inherent jurisdiction/competence and therefore, it comes to the conclusion that the order suffers from patent and latent invalidity.
  • 21. Thus, from the above it emerges that even if the order/notification is void/voidable, the party aggrieved by the same cannot decide that the said order/notification is not binding upon it. It has to approach the court for seeking such declaration. The order may be hypothetically a nullity and even if its invalidity is challenged before the court in a given circumstance, the court may refuse to quash the same on various grounds including the standing of the petitioner or on the ground of delay or on the doctrine of waiver or any other legal reason. The order may be void for one purpose or for one person, it may not be so for another purpose or another person.”

In Anita International v. Sugar Works Mazdoor Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44  our Apex Court held as under:

  • “45. We are also of the considered view, as held by the Court in the
    • Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia case, AIR 2011 SC 1140,
  • that it is not open either to parties to a lis or to any third parties, to determine at their own, that an order passed by a Court is valid or void. A party to the lis or a third party, who considers an order passed by a Court as void or non est, must approach a Court of competent jurisdiction, to have the said order set aside, on such grounds as may be available in law. However, till an order passed by a competent Court is set aside, as was also held by this Court in the
    • Official Liquidator, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, 2013 4 SCC 381, and
    • the Jehal Tanti, AIR 2013 SC 2235, (2013) 14 SCC 689, cases,
  • the same would have the force of law, and any act/action carried out in violation thereof, would be liable to be set aside. We endorse the opinion expressed by this Court in the
    • Jehal Tanti case, AIR 2013 SC 2235,
  • In the above case, an earlier order of a Court was found to be without jurisdiction after six years. In other words, an order passed by a Court having no jurisdiction, had subsisted for six years. This Court held, that the said order could not have been violated while it subsisted. And further, that the violation of the order, before it is set aside, is liable to entail punishment, for its disobedience. For us to conclude otherwise, may have disastrous consequences. In the above situation, every cantankerous and quarrelsome litigant would be entitled to canvass, that in his wisdom, the judicial order detrimental to his interests, was void, voidable, or patently erroneous. And based on such plea, to avoid or disregard or even disobey the same. This course can never be permitted.
  • 46. To be fair to learned counsel for the appellants, it needs to be noticed, that reliance was also placed on behalf of the appellants on the
    • Kiran Singh (AIR 1954 SC 340),
    • the Sadashiv Prasad Singh (2015-5 SCC 574), and
    • the Jagmittar Sain Bhagat  (2013- 10 SCC 136) cases,
  • to contend, that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction was a nullity, and that, its invalidity could not be corrected, even by the consent of the concerned parties. We are of the considered view, that the proposition debated and concluded in the judgments relied upon by learned counsel for the appellants (referred to above) are of no relevance, to the conclusions drawn in the foregoing paragraph. In our determination hereinabove, we have not held, that a void order can be legitimized. What we have concluded in the foregoing paragraph is, that while an order passed by a Court subsists, the same is liable to be complied with, till it is set aside.”

PART – IV

Civil Court can Examine ‘Non-compliance of Law’; Not, ‘Erroneous’ Orders

Even when a tribunal is provided for reddressal of remedies, the civil courts will have jurisdiction to examine the allegation of non-compliance of the provisions of the statute or of any of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure. If the challenge is only as to the ‘erroneous’ character of the order, other than ‘jurisdictional error’, the suit will not be maintainable. (South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33). Erroneous decisions of a tribunal can be corrected only in an appeal, if so provided.

Civil Court can adjudge plea – Order of the (Land) Tribunal is one without jurisdiction

The ultimate decision of the (Land) Tribunal can be challenged in the Civil Court and it can adjudge the plea that the order passed by the Tribunal was one without jurisdiction and was a nullity, in spite of finality and exclusionary clauses (or of provision for appeal/revision), if the order passed by the (Land) Tribunal was one illegally assuming jurisdiction, where it did not exist, and the decision was not a decision under the Act, but a nullity. (Muhammad Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, AIR  1993 Ker 104).

Tribunal violates mandatory provision – Order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity

When an order is passed by a statutory Land-Tribunal violating a mandatory provision, the order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity. The civil courts which are courts of “general jurisdiction” can decide whether a tribunal or authority exercising statutory jurisdiction has acted in excess or beyond the statutory powers. The civil courts can interfere when the order of the statutory tribunal or authority is really not an order under the Act conferring jurisdiction on it. In other words, if a tribunal abuses its power or does not act in conformity with the Act, but in violation of its provisions (Firm Seth Radha Kishan v. Ludhiana Municipality AIR 1963 SC 1547), the jurisdiction of the civil court will not be excluded (Srinivasa v. State of A.P., AIR 1971 S.C.71).

In Secretary of State v. Mask & Co. (AIR 1940 PC 105) it was held as under:

  • “It is settled law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Courts is not to be readily inferred, but that such exclusion must either be explicitly expressed or clearly implied. It is also well settled that even if jurisdiction is so excluded, the Civil Courts have jurisdiction to examine into cases where the provisions of the Act have not been complied with, or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure”.

In Dhulabai v. State of M.P. (AIR 1969 S.C. 78), it is held as follows:

  • “Where the statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the civil courts jurisdiction must be held lobe excluded if here is adequate remedy to do what the civil courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, dues not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or me statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principle of judicial procedure.”

See Blog: Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs of a Club or Society

In Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra, AIR 2021 SC 2932, our Apex Court considered whether the requirement in Sec. 31 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA) that that when a foreign citizen ‘acquire or hold or transfer or dispose of’ Immovable Property in India, he must have obtained the prior permission for the same from the Reserve Bank of India.was mandatory or only directory. The Supreme Court held that the provision is mandatory, relying on the following earlier Decisions:

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536;  (1977) 2 SCC 424 Prohibition and negative words can rarely be directory. Under Section 31  read with Sections 47, 50 and 63 of the Act, it is in the nature of prohibition. When penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.
Union of India & Ors. v. A.K. Pandey, (2009) 10 SCC 552Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
Union of India v. Colonel L.S.N. Murthy & Anr. (2012) 1 SCC 71  The contract would be lawful, unless the consideration and object thereof is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of law. And, in such a case the consideration or object is unlawful and would become void and that unless the effect of an agreement results in performance of an unlawful act, an agreement which is otherwise legal cannot be held to be void. Further, if the effect of an agreement did not result in performance of an unlawful act, as a matter of public policy, the court should refuse to declare the contract void with a view to save the bargain entered into by the parties and the solemn promises made thereunder. The Court adverted to the exposition in the earlier decision in Shri Lachoo Mal v. Shri Radhey Shyam, AIR  1971 SC 221 as to what makes an agreement, which is otherwise legal, void is that its performance is impossible except by disobedience of law.

Void Decree or Document – Setting Aside or Declaration – Not needed

Sale deed executed by a stranger:

A sale deed executed by a stranger to the property is void an initio. It need not be cancelled or set aside.’ (See: Muppudathi Pillai v. Krishnaswami Pillai, AIR 1960 Mad 1; Kamalakshi Amma v. Sangeetha, AIR 2012 Ker 180.) A suit for declaration will be sufficient.

Title deed conveys no title – can be ignored

In Pragnya Rout V. Hemaprava Ray, AIR 2006 Ori 21, it is observed as under:

  • “22. Law is well settled that a decree and/or a registered document which is otherwise ab initio void need not be set aside. Such decree does not strip the right of a party who is the real owner and was not a signatory to the document in question or a party to the suit. It is not the law that merely because somebody has obtained a sale deed he has got title to the property as vendee and his title has to be declared so long as the deed has not been set aside by a competent Court of law. If the deed is void at the threshold, no steps need be taken to set it aside. The vendor may not have title to convey, and in such a case the title deed conveys no title and can be ignored as not worth the paper written on. (see (1992) 2 OLR 362 Sarbeswar v. Commissioner, Consolidation.) In view of such position of law, the argument advanced by Mr. P. Mohanty, learned counsel for the appellant, that the suit is not maintainable in the absence of a prayer to set aside the subsequent sales cannot be accepted.”

In Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608: (2006) 5 SCC 353, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “16. When a document is valid, no question arises of its cancellation. When a document is void ab initio, a decree for setting aside the same would not be necessary as the same is non-est in the eye of law, as it would be a nullity.”

It is held in Gorakh Nath Dube vs Hari Narain Singh, AIR 1973 SC 2451, that where there is a document the legal effect of which can only be taken away by setting it aside or its cancellation, it could be urged that the consolidation authorities have no power to cancel the deed, and, therefore, it must be held to be binding on them so long as it is not cancelled by a court having the power to cancel it.

In Sukhlal v. Devilal, 1954 RajLW 136, Wanchco C.J. held as under:

  • “There is a difference between a suit for the cancellation of an instrument and one for a declaration that the instrument is not binding on the plaintiff, when the plaintiff seeks to establish, a title in himself and cannot establish that title without removing an insuperable obstacle such as a decree or a deed to which he has been a party or by which he is otherwise bound then quite clearly he must get that decree or deed cancelled or declared void in toto and his suit is in substance a suit for the cancellation of the decree or deed notwithstanding the fact that the suit may have been framed as a suit for a declaration. On the other hand, when the plaintiff is seeking to establish a title and finds himself threatened by a decree or a transaction between third parties, he is not in a position to get that decree or deed cancelled in toto. The proper remedy in such a case is to get a declaration that the decree or deed is invalid so far as he himself is concerned, and, therefore, he may sue for a declaration to that effect and not for the cancellation of the decree or the deed.” [See:’ Vellayya Konar v. Ramaswami Konar’ (AIR 1939 Mad 894)].

A void deed can be ignored and seek partition. It need not be set aside

The Supreme Court held in Mrs. Umadevi Nambiar vs Thamarasseri Roman Catholic Diocese (2022-3 Ker HC 113 SC )

  • “15. It is not always necessary for a plaintiff in a suit for partition to seek the cancellation of the alienations. There are several reasons behind this principle. One is that the alienees as well as the co­ sharer are still entitled to sustain the alienation to the extent of the share of the co­sharer. It may also be open to the alienee, in the final decree proceedings, to seek the allotment of the transferred property, to the share of the transferor, so that equities are worked out in a fair manner. Therefore, the High Court was wrong in putting against the appellant, her failure to challenge the alienations.”

Kerala High Court  in A.  Baiju Vs. Sasidharan, Decided on July 30, 2019, it is observed as under:

  • “The defendants claim under a sale deed executed by Bhanu. As already seen, Bhanu could sell only his undivided interest. Even if he executed a sale deed selling the property as such, it would not bind the other co-owners. Those co-owners can just ignore the sale deed and seek partition. It is not at all necessary to get the sale deed set aside.”
  • See also: R. Ganapathi Vs. Inspector General of Registration, AIR  2020 Mad 248;
  • Perumal Vs. Ramasamy, 2018-3 MadLW 830,

PART – V

Statute imposing Penalty – Effect on Validity of Contract

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536, is a direct authority on this matter. It is laid down as under:

  • 19. Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. (See Mellis v. Shirley L.B. [(1885) 16 QBD 446 : 55 LJQB 143 : 2 TLR 360] ) A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
  • The penalty may be imposed with intent merely to deter persons from entering into the contract or for the purposes of revenue or that the contract shall not be entered into so as to be valid at law. A distinction is sometimes made between contracts entered into with the object of committing an illegal act and contracts expressly or impliedly prohibited by statute. The distinction is that in the former class one has only to look and see what acts the statute prohibits; it does not matter whether or not it prohibits a contract: if a contract is made to do a prohibited act, that contract will be unenforceable. In the latter class, one has to consider not what act the statute prohibits, but what contracts it prohibits. One is not concerned at all with the intent of the parties, if the parties enter into a prohibited contract, that contract is unenforceable. (See St. John Shipping Corporation v. Joseph Rank [(1957) 1 QB 267].) (See also Halsbury’s Laws of England, 3rd Edn., Vol. 8, p. 141.)
  • 20. It is well established that a contract which involves in its fulfilment the doing of an act prohibited by statute is void. The legal maxim A pactis privatorum publico juri non derogatur means that private agreements cannot alter the general law. Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court can lend its assistance to give it effect. (See Mellis v. Shirley L.B.) What is done in contravention of the provisions of an Act of the legislature cannot be made the subject of an action.
  • 21. If anything is against law though it is not prohibited in the statute but only a penalty is annexed the agreement is void. In every case where a statute inflicts a penalty for doing an act, though the act be not prohibited, yet the thing is unlawful, because it is not intended that a statute would inflict a penalty for a lawful act.
  • 22. Penalties are imposed by statute for two distinct purposes:
    • (1) for the protection of the public against fraud, or for some other object of public policy;
    • (2) for the purpose of securing certain sources of revenue either to the State or to certain public bodies. If it is clear that a penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.”
  • (Quoted in: Asha John vs. Vikram Malhotra, AIR 2021 SC 2932.)

PART – VI

LIMITATION

No Period for Declaration, for Void Marriage

It is observed in Swapnanjali Sandeep Patil v. Sandeep Ananda Patil, 2019 AIR SC 1500, that No period of limitation is prescribed so far as presentation of petition for declaration to declare a marriage being nullity/void marriage, under Section 24 of the Act and that once the marriage is found to be void the same is a nullity and at any time the same can be declared as null.

Dismissal of plaintiff from service

State of Punjab v. Gurdev Singh, AIR 1991 SC 2219 arose from the suit for declaration that the order dismissing the plaintiff from service was ultra vires, unconstitutional, violative of principles of natural justice and void ab initio. It is observed that such a suit must be filed with three years from the date of passing of order or when departmental appeal or revision is filed from the date of dismissal of such appeal/revision, according to the provisions of Article 113 of the Limitation Act, 1963,.

Invalidity of the order

In Pune Municipal Corporation v. State of Maharashtra, 2007 AIR SC 2414; 2007 5 SCC 211, it is held as under:

  • “Setting aside the decree passed by all the Courts and referring to several cases, this Court held that if the party aggrieved by invalidity of the order intends to approach the Court for declaration that the order against him was inoperative, he must come before the Court within the period prescribed by limitation. If the statutory time of limitation expires, the Court cannot give the declaration sought for”.

Cancellation of a transaction on fraud (voidable transaction)

The Supreme Court, in Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608, it was held that where a suit is filed for cancellation of a transaction on the ground of coercion, under influence or fraud, Article 59 of the Limitation Act would apply. (Referred to in Mohinder Singh Verma v. J P S Verma, 2015 AIR(CC) 3043).

Declaration and Recovery– Limitation, governed by Article 65 and not Article 58

A suit for declaration is governed by Article 58 of the Limitation Act and the period of limitation is three years. But, in Seshumull MShah vSayed Abdul Rashid , AIR 1991 Kar. 273, Karnataka High Court observed that a suit where possession is claimed as a consequence of the declaration, it would be governed by Article 65 and not Article 58 of the Limitation Act.

In State of Maharashtra Vs. Pravin Jethalal Kamdar, (2000) 3 SCC 460, it was held by the Supreme Court that merely for the fact that the plaintiff, besides the relief of possession, sought declaration also is of no consequence, and that in such a case the governing article of the Schedule to the Limitation Act would be Article 65. In C. Natrajan v. Ashim Bai, (2007) 14 SCC 183, the Apex Court held that in the suit which has been filed “for possession, as a consequence of declaration of the plaintiff‘s title, Article 58 will have no application.” ,

In Ashok Kumar v. Mohd. Rustam, 2016 SCC OnLine Del 466: MANU/DE/0197/2016
CS (OS) 3195/2012, it was held as under:

  • “16. Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, for the relief of declaration, undoubtedly provides limitation of three years from the date when the cause of action accrues. However I am of the opinion that once the plaintiff, besides suing for declaration of title also sues for recovery of possession of immovable property on the basis of title, the limitation for such a suit would be governed by the limitation provided for the relief of possession and not by limitation provided for the relief of declaration. To hold otherwise would tantamount to providing two different periods of limitation for a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on title i.e. of three years if the suit besides for the said relief is also for the relief of declaration of title and of twelve years as aforesaid if no relief of declaration is claimed. A relief of declaration of title to immovable property is implicit in a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on title inasmuch as without establishing title to property, if disputed, no decree for the relief of possession also can be passed. Thus, merely because a plaintiff in such a suit also specifically claims the relief of declaration of title, cannot be a ground to treat him differently and reduce the period of limitation available to him from that provided of twelve years, to three years. “
  • (referred to in Vidur Impex and Traders Pvt. Ltd. v. Pradeep Kumar Khanna, , 241 (2017) DLT 481)

In Ashok Kumar v. Gangadhar, 2007 (2) ALD 313, 2007 (3) ALT 561 , it is held as under:

  • “If the contention of the defendants that Article 58 applies to the suit for possession based on title where declaration of title is also sought, is accepted, it would amount to ignoring the relief for recovery of possession and application of Article 65 to a suit for possession and taking away the right of the plaintiff to prove that the suit is within 12 years from the date when the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff.  If such a suit were to be decided with reference to Article 58 on the ground that the declaration is sought for, application of Article 65 to the suit for possession would be rendered otiose.  Such a construction would be opposed to all principles of interpretation of statutes.  Therefore different Articles of the Limitation Act will have to be interpreted harmoniously.  When such an interpretation is given to Articles 58 and 65 and when the suit is filed for declaration of title to the suit property with consequential relief of possession in my humble view Article 65 of the Limitation Act would apply and not Article 58 of the Limitation Act”.

It is held in Mechineni Chokka Rao v Sattu Sattamma, 2006 (1) ALD 116,   as under:

  • “10…. It is obvious that Article 58 is in the nature of residuary provision among the declaratory suits. Indubitably the relief of declaration can be sought for in respect of an immovable property or movable property, or in respect of an instrument, or in respect of a decree, or in respect of an adoption. Thus, various types of declaratory reliefs can be sought for pertaining to those categories. Therefore, the relief of declaration alone appears to be not the criterion for prescribing the period of limitation but the subject-matter of the suit in respect of which the declaration is sought for, appears to be germane for consideration.”
  • “13. The problem can be viewed in a different dimension. The right over an immovable property will get extinguished as can be seen from Section 27 of the Act only after the expiry of the period prescribed for filing the suit for possession as per Articles 64 and 65 of the Act. Therefore, if the period falls short of the requisite period of 12 years the right over an immovable property will not get extinguished. When the person has a right over an immovable property which right is not extinguished as yet, he can lay the suit in respect of an immovable property even praying for the relief of declaration at any time within the period of 12 years at the end of which, his right would get extinguished. When we consider this clear mandate contained in Section 27 f the Act, it becomes manifest that a declaratory relief in respect of an immovable property can be sought for at any time within the period of 12 years after which the right will get automatically extinguished, notwithstanding the fact that Article 58, the residuary Article for filing declaratory suits, prescribes a period of three years limitation. … ….”

Declaration on VOID character of document – Limitation governed by consequential relief

In S. Krishnamma v. T.S. Viswajith :  2009 (4) KLT 840 it is held that Article 58 is not applicable for declaration that is sought only as an ancillary relief. It is held as under:

  • When a declaration regarding the void character of the document is sought for that is which would not govern the period of limitation for the suit. The consequential relief sought for is to be treated as main relief governing the period of limitation for the suit. (See Mrs. Indira Bhalchandran Gokhale Vs. Union of India & Another-AIR 1990 Bombay 98). Therefore declaration prayed for in this case as relief Nos. 1 and 2 were unnecessary, and even if made, need only be treated as ancillary to the main relief of partition of immovable properties and the claim that appellant is entitled to get family pension.

PART – VI

NATURAL JUSTICE: Sea Change in Application – Treating an Order ‘Nullity’

In early times, uniformly followed legal concept was that ‘denial of natural justice itself causes prejudice’. It is pointed out by the Bombay High Court in Gulab Babusaheb Bargiri Vs. Executive Engineer, Maharashtra State Electricity Board[1]  that, after Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India,[2] the principle of natural justice has undergone a sea change.

In PD Agrawal v. State Bank of India (2006)[3] the Apex Court observed that the principles of natural justice ‘has in recent time‘ undergone a sea change. Relying on State Bank of Patiala Vs. SK Sharma (1996)[4] and Rajendra Singh Vs. State of MP (1996)[5] the Court held that principle of law was that some real prejudice must have been caused to the complainant. 

Analysing previous judgments it is observed in State of UP Vs. Sudhir Kumar Singh, 2020 SCC OnLine SC 847, that the following are the tests to determine the non-observance of natural justice:

  • “(1)Natural justice is a flexible tool in the hands of the judiciary to reach out in fit cases to remedy injustice. The breach of the audi alteram partem rule cannot by itself, without more, lead to the conclusion that prejudice is thereby caused.
  • (2)Where procedural and/or substantive provisions of law embody the principles of natural justice, their infraction per se does not lead to invalidity of the orders passed. Here again, prejudice must be caused to the litigant, except in the case of a mandatory provision of law which is conceived not only in individual interest, but also in public interest.
  • (3)No prejudice is caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice where such person does not dispute the case against him or it. This can happen by reason of estoppel, acquiescence, waiver and by way of non-challenge or non-denial or admission of facts, in cases in which the Court finds on facts that no real prejudice can therefore be said to have been caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice.
  • (4)In cases where facts can be stated to be admitted or indisputable, and only one conclusion is possible, the Court does not pass futile orders of setting aside or remand when there is, in fact, no prejudice caused. This conclusion must be drawn by the Court on an appraisal of the facts of a case, and not by the authority who denies natural justice to a person.
  • (5)The “prejudice” exception must be more than a mere apprehension or even a reasonable suspicion of a litigant. It should exist as a matter of fact, or be based upon a definite inference of likelihood of prejudice flowing from the non-observance of natural justice.”

Natural justice is not applied in a vacuum without reference to the relevant facts and circumstances of the case. It is no unruly horse. It cannot be put in a straight jacket formula. [See: Maharashtra State Financial Corporation v. Suvarna Board Mills, 1994-5 SCC 566, Viveka Nand Sethi vs. Chairman, J. & K. Bank Ltd. & Ots. (2005) 5 SCC 337 and State of U.P. vs. Neeraj Awasthi & Ors. JT 2006 (1) SC 19. See also Mohd. Sartaj vs. State of U.P. (2006) 1 SCALE 265

EARLIER VIEWOrder in breach of Natural Justice is a Nullity

In AR Antulay Vs. RS Nayak (1988)[6] a seven Judge Bench of our Apex Court has held that when an order has been passed in violation of a fundamental right or in breach of the principles of natural justice, the same would be nullity.[7]

The Supreme Court, in SL KapurVs. Jagmohan (1981),[8]  held as under:

  • “In our view the principles of natural justice know of no exclusionary rule dependent on whether it would have made any difference if natural justice had been observed. The non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice to any man and proof of prejudice independently of proof of denial of natural justice is unnecessary. It ill comes from a person who has denied justice that the person who has been denied justice is not prejudiced.”

See Blog: Natural Justice – Not an Unruly Horse, Cannot be Placed in a Straight-Jacket & Not a Judicial Cure-all.

PART – VII

SHAM transactions and Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act

Diplock LJ, in Snook v. London and West Riding Investments Ltd., [1967] 2 QB 786, it is observed as under:

  • “As regards the contention of the plaintiff that the transactions between himself, Auto Finance and the defendants were a ‘sham,’ it is, I think, necessary to consider what, if any, legal concept is involved in the use of this popular and pejorative word. I apprehend that, if it has any meaning in law, it means acts done or documents executed by the parties to the ‘sham’ which are intended by them to give to third parties or to the court the appearance of creating between the parties legal rights and obligations different from the actual legal rights and obligations (if any) which the parties intend to create.”
  • “But one thing, I think, is clear in legal principle, morality and the authorities (see Yorkshire Railway Wagon Co. v Maclure and Stoneleigh Finance Ltd. v Phillips), that for acts or documents to be a ‘sham,’ with whatever legal consequences follow from this, all the parties thereto must have a common intention that the acts or documents are not to create the legal rights and obligations which they give the appearance of creating. No unexpressed intentions of a ‘shammer’ effect the rights of a party whom he deceived. There is an express finding in this case that the defendants were not parties to the alleged ‘sham.’ So this contention fails.”

Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 directs exclusion of evidence or oral agreement as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso to Section 92 any fact that may invalidate any document, such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution can be led into evidence. It permits the plaintiff to assert that the document was never intended to be acted upon and the document is a sham. But, such question arises only when one party asserts that there has been a different transaction altogether than what is recorded in the document. Oral evidence is admissible in law for that purpose. [See: Placido Francisco Pinto
v. Jose Francisco Pinto, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 842. Referred: Smt. Gangabai v. Smt. Chhabubai (1982) 1 SCC 4, and Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani, (2003) 6 SCC 595].

Section 92 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “92. Exclusion of evidence or oral agreement. – When the terms of any such contract, grant or other disposition of property, or any matter required by law to be reduced to the form of a document, have been proved according to the last section, no evidence of any oral agreement or statement shall be admitted, as between the parties to any such instrument or their representatives in interest, for the purpose of contradicting, varying, adding to, or subtracting from, its terms:
  • Proviso (1).—Any fact may be proved which would invalidate any document, or which would entitle any person to any decree or order relating thereto; such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution, want of capacity in any contracting party, want or failure of consideration, or mistake in fact or law.”

In Roop Kumar it is held as follows:

  • “22. This Court in Gangabai v. Chhabubai [(1982) 1 SCC 4 : AIR 1982 SC 20] and Ishwar Dass Jain v. Sohan Lal [(2000) 1 SCC 434 : AIR 2000 SC 426] with reference to Section 92(1) held that it is permissible to a party to a deed to contend that the deed was not intended to be acted upon, but was only a sham document. The bar arises only when the document is relied upon and its terms are sought to be varied and contradicted. Oral evidence is admissible to show that document executed was never intended to operate as an agreement but that some other agreement altogether, not recorded in the document, was entered into between the parties.”

See blog: Oral Evidence on Contents of Document, Irrelevant

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Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Will

Divorce

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India



‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be proved by ‘CERTIFICATE’ under Sec. 65B Evidence Act.

Other ‘information’ like photo, audio/video CD, etc. cannot be proved by ‘Certificate’.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Introspection

No.Analysis of the authorLaw rendered by the Supreme Court
[Arjun Panditrao, (2020)3 SCC 216]
1Sec. 65B deals with ‘Admissibility’ (alone) of a Computer Output (copy).**
If ‘truth’ (of information in an electronic record) is in question, it must be proved, as in the matter of any other fact.
“31. The non-obstante clause (in Sec. 65B) … makes it clear that when it comes to information contained in an electronic record, admissibility and proof thereof must follow the drill of Section 65B…..”
2The non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything’) in Sec. 65B does not exclude application of Sec. 62 to 65. 
It is an (additional) enabling provision to prove copy ‘notwithstanding anything contained’ in the Evidence Act.
“31.  … Sec. 65B, … is a special provision in this behalf – Sec. 62 to 65 being irrelevant for this purpose (admissibility and proof).
“34. … the special provisions of Sec. 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act are a complete Code in themselves when it comes to admissibility of evidence of information contained in electronic records …. a written certificate under Sec. 65B(4) is a sine qua non for admissibility of (such evidence)….”
3Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit (except for ‘Statements’. 
‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be PROVED by ‘Certificate’ under S. 65B(4). 
“59. .. the certificate required under Sec. 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of EVIDENCE by way of ELECTRONIC RECORD
Oral evidence in the place of such certificate cannot possibly suffice as Sec. 65B(4) is a mandatory requirement of the law. …
Sect. 65B(4) … clearly states that secondary evidence is admissible only if lead in the manner stated and not otherwise. To hold otherwise would render Section 65B(4) otiose.”
4Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B.
•The computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
(i) USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
(ii) activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
(iii) BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
(iv) information was REGULARLY FED
(v) in the ORDINARY COURSE,
(vi) information is REPRODUCED in the ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
Apex Court accepted –
CCTV footage in: Navjot Sandhu, (2005); Tomaso Bruno (2015),
CDs/VCDs in: Arjun Panditrao (2020)
CDs in: Anvar PV (2014).
CDR in: Sonu (2017)
Tape recorded conversation in: Vikram Singh (2017)
Videography of the scene of crime in: Shafhi (2018).
** Note: Sec. 65B Certificate is needed only for proving ‘computer output’ – secondary evidence; and not for original ‘electronic evidence’.
The distinction between original and copy (secondary evidence) is maintained in Sec. 65B so also in the Supreme Court decision , Arjun Panditrao.

Contents in a Nutshell

What is brought about by Section 65B, Evidence Act?

  1. It enables a litigant to prove computer output (secondary evidence)
    • without further proof or production of electronic record’ (original), and
    • by producing a ‘certificate’ (as provided in this Section).
  2. Presumption is provided as to the correctness of the computer output (copy or print out) under Sec. 65B(5)(c).

I. Does the duo by Sec. 65A & 65B Evid. Act Oust the Operation of Sec. 63 & 65?

In other words, whether ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘ electronic record’) can be proved only by Sec. 65B, and it Constitute a ‘Complete Code’?

The Answer is No.

What does the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything’ in the Act ….’) denote?

On analysis of Sec. 65A and 65B it is clear that:

  • (i) The new provisions in Sec. 65A and 65B are independent from, Sec. 62 to 65; and
  • (ii) the non-obstante clause in Sec. 65B does not oust Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act in proving a computer output (secondary evidence).

Because:

  1. Sec. 65A is an introductory provision to Sec. 65B.
    • Sec. 65A does not control Sec. 65B.
  2. Sec. 65A indicates only an (enabling) method to PROVE (not the only one method) the CONTENTS of electronic records –  by producing print/copy – invoking Sec. 65B.
    • Sec. 65A reads: The contents of electronic records MAY be proved (not shall be proved) in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Thus, Sec. 65B is an Enabling or Added provision; and, other enabling (existing) provisions in the Indian Evidence Act, to prove documents by secondary evidence invoking Sec. 63 and 65, are not taken away.
  3. Sec. 65B(1) lays down that the computer output (copy) shall be “deemed to be ALSO” an (original) document, if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, “notwithstanding anything contained in the Act”.
    • That is, Sec. 65B, does not bar proving a print/copy (as secondary evidence) by satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65 (i. e., otherwise than satisfying conditions in sub Sec. 2 of Sec. 65B), by oral evidence or affidavit, as to loss of original, original with other side and notice given, original not easily movable, etc., as the case may be.

In short, compliance of this enabling provision is not an invariable or imperative condition precedent to the admissibility’ of ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence); and it does not stand in the way of proving a secondary evidence of the contents of the ‘electronic record’, invoking the usual method laid down in Sec. 65 read with Sec. 63 of the Evidence Act – that is, satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, by oral evidence or affidavit. (Note: Contra view in: Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216).

2. ‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be ‘PROVED’ by ‘CERTIFICATE’ under Sec. 65B

  • The ‘statements‘ (such as bank account statements and phone call details) alone can be PROVED in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under Sec. 65B(4).
  • It is clear from a simple reading – 65B(4) is applicable only to ‘statements’. 

Sec. 65B(4) reads:

  • “(4) In any proceedings where it is DESIRED TO GIVESTATEMENT  in evidence, by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—
    • (a) identifying the electronic record CONTAINING the STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
    • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be EVIDENCE of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section
  • it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.”

See Blog: How to Prove WhatsApp Chats, Facebook Messages and Website Information in Courts?

3. What is a “Statement” in Evidence Act?

  1. The ‘statement’ referred to herein is that which can be pointed out “identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced” as stated in Section 65B(4)(a); and which can be ‘purporting to be signed‘, as stated in Section 65B(4)(c).
    • The Information Technology Act, 2000 (No. 21 of 2000) defines Electronic Record’ as under:
    • “ ‘Electronic Record’ means data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form or micro film or computer generated micro fiche.”
  2. According to Evidence Act, ‘statement’ is – that which can be expressed or translatable in the form of ‘oral evidence’.
    • Because, “Evidence” is defined in Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act as under:
  • “Evidence means and includes—
    • all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry; such statements are called oral evidence.
    • all documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court, such documents are called documentary evidence.”
  • See also: Sec. 8
    • Explanation 1.––The word “conduct” in this section does not include statements, unless those statements accompany and explain acts other than statements; but this explanation is not to affect the relevancy of statements under any other section of this Act.
    • Explanation 2.––When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct, is relevant.
  • Section–32
    • Cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found, etc., is relevant.
  • Section–. 34
    • Entries in books of account when relevant. …. but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to charge any person with liability
  • Section–. 36
    • Relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans.
  • Section–. 32
    • Relevancy of statement as to fact of public nature contained in certain Acts or notifications.
  • Section–. 37
    • Relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law-books.
  • Section–. 38
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 39
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 145
    • Cross-examination as to previous statements in writing
  • Section–. 157
    • Former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact
  • Section–. 158
    • What matters may be proved in connection with proved statement relevant under section 32 or 33.

Thus it appears that the statements entered in a personal-computer (by DTP), bank-account-statements etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’. And, it is clear that the ‘statement’ does not pertain to other ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD. (Note – contra view in Supreme Court decisions).

4. ‘Statement‘ in S. 65B(4) is the STATEMENT  ‘CONTAINED‘ in the “ELECTRONIC RECORD” and NOT that GIVEN IN COURT

Now, the potential question that arises for consideration is the following:

  • Whether the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is
    • (i) that given in court, to support the copy or printout, or
    • (ii) that is contained in the electronic record?

It is beyond doubt that the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is not the one that is given in court; but, the statement ‘CONTAINED‘ in “the electronic record“. Because:

  • The “statement” referred to in Sec. 65B (4) is one that may be:
    • desired to give” “in evidence by virtue of this section” (Sec. 65B(4) first clause); and
  • The “certificate” must be one that
    • “identifying the ELECTRONIC RECORD CONTAINING THE STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced” [Section 65B(4)(a)].

The above view is fortified by the following:

  1. Sec. 65B(4) (c) says that the certificate must state, among other things, facts as to “dealing with any (?) of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate”.
    • Note: Proving matters with ’certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4) is a species and proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65B(2) is genus.
  2. The certificate could be signed by a person who has
    • “a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities” (Section 65B(4)(c).

Thus, the formal assertions like statements of witnesses, bank-account-statements, etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’, by virtue of section 65B; and not ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD.

5. Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B.

  • It is clear that the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
    • S. 65B(2)(a) – computer was USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
      • of the activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
      • BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
    • S. 65B(2)(b) – information was REGULARLY FED
      • in the ORDINARY COURSE,
    • S. 65B(2)(d) – the information is REPRODUCED in the
      • ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
    • (For example – Computer Account statements in a Bank.)
  • For all other computer outputs (copies of, photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc., as stated below), one has to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65.
  • Therefore, it is beyond any doubt that the following computer outputs (copies) cannot be used under Sec. 65B:
    1. CCTV footage – For
      • (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON and
      • (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    2. CDs containing speech – For
      • (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information,
      • (ii) not regularly fed in the ORDINARY course and
      • (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    3. Videograph of the scene of crimeor trap-video – For
      • (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information,
      • (ii) not regularly fed in the ORDINARY course and
      • (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    4. Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones – For
      • (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON and
      • (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
  • But, the Supreme Court dealt with CCTV footage (copy) in the following landmark cases:
    • State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,
    • Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178),
  • CDs/VCDs in respect of video recording by the Election Commission
    • Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216
  • CDs containing election speeches and songs, in:
    • Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473).
  • Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones, in:
    • Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570)
  • Tape recorded conversation on the landline phone, in
    • Vikram Singh v. State of Punjab, (2017) 8 SCC 518
  • Propriety of videography of the scene of crime or scene of recovery during investigation, in:
    • Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ).

6. Computer output’ can be got produced by ‘any computer‘ and no evidence/certificate required

A ‘Computer Output’ can be got copied or printed by ‘any‘ computer. It need not be the part of the device that was “used regularly to store or process information”. It is clear from the phrase – shall be taken to have been produced by “a” computer – in 65B(5)(c). It stands contradistinct to “the” computer in Sec. 65B(2).

7. Anomaly between the Heading and the Sub Section in Sec.65B

If we go by the heading of the Sec. 65B, we find that it deals about ‘ADMISSIBILITY’ alone; and not proof. But, there is an anomaly – for, it appears from Sec. 65B(4)(c) that Sec. 65B deals with proof also.

  • Because, it is laid down in Sec. 65B(4)(c)
    • (i) that the certificate “shall be evidence of any(?matter stated” therein, and
    • (ii) that for the purposes of this sub-section “it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.”
  • It is legitimate to take that Sec. 65B deals with ‘admissibility’ alone, and not as to ‘proof of contents’; and that the anomaly has come out of a ‘callous drafting’.

8. Presumption on ‘Computer output’ (print or copy)

From the very wordings in Sec. 65B(5)(c), the ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) as to the involvement of the computer which (finally) produced the computer output (print or copy) need not be furnished. Because, the legislature contemplated a presumption as to correctness of the computer output (not truth of contents), under Sec. 65B(5)(c), as it reads:

  • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

It is similar to Sec. 63 clause (2) which reads as under:

  • “Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy …. …”

Sec. 63 lays down the sorts of secondary evidence accepted by the Evidence Act. It is seen that Sec. 65B(5)(c) expressly says also as to presumption on correctness, as stated above.

9. Admissibility and Presumption as to correctness of Computer Output

  • Sec. 65B does not deal with ‘truth’ of the contents of the electronic record; it deals with only ‘admissibility of copy’.
  • The electronic record mentioned in Sec. 65B is – that is ‘relevant‘; for, it must be one “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  • Therefore, if truth is in question, it must be proved according to other provisions of the evidence act; ie. by oral, documentary (such as admission) or presumptive (including circumstantial) evidence.
  • Relevant portions of 65A & 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
      • The contents of electronic records MAY BE proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) … any information contained in an electronic record which is printed ….. or copied ….. shall be ADMISSIBLE in any proceedings ….. as evidence of any contents of the original … of which direct evidence would be admissible.”

Sec. 65B declares and expressly lays down that computer output (copy or print)

  • (i) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and
  • (ii) shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence
    • of any contents of the original or
    • of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

If the conditions mentioned in this Section Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, by necessary implication, it will bring a presumption under Sec. 114 with respect to regularity of the computer output . Because, admissibility of ‘any fact stated therein‘ ‘without further proof’ is nothing but ‘presumption’ of its regularity and correctness. The net result is that (if the conditions in sub-sec. 2 of Sec. 65B are satisfied) the burden to prove ‘otherwise’ is cast on the person who opposes it.

The requirement in Sec. 65B(2) as to ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) for ‘regularity‘ of ‘feeding information into the computer’ in the ‘ordinary course‘ eloquently support this proposition.

  • Note:
    • (i) ‘Statements’ alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4); other ‘information’ are to be proved by proper evidence.
    • (ii) Presumption of ‘regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act can be applied in Sec. 65B.
    • (iii) Presumption of a ‘fact or regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act is, essentially presumption of ‘Truth’ and ‘Correctness’.
      • Here, it is limited to the correctness of the copy or ‘computer output’.

Presumption of Fact Means Truth/Correctness of Fact

St. of West Bengal Vs. Mir Mohammad Omar (AIR 2000 SC 2988) it is held by our Apex Court as under:

  • “Presumption of fact is an inference as to the existence of one fact from the existence of some other facts, unless the truth of such inference is disproved. Presumption of fact is a rule in law of evidence that a fact otherwise doubtful may be inferred from certain other proved facts. When inferring the existence of a fact from other set of proved facts, the Court exercises a process of reasoning and reach a logical conclusion as the most probable position. The above principle has gained legislative recognition in India when Section 114 is incorporated in the Evidence Act. It empowers the Court to presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened. In that process Court shall have regard to the common course of natural events, human conduct etc. in relation to the facts of the case.”

Read Blog: Presumptions on Documents and Truth of its Contents

10. Section 65B is a borrowed provision

Section 65B is brought to Indian law from Section 5 of the UK Civil Evidence Act, 1968. It remains a sheer fact that by the time we borrowed this provision (2000) from the UK law, they repealed (1995) it. (It is pointed out in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020) 3 SCC 216.)

The present UK Act (Civil Evidence Act 1995) does not make any special provision for Electronic Evidence or Computerised Records. It deals this matter under the head ‘hearsay evidence’ and makes ‘safeguards’ with respect to the hearsay evidence.

11. Conclusions

  1. Sec. 65B is invoked only when a computer output (copy) is used in evidence.
    • Sec. 65B pertains to ‘admissibility'(not truth) of a computer output/copy.
    • It deals with computer output/copy alone; and it does not deal with (original) electronic record.
  2. Non-obstante clause does not oust S. 63 and 65.
    • The non-obstante clause in Sec. 65B does not oust operation of Secs. 63 & 65 of the Evidence Act; and, therefore, secondary evidence of an electronic record can be given in evidence, invoking Sec. 65, read with Sec. 63.
    • Sec. 65B is an added and enabling provision to prove the copy or print out (otherwise than by proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, such as loss of original, original with other side).
    • It relates to relevant matters alone “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  3. Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • The computer output (copy) containing the information, such as CCTV footage, photo or video in a CD, can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly) mentioned in S. 65B(2) are satisfied, through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • A computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B if the computer was one not used regularly, or the information was one not ‘regularly fed’ into the computer in the ordinary course, etc., (as in the case of a photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.).
    • In such a case (photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.), we have to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65; because, if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly)  mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, then only the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’.
  4. Statements alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under S. 65B(4).
    • The statements (such as e-mail, call records of phones, bank account statements) alone can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under S. 65B(4). 
    • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not authenticity. Provision in Sec. 65B(4) that deals with authenticity/proof stands as an anomaly.
  5. Presumption as to correctness of the copy or print-out ‘produced by a computer’ under S. 65B(5)(c)
    • S. 65B(5)(c) lays down a presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer out-put, inasmuch as S. 65B(5)(c) lays down that ‘a computer out-put shall be taken to have been produced by a computer’. 

End Notes – 1

What is brought about by Section 65B, Evidence Act?

  1. Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act enables a litigant to prove computer output (derived from original – secondary evidence) ‘without further proof or production of electronic record’ (original), provided the conditions laid down in Sec. 65B(2) are fulfilled (such as: the computer was operating properly, the electronic record is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the activities, etc.). Sec. 65B declares that the computer output (copy or print out) ‘shall be deemed to be also a document‘.
    • The (general) provision, in the Evidence Act, to admit a copy of a document is Sec. 65. Under Sec. 65, it must be proved by evidence – oral evidence or affidavit – that one of the conditions laid down in the section, for production of copy, is satisfied (that is: loss of original, original with other side and notice given, etc.). Sec. 63, Evidence Act lays down the sorts of admissible copies (such as: certified copies, copies made from the original by mechanical processes etc.).
    • The non-obstante clause (‘notwithstanding anything’) in Sec. 65B, Evidence Act does not oust Sec. 63 and 65; Sec. 65B is only an added provisionto prove copy or print out.
      • Note: If the computer was one not used regularly, or the information was one not ‘regularly fed’ into the computer in the ordinary course, etc., Sec. 65B cannot be invoked (‘without further proof or production of the original’). E.g. photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’. In such a case, we have to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act.
  2. Still simpler provisions are introduced to prove ‘statements (call-records of phones, bank-account-statements, etc.), inasmuch as:
    • ‘Statements’ can be proved by a mere ‘certificate provided under Sec. 65B(4).
      • [Note: It is not made applicable to ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD (Contra view in Court decisions) ].
  3. There is presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer output (copy or print out) under Sec. 65B(5)(c), as it provides:
    • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

What is ‘certificate’, in law

  • The usual method to prove documents (both, existence and truth of contents) is giving oral evidence or furnishing affidavit. A certificate, in most cases, is an opinion, and prepared on the basis of other documents or evidences. In such cases, when it is an assumption or inference, it by itself, is not admissible, as it will only be, at the most, a secondary evidence. A Wound Certificate is not a substantive evidence. It has to be proved by a competent witness. If presumption cannot be invoked under Clause (e) of Sec. 114 Evidence Act (that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed), especially in the light of ‘best evidence rule’, no certificate or report can be taken as proved unless its contents are proved in a formal manner. (This is why Order XXVI rule 10 CPC specifically says – Commission Report shall ‘form part of the record’.)
  • Our Apex Court held in Dharmarajan v. Valliammal, 2008 (2) SCC 741, that ‘a certificate issued by the Tahsildar cannot be relied on without examining the Tahsildar who issued the same’. It is referred to in Pankajakshan Nair v. Shylaja, ILR 2017-1 Ker 951.

End Notes – 2

Landmark Decisions

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision.
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
    • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570): two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ), two- judge bench decision. Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision. It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is “clarified” and directed to “read” Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’  ”.
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
    • “What is clear from this judgment (Tomaso Bruno) is that the judgment of Anvar P. V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P. V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P. V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

End Notes – 3

Sec. 65A and Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act reads:

Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:

The CONTENTS of electronic records may be PROVED in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 

65B. Admissibility of electronic records

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence of any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

(2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—

  • (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer during the period over which the computer was used regularly to store or process information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer;
  • (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
  • (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
  • (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces (sic?) or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.

(3) Where over any period, the function of storing or processing information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by computers, whether—

  • (a) by a combination of computers operating over that period; or
  • (b) by different computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (c) by different combinations of computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (d) in any other manner involving the successive operation over that period, in whatever order, of one or more computers and one or more combinations of computers, all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.

(4) In any proceedings where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—

  • (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
  • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section
  • it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.

(5) For the purposes of this section,—

  • (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
  • (b) whether in the course of activities carried on by any official information is supplied with a view to its being stored or processed for the purposes of those activities by a computer operated otherwise than in the course of those activities, that information, if duly supplied to that computer, shall be taken to be supplied to it in the course of those activities;
  • (c) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section any reference to information being derived from other information shall be a reference to its being derived therefrom by calculation, comparison or any other process.



Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Does Alternate Remedy Bar Civil Suits and Writ Petitions?

Saji Koduvath.

1. If Effective alternate remedyCourt refuses relief

In Assistant Commissioner (CT) LTU, Kakinada v. Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health Care Limited, AIR 2020 SC 2819,  it is pointed out by our Apex Court that when  the aggrieved person has an effective alternate remedy available in law, normally, the courts will not entertain a Writ petition. It is observed in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that if the High Court is satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate or suitable relief elsewhere, it can refuse to exercise its jurisdiction.

See also:

  • Rashid Ahmed v. Municipal Board, Kairana, AIR 1950 SC 163.
  • G. Veerappa Pillai v. Raman & Raman Ltd., AIR 1952 SC 192;
  • C.A. Abraham v. ITO, (1961) 2 SCR 765: AIR 1961 SC 609;
  • First IT Officer, Salem v. Short Brothers (P) Ltd. (1966) 60 ITR 83(SC);
  • L. Hirday Narain v. Income Tax Officer, Bareilly, (1970) 78 ITR 26 (SC);
  • State of U.P. v. Indian Hume Pipe Co. Ltd. (1977) 2 SCC 724;
  • Munshi Ram v. Municipal Committee, Chheharta, (1979) 3 SCC 83;
  • Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433;
  • CCE v. Dunlop India Ltd., (1985) 1 SCC 260;
  • H.B. Gandhi v. Gopi Nath and Sons, 1992 Supp (2) SCC 312;
  • Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536;
  • Whirlpool Corpn. v. Registrar of Trade Marks, (1998) 8 SCC 1;
  • Tin Plate Co. of India Ltd. v. State of Bihar, (1998) 8 SCC 272;
  • Ramendra Kishore Biswas v. State of Tripura, (1999) 1 SCC 472;
  • Shivgonda Anna Patil v. State of Maharashtra, (1999) 3 SCC 5;
  • Sheela Devi v. Jaspal Singh, (1999) 1 SCC 209,  AIR 1999 SC 2859;
  • A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu v. S. Chellappan, (2000) 7 SCC 695;
  • Karnataka Chemical Industries v. Union of India, (2000) 10 SCC 13;
  • Punjab National Bank v. O.C. Krishnan, (2001) 6 SCC 569);
  • National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Nicolletta Rohtagi, (2002) 7 SCC 456;
  • Sadhana Lodh v. National Insurance Co. Ltd. (2003) 3 SCC 524;
  • Satya Pal Anand v. State of M.P. and Ors. ((2016)10 SCC 767;
  • Maharashtra Chess Assn. v. Union of India, 2019 SCC Online SC 932.

2. Alternative remedy not to operate as a bar in certain contingencies

Our Apex Court further observed in M/S Radha Krishan Industries v. The State of Himachal Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 334, that alternative remedy would not operate as a bar in certain contingencies. They include:

  • where, the statutory authority has not acted in accordance with the provisions of the law or
  • acted in defiance of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure; or
  • has resorted to invoke provisions, which are repealed; or
  • where an order has been passed in violation of the principles of natural justice.

Their Lordships quoted the following from Harbanslal Sahnia v. Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd. (2003) 2 SCC 107:

  • “7. So far as the view taken by the High Court that the remedy by way of recourse to arbitration clause was available to the appellants and therefore the writ petition filed by the appellants was liable to be dismissed is concerned, suffice it to observe that the rule of exclusion of writ jurisdiction by availability of an alternative remedy is a rule of discretion and not one of compulsion. In an appropriate case, in spite of availability of the alternative remedy, the High Court may still exercise its writ jurisdiction in at least three contingencies:
    • (i) where the writ petition seeks enforcement of any of the fundamental rights;
    • (ii) where there is failure of principles of natural justice; or
    • (iii) where the orders or proceedings are wholly without jurisdiction or the vires of an Act is challenged. (See: Whirlpool Corpn. v. Registrar of Trade Marks,(1998) 8 SCC 1 .)
  • The present case attracts applicability of the first two contingencies. Moreover, as noted, the appellants’ dealership, which is their bread and butter, came to be terminated for an irrelevant and non-existent cause. In such circumstances, we feel that the appellants should have been allowed relief by the High Court itself instead of driving them to the need of initiating arbitration proceedings.”

3. Appeal from “Caesar to Caesar’s wife”

In Ram and Shyam Co. vs. State of Haryana, (1985) 3 SCC 267 the Supreme Court has noticed that if an appeal is from “Caesar to Caesar’s wife” the existence of alternative remedy would be a mirage and an exercise in futility (referred to in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603; Shauntlabai Derkar v. Maroti Dewaji Wadaskar  2014-1 SCC 602).

4. Courts have wide discretionary powers in issuing Writs

It is pointed out in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that various Constitution Benches of the Apex Court have held that though Article 226 confers a very wide powers in the matter of issuing writs on the High Court, the remedy of writ absolutely discretionary in character.

  • See: K.S. Rashid vs. Income Tax Investigation Commission, AIR 1954 SC 207;
  • Sangram Singh vs. Election Tribunal, Kotah, AIR 1955 SC 425;
  • Union of India vs. T.R. Varma, AIR 1957 SC 882;
  • State of U.P. vs. Mohd. Nooh, AIR 1958 SC 86 and
  • K.S. Venkataraman and Co. (P) Ltd. vs. State of Madras, AIR 1966 SC 1089

5. If sufficient grounds, extraordinary jurisdiction under Art. 226 invoked

The Supreme Court has pointed out in U.P. State Spinning Co. Ltd. v. R.S. Pandey, (2005) 8 SCC 264, that the Constitution confers on all the High Courts a very wide power in the matter of issuing writs. However, the remedy of writ is an absolutely discretionary remedy and the High Court has always the discretion to refuse to grant any writ if it is satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate or suitable relief elsewhere. The Court, in extraordinary circumstances, may exercise the power if it comes to the conclusion that there has been a breach of principles of natural justice or procedure required for decision has not been adopted.

As pointed out in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, the High Court must not interfere if there is an adequate efficacious alternative remedy available to the petitioner and he has approached the High Court without availing the same unless he has made out an exceptional case warranting such interference or there exist sufficient grounds to invoke the extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226.

  • See also: Union of India v. T.R. Verma AIR 1957 SC 882;
  • State of U.P. vs. Mohammad Nooh, AIR 1958 SC 86;
  • Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. vs. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433;
  • Harbanslal Sahnia vs. Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd., (2003) 2 SCC 107;
  • State of H.P. vs. Gujarat Ambuja Cement Ltd., (2005) 6 SCC 499).

6. Non-entertainment of writ (when exists alternative remedy) is a self-imposed rule only

It is further observed in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that it is a settled law that non-entertainment of petitions under writ jurisdiction by the High Court when an efficacious alternative remedy is available, is a rule of self-imposed limitation. It is essentially a rule of policy, convenience and discretion rather than a rule of law. Undoubtedly, it is within the discretion of the High Court to grant relief under Article 226 despite the existence of an alternative remedy.

  • (Also See: Thansingh Nathmal v. Supdt. of Taxes, AIR 1964 SC 1419;
  • Nivedita Sharma vs. Cellular Operators Assn. of India, (2011) 14 SCC 337;
  • U.P. State Spinning Co. Ltd. v. R.S. Pandey, (2005) 8 SCC 264).

7. Breach of principles of natural justice or procedure

It is also observed in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that the Court, in extraordinary circumstances, may exercise the power in the following instances:

  1. where the statutory authority has not acted in accordance with the provisions of the enactment in question, or
  2. in defiance of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure, or
  3. has resorted to invoke the provisions which are repealed, or
  4. when an order has been passed in total violation of the principles of natural justice,
  • See also:
  • N.T. Veluswami Thevar vs. G. Raja Nainar, AIR 1959 SC 422;
  • Municipal Council, Khurai vs. Kamal Kumar, (1965) 2 SCR 653;
  • Trimbak Gangadhar Telang v. Ramchandra Ganesh Bhide, AIR 1977 SC 1222;
  • Siliguri Municipality vs. Amalendu Das, (1984) 2 SCC 436;
  • S.T. Muthusami vs. K. Natarajan, (1988) 1 SCC 572;
  • Rajasthan SRTC vs. Krishna Kant, (1995) 5 SCC 75;
  • Kerala SEB vs. Kurien E. Kalathil, (2000) 6 SCC 293;
  • A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu vs. S. Chellappan, (2000) 7 SCC 695;
  • L.L. Sudhakar Reddy vs. State of A.P., (2001) 6 SCC 634;
  • Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami (Moingiri Maharaj) Sahakari Dugdha Utpadak Sanstha vs. State of Maharashtra, (2001) 8 SCC 509;
  • Pratap Singh vs. State of Haryana, (2002) 7 SCC 484;
  • GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. vs. ITO, (2003) 1 SCC 72;
  • Union of India v. Guwahati Carbon Ltd. 2012 (11) SCC 651.

8. Civil Court can Examine ‘Non-compliance of Law’

Even when a tribunal is provided for reddressal of remedies, the civil courts will have jurisdiction to examine the allegation of non-compliance of the provisions of the statute or of any of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure. If the challenge is only as to the ‘erroneous’ character of the order, other than ‘jurisdictional error’, the suit will not be maintainable. (South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33).

When an order is passed by a statutory Land-Tribunal violating a mandatory provision, the order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity. The civil courts which are courts of “general jurisdiction” can decide whether a tribunal or authority exercising statutory jurisdiction has acted in excess or beyond the statutory powers. The civil courts can interfere when the order of the statutory tribunal or authority is really not an order under the Act conferring jurisdiction on it. In other words, if a tribunal abuses its power or does not act under the Act but in violation of its provisions (Firm Seth Radha Kishan v. Ludhiana Municipality AIR 1963 SC 1547), the jurisdiction of the civil court will not stand excluded.

Transgression of Jurisdiction Order Nullity

A certificate of purchase is issued and an order passed by the Land Tribunal without complying with the provisions of the Act and the Rules would be a nullity (Muhammed Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, 1993-1 KLT 227; Secretary, TDB VS Mohanan Nair, ILR 2013-2 Ker883; P. N. Viswambaran v. T. P. Sanu, AIR 2018  Ker 116).

In Muhammed Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, 1993-1 KLT 227(FB),  it was found that the order passed by the Land Tribunal under the Kerala Land Reforms Act  was illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity and that the order was of no legal effect for the provisions of the Act and the Rules have not been complied with and the fundamental principles of judicial procedure, as required by the Act, were totally contravened. In such cases, it was pointed out, the jurisdiction of the civil court was not excluded as stated by the Privy Council in Secretary of State v. Mask & Co. (AIR 1940 PC 105) and Ram Swarup’s case (AIR 1966 SC 893).

Similarly, the ultimate decision can be challenged, in spite of finality and exclusionary clauses (or provision for appeal/revision), if the jurisdiction had been (wrongly) assumed by the tribunal, where it did not exist, and the decision was not a decision under the Act, but a nullity. (Muhammad Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, AIR  1993 Ker 104 – tribunal proceeded without issuing notice; Prasannakumar V. State of Kerala, Laws(Ker) 2014-10-127 – the statutory Land tribunal proceeded upon an exempted temple land illegally assuming jurisdiction; Travancore Devaswom Board v. Mohanan Nair, ILR 2013- 2 Ker 883).

It was observed in Mathew v. Taluk Land Board, AIR 1979 SC 1573 that the certificate of purchase issued under the Kerala Land Reforms Act was not conclusive proof of the assignment of the right, as provided under the Act, when title and interest of the landowner had been conferred, under the Act, in favour of the holder when it was found inaccurate on its face or when it is shown that it has been obtained by playing fraud (Relied on in: Ahmmed Kutty v. Mariakutty Umma, 2000 (1) KLT 829 (SC); Mathilakath Skaria VS Mathilakath Joseph, 2013 1 KHC 293; 2013 1 KLJ 410; P. N. Viswambaran v. T. P. Sanu, AIR 2018  Ker 116).

9. If disputed questions of fact, courts decline jurisdiction in a writ petition

It is observed in M/S Radha Krishan Industries vs The State Of Himachal Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 334, that where there are disputed questions of fact, the High Court may decide to decline jurisdiction in a writ petition; and it is pointed out that this principle have been consistently upheld by the Apex Court in Seth Chand Ratan v Pandit Durga Prasad, (2003) 5 SCC 399, Babubhai Muljibhai Patel v Nandlal Khodidas Barot, (1974) 2 SCC 706 , and Rajasthan SEB v. Union of India, (2008) 5 SCC 632, etc.

10. Important Legal Propositions on Jurisdiction of Civil Courts, Under Sec. 9 CPC

  • 1. When Right or Liability exists at common law, and is re-enacted by the statute with a special forum for efficacious remedy and civil court remedy is expressly barred, there will be an implied bar for civil courts.
  • Eg. Bylaws of a society provides for efficacious redressal of remedies on wrongful expulsion from a club and the bye laws states that the decisions of that authority is final.
  • 2. When Right or Liability exists at common law, and is re-enacted by the statute with a special forum for efficacious remedy and civil court remedy is not expressly barred, there will be an election of forum (that special forum or civil courts).
  • Municipal law provides for leaving a particular distance from the boundary so that no nuisance of obstructing light be caused to a neighbor by the building construction (a right exists in common law).
  • 3. New rights conferred by enacted laws (not pre-existing in common law) also provides the machinery for enforcement of such right or liability or for adjudication of disputes, then, even in the absence of an exclusionary provision, the jurisdiction of the civil court will be stood barred by necessary implication. (Raja Ram Kumar Bhargava (Dead) By LRs v. Union of India, (1988) 1 SCC 681; Quoted in South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33).
  • 4. Noncompliance of fundamental principles of law – civil courts will have jurisdiction. Despite express bar, if the decision of the authority under challenge is in:
    • (i)    non-compliance of fundamental principles of law (like, natural justice),
    • (ii)   non-compliance of fundamental principles of (that or any other) statute or
    • (iii)  without jurisdiction (like, Village Officer takes decision where the Collector has to) civil courts will have jurisdiction
    • (iv) where the plea of illegality raised before the Civil Court goes to the root of the matter and would, if upheld, lead to the conclusion that the impugned order is a nullity (Ram Swamp v. Shikar Chand, AIR 1966 SC 893).
      • Eg. Rights to vote in an election, candidature (under Acts or Bylaws);
      • Right to Ration under Ration Supply Laws.

11. The fundamentals of these principles are laid down in the following two decisions:

  • 1. Wolverhampton New Waterworks Co. v. Hawkesford, [1859] 6 C. B. (NS) 336: 28 LJ CP 242: 141 ER 486. It is observed as under:
    • “One is where there was a liability existing at common law, and that liability is affirmed by a Statute which gives a special and peculiar form of remedy different from the remedy which existed at common law: there, unless the Statute contains words which expressly or by necessary implication exclude the common law remedy the party suing has his election to pursue either that or the statutory remedy. The second class of cases is, where the Statute gives the right to sue merely, but provides, no particular form of remedy: there, the party can only proceed by action at common law. But there is a third class, viz., where a liability not existing at common law is created by a Statute which at the same time gives a special and particular remedy for enforcing it…….. The remedy provided by the Statute must be followed and it is not competent to the party to pursue the course applicable to cases of the second class.”
  • 2. It is observed by Lord Thankerton in The Secretary of State vs Mask and Co., AIR 1940 PC 105, as under:
    • “It is settled law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil courts is not to be readily inferred, but that such exclusion must either be explicitly expressed or clearly implied. It is also well settled that even if jurisdiction is so excluded, the civil courts have jurisdiction to examine into cases where the provisions of the Act have not been complied with, or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principle of judicial procedure.”
  • (See: Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433;
  • South Delhi Municipal Corporation Vs. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd., 2019-11 SCALE 33;
  • Zenith Steel Tubes and Industries Ltd Vs. Sicom Litd. AIR 2008  SC 451;
  • Devinder Singh Vs. State of Haryana, AIR 2006 SC 2850;
  • Mafatlal Industries Limited Vs. Union Of India, 1997-5 SCC 536;
  • Pandurang Ramchandra Mandlik Vs. Shantibai Ramchandra Ghatge, AIR 1989 SC 2240)

12. Dhulabhai v. State of MP, AIR 1969 SC 78

Hidayatullah, J. in Dhulabhai v. State of MP observed as to uster of jurisdiction of the civil courts as follows:

  • (1) Where the Statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the Civil Courts’ jurisdiction must be held to be excluded if there is adequate remedy to do what the Civil Courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, does not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • (2) Where there is an express bar of the jurisdiction of the Court, an examination of the scheme of the particular Act to find the adequacy or the sufficiency of the remedies provided may be relevant but is not decisive to sustain the jurisdiction of the Civil Court.
  • Where there is no express exclusion the examination of the remedies and the scheme of the particular Act to find out the intendment becomes necessary and the result of the inquiry may be decisive. In the latter case it is necessary to see if the Statute creates a special right or a liability and provides for the determination of the right or liability and further lays down that all questions about the said right and liability shall be determined by the tribunals so constituted, and whether remedies normally associated with actions in Civil Courts are prescribed by the said Statute or not.
  • (3) Challenge to the provisions of the particular Act as ultra vires cannot be brought before Tribunals constituted under that Act. Even the High Court cannot go into that question on a revision or reference from the decision of the Tribunals.
  • (4) When a provision is already declared unconstitutional. or the constitutionality of any provision is to be challenged, a suit is open. A writ of certiorari may include a direction for refund if the claim is clearly within the time prescribed by the Limitation Act but it is not a compulsory remedy to replace a suit.
  • (5) Where the particular Act contains no machinery for refund of tax collected in excess of constitutional limits or illegally collected a suit lies.
  • (6) Questions of the correctness of the assessment apart from its constitutionality are for the decision of the authorities and a civil suit does not lie if the orders of the authorities are declared to be final or there is an express prohibition in the particular Act. In either case the scheme of the particular Act must be examined because it is a relevant enquiry.
  • (7) An exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is not readily to be inferred unless the conditions above set down apply.

These propositions are emphasised further in several Supreme Court decisions including the following:

  • Premier Automobiles Limited v. Kamalakar Shantharam Wadke, (1995) 5 SCC 75,
  • Rajasthan State Road Transport Corpn. v. Krishna Kant, AIR 1995 SC 1715,
  • Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536.

13. Construction in Violation of Municipal Building Regulation

In K. Ramdas Shenoy v. Chief Officer, Town Municipal Council, Udipi, AIR 1974 SC 2177, the Apex Court held as follows:

  • “An illegal construction of a cinema building materially affects the right to of enjoyment of the property by persons residing in the residential area. The Municipal Authorities owe a duty and obligation under the statute to see that the residential areas is not spoilt by unauthorized construction. The scheme is for the benefit of the residents of the locality. The Municipality acts in aid of the scheme. The rights of the residents in the area are invaded by an illegal construction of a cinema building. It has to be remembered that a scheme in residential area means planned orderliness in accordance with the requirements of the residents. If the scheme is nullified by arbitrary acts in excess and derogation of the powers of the Municipality the courts will quash orders passed by Municipalities in such cases.”

A person who is affected by neighbour’s illegal construction which is in infraction of a Municipal regulation will have the locus to maintain a suit for perpetual injunction. The Kerala High Court, in Saina v. Konderi, AIR 1984 Ker 170, turned down the argument that the matters concerning violation of the Municipal Rules are entirely rest in the look-out of the local authority. It was observed that unless, by express words or by necessary implication, he is debarred (Sec. 9 CPC) from doing so, the civil court would have jurisdiction if there was violation of Building Rules. Finally, it is held that the law recognises a citizen’s right to institute a suit with a view to ensure effective implementation of the Municipal regulations, such as the Buildings Rules, even in the absence of a specific personal injury to the person suing. The High Court quoted Lord Wright in (1868) 4 Ex. 43 where it was said:

  • “If you have an infringement of a legal right there is a right of action without actual damage being proved….  Where you have an interference with a legal right, the law presumes damage.”

Referring the Kerala decision, it is observed in Sindhu Education Society v. Municipal Corporation of City of Ulhasnagar, AIR 2001 Bom 145 and in Fatima v. Village Panchayat of Merces, AIR 2000 Bom 444, that the citizens will have the right to enforce Rules through Court if the Municipal Corporation fails to perform its duty and that courts in India has the duty to see that the law is obeyed and not violated.

(See also: Babulal Shivlal Upadhye v. Yadav Atmaram Joshi, 1994-2 Bom CR 583; 1994-2 MahLR 869; 1994-1 MhLJ 256; D.  Thomas v. N.  Thomas1999-2 MLJ 260;Musstt Anjira Khatoon Hazarika v. Tapan Kumar Das: 2015-1 GauLR 133.)

Andhra Pradesh High Court held in Bhagwan Das v. Harish ChetwalIt, as quoted in Sarada Bai v. Shakuntala Bai, AIR 1993 AP 20, as under:

  • “The pronouncement of the Supreme Court in K.R. Shenoy v. Udipi Municipality emboldens us to take a view at variance with the one expressed by a Division Bench of this Court in Kamalamma v. Subba Rao and so hold that an individual, be he a neighbour or one of a class of persons where the infraction of a right is involved and complained of, is certainly clothed with a right to invoke the jurisdiction of a Civil Court not only to enforce the obligations and duties was on the concerned authorities, but also subject the individual or class of individuals to conform to the obligations of the statute.
  • If that be so, it presents no difficulty in answering one of the questions raised in this case, viz., whether it would be competent for the neighbour, namely, the petitioners herein to enforce the obligation cast on the Municipal Corporation to remove the structures constructed in contravention of the statutory provisions; and to seek a direction against an individual, plaintiff herein to conform to the obligation laid down in Chapter XII of the Act and to demolish any construction made in contravention thereof, either by way of a civil proceeding or seeking mandamus under Article 226 of the Constitution. The answer is quite apparent and it is in the affirmative.”

15. Liquor Shop causing Public Nuisance

The question that required consideration in D.  Thomas v. N.  Thomas, 1999-2 MLJ 260 was whether the civil court had jurisdiction to entertain suit for permanent prohibitory injunction restraining defendants from conducting a liquor shop for apprehended injury of public nuisance to the residents of locality. The plaintiffs filed the suit in representative capacity under Order 1, Rule 8 of the CPC. The defendants resisted the suit on the ground that it was barred under Sec. 56 of Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act. In this decision the court held as under:

  • “Under Specific Relief Act, a suit to prevent the nuisance is maintainable under Secs. 38 and 39. Plaintiff is also entitled to file a suit for perpetual prohibitory and mandatory injunction from causing any nuisance. Nuisance is an act of omission which is an interference with, disturbance of or annoyance to a person in the exercise or enjoyment of (a) a right belonging to him as a member of the public, when it is a public nuisance, or (b) his ownership or occupation of land or of some easement, quasi-easement, or other right used or enjoyed in connection with land, when it is a private nuisance.
  •  Whether it is public or private, it is common law right and the suit to prevent the occurrence of nuisance is also a suit of civil nature. So the enforcement of such civil right can be had through court.”
  • “Plaintiffs are not claiming any right under Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act and what want to enforce is only a common law right. I do not find any prohibition under Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act that the common law right to prevent a nuisance is taken away by any other provisions of Prohibition Act. Plaintiffs are not claiming any right by virtue of statute which creates a right for do they want enforcement of such a right created by statute. To prevent a person from committing nuisance is all along a common law right and that could be enforced de hors the enactment of Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act.”

16. Forum for Enforcement of Right like Avoidance of Nuisance

It was held in Saraswathi v. Lachanna (1994)1 SCC 611, while considering bar of suit, that the court had to see where a particular act creates a right and also provides a forum for enforcement of such right and bars the jurisdiction of the civil court, then ouster of the civil court jurisdiction had to be upheld. But the situation will be different where the statute neither creates the right in question nor provides any remedy or having created any right or liability no forum for adjudication of any dispute arising out or such right or liability is provided. In such a situation, the ouster of the civil courts jurisdiction is not to be easily inferred.

In D.  Thomas v. N.  Thomas, 1999-2 MLJ 260, a suit filed in representative capacity under O.1, Rule 8 of the CPC, it was observed that prevention of nuisance is not a matter to be decided by authorities under the Act and that for considering location of shop, certain guidelines were given under Rule 18. Though they were not exhaustive, it was clear that authorities under Prohibition Act could not adjudicate private rights of a citizen. So long as plaintiffs were not claiming right under the Act, nor the right to prevent nuisance was created under the Act, there could not be bar under Sec. 9 of Code of Civil Procedure read with Sec. 56 of Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act.



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Evidence Act

Constitution

Contract Act

Easement

Club/Society/Trust

When ‘Possession Follows Title’; When ‘Title Follows Possession’?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Inquisition.

  • Whether Section 110, Indian Evidence Act follows the principle ‘Title Follows Possession’? (Section 110: When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner)
    • Note: Section 110 is pertained to ownership; and NOT, title’.
  • Whether Section 114 admits both ‘Title Follows Possession’ and ‘Possession Follows Title’? (Section 114: The court may ‘presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of natural events, human conduct, etc.)
    • Note: The principles ‘Title Follows Possession’ and ‘Possession Follows Title’ apply only when the facts disclose no title/possession, as the case may be, in either of the disputants.

Introduction.

The legal principles, ‘Possession Follows Title’ and ‘Title Follows Possession’, are Rules of Evidence. (In grammar – ‘B follows A’ means ‘A comes before B’ or ‘A is followed by B’.) They are applied in cases where there are no sufficient and independent evidence to prove possession or title, as the case may be.

Under S. 110 Evidence Act, ownership is presumed on the proof of possession. It ‘follows from well settled principle of law that normally, unless contrary is established, title always follows possession’ (Chuharmal v.  Commissioner of Income Tax, M P, AIR  1988 SC 1384; 1988 3 SCC 588).

S. 114 Evidence Act, expressly permits the court to ‘presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of natural events, human conduct and public and private business, in their relation to the facts of the particular case’. Therefore, by virtue of Sec. 114,

  • (i) possession can be presumed on the basis of title (possession follows title), and
  • (ii) title/ownership can be presumed on the basis of possession (title follows possession).

Read Blog (Cllic): POSSESSION is a Substantive Right in Indian Law

S. 110 Evidence Act & the Principle, ‘Title Follows Possession’

Section 110 of the Evidence Act, 1872, reads as under:

  • “110. Burden of proof as to ownership.—When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner.”

This section deals with the burden of proof as to ownership – when a question arises as to whether a person in possession of anything is the owner of such thing. There, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who avers that he is not the owner.

In State of A.P. v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319, the Apex Court held that the object of Section 110 is based on public policy. The object is to prevent persons from committing a breach of peace by taking the law into their own hands however good their title may be over the land in question. This object underlies provisions such as Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, Section 145 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 and Sections 154 and 158 of the Indian Penal Code 1860.

In M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, it is observed as under:

  •  “784. Section 110 deals with the burden of proof – Where the provision applies, the burden of proving that another person who is in possession is not the owner lies on the person who affirms against the ownership of that other person. But, for Section 110 to be attracted, there must be a question as to whether any person is the owner of anything and the ownership claimed must be that of which he is shown to be in possession. Section 110 is based on the principle that title follows possession. That is why the provision postulates that where a person is shown to be in possession, and a question arises as to whether that person is the owner, the law casts the burden of disproving ownership on the individual who affirms that the person in possession is not the owner.”
  • “785. Several decisions of this Court have interpreted the provisions of Section 110. Section 110 is based on the principle that possession in and of itself may raise a presumption of title. But this applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, as it is said, possession alone decides. Hence, on the other hand, it is also well-settled that the presumption cannot be arise when the facts are known.”

The Apex Court, in M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, relied on Nair Service Society v. Fr. KC Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, wherein it was observed that when no title in either of the disputants, ‘possession alone decides’.

S. 110 Attracted only if possession is Not ‘prima facie’ Wrongful

In Municipality Indore v. Gopalpuri, AIR 1956 MB 70, it is pointed out as under:

  • “The presumption under Section 110 would apply only if the conditions are satisfied, viz., that the possession of the plaintiff is not ‘prima facie’ wrongful, and, secondly, the title of the defendant is not proved.”

‘Possession is good against all but the True Owner’ & Sec. 6 of the Sp. Relief Act

The principle ‘Possession is Good against all but the True Owner’ is declared in Parry v. Clissold, (1907) AC 73. In this decision it was also pointed out that if the rightful owner did not come forward and assert his title within the period of limitation, his right would be extinguished and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.

The Supreme Court of India while accepting this principle in Nair Service Society Ltd. vs. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, pointed out that the law in India allows a plaintiff to maintain a possessory suit under Sec. 9 (preset Sec. 6) of the Specific Relief Act. Such a suit can be filed against a title holder, if he had dispossessed the plaintiff ‘otherwise than in due course of law’.

Sec. 6 of the Specific Relief Act reads as under:

  • 6. Suit by person dispossessed of immovable property.
  • (1) If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit.
  • (2) No suit under this section shall be brought
    • (a) after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession; or
    • (b) against the Government.
  • (3) No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section, nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed.
  • (4) Nothing in this section shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to such property and to recover possession thereof.

In Nair Service Society Ltd. vs. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, it is observed as under:

  • “17. … To express our meaning we may begin by reading 1907 AC 73 (Perry V. Clissold), to discover if the principle that possession is good against all but the true owner has in any way been departed from.
  • 1907 AC 73 reaffirmed the principle by stating quite clearly:
    • “It cannot be disputed that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner. And if the rightful owner does not come forward and assert his title by the process of law within the period prescribed by the provisions of the statute of Limitation applicable to the case, his right is for ever extinguished and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.”
  • Therefore, the plaintiff who was peaceably in possession was entitled to remain in possession and only the State could evict him. The action of the Society was a violent invasion of his possession and in the law as it stands in India the plaintiff could maintain a possessory suit under the provisions of the Specific Relief Act in which title would be immaterial or a suit for possession within 12 years in which the question of title could be raised.”

If Title not Perfected by Adver. Posn, Can one eject a Trespasser After 6 Months

High Courts differ, as pointed out in Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179.

Now it is settled that if one fails to exercise his option by filing a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act within six months, he is at liberty to file a suit to recover his possession (with or without declaration) by a regular suit for recovery of possession. It can be based on title or on his possession in assumed or presumed character of ownership (even if title not perfected by doctrine of adverse possession) on the principle that possession is good title against all the world but the rightful owner. See: Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179; Kanti Lal v. Smt. Shanti Devi, AIR 1997 Raj 230.

Sec. 110 is invoked on Ownership; and NOT on ‘title

 Section 110 of the Evidence Act, 1872, speaks of the burden of proof as to ownership (contra-distinct to title): when a question arises as to whether a person in possession of anything is the owner of such thing, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is cast on the person who avers that he is not the owner. Though it appears to be based on the principle ‘Title Follows Possession’, what is decisively articulated in this section is ‘ownership’; and not title.

M.  Siddiq  v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, lays down (paras 784 and 785 – quoted above) the following:

  • For Section 110 to be attracted, there must be a question as to ownership of anything.
  • Section 110 deals with the burden of proof.
  • The ‘thing’ must be in possession of one individual.
  • That individual is presumed to be the owner (on the principle that ‘title follows possession’. That is, possession in and of itself may raise a presumption of title.)
  • Section 110 applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, possession alone decides (presumption cannot be invoked when the facts are known).
  • The law casts the burden of disproving ownership on that individual in the person who affirms that the individual in possession is not the owner.

As signified in Sec. 110, Evidence Act, in law, ownership alone can be presumed; and not title. Title is the legal and authoritative expression of ownership; or, it is the legal recognition of a right. No doubt, it is true, one can acquire title by adverse possession. But, it is said to be inchoate until the such title is upheld by a competent court.

When Sec. 110 is invoked

It is held in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, AIR 2003 SC 1805, that Section 110 embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership, and that the presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted:

  • “when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title“.

The Supreme Court observed further as under:

  • ““Section 110 of the Evidence Act reads thus:
    • “110. Burden of proof as to ownership.-When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner.”
  • It embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership. The presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title.
  • This Court in Nair Service Society Limited v. K.C. Alexander and Ors., A.I.R. (1968) S.C. 1165 observed,
    • “the possession may prima facie raise a presumption of title no one can deny but this presumption can hardly arise when the facts are known, when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides.”
  • The pattedars proved their possession of the lands in question from 1312 Fasli (1902 A.D.) as pattedars. There is long and peaceful enjoyment of the lands in question but no proof of conferment of patta on the late Raja and the facts relating to acquisition of title are not known. The appellant- State could not prove its title to the lands. On these facts, the presumption under Section 110  of the Evidence Act applies and the appellants have to prove that the pattedars are not the owners. The appellants placed no evidence on record to rebut the presumption. Consequently, the pattedars, title to the land in question has to be upheld.”
  • But SeeNotes below under the following headings:
    • When the principles in Sec. 110 and 114 CANNOT be invoked
    • Mutation will not confer ‘title’” and
    • Revenue Records Do Not Confer Presumptive Value on Title

This principle in Section 110 of the Evidence Act is usually adopted in cases where it is not independently possible to prove possession (i) due to the nature of the property or (ii) due to the extent of the property available (Devasia @ Kutty v. Jose, 2014-4 KLJ 41; 2014-3 KLT(SN) 50).

It is held in Nazir Mohamed v. J.  Kamala, AIR 2020 SC 4321, as under:

  • “52. The maxim “possession follows title” is limited in its application to property, which having regard to its nature, does not admit to actual and exclusive occupation, as in the case of open spaces accessible to all. The presumption that possession must be deemed to follow title, arises only where there is no definite proof of possession by anyone else.” 

When ‘Possession Follows Title invoked

In Jones v. Chopman, (1849) 2 Ex. 803: 18 LJ Ex. 456: 76 PR 794; Maule, J, expounded the doctrine ‘Possession Follows Title’ as under:

  • “If there are two persons in a field, each asserting that the field is his, and each doing some act in the assertion of the right of possession, and if the question is, which of these two is in actual possession, I answer, the person who has the title is in actual possession and the other person is a trespasser. In such a case who is in possession is to be determined by the fact of the title and having the same apparent actual possession; The question as to which of the two really is in possession is determined by the fact of the possession; following the title, that is by the law, which makes it follow the title.” (Mitra quoted it in “Law of Possession and Ownership of Property”, as pointed out in Indore Development Authority vs. Manoharlal, (2020) 8 SCC 129)

In Indore Development Authority vs. Manoharlal, (2020) 8 SCC 129, Arun Misra, J. pointed out as to possession as under:

  • “247. The concept of possession is complex one. It comprises the right to possess and to exclude others, essential is animus possidendi. Possession depends upon the character of the thing which is possessed. If the land is not capable of any use, mere non-user of it does not lead to the inference that the owner is not in possession. The established principle is that the possession follows title. Possession comprises of the control over the property. The element of possession is the physical control or the power over the object and intention or will to exercise the power. Corpus and animus are both necessary and have to co-exist.”

It held further:

  • “251. A person with title is considered to be in actual possession. The other person is a trespasser. The possession in law follows the right to possess as held in Kynoch Limited v. Rowlands, (1912) 1Ch 527. Ordinarily, the owner of the property is presumed to be in possession and presumption as to possession is in his favour.”

Sec. 114 Evidence ActTitle Follows Possession & Possession Follows Title

In M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1, the Apex Court quoted the following from State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319 where Justice B.S. Chauhan explained as under:

  • ‘21…..The said presumption is read under Section 114 of the Evidence Act and applies only in a case where there is either no proof, or very little proof of ownership on either side. The maxim – possession follows title – is applicable in cases where proof of actual possession cannot reasonably be expected, for instance, in the case of wastelands, or where nothing is known about possession one way or another.
  • Presumption of title as a result of possession, can arise only where facts disclose that no title vests in any party. Possession of the plaintiff is not prima facie wrongful, and title of the plaintiff is not proved. It certainly does not mean that because a man has title over some land, he is necessarily in possession of it. It in fact means, that if at any time a man with title was in possession of the said property, the law allows the presumption that such possession was in continuation of the title vested in him.
  • A person must establish that he has continued possession of the suit property, while the other side claiming title, must make out a case of trespass/ encroachment, etc.
  • Where the apparent title is with the plaintiffs, it is incumbent upon the defendant, that in order to displace this claim of apparent title and to establish beneficial title in himself, he must establish by way of satisfactory evidence, circumstances that favour his version.
  • Even, a revenue record is not a document of title. It merely raises a presumption in regard to possession.
  • Presumption of possession and/or continuity thereof, both forward and backward, can also be raised under Section 110 of the Evidence Act.’ ”

In Anathula Sudhakar  v. Buchi Reddy, AIR 2008 SC 2033, Apex Court held as under:

  • “But what if the property is a vacant site, which is not physically possessed, used or enjoyed? In such cases the principle is that possession follows title. If two persons claim to be in possession of a vacant site, one who is able to establish title thereto will be considered to be in possession, as against the person who is not able to establish title. This means that even though a suit relating to a vacant site is for a mere injunction and the issue is one of possession, it will be necessary to examine and determine the title as a prelude for deciding the de jure possession.”

In Arumaraj Devadhas v. K. Sundaram Nadar, 2009-17 SCC 467, also it was held that the principle possession follows title applies in vacant land. This principle is applied in ‘open space‘ in Praprai N Kothari Vs. John Braganza, AIR 1999 SC 1666 and in Rajendar Singh Vs. Santa Singh, AIR 1973 SC 2537. In Naval Shankar Ishwarlal Dave v. State of Gujarat, AIR 1994 SC 1496,  the Apex Court observed that it was ‘settled law that in respect of open land, title follows possession’. In  Kashi Bai v. Sudha Rani Ghose, AIR 1958 SC 434, it was observed that when the land was vacant and was lying open, it was presumed to be that of the owner (possession follows title).

Possession Follows Title and Adverse Possession

It is held in MS Jagadambal v. Southern Indian Education Trust, 1988 (Supp) SCC 144 that the possession continues with the title holder unless and until the defendant acquires title by adverse possession (possession follows title). In LN Aswathama v. P Prakash, 2009-13 SCC 229, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In law, possession follows title. The plaintiffs having established title to the suit property, will be entitled to decree for possession, unless their right to the suit property was extinguished, by reason of defendant being in adverse possession for a period of twelve years prior to the suit.”

When the principles in Sec. 110 and 114 CANNOT be invoked

As we find in M.  Siddiq  v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, Section 110 or the principle ‘title follows possession‘ applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, possession alone decides (presumption cannot be invoked when the facts are known). But, with respect to the principle ‘possession follows title‘, as we find in Anathula Sudhakar  v. Buchi Reddy, AIR 2008 SC 2033, if only title is proved by one party, then only the principle ‘possession follows title’ comes in.

It is equally important that both these principles on presumption, ‘possession follows title’ and ‘title follows possession’, cannot be invoked in cases where:

  • (i) the defendants do not claim title/possession to the suit property (Devasia @ Kutty v. Jose, 2014-4 KLJ 41; 2014-3 KLT(SN) 50).
  • (ii) the facts (on title/possession) are known (M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1), or
  • there is evidence of independent possession/title (Bhavnagar Municipality Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 717).

Possession is a Good Title of right Against any one who cannot Show a Better

In Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813, our Apex Court explained the principle ‘possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better’ as under:

  • “9. The law in India, as it has developed, accords with jurisprudential thought as propounded by luminaries like Salmond. Salmond on Jurisprudence states:­
    • “These two concepts of ownership and possession, therefore, may be used to distinguish between the de facto possessor of an object and its de jure owner, between the man who actually has it and the man who ought to have it. They serve also to contract the position of one whose rights are ultimate, permanent and residual with that of one whose rights are only of a temporary nature.
    • x x x x x In English law possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better. A wrongful possessor has the rights of an owner with respect to all persons except earlier possessors and except the true owner himself. Many other legal systems, however, go much further than this, and treat possession as a provisional or temporary title even against the true owner himself. Even a wrongdoer, who is deprived of his possession, can recover it from any person whatever, simply on the ground of his possession. Even the true owner, who takes his own, may be forced in this way to  restore it to the wrongdoer, and will not be permitted to set up his own superior title to it. He must first give up possession, and then proceed in due course of law for the recovery of the thing on the ground of his ownership. The intention of the law is that every possessor shall be entitled to retain and recover his possession, until deprived of it by a judgment according to law.
    • Legal remedies thus appointed for the protection of possession even against ownership are called possessory, while those available for the protection of ownership itself may be distinguished as proprietary. In the modern and medieval civil law the distinction is expressed by the contrasted terms petitorium (a proprietary suit) and possessorium (a possessory suit).”
  • 10. As far back as 1924, in the case of Midnapur Zamindary Co. Ltd. v. Naresh Narayan Roy, AIR 1924 PC 144, the learned Judge observed that in India, persons are not permitted to take forcible possession; they must obtain such possession as they are entitled to through a court. Later, in the case of Nair Service Society Ltd. v. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, this Court ruled that when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides. It was further held that if Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, 1877 (corresponding to the present Section6) is employed, the plaintiff need not prove title and the title of the defendant does not avail him. When, however, the period of six months has passed, questions of title can be raised by the defendant, and if he does so the plaintiff must establish a better title or fail. In other words, such a right is only restricted to possession in a suit under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act (corresponding to the present Section 6) but does not bar a suit on prior possession within 12 years from the date of dispossession, and title need not be proved unless the defendant can provide one.
  • 11. It was also observed by this Court in Nair Service Society Ltd (supra) that a person in possession of land in assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against the entire world except the rightful owner. In such a case, the defendant must show in himself or his predecessor a valid legal title and probably a possession prior to the plaintiff’s, and thus be able to raise a presumption prior in time.”

Settled Possession and Established Possession

In A. Subramanian v. R. Pannerselvam, AIR 2021 SC 821, the Supreme Court held that even a trespasser, who is in established possession of the property could obtain injunction. But, it was cautioned that the matter would be different, if the plaintiff himself elaborated in the plaint about title dispute and fails to make a prayer for declaration of title along with injunction relief.

In Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813, it was pointed out in a case where there was no document to prove settled possession that ‘merely on doubtful material and cursory evidence, it cannot be held that the plaintiff was ever in possession of the property, and that too in settled possession’. It held further as under:

  • “13. The crux of the matter is that a person who asserts possessory title over a particular property will have to show that he is under settled or established possession of the said property. But merely stray or intermittent acts of trespass do not give such a right against the true owner. Settled possession means such possession over the property which has existed for a sufficiently long period of time, and has been acquiesced to by the true owner. A casual act of possession does not have the effect of interrupting the possession of the rightful owner. A stray act of trespass, or a possession which has not matured into settled possession, can be obstructed or removed by the true owner even by using necessary force. Settled possession must be (i) effective,(ii) undisturbed, and (iii) to the knowledge of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser. There cannot be a straitjacket formula to determine settled possession. Occupation of a property by a person as an agent or a servant acting at the instance of the owner will not amount to actual legal possession. The possession should contain an element of animus possidendi. The nature of possession of the trespasser is to be decided based on the facts and circumstances of each case.”

See Blog (Click): Declaration and Injunction

Nature of Property and Claim of Occupant Whether Bona Fide were Determinative Factors

In Government of A.P. v. Thummala Krishna Rao, (1982) 2 SCC 134,  the question considered was whether summary remedy for evicting a person provided for by section 6 of the Andhra Pradesh Land Encroachment Act, 1905, could be resorted to. It was pointed out

  • the duration of encroachment, short or long, was not the determinative matter
  • what was relevant for the decision was more the nature of the property and
  • whether the claim of the occupant was bona fide.

It was also found that if there was bona fide dispute, on title between the Government and the occupant, it must be adjudicated upon by the Ordinary courts of law. The Government cannot decide such questions unilaterally in its own favour and evict any person summarily. Duration of occupation would be relevant requiring an impartial adjudication according to the established procedure of law, if the person –

  • occupied openly for an appreciable length of time and
  • could be taken, prima facie, to have a bonafide claim to the property.

Possession is Heritable and Transferable

Possession by itself is a substantive right recognised by law. It is heritable and transferable. (Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179; Phirayalal Kapur Vs. Jia Rani, AIR 1973 Delhi 186; Nallammal Vs. Ayisha Beevi, 2017-5 Mad LJ 864). 

Injunction is a Possessory Remedy.

Courts protect settled possession (Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, 2004-1 SCC 769). Injunction is a possessory remedy. (See: Ladies Corner, Bangalore vs State of Karnataka, ILR 1987 KAR 1710, 1987 (1) KarLJ 402. Patil Exhibitors (Pvt.) Ltd. vs The Corporation of The City (M Venikatachaliah, J.) : AIR 1986 Kant 194, ILR 1985 KAR 3700, 1985 (2) KarLJ 533. Referred to in Chetak Constructions Vs. Om Prakash, AIR 2003 MP 145. )

But, an injunction cannot be issued against a true owner or title holder and in favour of a trespasser or a person in unlawful possession. See: Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji vs Maniben Jagmalbhai: 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258.

See Blog: Civil Rights and Jurisdiction of Civil Courts

Kesar Bai v. Genda Lal – HC and SC Approached in different Perspectives

Kesar Bai v. Genda Lal, 2022-10 SCC 217, arose from a suit seeking declaration of ownership and permanent injunction. The findings of the High Court were the following:

  • the plea of ownership claimed by the plaintiff based on a sale deed and the plea of adverse possession were contrary to each other;
  • the plaintiffs could not have been permitted to take both the pleas at the same time;
  • but, in view of the fact that the plaintiff was in possession of the suit land since the execution of the said sale deed, the plaintiff was entitled for injunction on the basis of his possession.

Setting aside the High Court judgment the Apex Court held as under:

  • “The possession/alleged possession of the plaintiffs could not have been protected by passing a decree of permanent injunction in favour of the plaintiffs”.

Should the Defendant-Rightful-Owner Approach the Court Again For Recovery?

No.

Before Kesar Bai v. Genda Lal, our Apex Court held in Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji v. Maniben Jagmalbhai, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258 (M.R. Shah, B.V. Nagarathna, JJ.) to the following effect (see ‘End Notes’ below):

  • The plaintiff is not entitled to any injunction and/or protect his possession against the rightful owner, more particularly, when he fails to get the declaratory relief with respect to the title.
  • In a suit for permanent injunction to restrain the defendant from interfering with the plaintiff’s possession, the only thing the plaintiff will have to establish is that as on the date of the suit, he was in lawful possession of the suit property and the defendant has tried to interfere or disturb his possession
  • the plaintiff, who has failed to get any declaratory relief on title cannot be said to be in “lawful possession”. Only when the person seeking the relief is in lawful possession and enjoyment of the property, he is legally entitled to be in possession, and not to disposes him, except in due process of law.
  • The contention of the plaintiff that even if the plaintiff failed to get the declaratory relief and the suit is dismissed, once the plaintiff is found to be in possession, her possession cannot be disturbed except in due process of law and the only remedy available to the defendant would be “to file a substantive suit to get back the possession is noticed only to be rejected outright”.
  • In Maria Margarida Sequeira Fernandes Vs. Erasmo Jack de Sequeira, (2012) 5 SCC 370, it was held that the ‘due process’ or ‘due course’ condition was satisfied the moment the rights of the parties were adjudicated upon by a court of competent jurisdiction, and that it did not matter who brought the action to court.
  • In Maria Margarida Sequeira Fernandes Vs. Erasmo Jack de Sequeira, the Court has approved the following findings of the High Court of Delhi in Thomas Cook (India) Ltd. Vs. Hotel Imperial (2006) 88 DRJ 545:
    • “In this context, when a party approaches a court seeking a protective remedy such as an injunction and it fails in setting up a good case, can it then say that the other party must now institute an action in a court of law for enforcing his rights i.e. for taking back something from the first party who holds it unlawfully, and, till such time, the court hearing the injunction action must grant an injunction anyway? I would think not.”

Even the Rightful Owner is NOT entitled to Eject a Trespasser, by Force

It goes without saying that the the rightful owner is not legally entitled to eject the interloper or trespasser by force, otherwise than by due process of law; especially when the trespasser is in settled possession.

In Karthiyayani Amma v. Govindan, AIR 1980 Ker 224, the High Court considered the question whether the rightful owner can eject a trespasser in possession with force; and whether a person in illegal possession could sustain a suit for injunction against the true owner, from forcibly dispossessing him from the property.  It was held as under:

  • “The ultimate position, therefore, reduces itself to this:
  • Can a person in possession without title sustain a suit for injunction against the rightful owner if he proves possession?
  • Yes.
  • In this case, plaintiff is found to in be possession. On the finding, he should be granted the injunction prayed for. A person in possession can be evicted only in due process of law. Even the rightful owner cannot eject him with force. If he cannot be evicted with force, he continues to be in possession and he can resist invasion of his possession by everyone including the rightful owner. If the rightful owner threatens his peaceful possession, he can approach Courts of Law and pray for the equitable relief of injunction to protect his possession”. (Followed in Aiysumma Vs. Mariyamma, 1994-2 CIVCC 52, 1994-1 KerLT 570. )

It is pointed out in Suresh v. Ashok Girdharilal Chandak, 2016-1 MHLJ 171 that ‘bearing in mind the basic principle of law in civil jurisprudence that even a trespasser cannot be evicted without following due process of law and no one can be allowed to take law into his own hands to recover possession of the property without following due process of law and without proving title to the immovable property in possession of a person holding actual physical possession thereof’.

Person in possession can use Reasonable Force to keep out a Trespasser

In Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, (2004) 1 SCC 769, our Apex Court Court, observed as under:­ 

  • “8. It is thus clear that so far as the Indian law is concerned the person in peaceful possession is entitled to retain his possession and in order to protect such possession he may even use reasonable force to keep out a trespasser.
  • A rightful owner who has been wrongfully dispossessed of land may retake possession if he can do so peacefully and without the use of unreasonable force.
  • If the trespasser is in settled possession of the property belonging to the rightful owner, the rightful owner shall have to take recourse to law; he cannot take the law in his own hands and evict the trespasser or interfere with his possession.
  • The law will come to the aid of a person in peaceful and settled possession by injuncting even a rightful owner from using force or taking law in his own hands, and also by restoring him in possession even from the rightful owner (of course subject to the law of limitation), if the latter has dispossessed the prior possessor by use of force.
  • In the absence of proof of better title, possession or prior peaceful settled possession is itself evidence of title. Law presumes the possession to go with the title unless rebutted. The owner of any property may prevent even by using reasonable force a trespasser from an attempted trespass, when it is in the process of being committed, or is of a flimsy character, or recurring, intermittent, stray or casual in nature, or has just been committed, while the rightful owner did not have enough time to have recourse to law. In the last of the cases, the possession of the trespasser, just entered into would not be called as one acquiesced to by the true owner.” (quoted in: Subramanya Swamy Temple, Ratnagiri v. V. Kanna Gounder, 2009-3 SCC 306)

What is the settled possession or effective possession of a person without title which would entitle him to protect his possession even as against the true owner was made clear in Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, (2004) 1 SCC 769. It reads as under:

  • “9. …The “settled possession” must be (i) effective, (ii) undisturbed, and (iii) to the knowledge of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser. The phrase “settled possession” does not carry any special charm or magic in it; nor is it a ritualistic formula which can be confined in a straitjacket. An occupation of the property by a person as an agent or a servant acting at the instance of the owner will not amount to actual physical possession.” (quoted in Samarpan Varishtha Jan Parisar vs Rajendra Prasad Agarwal, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 564)

No decree for recovery unless ‘present right to the possession’

While considering the question whether a worshipper can file a suit for recovery, it is held by our Apex Court, in M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) 2019-1 SCC 1, that no decree for recovery of possession can be made in such a suit unless the worshipper has the ‘present right to the possession’. But it is pointed out that in such situations, a worshipper must be permitted to sue as next friend of the deity, sue on behalf of the idol itself – directly exercising the deity’s right to sue.

See Blog: Mandatory Injunction – Law and Principles

Govt. to Prove Title, When Pattedars are in PossessionChief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, AIR 2003 SC 1805

It is held in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, AIR 2003 SC 1805, that Section 110 embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership, and that the presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title. The Supreme Court observed further in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, as under:

  • “Section 110 of the Evidence Act reads thus:
    • “110. Burden of proof as to ownership.-When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner.”
  • It embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership. The presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title.
  • This Court in Nair Service Society Limited v. K.C. Alexander and Ors., A.I.R. (1968) S.C. 1165 observed,
    • “The possession may prima facie raise a presumption of title no one can deny but this presumption can hardly arise when the facts are known, when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides.”
  • The pattedars proved their possession of the lands in question from 1312 Fasli (1902 A.D.) as pattedars. There is long and peaceful enjoyment of the lands in question but no proof of conferment of patta on the late Raja and the facts relating to acquisition of title are not known. The appellant- State could not prove its title to the lands. On these facts, the presumption under Section 110  of the Evidence Act applies and the appellants have to prove that the pattedars are not the owners. The appellants placed no evidence on record to rebut the presumption. Consequently, the pattedars, title to the land in question has to be upheld.”

In short, in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors (supra) our Apex Court decided the case against the State for the following:

  • State could not prove its title to the lands;
  • the respondents/pattedars were in possession, and hence presumption under Section 110  of the Evidence Act (‘Possession Follows Title’) applies; and
  • therefore, the State had to prove that the pattedars are not the owners.

Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors – Proffers a Bad Law

It is beyond doubt that the following important and subsequent decisions took a contra-view to Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors (supra):

  • R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203;
  • Government of Kerala v. Joseph, AIR 2023 SC 3988.

In R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203, it was held as under:

  • “15. Suits for declaration of title against the government, though similar to suits for declaration of title against private individuals differ significantly in some aspects.
  • The first difference is in regard to the presumption available in favour of the government. All lands which are not the property of any person or which are not vested in a local authority, belong to the government. All unoccupied lands are the property of the government, unless any person can establish his right or title to any such land. This presumption available to the government, is not available to any person or individual. …”

In Government of Kerala v. Joseph, AIR 2023 SC 3988 – It was pointed out –

  • “When the land subject to proceedings wherein adverse possession has been claimed, belongs to Government, the court is duty-bound to act with greater seriousness, effectiveness, care and circumspection as it may lead to destruction of a right/title of the State to immovable property.”

Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors Stands Against Several Decisions on the following Propositions

  • 1. Mutation will not confer ‘title’ (see notes below)
  • 2. Revenue Records Do Not Confer Presumptive Value on Title (see notes below).

The principles in Sec. 110 and 114 CANNOT be invoked –

It is held in the following decisions that the Principle ‘Possession Follows Title’ does not apply in the following situations-

  • The facts (on title/possession) are known (M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1)
  • There is evidence of independent possession/title (Bhavnagar Municipality v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 717).

As we find in M.  Siddiq  v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, Section 110 or the principle title follows possession‘ applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, possession alone decides (presumption cannot be invoked when the facts are known). But, with respect to the principle ‘possession follows title‘, as we find in Anathula Sudhakar  v. Buchi Reddy, AIR 2008 SC 2033, if only title is proved by one party, then only the principle ‘possession follows title’ comes in.

It is equally important that both these principles on presumption, ‘possession follows title’ and ‘title follows possession’, cannot be invoked in cases where:

  • (i) the defendants do not claim title/possession to the suit property (Devasia @ Kutty v. Jose, 2014-4 KLJ 41; 2014-3 KLT(SN) 50).
  • (ii) the facts (on title/possession) are known (M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1), or
  • (iii) there is evidence of independent possession/title (Bhavnagar Municipality v.. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 717).

Mutation will not confer ‘title’

It is a settled proposition of law (i) that the mutation entry in revenue documents will not confer any right, title or interest in favour of any person and (ii) that the mutation in the revenue record is only for the fiscal purpose. After pointing out these legal propositions it is observed in Jitendra Singh v. The State of Madhya Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 802, as under:

  • “6. Right from 1997, the law is very clear. In the case of Balwant Singh v. Daulat Singh (D) By Lrs., reported in (1997) 7 SCC 137 , this Court had an occasion to consider the effect of mutation and it is observed and held that mutation of property in revenue records neither creates nor extinguishes title to the property nor has it any presumptive value on title. Such entries are relevant only for the purpose of collecting land revenue. Similar view has been expressed in the series of decisions thereafter.
  • 6.1 In the case of Suraj Bhan v. Financial Commissioner, (2007) 6 SCC 186 , it is observed and held by this Court that an entry in revenue records does not confer title on a person whose name appears in record-of-rights. Entries in the revenue records or jamabandi have only “fiscal purpose”, i.e., payment of land revenue, and no ownership is conferred on the basis of such entries. It is further observed that so far as the title of the property is concerned, it can only be decided by a competent civil court. Similar view has been expressed in the cases of Suman Verma v. Union of India, (2004) 12 SCC 58; Faqruddin v. Tajuddin (2008) 8 SCC 12; Rajinder Singh v. State of J&K, (2008) 9 SCC 368; Municipal Corporation, Aurangabad v. State of Maharashtra, (2015) 16 SCC 689; T. Ravi v. B. Chinna Narasimha, (2017) 7 SCC 342; Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import & Export Co., (2019) 3 SCC 191; Prahlad Pradhan v. Sonu Kumhar, (2019) 10 SCC 259; and Ajit Kaur v. Darshan Singh, (2019) 13 SCC 70.”

Revenue Records Do Not Confer Presumptive Value on Title

The Supreme Court in  Smt. Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import and Export Company (2019) and Commissioner, Bruhath Bangalore Mahanagra Palike v. Faraulla Khan (2021)observed that mutation in revenue records will not confer or lose title (Relied on Sawarni (Smt.) v. Inder Kaur (1996) 6 SCC 223, Balwant Singh & Anr. v. Daulat Singh (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (1997) 7 SCC 137,  Narasamma & Ors. v. State of Karnataka & Ors. (2009) 5 SCC 591).

As pointed out above, it is observed by the Apex Court in State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319 that revenue record is not a document of title; it merely raises a presumption in regard to possession (Quoted in M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1). The argument as to ownership based upon entries in the revenue records had been negated in Prahlad Pradhan  v. Sonu Kumhar,(2019) 10 SCC 259. It was held that the revenue record does not confer title to the property nor do they have any presumptive value on the title. (Quoted in Prabhagiya Van Adhikari Awadh Van Prabhag v. Arun Kumar Bhardwaj (SC): 2021).

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Adverse Possession: Burden to Plead Sabotaged in Nazir Mohamed v. J. Kamala

Postscript – In the recent decision, Government of Kerala v. Joseph, 2023 KHC OnLine 6764, our Apex Court observed that burden of proof rests on the person claiming adverse possession. The Court followed P.T. Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, (2007) 6 SCC 59.

Saji Koduvath.

1. Introduction.

Adverse Possession is a common law doctrine. The true title holder loses his title by adverse possession; and it is acquired by the ‘trespasser’. Period of limitation, for acquiring adverse possession, under Article 65 of The Limitation Act, is 12 years. It starts, ‘when the possession of defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff’.

2. ‘Evolving’ Concept

Adverse possession being essentially a judge-made law, and not exhaustively defined in any statute, the concept of adverse possession has been ‘evolving’. It is interesting to note that there were divergent views even with respect to the very fundamentals of ‘adverse possession’.

3. Earlier view – Inaction of true-owner matters (not overt-acts of trespasser) 

At one time it was considered that inaction/acquiescence of the true owner for 12 years brings-in adverse possession. Because,

  • Article 65, which speaks of as to limitation of suits (to be filed by the plaintiffs) does not specifically speak as to (i)  intention to dispossess title owner or (ii) knowledge on the part of trespasser as to who is the true owner.
  • “Nec vi, nec clam, nec precario” does not refer to (or speak as to) ‘hostile’ possession
  • “Animus possidendi” also does not say – hostile possession.
  • Inaction, acquiescence etc. of true owner are the material considerations – to become a ‘possession’ adverse to plaintiff.
  • Therefore, to attract adverse possession the trespasser need not know the true owner.

Philosophy of the earlier view can be seen from Amrendra Pratap Singh v. Tej Behadur (Para 22 – AIR 2004 SC 3782)

  • “What is adverse possession? ………The process of acquisition of title by adverse possession springs into action essentially by default or inaction of the owner. ……… The law does not intend to confer any premium on the wrong doing of a person in wrongful possession; it pronounces the penalty of extinction of title on the person who though entitled to assert his right and remove the wrong doer and re-enter into possession, has defaulted and remained inactive for a period of 12 years, which the law considers reasonable for attracting the said penalty. ………..”

4. Present view – Give prominence to overt and adverse acts of trespasser. 

Following are the important decisions to see the present view on adverse possession:

  1. Karnataka Board of Wakaf v. Govt of India – AIR 2004 SC 2096
  2. T. Anjanappa v. Somalingappa [(2006) 7 SCC 570]
  3. PT Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, AIR 2007 SC 1753
  4. Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit KaurAIR 2019 SC 3827: (2019) 8 SCC 729

PT Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, AIR 2007 SC 1753, is the latest decision of the Supreme Court that discussed various views on adverse possession. It is observed in this decision as under:

  • “Adverse possession in one sense is based on the theory or presumption that the owner has abandoned the property to the adverse possessor on the acquiescence of the owner to the hostile acts and claims of the person in possession. It follows that sound qualities of a typical adverse possession lie in it being open, continuous and hostile.”
  • Thus, there must be intention to dispossess. And it needs to be open and hostile enough to bring the same to the knowledge and plaintiff has an opportunity to object

In a nutshell, adverse possession arises from:

  1. acquiescence of the owner to the hostile acts
  2. hostile acts of the trespasser.

5. Article 142 of the (Repealed) Limitation Act, 1908

Article 142 of the (repealed) Limitation Act, 1908, which dealt with the subject, did not put down the term ‘adverse’ in the relevant article concerned with “adverse possession”. 

Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 reads as under:

142. For possession of immovable property when the plaintiff, while in possession of the property, has been dispossessed or has discontinued the possession12 yearsThe date of the dispossession or discontinuance

Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 provided that the true owner would lose his right to recover the property from a trespasser if he failed to file a suit within the period of 12 years.

6. Article 65 of Limitation Act, 1963: Complete Change in Law of Adverse Possession

Articles 65 of the Limitation Act, 1963 brought-in  complete change insofar as the onus of proof is concerned: The new provision casted onus on the trespasser to prove claims of title by ‘adverse’ possession. Adverse possession arises, under Article 65 of Limitation Act, 1963, only ‘by the positive and hostile acts’ of the trespasser; that is, mere possession is not sufficient, but, it must be ‘adverse’ to the true owner.

Article 65 of Limitation Act reads as under:

65. For possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title.12 yearsWhen the possession of Defendant becomes
adverse to the plaintiff.

In T. Anjanappa v. Somalingappa, (2006) 7 SCC 570, it is observed by our Apex Court as under:

  • The possession must be open and hostile enough to be capable of being known by the parties interested in the property, though it is not necessary that there should be evidence of the adverse possessor actually informing the real owner of the former’s hostile action. … … The person who bases his title on adverse possession, therefore, must show by clear and unequivocal evidence i.e. possession was hostile to the real owner and amounted to a denial of his title to the property claimed…. …. If the defendants are not sure who is the true owner the question of their being in hostile possession and the question of denying title of the true owner do not arise.

7. Burden of Proof Sabotaged

Is it the burden of the defendant, in a suit for recovery, to plead adverse possession? Or, is it the duty of the plaintiff to show that the suit for possession was within the period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act (especially where there is a possible claim of Adverse Possession)?

Supreme Court of India considered hitherto that the burden fully rested upon the defendant.

But, in Nazir Mohamed v. J.  Kamala, AIR 2020 SC 4321, arose from a suit for recovery of possession, the Apex Court held that the plaintiff had to plead the date on which the defendant took possession and in the absence of pleading to show that the relief of decree for possession was within limitation, the suit would be dismissed; for, Section 3 of the Limitation Act barred the institution of any suit after expiry of the period of limitation prescribed in the said Act, even though the plea of limitation had not been taken in defence. It is pointed out in this decision that the Presumption that possession must be deemed to follow title, arises only where there is no definite proof of possession by anyone else.

The dispute in the case as to title is stated in Para 5 and 6 of the judgment, as under:

  • “5. In the plaint filed in the said suit, it has been alleged that the said premises, which had been purchased by the Respondent Plaintiff’s father, by a registered sale deed dated 17.9.1940, had originally been let out to the Appellant’s father M. Abdul Aziz. After the death of M. Abdul Aziz, the tenancy was attorned in the name of the Appellant, who agreed to pay rent of Rs.25/- per month, and also the requisite Panchayat Tax.
  • 6. Alleging that the Appellant had been trying to set up title in respect of the said premises, by applying for ‘Patta’ to the Tahsildar Natham, and further alleging that the Appellant was in arrears of rent to the tune of Rs.1225/- up to February, 1994, the Respondent Plaintiff filed the aforesaid suit.”

It is held further, as under:

  • “46. A decree of possession does not automatically follow a decree of declaration of title and ownership over property. It is well settled that, where a Plaintiff wants to establish that the Defendant’s original possession was permissive, it is for the Plaintiff to prove this allegation and if he fails to do so, it may be presumed that possession was adverse, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
  • 47. The Appellant-Defendant has in his written statement in the suit, denied the title and ownership of the Respondent- Plaintiff to the suit property. The Appellant-Defendant has asserted that the Appellant-Defendant is the owner of the suit property and has been in possession and in occupation of the suit premises as owner from the very inception.
  • 52. The maxim “possession follows title” is limited in its application to property, which having regard to its nature, does not admit to actual and exclusive occupation, as in the case of open spaces accessible to all. The presumption that possession must be deemed to follow title, arises only where there is no definite proof of possession by anyone else. In this case it is admitted that the Appellant-Defendant is in possession and not the Respondent Plaintiff.
  • 53. A suit for recovery of possession of immovable property is governed by the Limitation Act, 1963. Section 3 of the Limitation Act bars the institution of any suit after expiry of the period of limitation prescribed in the said Act. The Court is obliged to dismiss a suit filed after expiry of the period of limitation, even though the plea of limitation may not have been taken in defence.”

After quoting Article 65 of the Limitation Act the Court observed as under:

  •  “55. In the absence of any whisper in the plaint as to the date on which the Appellant-Defendant and/or his Predecessor-in-interest took possession of the suit property and in the absence of any whisper to show that the relief of decree for possession was within limitation, the High Court could not have reversed the finding of the First Appellate Court, and allowed the Respondent-Plaintiff the relief of recovery of possession, more so when the Appellant-Defendant had pleaded that he had been in complete possession of the suit premises, as owner, with absolute rights, ever since 1966, when his father had executed a Deed of Release in his favour and/or in other words for over 28 years as on the date of institution of the suit.
  • 56. As held by the Privy Council in Peri v. Chrishold reported in (1907) PC 73, it cannot be disputed that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner…and if the rightful owner does not come forward and assert his right of possession by law, within the period prescribed by the provisions of the statute of limitation applicable to the case, his right is forever distinguished, and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.”

Above decision stands against the consistent earlier view

It is pertinent to see that above decision stands against the consistent earlier view of the Supreme Court as expressed in L N Aswathama v. P Prakash, 2009-13 SCC 229, as under:

  • “In law, possession follows title. The plaintiffs having established title to the suit property, will be entitled to decree for possession, unless their right to the suit property was extinguished, by reason of defendant being in adverse possession for a period of twelve years prior to the suit.”

It is held in MS Jagadambal v. Southern Indian Education Trust, 1988 (Supp) SCC 144, that the possession continues with the title holder unless and until the defendant acquires title by adverse possession (possession follows title).

Postscript – In the recent decision, Government of Kerala v. Joseph, 2023 KHC OnLine 6764, our Apex Court observed that burden of proof rests on the person claiming adverse possession. The Court followed P.T. Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, (2007) 6 SCC 59, where it is observed as under:

  • “34. The law in this behalf has undergone a change. In terms of Articles 142 and 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908, the burden of proof was on the plaintiff to show within 12 years from the date of institution of the suit that he had title and possession of the land, whereas in terms of Articles 64 and 65 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the legal position has underwent complete change insofar as the onus is concerned : once a party proves its title, the onus of proof would be on the other party to prove claims of title by adverse possession….”

Our Apex Court referred, in Government of Kerala v. Joseph, 2023 KHC OnLine 6764, the following decisions, also :

  • (i) M Siddiq v. Mahant Suresh Das (five-Judge Bench). It observed as under:
  • “748. A person who sets up a plea of adverse possession must establish both possession which is peaceful, open and continuous – possession which meets the requirement of being ‘nec vi nec claim and nec precario’. To substantiate a plea of adverse possession, the character of the possession must be adequate in continuity and in the public because the possession has to be to the knowledge of the true owner in order for it to be adverse. These requirements have to be duly established first by adequate pleadings and second by leading sufficient evidence.”
  • (ii) Thakur Kishan Singh v. Arvind Kumar, (1994) 6 SCC 591. It is held as under:
  • “5. A possession of a co-owner or of a licensee or of an agent or a permissive possession to become adverse must be established by cogent and convincing evidence to show hostile animus and possession adverse to the knowledge of real owner. Mere possession for howsoever length of time does not result in converting the permissive possession into adverse possession…”
  • (iii) Chatti Konati Rao v. Palle Venkata Subba Rao, (2010) 14 SCC 316, (two-Judge Bench). It is observed as under:
  • “15. Animus possidendi as is well known is a requisite ingredient of adverse possession. Mere possession does not ripen into possessory title until the possessor holds the property adverse to the title of the true owner for the said purpose. The person who claims adverse possession is required to establish the date on which he came in possession, nature of possession, the factum of possession, knowledge to the true owner, duration of possession and that possession was open and undisturbed…”


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Sec. 65B, Evidence Act: Arjun Paditrao Criticised.

Saji Koduvath.

Introduction.  

Sec. 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act are the new enabling provisions introduced to confer a right to a party who wishes to rely upon the contents of an ‘electronic record’ by ‘computer output’ (copy or print – derived from original), adopting the procedure/drill given in Sec. 65B ‘without further proof or production of the original’; that is, without accounting for (original) ‘electronic record’. It is to simplify the proceedings and procedures.

Landmark Decisions

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is 26 not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65-B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision.
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
      • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570) two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ) two- judge bench decision. Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision. It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is “clarified” and directed to “read” Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’  ”.
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
      • “What is clear from this judgment is that the judgment of Anvar P.V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P.V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P.V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

ARJUN PANDITRAO v. KAILASH KUSHANRAO (2020)3 SCC 216, CRITICISED: 

  1. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020) 3 SCC 216, is per incurium as it went wrong in observing:
    • that ‘the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility’ of ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence);
    • that by virtue of the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act .. .. the computer output shall be deemed to be ALSO a document’) Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot at all be adverted to in proving a computer output (secondary evidence); and
    • that Section 65B being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield; and therefore, the computer outputs (secondary evidence) cannot be proved under Sec. 65 read with Sec. 63 of the Evidence Act.
  2. It failed to observe:
    • that “Electronic record containing the statement alone can be proved with Sec. 65B(4) Certificate (statement is confined to the matters that can be made in a written form: e.g. call-records of phones, bank-account-statements); and not all information (such as: photo, video etc. in a computer, pen-drive or CD etc.).
    • The non-obstante clause is for enabling admission of ‘computer output’ (derived from original) in evidence, as (original) ‘document’ itself (“the computer output shall be deemed to be ALSO a document”), in a simpler manner,  notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’.
  3. It should have noticed:
    • only formal evidence and admissibility (and not truth of contents) are dealt with in Sec. 65B; and
    • correctness of the computer output produced by a computer (print out or other copy), is presumed under Sec. 65B(5)(c).
  4. It was thoroughly mistaken in holding:
    • that a certificate, swearing ‘best of the knowledge and belief’, can be brought by ‘force’ (as a ‘thing’).
  5. It missed to see:
    • that the changes made to law by the introduction of Sec. 65A and 65B are:
      1. simplification of procedure for proving electronic record (‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act) by producing a copy (computer output) by declaring the copy also as a (deemed) document – if the conditions are satisfied.
      2. “where it is desired to give a statement in evidenceit can be had by “a certificate” as provided in Sec. 65B(4).
      3. the computer output (print or copy) can be tendered in evidence without evidence as to the computer which (finally) produced it – for, it will be presumed (shall be taken) “to have been produced by a computer … by means of any appropriate equipment”, as per Sec. 65B(5)(c).
Observations in   Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash KushanraoCriticism
1. Non-obstante clause is given in Sec. 63B – because, ‘Electronic Record’ is not a ‘document’. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, para 21 reads as under:1. Electronic records’ are already declared as ‘documents’ (When defined ‘Evidence’ in S. 3 ). Section 65B (1) needed to declare ‘computer output’ (derived from original) alone as documents.
“Section 65B(1) opens with a non-obstante clause, and makes it clear that any information that is contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be a document, and shall be admissible in any proceedings without further proof of production of the original, as evidence of the contents of the original or of any facts stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible. The deeming fiction is for the reason that “document” as defined by Section 3 of the Evidence Act does not include electronic records.The deeming fiction in S. 65B (1), need not be applied to an ‘electronic record’ (primary evidence). The principles of ‘presumption’ are introduced herein.  It is needed only for the ‘computer output’; and not for ‘electronic record’. The doubt as to whether electronic – records are also ‘documents’ is already removed by the amendment to Sec. 3 Evd. Act. (Evidence’ means and includes … .. all documents including electronic records’.)
Sec. 65A and 65B do not bar proving (i) (original) ‘electronic records’ under Sec. 62 and (ii) computer outputs (derived from original ) under Sec. 65. (Sec. 65 provides for adducing secondary evidence if the original is lost, not easily movable etc.)
2. Non-obstante clause (‘notwithstanding anything …’) excludes S. 62 and 65. It is observed in para 31:2. Non-obstante clause does not exclude Sec. 62 and 65 –
“The non-obstante clause in sub-section (1) makes it clear that when it comes to information contained  in an electronic record, admissibility and proof thereof must follow the drill of Section 65B, which is a special provision in this behalf – Sections 62 to 65 being irrelevant for this purpose.”  
Para 59: “We may reiterate, therefore, that the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of evidence by way of electronic record, as correctly held in Anvar P.V. (supra), and incorrectly “clarified” in Shafhi Mohammed (supra).”
 The non-obstante clause is for enabling admission of ‘computer output’  (derived from original)  as ‘document’ itself, in a simpler manner, by the deeming provision notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’.

The non-obstante clause is an enabling provision. (See ‘Note’ – 1 below.)
3. Production of Certificate  under Sec. 65B(4):3. A certificate cannot be ordered to be given as a thing:
In Arjun Panditrao para 50 it is observed as under: “However, in cases where either a defective certificate is given, or in cases where such certificate has been demanded and is not given by the concerned person, the Judge conducting the trial must summon the person/ persons referred to in Section 65B(4) of the Evidence  Act, and require that such  certificate be given by such person/ persons.” Arjun Panditrao directs  to seek help of the court to obtain the required certificate under S. 65B(4) invoking Sec. 165, Evidence Act; Order XVI, CPC or Ss. 91 & 349 of the Cr.P.C.  
This certificate ‘to the best of the knowledge and belief’ of a person, is based on his ‘subjective-satisfaction’.
It cannot be ordered to be given as a thing’ under S. 165 and Ss. 91 & 349 Cr.P.C.
(Order XVI  Rule 6, CPC says as to document alone; not any ‘thing’.) 
A certificate, swearing ‘best of the knowledge and (or?) belief’, cannot be brought by ‘force’ also. (See ‘Note’ – 2 below.)
4. Tomaso Bruno was held to be ‘per incurium‘:4. Should have been referred to a higher bench. 
 PV Anwar (2014-10 SCC 473), three-judge bench decision, was not followed in the three-judge bench decision in Tomaso Bruno (2015-7 SCC 178).
Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in Shafhi Muhammed (2018-2 SCC 801 ).
Arjun Panditrao substantially followed PV Anwar (2014).
It was observed in Arjun Panditrao (3-judge bench) that Tomaso Bruno was per incurium (3-judge bench).  Tomaso Bruno being of a 3-judge bench, the case should have been referred to a higher bench.  
[PV Anwar (2014) was rendered by Kurian Joseph, J.  He was a judge in the unanimous 3-bench decision in Tomaso Bruno (2015) which was ‘followed’ in Shafhi Muhammed (2018) ].

‘Note: 1’:  Why the Non-obstante Clause

Sec. 65B speaks: ‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act .. .. the computer output shall be deemed to be ALSO a document’ (if the conditions laid down are fulfilled). It is clear:

  • Sec. 65B is an enabling provision. The non-obstante clause is introduced not to exclude Sec. 62 and 65.  (Contra view in Arjun Panditrao).
  • It declares ‘computer output’ (derived from original or copy) ALSO as an (original) document by the deeming provision.
  • Section 65A and 65B deal with evidence ‘derived from original’ (computer output) alone; and not about original (electronic record).
  • From Sec. 65A and 65B it is clear that its application is ‘notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’, and the application of Sec. 62 to 65 are not curtailed; and, therefore, copy or computer outputs (derived from original ) can be used under Sec. 65 (Sec. 65 provides for adducing secondary evidence if the original is lost, not easily movable etc.); that is, otherwise than by producing the ‘Certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4).

It is correctly held in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu,  (2005) 11 SCC 600, as under:

  • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65.

Sec. 65A and 65B do not bar proving (i) (original) ‘electronic records’ under Sec. 62 and (ii) computer outputs (derived from original ) under Sec. 65 (Sec. 65 provides for adducing secondary evidence if the original is lost, not easily movable etc.).  From Sec. 65A and 65B it is clear that Sec. 62 to 65 are independent from Sec. 65B (‘notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’); and, therefore,

  • Sec. 62 to 65 can also be invoked to prove ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘electronic record’). That is, otherwise than by producing the Certificate under Sec. 65B(4). (Contra view in Arjun Panditrao).

‘Note: 2’: Assume, the competent person gives a ‘statement’ that he cannot vouchsafe as to the truth and veracity of the document, then what will be the next step? Or, what will be the position if that person gives a false statement with respect to the document (though he knows it to be true and genuine)? Further, if the circumstances or admission by the parties show it is a genuine copy and the competent person pretends ignorance as to the truth of the document, how it will be dealt with?

  • In all these circumstances, the ultimate way-out is to apply the principle accepted by by Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP (and followed in Shafhi Muhammed – the overruled decision).

Does the duo by Sec. 65A & 65B Evid. Act Oust the Operation of Sec. 63 & 65?

  • That is, whether ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘ electronic record’) can be proved only by Sec. 65B and it Constitute a ‘Complete Code’?

The Answer is No.

Then, what does the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything’) denote? It is clear that Sec.62 to 65 are independent from the new provisions, Sec. 65A and 65B; and Sec. 62 to 65 can also be invoked to prove ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘electronic record’). It is definite that the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act .. .. ’) in Sec. 65B does not oust Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act in proving a computer output (secondary evidence). Because:

  1. Sec. 65A is an introductory provision to Sec. 65B.
  2. Sec. 65A does not control Sec. 65B.
  3. Sec. 65A directs only an (enabling) method to PROVE (not the only one method) the CONTENTS of electronic records –  by print/copy – invoking Sec. 65B.
    • (Sec. 65A reads: The contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B.) 
    • Thus, Sec. 65B is an Enabling or Added provision; and, other enabling (existing) provisions in the Indian Evidence Act, to prove documents by secondary evidence invoking Sec. 63 and 65, are not taken away.
  4. Sec. 65B(1), further lays down that the computer output (copy) shall be “deemed to be ALSO” an (original) document, if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, “notwithstanding anything contained in the Act”.
    • That is, Sec. 65B, does not bar proving a print/copy (as secondary evidence) by satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, by oral evidence or affidavit, as to loss of original, original with other side and notice given, original not easily movable, etc., as the case may be.
  5. Sec. 65B deals with ‘ADMISSIBILITY of ‘computer output’ (derived from original) alone. 
  6. The conditions in Sec. 65B(2) (such as: computer was used regularly and operating properly, information was regularly fed into in the ordinary course, etc.) have to be satisfied by oral evidence or affidavit. In case of ‘statements’ alone, it can be had by the ‘certificate’ provided under Sec. 65B(4).

In short, compliance of this enabling provision is not an invariable or imperative condition precedent to the admissibility’ of ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence); and it does not stand in the way of proving a secondary evidence of the contents of the ‘electronic record’, invoking the usual method laid down in Sec. 65 read with Sec. 63 of the Evidence Act – that is, satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, by oral evidence or affidavit. (Note: Contra view in: Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216).

‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be proved by ‘CERTIFICATE’ under Sec. 65B

  • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not authenticity. Sec. 65B(4) alone deals with authenticity; because, it is laid down that the certificate “shall be evidence of any(?) matter stated” therein.

Sec. 65B(4) reads as under:

“(4) In any proceedings where

it is desired to give a statement  

in evidence, by virtue of this section,

a certificate doing any of the

following things, that is to say,—

  • (a) identifying the electronic record CONTAINING the STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced;
  • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section

it shall be sufficient

for a matter to be stated to the

best of the knowledge and belief

f the person stating it.”

What is a “Statement” in Evidence Act?

According to Evidence Act, ‘statement’ is – that which can be expressed in the form of ‘oral evidence’. Because, “Evidence” is defined in Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act as under:

  • “Evidence means and includes—
    • all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry; such statements are called oral evidence.
    • all documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court, such documents are called documentary evidence.”
  • See also: Sec. 8
    • Explanation 1.––The word “conduct” in this section does not include statements, unless those statements accompany and explain acts other than statements; but this explanation is not to affect the relevancy of statements under any other section of this Act.
    • Explanation 2.––When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct, is relevant.
  • Section–32
    • Cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found, etc., is relevant.
  • Section–. 34
    • Entries in books of account when relevant. …. but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to charge any person with liability
  • Section–. 36
    • Relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans.
  • Section–. 32
    • Relevancy of statement as to fact of public nature contained in certain Acts or notifications.
  • Section–. 37
    • Relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law-books.
  • Section–. 38
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 39
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 145
    • Cross-examination as to previous statements in writing
  • Section–. 157
    • Former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact
  • Section–. 158
    • What matters may be proved in connection with proved statement relevant under section 32 or 33.

Thus it appears that the call-records of phones, bank-account-statements etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’. The ‘statement’ referred to herein is that which can be pointed out “identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced” as stated in Section 65B(4)(a); and which can be ‘purporting to be signed‘, as stated in Section 65B(4)(c). And, it is clear that the ‘statement’ does not pertain to other ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD. (Note – contra view in Supreme Court decisions).

See Blog: How to Prove WhatsApp Chats, Facebook Messages and Website Information in Courts?

‘Statement‘ in S. 65B(4) is the ‘STATEMENT ‘CONTAINED‘ IN THE ELECTRONIC RECORD‘and NOT that GIVEN IN COURT

Now, the potential question that arises for consideration is the following:

  • Whether the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is
    • (i) that given in court, to support the copy or printout, or
    • (ii) that is contained in the electronic record?

It is beyond doubt that the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is not the one that is given in court; but, the statement ‘CONTAINED‘ in “the electronic record“. Because:

  1. The “statement” referred to in Sec. 65B (4) is one that-
    • may be:
      • desired to give” “in evidence by virtue of this section” (Sec. 65B(4) first clause); and
  2. The “certificate”-
    • must be one that
      • “identifying the ELECTRONIC RECORD CONTAINING THE STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced” [Section 65B(4)(a)].

The above view is fortified by the following:

  • Sec. 65B(4) says that the certificate
    1. must state, under Sec. 65B(4)(c), among other things, facts as to “dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate”
      • Note: Proving matter with ’certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4) is a species and proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65B(2) is genus.
    2. could be signed by a person who has
      • “a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities” (Section 65B(4)(c).

Thus, the formal assertions like statements of witnesses, call-records of phones, bank-account-statements, etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’, by virtue of section 65B; and not ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD.

In short, going by Sec. 65B, it is definite that-

  • the computer-output (copy) containing the ‘information’ (e.g. CCTV Footage, photo or video in a CD) in the electronic-record (original) can be admitted in evidence, under Sec. 65B, if only the conditions (such as: the computer was operating properly, the electronic record is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the activities, etc.) mentioned in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied (that is, the conditions are to be proved through the usual mode of oral evidence or affidavit); and
  • the ‘statements’ (e.g. call-records of phones, bank-account-statements) alone can be admitted in evidence, under Sec. 65B (by computer-output, without further proof or production of the original electronic-record), through a ‘certificate‘ (Note – Contra view in Court decisions. In the binding Court decisions it is stated that sans the Certificate, no computer-output can be taken into consideration).

Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B.

  • It is clear that the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
    • S. 65B(2)(a) computer was USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
      • of the activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
      • BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
    • S. 65B(2)(b) information was REGULARLY FED
      • in the ORDINARY COURSE,
    • S. 65B(2)(d) the information is REPRODUCED in the
      • ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
    • (For example – Computer Account statements in a Bank.)
  • For all other computer outputs (copy of, photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc.), one has to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65.
  • Therefore, it is beyond any doubt that the following computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B:
    • CCTV footage – (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON and (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    • CDs containing speech – (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information, (ii) not regularly fed in the ordinary course and (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    • videograph of the scene of crime or trap-video – (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information, (ii) not regularly fed in the ordinary course and (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
  • But, the Supreme Court dealt with CCTV footage in the following landmark cases:
    • State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,
    • Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178),
  • CDs/VCDs in respect of video recording by the Election Commission
    • Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216
  • CDs containing election speeches and songs in:
    • Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473).
  • Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones in:
    • Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570)
  • Tape recorded conversation on the landline phone
    • Vikram Singh v. State of Punjab, (2017) 8 SCC 518
  • Propriety of videography of the scene of crime or scene of recovery during investigation, in:
    • Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ).

Computer output’ can be got produced by ‘any computer‘ and no evidence/certificate required

A ‘Computer Output’ can be got copied or printed by ‘any computer’. It need not be the part of the device that was “used regularly to store or process information”. It is clear from the phrase – shall be taken to have been produced by “a computer” – in 65B(5)(c). It stands contradistinct to “the computer” in Sec. 65B(2).

Presumption on ‘Computer output’ (print or copy)

From the very wordings in Sec. 65B(5)(c), the ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) as to the involvement of the computer which (finally) produced the computer output (print or copy) need not be furnished. Because, the legislature contemplated a presumption as to correctness of the computer output (not truth of contents), under Sec. 65B(5)(c), as it reads:

  • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

It is similar to Sec. 63 clause (2) which reads as under:

  • “Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy …. …”

Sec. 63 lays down the sorts of secondary evidence accepted by the Evidence Act. It is seen that Sec. 65B(5)(c) expressly says also as to presumption on correctness, as stated above.

Mere marking– not dispense with proof (of truth of contents)

In Sait Tarajee Khimchand v. Yelamarti Satyam, AIR 1971 SC 1865, the Supreme Court observed that mere marking of a documents (day book and ledger) as exhibits do not dispense with the proof of documents. In Nandkishore Lalbhai Mehta Vs. New Era Fabrics, AIR 2015 SC 3796, it is observed that mere marking as exhibit and identification of executor’s signature by one of witnesses does not prove contents of a document.

In Kaliya Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (2013-10 SCC 758) it is held as under:

  • “Mere admission of a document in evidence does not amount to its proof. Nor, mere marking of exhibit on a document does not dispense with its proof, which is otherwise required to be done in accordance with law. (Vide: The Roman Catholic Mission Vs. The State, AIR 1966 SC 1457; Marwari Khumhar Vs. Bhagwanpuri Guru Ganeshpuri AIR 2000 SC 2629; RVE Venkatachala Gounder Vs. Arulmigu AIR 2003 SC 4548; Smt. Dayamathi Bai Vs. K.M. Shaffi, AIR 2004 SC 4082; and LIC of India  Vs. Rampal Singh Bisen,2010-4 SCC 491).”
  • “The court is obliged to examine the probative value of documents produced in court or their contents and decide the question of admissibility of a document in secondary evidence.”
  • [Note: Further held: “In case, an objection is not raised at that point of time, it is precluded from being raised at a belated stage.”]

IF the TRUTH is IN ISSUE mere proof of handwriting or execution not evidence of truth:   IF the TRUTH of the facts stated in a document is IN ISSUE mere proof of the hand-writing and execution of the document would not furnish evidence of the truth of the facts or contents of the document.

In Ramji Dayawala Vs. Invest Import: AIR 1981 SC 2085, it us held as under:

  • “If the truth of the facts stated in a document is in issue mere proof of the handwriting and execution of the document would not furnish evidence of the truth of the facts or contents of the document. The truth or otherwise of the facts or contents so stated would have to be proved by admissible evidence, i.e. by the evidence of those persons who can vouchsafe for the truth of the facts in issue.”

If ‘truth’ is in issue, or in dispute, marking without objection by itself does not absolve the duty to prove the truth as to the contents of the documents. (See: Achuthan Pillai vs Marikar (Motors) Ltd., AIR 1983 Ker 81, 1976 Cr.LJ 1507; 2016 (1) Gau. LJ 88,  2012(1) CTC 53; 2013-1 KLT 293.)

Admissibility and Presumption as to correctness of Computer Output

  • Sec. 65B does not deal with ‘truth’ of the contents of the electronic record; it deals with only ‘admissibility of copy’.
  • The electronic record mentioned in Sec. 65B is – that is ‘relevant‘; for, it must be one “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  • Therefore, if truth is in question, it must be proved according to other provisions of the evidence act; ie. by oral, documentary (such as admission) or presumptive (including circumstantial) evidence.
  • Relevant portions of 65A & 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
      • The contents of electronic records MAY BE proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) … any information contained in an electronic record which is printed ….. or copied ….. shall be ADMISSIBLE in any proceedings ….. as evidence of any contents of the original … of which direct evidence would be admissible.”

Sec. 65B declares and expressly lays down that computer output (copy or print)

  • (i) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and
  • (ii) shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence
    • of any contents of the original or
    • of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

If the conditions mentioned in this Section Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, by necessary implication, it will bring a presumption under Sec. 114 with respect to regularity of the computer output . Because, admissibility of ‘any fact stated therein‘ ‘without further proof’ is nothing but ‘presumption’ of its regularity and correctness. The net result is that (if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied) the burden to prove otherwise is cast on the person who opposes it.

The requirement in Sec. 65B(2) as to ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) for ‘regularity‘ of feeding information into the computer in the ‘ordinary course‘ eloquently support this proposition.

  • Note:
    • (i) ‘Statements’ alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4); other ‘information’ are to be proved by proper evidence.
    • (ii) Presumption of ‘regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act can be applied in Sec. 65B.
    • (iii) Presumption of a ‘fact or regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act is, essentially presumption of ‘Truth’ and ‘Correctness’.

Presumption of Fact Means Truth/Correctness of Fact

St. of West Bengal Vs. Mir Mohammad Omar (AIR 2000 SC 2988) it is held by our Apex Court as under:

  • “Presumption of fact is an inference as to the existence of one fact from the existence of some other facts, unless the truth of such inference is disproved. Presumption of fact is a rule in law of evidence that a fact otherwise doubtful may be inferred from certain other proved facts. When inferring the existence of a fact from other set of proved facts, the Court exercises a process of reasoning and reach a logical conclusion as the most probable position. The above principle has gained legislative recognition in India when Section 114 is incorporated in the Evidence Act. It empowers the Court to presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened. In that process Court shall have regard to the common course of natural events, human conduct etc. in relation to the facts of the case.”

Substance and Conclusion

  1. Sec. 65B is invoked only when a computer output (copy) is used in evidence.
    • Sec. 65B pertains to ‘admissibility'(not truth) of a computer output/copy.
    • It deals with computer output/copy alone; and it does not deal with (original) electronic record.
  2. Non-obstante clause does not oust S. 63 and 65.
    • The non-obstante clause in Sec. 65B does not oust operation of Secs. 63 & 65 of the Evidence Act; and, therefore, secondary evidence of an electronic record can be given in evidence, invoking Sec. 65, read with Sec. 63.
    • Sec. 65B is an added and enabling provision to prove the copy or print out (otherwise than by proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, such as loss of original, original with other side).
    • It relates to relevant matters alone “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  3. Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • The computer output (copy) containing the information, such as CCTV footage, photo or video in a CD etc., can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly) mentioned in S. 65B(2) are satisfied, through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • A computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B if the computer was one not used regularly, or the information was one not ‘regularly fed’ into the computer in the ordinary course, etc., (as in the case of a photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.).
    • In such a case (photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.), we have to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65; because, if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly)  mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, then only the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’.
  4. Statements alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under S. 65B(4).
    • The statements (such as e-mail, call records of phones, bank account statements, etc.) alone can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under S. 65B(4). 
    • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not authenticity. Sec. 65B(4) alone deals with authenticity; because, it is laid down that the certificate “shall be evidence of any(?) matter stated” therein.
  5. Presumption as to correctness of the copy or print-out ‘produced by a computer’ under S. 65B(5)(c)
    • S. 65B(5)(c) lays down a presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer out-put, inasmuch as S. 65B(5)(c) lays down that ‘a computer out-put shall be taken to have been produced by a computer’. 

As shown by Justice V. Ramasubramanian in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, Sec. 65B is a substantial reproduction of Sec. 5 of the UK Civil Evidence Act, 1968, and that it is introduced in India 10 years after it was repealed in UK. No doubt, it will stand as a masterly provision, if it aids simplification of procedure and leads to attain ends of justice. Even if any deflection in any corner, the judicial wisdom of the Apex Court will guide the courts in India through correct path.

The present UK Act (Civil Evidence Act 1995) does not make any special provision for Electronic Evidence or Computerised Records. It deals this matter under the head ‘hearsay evidence’ and makes ‘safeguards’ with respect to the hearsay evidence.


End Notes – 1

What is ‘certificate’, in law

  • The usual method to prove documents is by giving oral evidence or furnishing affidavit. A certificate, in most cases, is an opinion, and prepared on the basis of other documents or evidences. In such cases, when it is an assumption or inference, it by itself, is not admissible, as it will only be, at the most, a secondary evidence. A Wound Certificate is not a substantive evidence. It has to be proved by a competent witness. If presumption cannot be invoked under Clause (e) of Sec. 114 Evidence Act (that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed), no certificate or report can be taken as proved unless its contents are proved in a formal manner. (This is why Order XXVI rule 10 CPC specifically says – Commission Report shall ‘form part of the record’.)
  • Our Apex Court held in Dharmarajan v. Valliammal, 2008 (2) SCC 741, that ‘a certificate issued by the Tahsildar cannot be relied on without examining the Tahsildar who issued the same’. It is referred to in Pankajakshan Nair v. Shylaja, ILR 2017-1 Ker 951.

End Notes – 2

Landmark Decisions

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is 26 not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision.
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
    • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570): two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ), two- judge bench decision. Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision. It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is “clarified” and directed to “read” Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’  ”.
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
    • “What is clear from this judgment (Tomaso Bruno) is that the judgment of Anvar P. V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P. V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P. V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

End Notes – 3

Sec. 65A and Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act reads:

Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:

The CONTENTS of electronic records may be PROVED in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 

65B. Admissibility of electronic records

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence of any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

(2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—

  • (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer during the period over which the computer was used regularly to store or process information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer;
  • (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
  • (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
  • (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.

(3) Where over any period, the function of storing or processing information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by computers, whether—

  • (a) by a combination of computers operating over that period; or
  • (b) by different computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (c) by different combinations of computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (d) in any other manner involving the successive operation over that period, in whatever order, of one or more computers and one or more combinations of computers, all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.

(4) In any proceedings where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—

  • (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
  • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.

(5) For the purposes of this section,—

  • (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
  • (b) whether in the course of activities carried on by any official information is supplied with a view to its being stored or processed for the purposes of those activities by a computer operated otherwise than in the course of those activities, that information, if duly supplied to that computer, shall be taken to be supplied to it in the course of those activities;
  • (c) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section any reference to information being derived from other information shall be a reference to its being derived therefrom by calculation, comparison or any other process.

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Is the Basis of Every Easement, Theoretically, a Grant

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

 “An easement is a Right

  • Easement is a right possessed by the owner of a land (dominant land),
    • to use the land of another (servient land),
    • for the beneficial enjoyment of the (dominant) land.

Easement Does Not Confer Ownership or Possession

  • No Ownership is bestowed in the (servient) land (AIR 2004 All 359; AIR 1925 Bom 335).
  • No Possession obtained in the (servient) land. (2011 (2) KLT 605; AIR 1925 Bom 335).  
  • No Interest is created in the (servient) land. (2003 (1) KLT 320; AIR 1954 All 393).

Easement (सुखाधिकार) is Well Recognised; And Circumscribed by Law

  • Easement is a limited right touse’or ‘enjoyanother’s land.
  • It is to do, or to prevent to do, some specific thing.
  • It is to be exercised in a way least onerous to ‘another’s land’.
  • It is not a right to build and enjoy.
  • The right gained cannot be enlarged.
    • That is, an easement of way to a particular (dominant) property cannot be extended to another property by the dominant owner; an easement for residential purpose cannot be enlarged for an industrial purpose. (Sec. 28, 29, 43 etc.)
  • Servient owner can use his land in any manner (without disturbing enjoyment of the easement).

According to ‘Katiyar on Easements’:                                                                   

  • Easement is not a right to land or exclude owner.
  • It is not a right to permanent occupation. 
  • It does not confer exclusive right of user/enjoyment.
  • And, it is not a corporeal interest in land.

Easement – Definition under the Indian Easements Act

SECTION 4 of the Indian Easements Act defines Easements as under:

  • “An easement is a right
  • which the owner or occupier of certain land possesses,
    • as such,
  • for the beneficial enjoyment of that land 
  • to do and continue to do something, or to prevent and continue to prevent something being done,
  • in or upon, or in respect of, certain other land not his own.”

Salient Limitations of Easement under the Indian Easements Act

  • The owner of a land only ‘uses’or ‘enjoys‘ another’s land (Sec. 31)
  • Only ‘enjoyment’ of soil or things ‘subsisting’ (Explanation in Sec. 4).
  • Limited enjoyment of (a) land & (b) advantages from its situation: S. 7
  • Right be exercised in a way least onerous to ‘another’s land’: Sec. 22
  • Secure full enjoyment, cause as little inconvenience: Sec. 24: 2017-2 KLT 63

It is Not a right to:                                            

  • tend to total destruction of servient tenement: S. 17 (2003 (1) KLT320)
  • make additional burden: S. 23
  • make constructions in, or cultivate upon: (2003 (1) KLT 320).
  • prevent servient owner to use: S. 27 : 2003 (1) KLT 320
  • enlarge purpose of, or accustomed user: S. 28
  • substantially increase an easement: S. 29
  • prevent servient owner from obstructing excessive  ‘user’ of servient land – as ‘enjoyment of easement’: S. 31
  • increase burden by making permanent change in do. tent: S. 43
  • capable of forming grant – No easement, if Not capable of forming grant (without document or registration): Mohammed vs. Doomunhi Achari, 1987 (2) KLT 1037.

No easement if:

  • right claimed is incidents of ownership.
  • servient property belongs to him. Easement is a right with conscious knowledge that the servient property does not belong to him. AIR 1966 Raj 265. It must also be with proper animus as to easement: AIR 1973 Mad 173.

The word ‘Servient’ is derived from ‘Serve’

Literal meaning of the word ‘servient’ is – subordinate, subservient and subject to another. Etymologically it is derived from ‘servus’ (Latin) meaning – slave or servant.

Sec. 4 Explains ‘Servient Heritages’ as under:

  • “Dominant and Servient Heritages and OwnersThe land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists is called the dominant heritage, and the owner or occupier thereof the dominant owner; the land on which the liability is imposed is called the servient heritage, and the owner or occupier thereof the servient owner.”

Thus, the land upon which the right is claimed is ‘servient’ land.

Methods of Acquisition of Easements

The Indian Easements Act, 1882 refers to the different methods by which easements are acquired. They are pointed out (Ramkanya Bai v. Jagdish, AIR 2011 SC 3258) to be the following:

  1. easements by grantexpress grant by the owner of the servient heritage
  2. easements of necessity: based on implied grants or reservations made by the owner of a servient heritage at the time of transfers or partitions
  3. easements by prescription: that it is presumed to be acquired by peaceable and open enjoyment, without interruption for twenty years and
  4. customary easements: it is inferred to be acquired by virtue of a local custom.

For easement by prescription, it is not necessary that the user should be exclusive, but the claimant should exercise it under some claim existing in his own favour independently of all others.

‘Grant’ in Law

The term ‘Grant’ is used to denote-

  • A generic term to mean ‘transfer’ of immovable property (e.g., sale, lease, gift etc.).
  • But, in judicial parlance, it will not be an absolute ‘transfer’ of property; and remain as a concession, permission, settlement, grant of easement etc., if it is used in place of ‘transfer’ of property.
  • Present, aid, help etc., and the act of a settlor of trust, or of donor of a charity.
  • A technical term to denote conditional-transfer of lands by sovereign especially when it is purposefully used to differentiate from ‘transfer’ of property.
  • More than a licence (which does not create an estate or interest) and less than an outright and unconditional ‘transfer’ of property similar to sale, gift etc. (Note: A license is personal to an individual, whereas a ‘grant’ in an easement pertains to a right attached to the land.)

Characteristics of ‘Grant’

  • Usually it denotes a grant by deed.
  • It can be with or without consideration.
  • Unless specifically specified, it is creation of an ‘interest’ in property. 
  • As long as the conditions are fulfilled, grant is usually irrevocable.
  • Conditions can also be fixed to limit the period of grant.
  • Inferior interest, out of an interest retained by the grantor, e.g. the grant of a lease of land by the person holding the freehold. (Collins Dictionary of Law).

‘Grant’ – Salmond on Jurisprudence

What is ‘grant’ is stated in Salmond’s Jurisprudence, 12th Edition, at pages 338-339, under the heading ‘The Classes of Agreements’, as under:

  • • “…. A contract is an agreement which creates an obligation or a right in Personam between the parties to it. A grant is an agreement which creates a right of any other description; examples being grants of leases, easements, charges, patents, franchises, licences and so forth. An agreement which transfers a right may be termed generically an assignment. On which extinguishes a right is a release, discharge, or surrender.” (Quoted in H. Anraj v. Government of Tamil Nadu  (& Shri Dipak Dhar v. The State of West Bengal), AIR 1986 SC 63: (1986) 1 SCC 414.)

Grant by a Co-owner

Grant effected by a co-owner with the consent of other co-owners, or validated by their approval or ratification, alone is valid. In proper cases such consent or ratification may be presumed.

Grant of Land by Government

The lands granted continued to be lands belonging to the Government and the grantees did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the granted area under the grant. We can see the ‘conditions’ of deeds under which the grants were made by the Travancore government in the following decisions-

  • State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272
  • Kannan Devan Hills Produce v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301
  • State of Kerala v. The Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co.,  AIR 1998 Ker 267

See also:

  • Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86
  • Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86 gives us “illuminative information as to the concept of ‘jenmom’” as pointed out in Harrisons Malayalam Limited v. State of Kerala, 2018 2 KHC 719; 2018 2 KLT 369 – though this decision was overruled by the larger Bench in Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez Vs. Albert Fernandez, AIR 1971 Ker 168 :1971 KLT 216).

Grant may be Express or “Implied

The origin of all easements is, theoretically, grant by the servient owner. It may be express or implied. It may also be presumed from long user.

  • Note: Traditionally, the term ‘implied easement’ was used by the conventional authorities only to denote ‘easement of necessity‘. However, in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, the Supreme Court used the same to refer to an easement of grant ‘arising by implication‘.

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “13. On the question of easement by grant, the Appellate Court was of the opinion that the plaintiff’s claim in that respect stood proved. The plaintiff had acquaintance and association with the Ashramam and Yogini Amma from his childhood days as revealed from the oral and documentary evidence. Considering the location and nature of `B’ schedule pathway, the location of two pillars at its inception and the gate from which it started, it could be seen that it had been in use by the plaintiff as a pathway. The plaintiff had been residing in the house on `A’ schedule property even prior to the deed of settlement. Therefore, the Appellate Authority arrived at the conclusion that the plaintiff had obtained right of easement of grant from Yogini Amma over the `B’ schedule pathway.
  • An easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties and it may have its own consideration. (B.B. Katiyar’s Commentaries on Easements and Licenses, p. 762).  It may be either express or even by necessary implication. Though easement of necessity will come to an end with the termination of necessity, easement acquired by grant cannot be extinguished on that ground as per section 13(b) of the Indian Easements Act, 1882. Therefore, even assuming that the plaintiff had an alternative pathway as contended by the defendants, it does not extinguish the right of easement of grant in favour of the plaintiff. Therefore, the Trial Court was justified in granting a relief of declaration of right of easement of grant over the `B’ schedule pathway. However, the declaration granted on the ground of easement of necessity was not justified.”

The aforesaid Supreme Court decision (Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622) arose from the Kerala High Court decision, Sree Swyam Prakash Ashramam v. N. Gopala Pillai on 9 May, 2006. It was affirmed by the Supreme Court. The Kerala High Court held as under:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user. In the case of an express grant of easement the limit thereof depends on the words used.”

Upholding the view of the Kerala High Court the Apex Court held as under:

  • “In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

No Explicit ‘Consideration’ Required for Easement by Grant

Neither the provisions of the enacted law (Easements Act, 1882) nor judicial decisions specifically address the requirement of ‘consideration’ in the creation of easements by grant. This omission is understandable, as Indian law clearly permits the acquisition of easements by grant – both express and implied. Since an easement may arise by implication, and the intention to grant can be inferred from the terms of the grant or the surrounding circumstances, the fundamental principle of easement law – that every easement is, in theory, rooted in a grant – supports the conclusion that no express consideration is required for the creation of an easement by grant.

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act reads:

  • “An easement may be acquired by the owner of the immovable property for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right is created, or, on his behalf, by any person in possession of the same.”

Sec. 13 further elaborates on easements of necessity and quasi-easements, indicating that such easements can arise from the transfer or bequest of immovable property, again without a requirement for consideration.

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, the Supreme Court held:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user.”

Also read: Implied Grant: A Valid Mode of Creation of Easement under Indian Law

Basis of every Right of Easement is Theoretically a Grant

In Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89, it is held as under:

  • “The basis of every right of easement by whatsoever method it may have been acquired, is theoretically a grant from the servient-owner.
    • It may be expressed, as is mentioned in Sections 8 to 12 of the Act, or
    • it may be implied from the circumstances as in Section 13 of the Act. or
    • it may be presumed from long and continued user for a certain period as in Section 15 of the Act, or
    • it may be inferred from a long and continued practice of user by a certain class of the public in certain locality.” 

No Explicit ‘Consideration’ Required for Easement by Grant

Neither the provisions of the enacted law (Easements Act, 1882) nor judicial decisions specifically address the requirement of ‘consideration’ in the creation of easements by grant. This omission is understandable, as Indian law clearly permits the acquisition of easements by grant – both express and implied. Since an easement may arise by implication, and the intention to grant can be inferred from the terms of the grant or the surrounding circumstances, the fundamental principle of easement law – that every easement is, in theory, rooted in a grant – supports the conclusion that no express consideration is required for the creation of an easement by grant.

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act reads:

  • “An easement may be acquired by the owner of the immovable property for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right is created, or, on his behalf, by any person in possession of the same.”

Sec. 13 further elaborates on easements of necessity and quasi-easements, indicating that such easements can arise from the transfer or bequest of immovable property, again without a requirement for consideration.

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, the Supreme Court held: “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user.”

Grant of Right of Way must be Liberally Construed

Katiyar on Easements repeatedly said in his treatise that a ‘grant of right of way must be liberally construed’ to ensure the dominant owner’s beneficial enjoyment of his land. Gale on Easements (leading English treatise) and “Law of Easements and Licenses” by P.S. Narayana also emphasised this principle.

In Mathai v. Jordi Poulose,  ILR 2011-2 Ker 484; 2011-2 KHC 591; 2011-2 KLT 605, it was found that the suit agreement, made it clear that the right given thereunder was not a personal right but a right for the beneficial enjoyment for the property, and it could only be a right of easement and not a licence. The High Court  referring Ram Sarup Gupta v. Bishun Narain Inter College, AIR 1987 SC 1242, said further as under:

  • “18. True, the plaint did not specifically show that appellant has claimed a right of easement by grant. But as rightly argued by the learned counsel appearing for the appellant, a pleading must be liberally construed and placing undue emphasis on the form is not in the interest of justice. The Honourable Supreme Court in Ram Sarup Gupta v. Bishun Narain Inter College (AIR 1987 SC 1242) held:
  • “It is well settled that in the absence of pleading, evidence, if any, produced by the parties cannot be considered. It is also equally settled that no party should be permitted to travel beyond its pleading and that all necessary and material facts should be pleaded by the party in support of the case set up by it. The object and purpose of pleading is to enable the adversary party to know the case it has to meet. In order to have a fair trial it is imperative that the party should state the essential material facts so that other party may not be taken by surprise. The pleadings however should receive a liberal construction, no pedantic approach should be adopted to defeat justice on hair splitting technicalities. Sometimes, pleadings are expressed in words which may not expressly make out a case in accordance with strict interpretation of law, in such a case it is the duty of the Court to ascertain the substance of the pleadings to determine the question. It is not desirable to place undue emphasis on form, instead the substance of the pleadings should be considered. Whenever the question about lack of pleading is raised the enquiry should not be so much about the form of the pleadings, instead the Court must find out whether in substance the parties knew the case and the issues upon which they went to trial. Once it is found that in spite of deficiency in the pleadings parties knew the case and they proceeded to trial on those issues by producing evidence, in that event it would not be open to a party to raise the question of absence of pleadings in appeal.”

Lost Grant

In Easements Act by Dr. Karandikar & Chitaley at Page 425, note 20 (Title by lost grant), it is observed as follows:

  • “(2) The evidence from which a lost grant may be inferred is not very different from the evidence on which a claim for a prescriptive easement may be established.
  • (3) (Drainage system of defendant’s building connected with sewer line of plaintiff’s building – Right claimed by defendant exercised secretly – Held, right was not proved.) The presumption of lost grant may be negatived by showing legal incompetence as regards owner of the servient tenement to grant an easement or a physical incapacity of being obstructed as regard the easement itself or an uncertainty or secrecy of enjoyment putting out of the category of all known easements.
  • (4) Where the plaintiff did make out a case of user from time immemorial in the plaint a decree could be granted on the basis of lost grant.
  • (5) Acquisition of easement by immemorial user based on doctrine of lost grant can be claimed when dominant and servient tenements are held under same landlord.
  • (6) Proof of the origin of right or by such proof of long & uninterrupted usage as in the absence of a documentary title will suffice to establish a prescriptive right.” (Quoted in Varghese v. Jose Mathew, 2014-3 Ker LT 1065).

Halsbury’s LawsPrescription based on presumed grant

In Halsbury’s Laws of England Vol 16(2) at Page 42, paragraph 76, it is observed as follows:

  • “76. Prescription based on presumed grant. The doctrine of prescription generally is based upon the presumption of a grant, the common law doctrine being that all prescription presupposes a grant once made and validly subsisting, but since lost or destroyed. The other forms of prescription are merely modifications of this doctrine. The presumption in the former instance of such a grant arises under the doctrine of prescription from the fact of enjoyment of the right. It therefore follows that a right claimed by prescription must be such that it could have formed the subject matter of a grant. Nothing which cannot have had a lawful beginning can be claimed by prescription. Recourse can only be had to the doctrine of prescription in cases where a grant of the right is not forthcoming, for prescription has no place if a grant is proved and its terms are known“. (Quoted in Varghese v. Jose Mathew, 2014-3 Ker LT 1065).

Prescriptive Rights are Inchoate until title thereof is upheld by a competent court

It was observed in Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227, that the result of the Easements Act and the similar provisions of the Limitation Act was that a right of easement could not be said to be perfected until the right was declared by a decree of court. It is more so, in case of prescriptive rights which are inchoate (started; but, not full-blown) until title thereof is upheld by a competent court. See also:

  • Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227 is referred to in: Nachiparayan v. Narayana Goundan, (1920): 60 Ind Cas 171, (1920) 39 MLJ 574; Arjuna Udayar v. Manuswamy Naicker, 1999-1 CurCC 97;
  • D. Ramanatha Gupta vs S. Razaack, AIR 1982 Kant 314..
  • See also: Tradesh and Miners, Ltd v. Dhirendra Nath Banerjee, AIR 1944 Pat 261.

Easement is acquired; not arise out of ‘Express Permission’

Sec. 12, Easements Act states that an easement is acquired by the owner of an immovable property. It is observed by the Apex Court in Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103, that the claimant of easement (prescription) should plead and prove that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any agreement with the owner of the property over which the right is claimed, as any user with the express permission of the owner will be a licence and not an easement. 

  • Note: A license is personal to an individual, whereas a ‘grant’ in an easement pertains to a right attached to the land.

Easement-by-Prescription – “Grantor Acquisition by “Hostile or Notorious Act? Is there incongruity?

The basis of every right of easement is theoretically a grant from the servient-owner. Grant is presumed in easement by prescription, from long and continued user. Is there incongruity (in easement by prescription) between ‘grant’ (on one part) and ‘acquisition’ of easement by “prescription” which suggests ‘adverse’ and ‘hostile or notorious’ user (on the other part)?

  • The answer is that the ‘grant’ herein is only a “presumption in law”; and virtually, easement by prescription has to be acquired by hostile and/or notorious acts.
  • It is clear from Sec. 12 and 15 of the Easement Act.

Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v. Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109 lays down the legal position accepted by Indian law, clearly, as under:

  • “The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Chapsibhai Dhanjibhai Danad vs Purushotram, 1971 AIR 1878, it was pointed out as under:

  • “In Ravachand v. Maniklal (ILR 1946 Bom. 184), it was held that an easement by prescription under ss. 12 and 15 of the Act is in fact an assertion of a hostile claim of certain rights over another man’s property and in order to acquire the easement the person who asserts the hostile claim must prove that he had the consciousness to exercise that hostile claim on a property which is not his own and where no such consciousness is proved he cannot establish a prescriptive acquisition of the fight.”

In Raychand Vanmalidas vs Maneklal Mansukhbhai, (1946) 48 BomLR 25 it was held as under:

  • “In any case it must be shown that the right was enjoyed as an easement, that is, as an assertion of a hostile claim of certain limited rights over somebody else’s property. Such an assertion cannot be held proved without satisfactory proof of the requisite consciousness. Prescriptive easement, as opposed to easement by grant, is always hostile. It is in fact an assertion of a hostile claim of certain rights over another man’s property and as such it resembles in some respects the claim to ownership by adverse possession of property; both are of hostile origin and are, therefore, prescriptive rights obtained by adverse enjoyment for a certain period, the difference being that while in the case of adverse possession the possessor must assert his own ownership, in the case of easement he must assert limited rights of user on a property and acknowledge its ownership in some one else. It must, therefore, follow, in my opinion, that a person who asserts such a hostile claim must prove that he had the consciousness of exercising that hostile claim on a property which is not his own, and where no such consciousness is proved, he cannot prove the prescriptive acquisition of the right”.

Easement by prescription is ‘acquired’ by ‘prescriptive’ user. It should not have been by permission or agreement. In case of easement, law requires pleading and proof – that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any express permission (Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103).

It is held in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 62 that the acquisition of easement by prescription may be classified under the head of implied grant; for, all prescription presupposes a grant.

Implied Grant’ Recognised in Three Distinct Legal Connotations

  • 1. Theoretical Basis of Easement of Necessity. Implied from the necessity of enjoying the dominant tenement; arises by operation of law in the absence of any other access.
  • 2. Theoretical Basis of every Right of Easement  The origin of all easements is a grant by the servient owner; it may be expressed, as is mentioned in Sections 8 to 12, or implied from the circumstances as in Section 13, or presumed from long and continued user as in Section 15 of the Act.
  • 3. Judicially Acknowledged Sources of Easement. Common Law of India recognises following two modes of ‘easements’ –
    • (i) Village Pathways (falls under Sec. 18 Easements Act – Customary Easements): Easement inferred from a long and continued practice of user by a certain class of the public in certain locality. E.g.: a village pathway (See: Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89; Harendra Nath Chakraborti v. Asim Sindhu Chakraborty, AIR 1981 Cal 325; Yohannan Vs. Mathai, 1991-1 Ker LJ 605, 1991 KHC 571).
    • (ii) Implied Grant of Pathways: A species of easement by grant, inferred from the conduct of parties or surrounding circumstances; a recognised source of easement based on presumed intention. (See: Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622; L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR 1972 Mad 307).

Read Blog: Implied Grant: A Valid Mode of Creation of Easement under Indian Law

Implied Grant” has as much efficacy as an express grant

In Kuppakkal v. Mathan Chettiar, AIR 1924 Mad 834, Annapurna  v. Santosh Kumar, AIR 1937 Cal 661; Ratanchand Chordia v. Kasim Khaleeli, AIR 1964 Mad 209 and  L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR  1972 Mad 307, it was held that the grant of a right of way which had necessarily to be implied on a true construction of the deed, had as much efficacy as an express grant.

It was held in R. Sivanandan v. Rajammal, (1975) 1 Mad LJ 251, that the implied grant could be raised even if there was no express grant; and that the argument that the absence of an express grant would negative an implied grant was quite untenable.

Easement right by way of implied grant stated in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, is this ‘Easement by grant’ that arise by implication.

Alternative Way Will Not Defeat Claim of Implied Grant (Grant that arise by Implication)

The existence of alternative way will defeat easement of necessity and quasi easement. But, it will not defeat the claim of implied grant. (See: John, S/o. Ulahannan v. P. Janaki, D/o. Late Vava, 2012, Kerala High Court.)

Implied Grant and Easement by Prescription

  • Easement of Necessity and of Implied Grant (‘Easement by grant’ on implication) are sprouted on Analogous principles; because, both are based on some sort of ‘consent or permission’.
  • Implied Grants [both as (i) theoretical basis of Easement of Necessity and (ii) ‘Easement by grant’ on implication] are Antithetical to Easement by Prescription, because implied Grants are based on some sort of ‘consent, approval or permission’ and Easement by Prescription is arisen from prescriptive or hostile acts and it is to be ‘acquired’.

Easement by (implied) grant and quasi easement can be pleaded alternatively Easement by (implied) grant and quasi easement can be pleaded alternatively for it is permissible to raise inconsistent pleas (but  to confine either of the two at the time of evidence).

Easement of Necessity and Easement by Prescription are Antithetical (Easement of Necessity and of Implied-Grant (Grant that arise by Implication) are Analogous)

Easement by prescription is acquired by hostile and notorious acts; but user of it should be peaceable and open enjoyment, without interruption for twenty years. Therefore grant is presumed in easement by prescription.

Origin of Easements of necessity and Easement by prescription are different (Easements of necessity is based on implied grants. It is based on some sort of ‘consent, approval or permission’; but, Easement by Prescription is arisen from prescriptive or hostile acts). Hence, both these rights are antithetical to each other. In Natesa Gounder v. Raja Gounder, 2012-5 Mad LW 649, it is observed as under:

  • Implied grant and the concept easement by prescription are quite antithetical to each other. If a person is having an implied grant in his favour, then the question of prescription would not arise.” (Quoted in: Kalyan Spinning Mills v. M.  Chellappan, AIR  2023 Mad 8, P.  Sadayan v. Arumugam, 2020-1 Mad LW 535).
  • See also: Joy Joseph v. Jose Jacob, 2010 (4) KHC 167; Kochu Nadar v. Kunjan Nadar Gabriel,2011 SCC OnLine Ker 2674;  Kallen Devi v. Kizhakkekoroth Raghavan, 2012 (3) KLT 142; Kamala Devi Amma v. Rajan, 2017 (4) KLJ 700;  Lilly v. Wilson, 2018 (1) KLT 772.

Hero Vinoth v.  Seshammal, 2006-5 SCC 545, is the well accepted authority, as regards ‘easement of necessity’, for the following –

  • An easement of necessity is one which is not merely necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the dominant tenement, but one where dominant tenement cannot be used at all without the easement.
  • The burden of the servient owner in such a case is not on the basis of any concession or grant made by him for consideration or otherwise, but it is by way of a legal obligation enabling the dominant owner to use his land.
  • It is limited to the barest necessity however inconvenient it is irrespective of the question whether a better access could be given by the servient owner or not. When an alternate access becomes available, the legal necessity of burdening the servient owner ceases and the easement of necessity by implication of law is legally withdrawn or extinguished as statutorily recognized in Sec. 41.
  • Such an easement will last only as long as the absolute necessity exists.

Hero Vinoth v.  Seshammal, 2006-5 SCC 545, is the well accepted authority, as regards ‘easement by grant’, for the following –

  • Easement of necessity will not amount to an easement of necessity under Sec. 13 of the Act eventhough it may also be an absolute necessity for the person in whose favour the grant is made.
  • Limit of the easement acquired by grant is controlled only by the terms of the contract. If the terms of the grant restrict its user subject to any condition the parties will be governed by those conditions. Any how the scope of the grant could be determined by the terms of the grant between the parties alone.
  • If it is a permanent arrangement uncontrolled by any condition, that permanency in user must be recognized and the servient tenement will be recognized and the servient tenement will be permanently burdened with that disability.
  • Such a right does not arise under the legal implication of Sec. 13.
  •  An easement by grant does not get extinguished under Sec. 41 of the Act which relates to an easement of necessity.
  • Where the parties clearly provided for a right of access to the backyard of the defendant’s house when the Partition deed was executed and shares were allotted to various sharers taking into account various factors, it is a matter of contractual arrangement between them.
  • In such a contract if a right of way is provided to a particular sharer, it cannot be extinguished merely because such sharer has other alternative way.

Will Easement of Necessity Ripen into a Prescriptive Easement?

In other words-

  • Can one claim ‘easement of necessity’ and ‘easement by prescription’ with respect to a (same) way?  
  • Does a way  that started with minimum width (say a foot-path) under the claim ‘easement of necessity’, and continued with a higher width (so that cars can be taken), in the course of time,  for more than 20 years, will yield or bring-in ‘easement by prescription’?

We find answer in negative form in Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v, Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109. It is held as under:

  • “10. However, a way of necessity is distinguished from the right of way acquired by prescription and cannot ripen into a prescriptive easement so long as the necessity continues. A way of necessity arises by virtue of conditions entirely different from easement of way created by prescription. The former arises by implication of law out of the necessities of the case and is based upon principle of law which negative the existence of a way by continuous adverse user. The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Hero Vinoth v.  Seshammal, 2006-5 SCC 545, is the well accepted authority, to differentiate ‘easement of necessity and grant’. It is laid down –

  • Easement of necessity is depended upon absolute necessity.  Easement by grant does not depend upon absolute necessity of it. (It is the nature of the acquisition that is relevant.)
  • Many easements acquired by grant may be absolutely necessary for the enjoyment of the dominant tenement in the sense that it cannot be enjoyed at all without it. That may be the reason for the grant also. Still, easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties, and the parties are governed by the terms of the grant and not anything else; whereas easement of necessity is controlled under the legal implications of Sec. 13 and it is extinguished by the statutory provision under Sec. 41 (which is not applicable to easement by grant).
  • Easement by grant will not amount to an easement of necessity under Sec. 13 even when grant is an absolute necessity for the person in whose favour it is made.

Can Easement of Necessity and (Implied) Grant be Claimed Alternatively?

It is held in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, Easement of Implied Grant can be granted in a suit even though “Grant” alone was Claimed (Alternatively to easement of necessity). Facts of the case, in a nutshell, are the following –

  • Plaintiff, owner of A-schedule property (dominant tenement), claimed “easement of necessity or of grant” in B-schedule property (servient tenement).
  • “Implied grant” was not specifically pleaded (only ‘grant’ was pleaded).
  • Dominant tenement had been separated from the servient tenement.
  • Plaintiff has been using the way in B-schedule property for a long period (about 50 years).
  • The trial court observed that the plaintiff claiming easement by grant or easement of necessity has only a primary burden to prove the absence of any alternate pathway (these findings were accepted by the Apex Court).
  • Defendant alleged that two alternate pathways existed. But, No evidence of any other way to A-schedule property (dominant tenement).
  • The High Court found that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway.
  • The Supreme Court upheld the view of the High Court and the Trial Court and held as under:
    • “… the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that
      • (i) no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and
      • (ii) there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property …”

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “17. The High Court limited itself to the issue whether the decree of the first appellate court granting the original plaintiff (since deceased) right of easement over ‘B’ schedule property by way of grant concurring with the findings of the trial court was sustainable.
  • 18. Before the High Court, the defendants pleaded that there had been no appeal or cross objection filed by the original plaintiff (since deceased) against the order of the Appellate Court which disallowed the claim of easement of necessity and, therefore, the finding that there existed no easement of necessity in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased) over the ‘B’ schedule property stood confirmed. Further they contended that the alternative pathway on the western side of the ‘A’ schedule property was rendered inconvenient by the very act of the original plaintiff (since deceased) who sold that portion of the property to a third party who began digging that pathway resulting in the difference in level. The High Court, on consideration of these contentions, held that though the claim of right of easement by way of necessity over ‘B’ Schedule property may be affected by the subsequent sale of the said plot by the plaintiff in 1983, the claim of right of easement by way of grant over ‘B’ schedule property stood unaffected by the said conduct.
  • 21. The High Court relied on a number of observations in Katiyar’s Law of Easement and Licences (12th Edition) on law with respect to “implication of grant of an easement.” It may arise upon severance of a tenement by its owner into parts. The acquisition of easement by prescription may be classified under the head of implied grant for all prescription presupposes a grant. All that is necessary to create the easement is a manifestation or an unequivocal intention on the part of the servient owner to that effect.
  • 23. Applying these observations to the facts of the case, the High Court held that though the original grant was by Yogini Amma that grant could not perfect as an easement for the reason that Yogini Amma herself was the owner of both ‘A’ schedule and ‘B’ schedule properties and consequently there was no question of ‘B’ schedule property becoming the servient tenement and ‘A’ schedule property becoming the dominant tenement. However, it was the desire of Yogini Amma that was implemented by her disciples by virtue of the settlement deed. Therefore, the right of the plaintiff to have ‘B’ schedule property as a pathway could not have been taken away by the very same deed. In fact, there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway as can be inferred from the circumstances, namely,
    • i) no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property in the settlement deed and
    • ii) there was no objection to the use of ‘B’ schedule as pathway.
  • 25. We have heard Mr. T.L. Viswanatha Iyer, learned senior counsel for the appellants and Mr. Subramanium Prasad, learned senior counsel for the respondents. We have carefully examined the impugned judgment of the courts below and also the pleadings, evidence and the materials already on record. It is not in dispute that the trial court as well as the First Appellate Court concurrently found on a proper appreciation of the evidence adduced in the case that the ‘B’ Schedule Property of the plaint was being used by the original plaintiff (since deceased) and thereafter, by the respondents even after construction of the building in 1940 in ‘A’ Schedule property of the plaint. The appellants also did not dispute the case of the original plaintiff (since deceased) that he was in continuous occupation of the building even after its construction in the year 1940. It is also not in dispute that the appellants were not able to establish that the original plaintiff (since deceased) was using any other pathway for access to ‘A’ Schedule Property of the plaint and the building therein, which was in the occupation of the original plaintiff (since deceased). The case of the appellants that since there was no mention in the deed of settlement enabling the use of ‘B’ schedule pathway for access to ‘A’ schedule property and the building therein, cannot be the reason to hold that there was no grant as the grant could be by implication as well. It is not in dispute that the fact of the use of the ‘B’ schedule property as pathway even after execution of Exhibit A1, the settlement deed in the year 1982 by the original plaintiff (since deceased) would amply show that there was an implied grant in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased) relating to ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint for its use as pathway to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint in residential occupation of the original plaintiff (since deceased). In the absence of any evidence being adduced by the appellants to substantiate their contention that the original plaintiff (since deceased) had an alternative pathway for access to the ‘A’ schedule property, it is difficult to negative the contention of the respondent that since the original plaintiff (since deceased) has been continuously using the said pathway at least from the year 1940 the original plaintiff (since deceased) had acquired an easement right by way of an implied grant in respect of the ‘B’ Schedule property of the plaint. It is an admitted position that both ‘A’ schedule and ‘B’ schedule properties of the plaint belonged to Yogini Amma and her disciples and it was the desire of Yogini Amma that was really implemented by the disciples under the settlement deed executed in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased). Therefore, the High Court was perfectly justified in holding that when it was the desire of Yogini Amma to Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam & Anr vs. G.Anandavally Amma & Ors grant easement right to the original plaintiff (since deceased) by way of an implied grant, the right of the original plaintiff (since deceased) to have ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as a pathway could not have been taken away.
  • In Annapurna Dutta vs. Santosh Kumar Sett & Ors. [AIR 1937 Cal.661], B.K. Mukherjee, as His Lordship then was observed:
    • There could be no implied grant where the easements are not continuous and non-apparent. Now a right of way is neither continuous nor always an apparent easement, and hence would not ordinarily come under the rule. Exception is no doubt made in certain cases, where there is a ‘formed road’ existing over one part of the tenement for the apparent use of another portion or there is ‘some permanence in the adaptation of the tenement’ from which continuity may be inferred, but barring these exceptions, an ordinary right of way would not pass on severance unless language is used by the grantor to create a fresh easement.”
  • 26. In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

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Polygraph, Narco Analysis and Brain Mapping Tests in Criminal Investigation

Saji Koduvath.

Introduction.

Polygraph (Lie Detector Test), Narco Analysis and Brain Mapping are tests used in Criminal Investigation. The investigation teams are not free to use it, as they think proper. It is so made clear in the Guidelines promulgated by the National Human Rights Commission, and in the Supreme Court decision in Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263.

Guidelines of National Human Rights Commission, in 2000

The National Human Rights Commission laid down the Guidelines in 2000, for using Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test) on the accused. It is made under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 21 safeguards the rights of every person against cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment by any State-agency. These mandatory guiding principles read as under:

  • “(i) No Lie Detector Tests should be administered except on the basis of consent of the accused. An option should be given to the accused whether he wishes to avail such test.
  • (ii) If the accused volunteers for a Lie Detector Test, he should be given access to a lawyer and the physical, emotional and legal implication of such a test should be explained to him by the police and his lawyer.
  • (iii) The consent should be recorded before a Judicial Magistrate.
  • (iv) During the hearing before the Magistrate, the person alleged to have agreed should be duly represented by a lawyer.
  • (v) At the hearing, the person in question should also be told in clear terms that the statement that is made shall not be a ‘confessional’ statement to the Magistrate but will have the status of a statement made to the police.
  • (vi) The Magistrate shall consider all factors relating to the detention including the length of detention and the nature of the interrogation.
  • (vii) The actual recording of the Lie Detector Test shall be done by an independent agency (such as a hospital) and conducted in the presence of a lawyer.
  • (viii) A full medical and factual narration of the manner of the information received must be taken on record.”

Smt. Selvi  v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263

The Supreme Court has made it clear in Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263 that these guidelines issued by the National Human Rights Commission, in 2000, pertained to Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test), should be strictly adhered to. That is, if the accused objects such Tests, they cannot be forcibly administered. By virtue of the Supreme Court decision, similar safeguards should be adopted for conducting ‘Narco-Analysis Technique’ and the ‘Brain Electrical Activation Profile test’, also.

The Apex Court held that the forcible methods of carrying out Narco Analysis Test or Polygraph Test by the police are destructive of accused’s non-derogable rights against self-incrimination and personal liberty. It was held that this right against the self-incrimination was available even at the stage of investigation. In Smt. Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263,  the Apex Court observed as under:

  • “263. We are also of the view that forcing an individual to undergo any of the impugned techniques violates the standard of “substantive due process” which is required for restraining personal liberty. Such a violation will occur irrespective of whether these techniques are forcibly administered during the course of an investigation or for any other purpose since the test results could also expose a person to adverse consequences of a non-penal nature. The impugned techniques cannot be read into the statutory provisions which enable medical examination during investigation in criminal cases i.e. the Explanation to Sections 53, 53-A and 54 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Such an expansive interpretation is not feasible in light of the rule of “ejusdem generis” and the considerations which govern the interpretation of statutes in relation to scientific advancements. We have also elaborated how the compulsory administration of any of these techniques is an unjustified intrusion into the mental privacy of an individual. It would also amount to “cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment” with regard to the language of evolving international human rights norms. Furthermore, placing reliance on the results gathered from these techniques comes into conflict with the “right to fair trial”. Invocations of a compelling public interest cannot justify the dilution of constitutional rights such as the “right against self-incrimination”.
  • 264. In light of these conclusions, we hold that no individual should be forcibly subjected to any of the techniques in question, whether in the context of investigation in criminal cases or otherwise. Doing so would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into personal liberty. However, we do leave room for the voluntary administration of the impugned techniques in the context of criminal justice provided that certain safeguards are in place. Even when the subject has given consent to undergo any of these tests, the test results by themselves cannot be admitted as evidence because the subject does not exercise conscious control over the responses during the administration of the test. However, any information or material that is subsequently discovered with the help of voluntary administered test results can be admitted in accordance with Section 27 of the Evidence Act, 1872.”

The Supreme Court summarised its decision as under:

VERY IMPORTANT POINTS

  • 1.            No individual should be forcibly subjected to any of the scientific techniques, Narcoanalysis, Polygraph Examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test whether in the context of investigation in criminal cases or otherwise. Doing so would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into personal liberty.
  • 2.            Scientific techniques such as narcoanalysis, polygraph examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test cannot be read into the statutory provisions which enable medical examination during investigation in criminal cases, i.e. the Explanation to Sections 53, 53-A and 54 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  • 3.            Placing reliance on the results gathered from scientific techniques such as narcoanalysis, polygraph examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test comes into conflict with the ‘right to fair trial’.
  • 4.            It is a settled principle that a statement obtained through coercion, threat or inducement is involuntary and hence inadmissible as evidence during trial , in circumstances where it is shown that a person was indeed compelled to make statements while in custody, relying on such testimony as well as its derivative use will offend Article 20(3).
  • 5.            Results obtained through involuntary administration of any of the scientific tests namely narcoanalysis technique, polygraph examination and the BEAP test come within the scope of ‘testimonial compulsion’, thereby attracting the protective shield of Article 20(3).
  • 6.            Compulsory administration of any of the scientific tests namely narcoanalysis technique, polygraph examination and BEAP test constitutes ‘cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment’ in the context of Article 21.

(This judgment, Smt. Selvi v. State of Karnataka, is referred to in:

  • Ajit Mohan Vs. Legislative Assembly, NCT of Delhi, 2021-8 SCALE 8;
  • Tofan Singh Vs. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 2020 SC 5592;
  • Ashish Jain Vs. Makrand Singh, 2019-1 JT 342;
  • Rajendra Pralhadrao Wasnik Vs. State of Maharashtra, 2018-12 JT 189  
  • K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, (2017) 10 SCC 1.)

The Supreme Court in Amlesh Kumar v. The State of Bihar on 9 June, 2025, 2025 INSC 810 (Sanjay Karol, Prasanna B. Varale), 9th June, 2025, held as under:

  • “21. In view of the above exposition in Selvi (Supra), the third question is answered in the following terms :
  • The accused has a right to voluntarily undergo a narco- analysis test at an appropriate stage. We deem it appropriate to add, that the appropriate stage for such a test to be conducted is when the accused is exercising his right to lead evidence in a trial. However, there is no indefeasible right with the accused to undergo a narco- analysis test, for upon receipt of such an application the concerned Court, must consider the totality of circumstances surrounding the matter, such as free consent, appropriate safeguards etc., authorizing a person to undergo a voluntary narco-analysis test. We deem it appropriate to reproduce and reiterate the guidelines issued in Selvi (Supra) in this regard as follows :
  • “265. The National Human Rights Commission had published Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test) on an Accused in 2000. These Guidelines should be strictly adhered to and similar safeguards should be adopted for conducting the “narcoanalysis technique” and the “Brain Electrical Activation Profile” test. The text of these Guidelines has been reproduced below:
  • (i). No lie detector tests should be administered except on the basis of consent of the accused. An option should be given to the accused whether he wishes to avail such test.
  • (ii). If the accused volunteers for a lie detector test, he should be given access to a lawyer and the physical, emotional and legal implication of such a test should be explained to him by the police and his lawyer.
  • (iii). The consent should be recorded before a Judicial Magistrate.
  • (iv). During the hearing before the Magistrate, the person alleged to have agreed should be duly represented by a lawyer.
  • (v). At the hearing, the person in question should also be told in clear terms that the statement that is made shall not be a “confessional” statement to the Magistrate but will have the status of a statement made to the police.
  • (vi). The Magistrate shall consider all factors relating to the detention including the length of detention and the nature of the interrogation.
  • (vii). The actual recording of the lie detector test shall be done by an independent agency (such as a hospital) and conducted in the presence of a lawyer.
  • (viii). A full medical and factual narration of the manner of the information received must be taken on record.”




Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India