Void, Voidable & Illegal Actions and Sham Transactions

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Contents in a Nutshell.

  1. The expression ‘VOID’ has several facets. It does not mean, in law, absolutely null and void for everything.
  2. Where acts, transactions, decrees, etc. are wholly without jurisdiction or ab initio void, no declaration is needed as a preliminary or introductory step to obtain the substantive relief of injunction or recovery.
  3. Even where the order/decree is void, the party aggrieved cannot decide that the same is not binding upon him. Such order/decree has to be got set-aside.
  4. A ‘voidable’ transaction should be got declared or set aside, before seeking the substantive relief.
  5. Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act directs exclusion of evidence as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso, evidence can be led into to assert that a document was sham.
  6. If a Tribunal abuses its power, or does not act in conformity with the Act or act in violation of its provisions, the jurisdiction of the civil court will not stand excluded.
  7. If no prejudice, an impugned action will not be nullity on the ground of breach of natural justice.
  8. Objection as to the place of suing should have been taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  9. All unlawful or illegal agreements are void; but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal.

Propositions as to Questioning a Deed Where One is NOT a Party: Where one person is not a party to a deed, following propositions can be laid down:

  1. Where a deed is ‘null and wholly void‘ (e.g., unregistered sale/gift), he can simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • Limitation statute will have no application in such cases.
  2. If it is not ‘null and wholly void‘, he cannot simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • But, in such cases, it is not mandatory to seek ‘annulment’ of the deed – by ‘setting it aside’ or ‘cancelling it’.
    • It will be sufficient – to resort to “appropriate proceeding”, for avoiding the same, before a court of law, seeking proper declaration or otherwise.
    • It must be done within the limitation period prescribed.

Read also:

•    Void, Voidable & Illegal Actions and Sham Transactions
•    Fraudulent or Void Transaction: Is ‘Declaration’ Required?
•    Cancellation, Avoidance or Declaration of a Void or Voidable Deed
•    All Illegal Agreements are Void; but All Void Agreements are Not Illegal
•    Cancellation of Sale Deeds and Settlement Deeds & Powers of Sub-Registrar in Cancelling Deeds
•    Can the True Owner Seek Cancellation of a Deed, Executed by a Stranger to the Property
•    Did the Supreme Court Depart From its Earlier Position in Hussain Ahmed Choudhury v. Habibur Rahman?
•    If a Document is Per Se Illegal, or Void Ab Initio, it Need Not be Set Aside

PART – I
Void’, ‘Void ab initio’ and ‘Voidable

Black’s Law Dictionary defines ‘void’ and ‘void ab initio’  as under:

  • Void.
    • Null; ineffectual; nugatory; having no legal force or binding effect; unable, in law, to support the purpose for which it was intended. Which means there is no legal obligation therefore there will be no breach of contract since the contract is null.
  • Void ab initio.
    • A contract is null from the beginning if it seriously offends law or public policy in contrast to a contract which is merely voidable at the election of one of the parties to the contract.
  • ‘Voidable’
    • An action or transaction is ‘voidable’ if it can remain valid, until it is avoided trough a legal action.

Indian Contract Act, 1872

  • Sec. 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act reads as under:
    • “An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void“.
  • Sec. 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act reads as under:
    • “An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a voidable contract”.

Provisions of Contract Act that deals with VOID contracts are:

  • Sec. 20 Agreement void where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact.
    • Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
  • Sec. 23 What considerations and objects are lawful, and what not.
    • The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless—
      it is forbidden by law ; or
      is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law; or
      is fraudulent ; or
      involves or implies, injury to the person or property of another; or
      the Court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy.
    • In each of these cases, the consideration or object of an agreement is said to be unlawful. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
  • Sec. 24. Agreement void, if considerations and objects unlawful in part.
  • If any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, or any one or any part of any one of several considerations for a single object, is unlawful, the agreement is void.
  • Sec. 25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a promiseto compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.—
    • An agreement made without consideration is void, unless—
    • (1) it is expressed in writing and registered under the law for the time being in force for the registration of [documents], and is made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other ; or unless
    • (2) it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do; or unless;
    • (3) it is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his agent generally or specially authorized in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits.
    • In any of these cases, such an agreement is a contract.
  • Sec. 26. Agreement in restraint of marriage, void.—
    • Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.
  • Sec. 27. Agreement in restraint of trade, void.—
    • Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
  • Sec. 28. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, void.—
    • [Every agreement,
    • (a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
    • (b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto, from any liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any party from enforcing his rights, is void to the extent.]
  • Sec. 29. Agreements void for uncertainty.
    • Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
  • Sec. 30. Agreements by way of wager void.—
    • Agreements by way of wager are void; and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain event on which any wager is made.
  • Sec. 36.Agreement contingent on impossible events void.—
    • Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made.

Provisions of Contract Act that deals with VOIDABLE contracts are:

  • Sec. 19.Voidability of agreements without free consent.—
    • When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
    • A party to a contract whose consent was caused by fraud or misrepresentation, may, if he thinks fit, insist that the contract shall be performed, and that he shall be put in the position in which he would have been if the representations made had been true.
  • Sec. 19A.Power to set aside contract induced by undue influence.—
    • When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
    • Any such contract may be set aside either absolutely or, if the party who was entitled to avoid it has received any benefit thereunder, upon such terms and conditions as to the Court may seem just.
  • Sec. 53.Liability of party preventing event on which the contract is to take effect.—
    • When a contract contains reciprocal promises, and one party to the contract prevents the other from performing his promise, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party so prevented; and he is entitled to compensation from the other party for any loss which he may sustain in consequence of the nonperformance of the contract.
  • Sec 55. Effect of failure to perform at fixed time, in contract in which time is essential.—
    • When a party to a contract promises to do a certain thing at or before a specified time, or certain things at or before specified times, and fails to do any such thing at or before the specified time, the contract, or so much of it as has not been performed, becomes voidable at the option of the promisee, if the intention of the parties was that time should be of the essence of the contract.
  • Sec. 64. Consequences of rescission of voidable contract.—
    • When a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party thereto need not perform any promise therein contained in which he is promisor. The party rescinding avoidable contract shall, if he have received any benefit thereunder from another party to such contract, restore such benefit, so far as may be, to the person from whom it was received.

Void – Different Shades or Facets

  • Ab initio void.
  • Order without jurisdiction.
  • Sham transactions.
  • Illegal, for action without following the principles of natural justice.
  • Illegal, for not following the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • Illegal, for non-compliance of the provisions of the statute. 

In Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, it is held as under:

  • “Thus the expressions void and voidable have been subject matter of consideration on innumerable occasions by courts. The expression void has several facets.
  • One type of void acts, transactions, decrees are those which are wholly without jurisdiction, ab initio void and for avoiding the same no declaration is necessary, law does not take any notice of the same and it can be disregarded in collateral proceeding or otherwise.
  • The other type of void act, e.g., may be transaction against a minor without being represented by a next friend. Such a transaction is good transaction against the whole world. So far the minor is concerned, if he decides to avoid the same and succeeds in avoiding it by taking recourse to appropriate proceeding the transaction becomes void from the very beginning.
  • Another type of void act may be which is not a nullity but for avoiding the same a declaration has to be made. Voidable act is that which is a good act unless avoided, e.g., if a suit is filed for a declaration that a document is fraudulent and/or forged and fabricated, it is voidable as apparent state of affairs is real state of affairs and a party who alleges otherwise is obliged to prove it.
  • If it is proved that the document is forged and fabricated and a declaration to that effect is given a transaction becomes void from the very beginning. There may be a voidable transaction which is required to be set aside and the same is avoided from the day it is so set aside and not any day prior to it. In cases, where legal effect of a document cannot be taken away without setting aside the same, it cannot be treated to be void but would be obviously voidable.”

When Declaration Needed in a Civil Suit

  1. As Introductory/preliminary to grant (1) Injunction or (2) Recovery:
    • Unnikrishnan Vs. Ponnu Ammal: 1999 1 KLT 298: AIR 1999 Ker 405.
  2. When serious denial or cloud on title (or right):
    • Anathula: AIR 2008 SC 2033.
  3. Asserted title or civil right is not clear, simple and straight-forward;
    • or, not well-established (lawful possession).
  4. Make clear what is doubtful – as to legal character and title.
    • ILR 1970-2 (Del) 433: Eg. Suit by trespasser claiming adverse possession: Darshan Kumari Vs. Kaushalya Devi: 1990 JKLR 208; 1991 KashLJ 1 (R.P. Sethi, J) for dispelling cloud: AIR 1953 Gau 162.
  5. Complicated or complexquestions of fact and law to be ‘adjudicated’.
    • (Anathula: 2008 SC 2033)
  6. Insurmountable obstacle
    • Md. Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Raifunnisa : (1996) 7 SCC 767.

A voidable transaction can be repudiated by an unequivocal conduct

  • Hari Ram v. State of Rajasthan (2026 INSC 350: Sanjai Kumar, Vinod Chandran, JJ.)
  • K.S. Shivappa v. K. Neelamma, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 2149.

In Hari Ram v. State of Rajasthan (2026 INSC 350) it was held that the plaintiff need not have sought a declaration of nullity, for the following reasons:

  • The plaint only raised an apprehension of encroachment on the strength of a fabricated sale deed.
  • The defence was set up with respect to the sale deed. But, it was not produced.
  • It was not even a registered document available in the public domain.
  • The plaintiff claimed ‘khatedari’ rights based on the mutation entries in his father’s favour and the decree obtained thereat would be an effective repudiation of the document. (Relied on: K.S. Shivappa v. K. Neelamma, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 2149.)

In K.S. Shivappa v. K. Neelamma, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 2149, it was found that the repudiation of a voidable transaction need not necessarily be in a suit instituted to set it aside and could as well be, by way of an unequivocal conduct.

Disposal of property by Natural Guardian against S. 8, Hindu M&G Act – Voidable

In Saroj v. Sunder Singh, 2013 (15) SCC 727, it is held as under:

  • “As per clause (a) of sub-section (2) of Section 8 (of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956) no immovable property of the minor can be mortgaged or charged, or transferred by sale, gift, exchange or otherwise without the previous permission of the Court. Under sub-section (3) of Section 8 disposal of such an immovable property by a natural guardian, in contravention of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of Section 8, is voidable at the instance of the minor or any person claiming under him.”

See also: Murugan v. Kesava Gounder, (2019) 20 SCC 633; Vasantkumar v. State of Maharashtra, 2022 SCC OnLine Bom 712.

In Sukhdev Singh v. Jangir Singh, 1976 RLR 101 it is held that the plaintiff had to get the sale set aside and then only he could claim possession.(Referred to in Surta Singh Vs Pritam Singh,AIR 1983 P&H 114 : (1983) 1 ILR (P&H) 344 (FB)

Transfer by Sister – Ab-initio void, not required to be set aside by filing a suit

In Madhegowda v. Ankegowda, (2002) 1 SCC 178,. it is held by our Apex Court as under

  • “25………Undoubtedly Smt Madamma, sister of the minor, is not a “guardian” as defined in Section 4(b) of the Act (Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956). Therefore, she can only be taken to be a “de facto guardian” or more appropriately “de facto manager”. To a transfer in such a case Section 11 of the Act squarely applies. Therefore, there is little scope for doubt that the transfer of the minor’s interest by a de facto guardian/manager having been made in violation of the express bar provided under the section is per se invalid. The existence or otherwise of legal necessity is not relevant in the case of such invalid transfer. A transferee of such an alienation does not acquire any interest in the property. Such an invalid transaction is not required to be set aside by filing a suit or judicial proceeding. The minor, on attaining majority, can repudiate the transfer in any manner as and when occasion for it arises. After attaining majority if he/she transfers his/her interest in the property in a lawful manner asserting his/her title to the same that is sufficient to show that the minor has repudiated the transfer made by the de facto guardian/manager.”

When a person is NOT PARTY to a Suit or a Document, No Need to Annul

It is held in Y. G. Gurukul v. Y. Subrahmanyam, AIR. 1957 AP. 955, as under:

  • “When a person is not eo nomine a party to a suit or a document, it is unnecessary for him to have the deed or the decree annulled, and he can proceed on the assumption that there was no such document or decree.
  • (Followed in Sankaran V. Velukutty, 1986 Ker LT 794.)

In Usman Kurikkal v. Parappur Achuthan Nair, ILR 2012-3 Ker 343; 2012 3 KHC 89, it is held as under:

  • Plaintiff is neither a party to the sale deed nor a party to the resolution empowering the Board to execute the sale deed. The prayer in the plaint is essentially for a declaration that the sale deed is not valid and binding on the plaintiff. The plaintiff has not sought for a cancellation of the sale deed obviously because he was not an executant thereto. The plaintiff can very well ignore the sale deed and need not seek its annulment as has been held in Sankaran v. Velukutty (1986 KLT 794).”

The Supreme Court observed in V.  Kalyanaswamy v. L.  Bakthavatsalam, 2020 3 RCR(Civ) 404; 2020 9 Scale 367, as under:

  • “Plaintiffs-appellants in OS No. 36 of 1963 were not parties to the suit in 1958 and the compromise in OS No. 71 of 1958 will not bind the appellants.”

Deed executed by the predecessors also to be Set Aside

The question of setting aside a deed comes for consideration if it is executed by the predecessors of the plaintiff also.

  • Raj Narayan Sarin v. Lakshmi Devi – (2002)10 SCC 501.
  • Suhrad Singh vs. Randhir Singh – (2010) 12 SCC 112. The suit was relating to a “co-parcenery property”. One among the co-parcener executed the sale deed.  Another co-sharer (non-executant) was a party to the suit.  Court held in para 7: “Where the executants of a deed wants it to be annulled he has to seek cancelation of the deed.  But if a non-executant seeks annulment of a deed he has to seek a declaration that the deed is invalid, or non-est, or illegal or that it is not binding  on him.”
  •  Deccan Paper Mills vs. Regency Mahavir – (2021) 4 SCC 786. Principles in Suhrad Singh v. Randhir Singh – (2010) 12 SCC 112 squarely applied to this case. Suhrad Singh is quoted and followed.

If Title of Plaintiff (Auction Sale) is Nullity, Defendant need Not file a Substantive Suit.

In Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546, the defendants contended that the plaintiff’s title, on the basis of the alleged auction sale ‘was a nullity, as it was ultra vires the legal provisions and on the ground of lack of jurisdiction, non-service of demand notice on all the heirs and co-owners’. It was contended from the part of the (original) plaintiff that the sale proceedings could be challenged only by way of a substantive suit, and that the High Court was right in characterising the challenge to the suit by the defendant as a ‘backdoor method’. The Apex Court held as under:

  • If the title claimed by the plaintiff was a nullity and wholly void, there was no need for any of the defendants including Bajranglal to challenge it by way of a substantive suit. They could always set up nullity of title as a defence in any proceeding taken against them based upon such title. If, in fact, the sale was a nullity, it was non est in the eye of law and all that defendant had to do was point this out. (See in this connection: Ajudh Raz and Ors. v. Moti S/o Mussadi, [1991] 3 SCC 136 and the opinion of the Full Bench of the Bombay High Court in Abdulla Mian v. Government of Bombay, (1942) 44 Bom LR 577.
  • In Vidyadhar v. Manikrao and Anr., [1999] 3 SCC 573, the plaintiff had filed a suit on the basis of a sale deed executed by D-2 in his favour and sought the relief of possession of the property from defendant no. 1 who was an absolute stranger to the sale deed. The question which arose was whether defendant No. l, who was in possession, could justify his possession by urging the nullity of sale transaction between the plaintiff and defendant No. 2. In these circumstances, this Court held (vide para 21):
    • ‘The above decisions appear to be based on the principle that a person in his capacity as a defendant can raise any legitimate plea available to him under law to defeat the suit of the plaintiff. This would also include the plea that the sale deed by which the title to the property was intended to be conveyed to the plaintiff was void or fictitious or, for that matter, collusive and not intended to be acted upon. Thus, the whole question would depend upon the pleadings of the parties, the nature of the suit, the nature of the deed, the evidence led by the parties in the suit and other attending circumstances.’
  • Here, the plaintiffs suit is for ejection of the defendant and for possession of the suit property. She must succeed or fail on the title that she establishes. If she cannot succeed in proving her title, the suit must fail notwithstanding that the defendant in possession may or may not have title to the property. (See in this connection: Brahma Nand Puri v. Neki Puri, [1965] 2 SCR 233 at p. 237).”

Read Blog (Click): Declaration and Injunction

Where title claimed by plaintiff is a nullity, Need not be Challenged

It is held in Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546, that where the title claimed by the plaintiff was a nullity and wholly void, there was no need for any of the defendants including Bajranglal to challenge it by way of a substantive suit and that they could always set up nullity of title as a defence in any proceeding taken against them based upon such title.

Where title claimed is not a nullity, and not wholly void – it should be challenged

It comes out from the decision, Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546 (taking converse postulation of the proposition laid down), that where the title claimed by the plaintiff was not a nullity and not wholly void, the defendants should have challenged the title by way of a substantive suit, ‘recourse to appropriate proceeding’ (as observed in Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552).

There may be several instances where “recourse to appropriate (legal) proceeding” may be necessitated in ‘void’ transactions. Two among such instances are pointed out in Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, as under:

  • “The other type of void act, e.g., may be transaction against a minor without being represented by a next friend. Such a transaction is good transaction against the whole world. So far the minor is concerned, if he decides to avoid the same and succeeds in avoiding it by taking recourse to appropriate proceeding the transaction becomes void from the very beginning.
  • Another type of void act may be which is not a nullity but for avoiding the same a declaration has to be made. Voidable act is that which is a good act unless avoided, e.g., if a suit is filed for a declaration that a document is fraudulent and/or forged and fabricated, it is voidable as apparent state of affairs is real state of affairs and a party who alleges otherwise is obliged to prove it.”

It goes beyond doubt that such suits (including that by by minor) should be filed within the limitation period.

Prepositions as to Questioning a Deed WHERE ONE is NOT a Party:

It is beyond doubt that a party to a document cannot ignore the document without ‘cancelling’ it. In Chellakannuv. Kolanji (R. Banumathi, J.), AIR 2005 Mad 405, it is observed as under:

  • “12. The word “Cancellation” implies that the persons suing should be a party to the document. Strangers are not bound by the documents and are not obliged to sue for cancellation. When the party to the document is suing, challenging the document, he must first obtain cancellation before getting any further relief. Whether cancellation is prayed for or not or even it is impliedly sought for in substance, the suit is one for cancellation. In the present case, when the Plaintiff attacks the Sale Deeds as having been obtained from him under fraud and mis-representation the Plaintiff cannot seek for any further relief without setting aside the Sale Deeds.

In Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Rafiunnisa, 1996 (7) SCC 767, our Apex Court held as follows:

  • “When the plaintiff seeks to establish his title to the property which cannot be established without avoiding the decree or an instrument that stands as an insurmountable obstacle in his way which otherwise binds him, though not a party, the plaintiff necessarily has to seek a declaration and have that decree, instrument or contract cancelled or set aside or rescinded.” 

In such cases the plaintiff need not pay Court Fee for ‘cancellation’ of a deed; it will be sufficient to pay the fee for ‘declaration’.

Where one person is not a party to a deed, following propositions can be laid down:

  1. Where a deed is ‘null and wholly void‘ (e.g., unregistered sale/gift), he can simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • Limitation statute will have no application in such cases.
  2. If it is not ‘null and wholly void‘, he cannot simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • But, in such cases, it is not mandatory to seek ‘annulment’ of the deed – by ‘setting it aside’ or ‘cancelling it’.
    • It will be sufficient – to resort to “appropriate proceeding”, for avoiding the same, before a court of law, seeking proper declaration or otherwise.
    • It must be done within the limitation period prescribed.

Read Blog (Click): Cancellation of Sale Deeds, Settlement Deeds and Trust Deeds & Powers of Sub-Registrar in Registering Deeds

PART – II

VOIDABLE’ Transaction – Declared or Set Aside Before Seeking Substantive Relief

A voidable transaction is to be impeached or set aside before seeking substantive relief. In Narayan v. Babasaheb, (2016) 6 SCC 725, our Apex Court has observed as under:

  • “24. When once a transaction takes place in the name of the minor which is in contravention of the 1956 Act and which is not done for legal necessity, such transaction is voidable and unless such a transaction is sought to be impeached or set aside, the question of recovery of possession of that property does not arise.”

See also:

  • Ranga-nayak-amma v. K.S.   Prakash, (2008) 15 SCC 673.
  • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, (2001) 6 SCC 534.
  • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, Referred to in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588.

‘VOID’ does not mean absolutely null and void for everything

In State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar, AIR 1996 SC 906, it is held as under:

  • “In our opinion, even a void order or decision rendered between parties cannot be said to be non-existent in all cases and in all situations. Ordinarily, such an order will, in fact be effective inter parties until it is successfully avoided or challenged in higher forum. Mere use of the word “void” is not determinative of its legal impact. The word “void” has a relative rather than an absolute meaning. It only conveys the idea that the order is invalid or illegal. It can be avoided. There are degrees of invalidity, depending upon the gravity of the infirmity, as to whether it is, fundamental or otherwise.” (See also: Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552.)

Void act or transaction: When No declaration needed. It can be attacked at any time, in any court, either directly or collaterally, such as:

  1. A void judgment
    • entered by a court which lacks jurisdiction over the parties or the subject matter, or
    • lacks inherent power to enter the particular judgment, or
    • an order procured by fraud
      • Long v. Shorebank Development Corp., (182 F.3d 548 (C.A. 7 III. 1999).
      • Referred to by Kerala High Court in Sulochana Gupta v. RBG Enterprises Pvt.  Ltd.  dt. 09 Sep 2020.
  2. Void acts, void transactions, void decrees
    • wholly without jurisdiction, ab initio void.
      • 2009-4 KLT 840; (2002) 9 SCC 28; 2013 SC 1226;  2009 4 KLT 840.
      • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University AIR 2001 SC 2552, T. Arivanandanam v. T. V. Satyapal, (1977) 4 SCC 467; N. V. Srinivasa Murthy v. Mariyamma, (2005) 5 SCC 548, Manoharlal Chatrath v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi, AIR 2000 Delhi 40.
  3. Void document,
    • then suit for recovery of possession simpliciter can be filed, without the need to seek a declaration about invalidity of the documents.
      • Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation v. Subhash Sindhi Cooperative Housing Society, (2013) 5 SCC 427; State of Maharashtra v. Pravin Jethalal Kamdar: 2000 SC 1099; Sanjay Kaushish v. D.C. Kaushish, AIR 1992 Delhi 118.
    • A void document is not   required   to   be   avoided,   whereas   a   voidable document must be.
      • Ranga-nayak-amma v. K.S.   Prakash, (2008) 15 SCC 673.
  4. Sale which was entirely without jurisdiction,
    • is   non   est   in   the   eye   of   law, and such   a nullity does not, from its very nature, need setting aside.
      • Mahadeo Prasad Singh v. Ram Lochan, (1980) 4 SCC 354;
    • In case the alienation was void, the plaintiff need not get a declaration that the transaction was void, but could institute a suit for possession straightway.
      • Sukhdev Singh v. Jangir Singh, 1976 RLR 101.
  5. When a document is void ab initio,
    • a decree for setting aside the same would not be necessary as the same is non-est in the eye of law, as it would be a nullity.
      • Prem   Singh v. Birbal, (2006) 5 SCC 353  
  6. Order without jurisdiction obtained by collusion
    • Not necessary to bring an independent suit for setting it aside.
      • Gram Panchayat of Village Naulakha v. Ujagar Singh, AIR 2000 SC 3272.
  7. If declaration surplusage
    • Appanna v. Jami Venkatappadu, 1953 Mad.611.
  8. Cannot be & cannot be required to be set aside.
    • Ishar Singh Kripal Singh and Co., 1956 Cal. 321
  9. Sale Deeds Executed Without Consideration Are Void
    • According to Sec. 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, ‘sale’ is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised.
    • If a sale deed is executed without payment of price, it is not a sale. It is of no legal effect. Therefore, void. It could be ignored.  In the light of these legal principles it was found in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that that the respondent-purchasers had no earning capacity and no evidence was adduced by them about the payment of the price mentioned in the sale deeds; and hence, the sale deeds were held as void.
  10. A void deed need not be challenged by claiming a declaration
    • It was also held by the Apex Court in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that a void deed need not be challenged by claiming a declaration; and that a plea thereof can be set up and proved even in collateral proceedings.

Void act or transaction – When Required to be Set Aside

There are instances where it is not permissible for a party to treat the judgment and order as null and void without getting it set aside from the competent court, such as:

  1. When an order is void to one but valid to another.“It is well settled principle of law that even a void order is required to be set aside by a competent Court of law, inasmuch as an order may be void in respect of one person but may be valid in respect of another. A void order is necessarily not non-est. An order cannot be declared to be void in collateral proceedings and that too in the absence of the authorities who were the authors thereof.”
    • M. Meenakshi v. Metadin Agarwal, 2006-7 SCC 470; Quoted in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588. Also See: Anita International v. Sugar Works Mazdoor Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44  
  2. Where legal effect cannot be taken away without setting aside In cases where legal effect of a document cannot be taken away without setting aside the same, it cannot be treated to be void but would be obviously voidable.
    • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, (2001) 6 SCC 534.
  3. Fraud on Character of document (not contents).



















    • E.g.: A sale deed was got executed as if it was a lease.
      • See: Prem Singh v. Birbal -(2006) 5 SCC 353; 2014 (3) KLJ 55.
    • In Ningawwa v. Byrappa, AIR 1968 SC 956it is held as under:
    • “The authorities make a clear distinction between fraudulent misrepresentation as to the character of the document and fraudulent misrepresentation as to the contents thereof. With reference to the former, it has been held that the transaction is void, while in the case of the latter, it is merely voidable. In Foster v. Mackinon,1869- 1 4 CP 704,  the action was by the endorsee of a bill of exchange. The defendant pleaded that he endorsed the bill on a fraudulent representation by the acceptor that he was signing a guarantee. In holding that such a plea was admissible, the Court observed: “It (signature) is invalid not merely on the ground of fraud, where fraud exists, but on the ground that the mind of the signer did not accompany the signature; in other words, that he never intended to sign, and therefore in contemplation of law never did sign, the contract to which his name is appended …. The defendant never intended to sign that contract or any such contract. He never intended to put his name to any instrument that then was or thereafter might become negotiable. He was deceived, not merely as to the legal effect, but as to the ‘actual contents’ of the instrument.” This decision has been followed by the Indian courts – Sanni Bibi v. Siddik Hossain, AIR 1919 Cal. 728, and Brindaban v. Dhurba Charan, AIR 1929 Cal. 606.
  4. If an Order is void or non-est.

















    • It is required to be set aside.
    • In Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia v. Bombay Enviornmental Action Group (2011 SC) it is held as under:
    • “17. It is settled legal proposition that even if an order is void, it requires to be so declared by a competent forum and it is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
    • 18. In State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth Naduvil (dead) & Ors., AIR 1996 SC 906; Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla & Anr. v. Hind Rubber Industries Pvt. Ltd. etc, AIR 1997 SC 1240; M. Meenakshi & Ors. v. Metadin Agarwal (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (2006) 7 SCC 470; and Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194, this Court held that whether an order is valid or void, cannot be determined by the parties. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum.
    • 19. In State of Punjab & Ors. v. Gurdev Singh, Ashok Kumar, AIR 1991 SC 2219, this Court held that a party aggrieved by the invalidity of an order has to approach the court for relief of declaration that the order against him is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. While deciding the said case, this Court placed reliance upon the judgment in Smith v. East Ellore Rural District Council, [1956] 1 All ER 855 wherein Lord Radcliffe observed:-
    • “An order, even if not made in good faith is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.”
    • 20. In Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba & Ors., AIR 2004 SC 1377, this Court took a similar view observing that once an order is declared non-est by the Court only then the judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned. Such a declaration is permissible if the court comes to the conclusion that the author of the order lacks inherent jurisdiction/competence and therefore, it comes to the conclusion that the order suffers from patent and latent invalidity.
    • 21. Thus, from the above it emerges that even if the order/notification is void/voidable, the party aggrieved by the same cannot decide that the said order/notification is not binding upon it. It has to approach the court for seeking such declaration. The order may be hypothetically a nullity and even if its invalidity is challenged before the court in a given circumstance, the court may refuse to quash the same on various grounds including the standing of the petitioner or on the ground of delay or on the doctrine of waiver or any other legal reason. The order may be void for one purpose or for one person, it may not be so for another purpose or another person.” (quoted in: Anita International v. Tungabadra Sugar Works Maz. Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44)
    • In Anita International v. Tungabadra Sugar Works Maz. Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44, it was held that it was not open either to parties to a lis or to any third parties, to determine at their own, that an order passed by a Court is valid or void, or non est. They must approach a Court of competent jurisdiction, to have the said order set aside, on such grounds as may be available in law.
  5. Even if a Decree/Order is VOID AB-INITIO, Declaration Needed – In Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State of Punjab, (2011) 12 SCC 588, it is held that even if a decree is void ab initio, declaration to that effect has to be obtained by the person aggrieved from the competent court. More so, such a declaration cannot be obtained in collateral proceedings. The Apex Court held as above observing the following earlier decisions as stated under:
    • “11. It is a settled legal proposition that where a person gets an order/office by making misrepresentation or playing fraud upon the competent authority, such order cannot be sustained in the eyes of the law as fraud unravels everything. “Equity is always known to defend the law from crafty evasions and new subtleties invented to evade law”. It is a trite that “Fraud and justice never dwell together” (fraus et jus nunquam cohabitant). Fraud is an act of deliberate deception with a design to secure something, which is otherwise not due. Fraud and deception are synonymous. “Fraud is an anathema to all equitable principles and any affair tainted with fraud cannot be perpetuated or saved by the application of any equitable doctrine”. An act of fraud on court is always viewed seriously. (Vide: Meghmala v. G. Narasimha Reddy, (2010) 8 SCC 383).
    • 12. However, the question does arise as to whether it is permissible for a party to treat the judgment and order as null and void without getting it set aside from the competent court. The issue is no more res integra and stands settled by a catena of decisions of this Court. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum. (Vide: State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth , AIR 1996 SC 906; and Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla v. Hind Rubber Industries, AIR 1997 SC 1240).
    • 13. In Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, this Court held that there cannot be any doubt that even if an order is void or voidable, the same requires to be set aside by the competent court.
    • 14. In M. Meenakshi v. Metadin Agarwal, (2006) 7 SCC 470, this Court considered the issue at length and observed that if the party feels that the order passed by the court or a statutory authority is non-est/void, he should question the validity of the said order before the appropriate forum resorting to the appropriate proceedings. The Court observed as under:-“It is well settled principle of law that even a void order is required to be set aside by a competent Court of law, inasmuch as an order may be void in respect of one person but may be valid in respect of another. A void order is necessarily not non-est. An order cannot be declared to be void in collateral proceedings and that too in the absence of the authorities who were the authors thereof.” (Emphasis added)  Similar view has been reiterated by this Court in Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194.”
      • Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State of Punjab, (2011) 12 SCC 588 is relied on in: Shyam Sundar Singh v. Smt. Sulochana Devi on 23 November, 2021

When Declaration Sufficient; Need NOT be Set Aside

  • “An order may be void for one and voidable for the other. An invalid order necessarily need not be non est; in a given situation it has to be declared as such.”
    • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, Referred to in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588  
  • A party aggrieved by an invalid, void or ultra vires order, he has to approach the court for the relief of declaration that the order is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. It can be avoided automatically, simply seeking a declaration. It need not be set aside.
    • State of Punjab v. Gurdev Singh, Ashok Kumar, AIR 1991 SC 2219, (1991) 4 SCC 1.

Nullity can be raised in Execution or in Collateral proceedings

  1. Order without Jurisdiction
    • With respect to a matter over which an authority has no jurisdiction is a nullity and is open to collateral attack, an order passed by an authority which has jurisdiction over the matter, but has assumed it otherwise than in the mode prescribed by law, is not a nullity. It may be liable to be questioned in those very proceedings, but subject to that it is good, and not open to collateral attack.
      • Central Potteries Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra AIR 1966 SC 932  
  2. If possible in execution or collateral proceedings to establish – null and void
    • Orders of Courts have to be obeyed unless and until they are set aside in appeal/revision. Alternatively in any proceedings for execution or in a collateral proceedings where an order is sought to be enforced or relied on, it is possible for a party to establish that the order is null and void. Then the Court considering the matter, if satisfied, will hold that the order is null and void and therefore not executable or enforceable…………………..”
      • S. Balasubramaniyam v. P. Janakaraju, AIR Kant R 2099. Referred to by Kerala High Court in Sulochana Gupta v. RBG Enterprises Pvt.  Ltd.  dt. 09 Sep 2020.
  3. Void deed need not be challenged; plea can in collateral proceedings
    • It was held by the Apex Court in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that a void deed (for no consideration paid in a sale deed) need not be challenged by claiming a declaration; and that a plea thereof can be set up and proved even in collateral proceedings.

All Illegal Agreements are Void, But the Reverse is Not True

J.B. Pardiwala, J., in Hasvantbhai Chhanubhai Dalal v. Adesinh Mansinh Raval, 2019-2 GujLH 357, observed as under:

  • DIFFERENCE BETWEEN “VOID” AND “ILLEGAL” AGREEMENT:
  • 58. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 has made it clear that there is a thin line of difference between void and illegal agreement.
    • A void agreement is one which may not be prohibited under law, while
      • an illegal agreement is strictly prohibited by law and the parties to the agreement can be penalized for entering into such an agreement.
    • A void agreement has no legal consequences, because it is null from the very beginning.
    • Conversely, the illegal agreement is devoid of any legal effect, since it is started.
    • All illegal agreements are void, but the reverse is not true.
    • If an agreement is illegal, other agreements related to it are said to be void.
    • An agreement that violates any law or whose nature is criminal or is opposed to any public policy or immoral is an illegal agreement.
  • These agreements are void ab initio, and so the agreements collateral to the original agreement are also void. Here the collateral agreement refers to the transaction associated or incidental to the main agreement. The difference between void and illegal agreement can be drawn clearly on the following grounds:
  • [1] An agreement which loses its legal status is a void agreement. An illegal agreement is one which is not permissible under law.
  • [2] Certain void agreements are void ab initio while some agreements become void when it loses its legal binding. On the other hand, an Illegal agreement is void since the very beginning. A void agreement is not prohibited by Indian Penal Code (IPC), but IPC strictly prohibits an illegal agreement.
  • [3] The scope of a void contract is comparatively wider than an illegal contract as all agreements which are void may not necessarily be illegal, but all illegal agreements are void from its inception.
  • [4] A void agreement is not punishable under law whereas an illegal agreement is considered as an offence, hence the parties to it are punishable and penalised under Indian Penal Code (IPC).
  • [5] Collateral agreements of a void agreement may or may not be void i.e. they may be valid also. Conversely, collateral agreements of an illegal agreement cannot be enforceable by law as they are void ab initio.
  • It is quite clear that the void and illegal agreement are very different. One of the factors that make an agreement void is the illegality of the contract, such as contract whose object or consideration is unlawful. Moreover, in both the two agreements loses its enforceability by law.”

What is Illegal and What is Void

In Kantilal Manilal Parekh v. Ranchhoddas K.  Bhatt, AIR 1953 Bom 98, it is said as under:

  • “Now, it must be observed that the words “illegal” and “void” are often loosely used as synonymous terms even by lawyers, jurists and sometimes Judges. None the less, for the purposes of the present discussion it is essential to distinguish between what is illegal and what is merely void. All unlawful or illegal agreements are void; but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal. It is often difficult to determine whether an agreement which is void is or is not also illegal. But a long line of cases in England enables one to deduce certain principles for the purpose of determining whether a contract or agreement in merely void or is illegal.
  • Sir Fredrick Pollock in his Principles of Contract (13th edn.) after reviewing a number of cases lays down the following propositions (p.276) :
    • ‘When conditions are prescribed by statute for the conduct of any particular business or profession, and such conditions are not observed, agreements made in the course of such business or profession – …
    • (e) are void if it appears by the context that the object of the legislature in imposing the condition was the maintenance of public order or safety or the protection of the persons dealing with those on whom the condition is imposed :
    • (f) are valid if no specific penalty is attached to the specific transaction, and if it appears that the condition was imposed for merely administrative purposes … :
    • (h) Where no penalty is imposed, and the intention of the legislature appears to be simply that the agreement is not to be enforced, there neither the agreement itself nor the performance of it is to be treated as unlawful for any purpose’.”

PART – III

Judgment or Order Without Jurisdiction

It is trite law that a decree passed by a Court totally without jurisdiction is a nullity. The law on the point can be summarised as under:

  • Lack of jurisdiction hits a Judgment or Order by, lack of jurisdiction:
    • over the parties, or
    • as to territorial limit,
    • pecuniary limit or
    • the subject matter.
  • Lack of Jurisdiction is also visited by:
    • ‘lack of inherent power’ to enter the particular judgment, or
    • an order procured by fraud or collusion.
  • It is not permissible to treat a Judgment or an Order of a Court/Authority as null and void without setting it aside or declared by the competent court.
    • A judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned if only it is so declared by the Court.
    • It is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
    • Or, it cannot be determined by the parties.
  • If only patent and latent invalidity, or inherent lack of jurisdiction/competence, then only such a declaration is permissible.
  • Where a decree is passed by a Court without jurisdiction was a nullity, its invalidity could not be corrected, even by the consent of the concerned parties.

Though the principle that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity was applied strictly in earlier times, there is a slow change in the attitude of the courts as regards the rigidity to see the Orders and Judgments as without jurisdiction, inasmuch as the courts began to apply the doctrines of prejudice, acquiescence, patent and latent invalidity, etc, in this matter.

Fraud Vitiates all solemn act; Order obtained by practicing fraud is a Nullity

In Jai Narain Parasurampuria v. Pushpa Devi Saraf, it is observed as under:

  • “58. It is now well settled that fraud vitiated all solemn act. Any order or decree obtained by practicing fraud is a nullity.
  • {See – (1) Ram Chandra Singh vs. Savitri Devi & Ors. [(2003) 8 SCC 319]
  • followed in (2) Vice Chairman, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan & Anr. vs. Girdhari Lal Yadav [(2004) 6 SCC 325];
  • (3) State of A.P. & Anr. vs. T. Suryachandra Rao [(2005) 6 SCC 149];
  • (4) Ishwar Dutt vs. Land Acquisition Collector & Anr. [(2005) 7 SCC 190];
  • (5) Lillykutty vs. Scrutiny Committee, SC & ST Ors. [(2005 (8) SC 283];
  • (6) Chief Engineer, M.S.E.B. & Anr. vs. Suresh Raghunath Bhokare [(2005) 10 SCC 465];
  • (7) Smt. Satya vs. Shri Teja Singh [(1975) 1 SCC 120];
  • (8) Mahboob Sahab vs. Sayed Ismail & Ors. [(1995) 3 SCC 693]; and
  • (9) Asharfi Lal vs. Smt. Koili (Dead) by LRs. [(1995) 4 SCC 163].}” 

Pecuniary & Territorial Jurisdiction, and Jurisdiction in the Subject Matter

Generally speaking, the defect on the basis of pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction is not so serious compared to the defect for lack of jurisdiction in the subject matter or inherent lack of jurisdiction. It is reflected in Sec. 21, 21A, 99 and 99A, CPC.

Section 21, 21A, 99 and 99A CPC reads as under:

  • 21. Objections to jurisdiction. (1)] No objection as to the place of suing shall be allowed by any appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity and in all cases where issues or settled at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  • (2) No objection as to the competence of a Court with reference to the pecuniary limits of its jurisdiction shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity, and in all cases where issues are settled, at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  • (3) No objection as to the competence of the executing Court with reference to the local limits of its jurisdiction shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the executing Court at the earliest possible opportunity, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.]
  • 21A. Bar on suit to set aside decree on objection as to place of suing. No suit shall lie challenging the validity of a decree passed in a former suit between the same parties, or between the parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, on any ground based on an objection as to the place of suing.
  • Explanation.-The expression “former suit” means a suit which has been decided prior to the decision in the suit in which the validity of the decree is questioned, whether or not the previously decided suit was instituted prior to the suit in which the validity of such decree is questioned. 
  • 99. No decree to be reversed or modified for error or irregularity not affecting merits or jurisdiction. No decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded in appeal on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the Court.
  • Provided that nothing in this section shall apply to non-joinder of a necessary party.
  • 99A. No order under section 47 to be refused or modified unless decision of the case is prejudicially affected. Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of section 99, no order under section 47 shall be reversed or substantially varied, on account of any error, defect or irregularity in any proceeding relating to such order, unless such error, defect or irregularity has prejudicially affected the decision of the case.

Section 21A CPC takes-in Objection as to Pecuniary Jurisdiction also

In Subhas Mahadevasa Habib v. Nemasa Ambasa Dharmadas, AIR 2007 SC 1828, it is held as under:

  • “Though Section 21A of the Code speaks of a suit not being maintainable for challenging the validity of a prior decree between the same parties on a ground based on an objection as to “the place of suing“, there is no reason to restrict its operation only to an objection based on territorial jurisdiction and excluding from its purview a defect based on pecuniary jurisdiction.

Lack of ‘Subject-Matter-Jurisdiction

Decision on a Labour Dispute by a Civil Court and pronouncement on a civil matter by the Rent Controller are the common examples of lack of ‘subject-matter jurisdiction’.

Our Apex Court held in P. Dasa Muni Reddy v. P. Appa Rao, AIR 1974 SC 2089, that there will be no res judicata if the former suit was filed in a court where it had no jurisdiction over the subject matter. The Court held as under:

  • “The appellant proved that the appellant made a mistake of fact in regard to the building, being outside the mischief of the Act. The appellant instituted the-suit before the Rent Controller in mistake about the underlying and fundamental fact that the building was outside the ambit of the Act. The Civil Court has jurisdiction in the subsequent suit which is the subject of this appeal. The appellant is not disentitled to any relief on the grounds of res judicata or estoppel or waiver. As one cannot confer jurisdiction by consent similarly one cannot by agreement waive exclusive jurisdiction of courts. The Civil Court and not the Rent Control possesses jurisdiction over the building in question.”

In Chief Engineer Hydel Project v. Ravinder Nath, AIR 2008 SC 1315, it was held that the civil court had no jurisdiction to decide the dispute of termination of service of a workman as the labour Court alone had the jurisdiction with respect to the same. The Supreme Court held as under:

  • “Once the original decree itself has been held to be without jurisdiction and hit by the doctrine of coram non judice, there would be no question of upholding the same merely on the ground that the objection to the jurisdiction was not taken at the initial, First Appellate or the Second Appellate stage. It must, therefore, be held that the civil court in this case had no jurisdiction to deal with the suit and resultantly the judgments of the Trial Court, First Appellate Court and the Second Appellate Court are liable to be set aside for that reason alone and the appeal is liable to be allowed.”

With respect to jurisdiction of courts, it is held in Harshad Chiman Lal Modi v. DLF Universal Ltd., AIR 2005 SC 4446, as under:

  • “The jurisdiction of a court may be classified into several categories. The important categories are
    • (i) Territorial or local jurisdiction;
    • (ii) Pecuniary jurisdiction; and
    • (iii) Jurisdiction over the subject matter.
  • So far as territorial and pecuniary jurisdictions are concerned, objection to such jurisdiction has to be taken at the earliest possible opportunity and in any case at or before settlement of issues. The law is well settled on the point that if such objection is not taken at the earliest, it cannot be allowed to be taken at a subsequent stage. Jurisdiction as to subject matter, however, is totally distinct and stands on a different footing. Where a court has no jurisdiction over the subject matter of the suit by reason of any limitation imposed by statute, charter or commission, it cannot take up the cause or matter. An order passed by a court having no jurisdiction is nullity.

No Jurisdiction, and No Territorial or Pecuniary Jurisdiction & Prejudice

In Hasham Abbas Sayyad v. Usman Abbas Sayyad, AIR 2007 SC 1077, it is held by the apex Court as under:

  • “ We may, however hasten to add that a distinction must be made between a decree passed by a court which has no territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction in the light of Section 21 of the CPC; and a decree passed by a court having no jurisdiction in regard to the subject matter of the suit. Whereas in the former case, the appellate court may not interfere with the decree unless prejudice is shown, ordinarily the second category of the cases would be interfered with.”

Availability of Alternative Forum Objection be taken at the Earliest,

It is held by our Apex Court Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan: AIR 1954 SC 340. as under:

  • “The policy underlying sections 21 and 99 of the Civil Procedure Code and section 11 of the Suits Valuation Act is the same, namely, that when a case had been tried by a Court on the merits and judgment rendered, it should not be liable to be reversed purely on technical grounds, unless it had resulted in a failure of justice, and the policy of the Legislature has been to treat objections to jurisdiction both territorial and pecuniary as technical and not open to consideration by an appellate Court, unless there has been a prejudice on the merits.”(Quoted in: Bahrein Petroleum v. P.J. Pappu, AIR 1966 SC 634)

It is held by our Apex Court in Ramesh Chand Ardawatiya v. Anil Panjwani, AIR 2003 SC 2508, as under:

  • “Where there is a special tribunal conferred with jurisdiction or exclusive jurisdiction to try a particular class of cases even then the civil court can entertain a civil suit of that class on availability of a few grounds. An exclusion of jurisdiction of the civil court is not to be readily inferred. (See Dhulabhai v. State of M.P, (1968) 3 SCR 662) An objection as to the exclusion of the civil court‘s jurisdiction for availability of alternative forum should be taken before the trial court and at the earliest, failing which the higher court may refuse to entertain the plea in the absence of proof of prejudice.”

Lack of Jurisdiction 3 Categories

As shown above, defects on pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction are not so fatal as compared to inherent lack of jurisdiction or jurisdiction on the subject matter of the suit. The objections as to the first category has to be raised in the pleadings at the earliest opportunity. If it is not done the party concerned is loses his chance.

The objections to the second category (inherent lack of jurisdiction or jurisdiction on the subject matter) can be raised without pleading and at any stage of the suit or even in execution or collateral proceedings.

The third category in this line is the objection that can be raised in any stage, including appeal or revision, without pleading, but not in execution or collateral proceedings (eg. bar by limitation). Ittyavira Mathai v. Varkey Varkey, AIR 1964 SC 907; Bhawarlal Bhandari v. M/s. Universal Heavy Mechanical Lifting Enterprises, AIR 1999 SC 246.

It is held by our Apex Court in Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan, AIR 1954 SC 340. as under:

  • “It is a fundamental principle well established that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity, and that its invalidity could be set up whenever and wherever it is sought to be enforced or relied upon, even at the stage of execution and even in collateral proceedings. A defect of jurisdiction, whether it is pecuniary or territorial, or whether it is in respect of the subject-matter of the action, strikes at the very authority of the Court to pass any decree, and such a defect cannot be cured even by consent of parties.” (Referred to in : Foreshore Co-operative Housing Society Limited v. Praveen D. Desai (Dead) AIR 2015 SC 2006.)

Suit Barred by Limitation – Decree Overlooking the same is only Illegal, Not Void

Objection need not be pleaded; But, cannot be raised in Execution or Collateral proceedings.

In Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In the case of Ittyavira Mathai v. Varkey Varkey and another, AIR 1964 SC 907, the question which fell for consideration before this Court was if a Court, having jurisdiction over the parties to the suit and subject matter thereof passes a decree in a suit which was barred by time, such a decree would come within the realm of nullity and the Court answered the question in the negative holding that such a decree cannot be treated to be nullity but at the highest be treated to be an illegal decree.”

No Estoppel, Waiver, Acquiescence or Res judicata on any Order Without Jurisdiction

In Hasham Abbas Sayyad v. Usman Abbas Sayyad, AIR 2007 SC 1077, our Apex Court held as under:

  • “The core question is as to whether an order passed by a person lacking inherent jurisdiction would be a nullity. It will be so. The principles of estoppel, waiver and acquiescence or even res judicata which are procedural in nature would have no application in a case where an order has been passed by the Tribunal/ Court which has no authority in that behalf. Any order passed by a court without jurisdiction would be coram non judice being a nullity, the same ordinarily should not be given effect to. (see Chief Justice of Andhra Pradesh and another v. L.V.A. Dikshitulu and others, AIR 1979 SC 193 & M.D. Army Welfare Housing Organization v. Sumangal Services (P) Ltd. (2004) 8 SCC 619).”

Parties to a lis not to determine at their own – that an Order of a Court is void.

Modern trend in decisions emphasise that it is not permissible to treat a Judgment or an Order of a Court/Authority as null and void without setting it aside from the competent court. In Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia v. Bombay Environmental Action Group, AIR 2011 SC 1140; (2011) 3 SCC 363 , it was held as under:

  • “17. It is settled legal proposition that even if an order is void, it requires to be so declared by a competent forum and it is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
  • 18. In
    • State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth Naduvil (dead) & Ors., AIR 1996 SC 906; 
    • Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla & Anr. v. Hind Rubber Industries Pvt. Ltd. etc, AIR 1997 SC 1240; 
    • M. Meenakshi & Ors. v. Metadin Agarwal (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (2006) 7 SCC 470; and 
    • Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194,
  • this Court held that whether an order is valid or void, cannot be determined by the parties. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum.
  • 19. In
    • State of Punjab & Ors. v. Gurdev Singh, AIR 1991 SC 2219,
  • this Court held that a party aggrieved by the invalidity of an order has to approach the court for relief of declaration that the order against him is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. While deciding the said case, this Court placed reliance upon the judgment in Smith v. East Ellore Rural District Council, [1956] 1 All ER 855 wherein Lord Radcliffe observed:-
    • “An order, even if not made in good faith is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.”
  • 20. In
    • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba , AIR 2004 SC 1377,
  • this Court took a similar view observing that once an order is declared non-est by the Court only then the judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned. Such a declaration is permissible if the court comes to the conclusion that the author of the order lacks inherent jurisdiction/competence and therefore, it comes to the conclusion that the order suffers from patent and latent invalidity.
  • 21. Thus, from the above it emerges that even if the order/notification is void/voidable, the party aggrieved by the same cannot decide that the said order/notification is not binding upon it. It has to approach the court for seeking such declaration. The order may be hypothetically a nullity and even if its invalidity is challenged before the court in a given circumstance, the court may refuse to quash the same on various grounds including the standing of the petitioner or on the ground of delay or on the doctrine of waiver or any other legal reason. The order may be void for one purpose or for one person, it may not be so for another purpose or another person.”

In Anita International v. Sugar Works Mazdoor Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44  our Apex Court held as under:

  • “45. We are also of the considered view, as held by the Court in the
    • Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia case, AIR 2011 SC 1140,
  • that it is not open either to parties to a lis or to any third parties, to determine at their own, that an order passed by a Court is valid or void. A party to the lis or a third party, who considers an order passed by a Court as void or non est, must approach a Court of competent jurisdiction, to have the said order set aside, on such grounds as may be available in law. However, till an order passed by a competent Court is set aside, as was also held by this Court in the
    • Official Liquidator, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, 2013 4 SCC 381, and
    • the Jehal Tanti, AIR 2013 SC 2235, (2013) 14 SCC 689, cases,
  • the same would have the force of law, and any act/action carried out in violation thereof, would be liable to be set aside. We endorse the opinion expressed by this Court in the
    • Jehal Tanti case, AIR 2013 SC 2235,
  • In the above case, an earlier order of a Court was found to be without jurisdiction after six years. In other words, an order passed by a Court having no jurisdiction, had subsisted for six years. This Court held, that the said order could not have been violated while it subsisted. And further, that the violation of the order, before it is set aside, is liable to entail punishment, for its disobedience. For us to conclude otherwise, may have disastrous consequences. In the above situation, every cantankerous and quarrelsome litigant would be entitled to canvass, that in his wisdom, the judicial order detrimental to his interests, was void, voidable, or patently erroneous. And based on such plea, to avoid or disregard or even disobey the same. This course can never be permitted.
  • 46. To be fair to learned counsel for the appellants, it needs to be noticed, that reliance was also placed on behalf of the appellants on the
    • Kiran Singh (AIR 1954 SC 340),
    • the Sadashiv Prasad Singh (2015-5 SCC 574), and
    • the Jagmittar Sain Bhagat  (2013- 10 SCC 136) cases,
  • to contend, that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction was a nullity, and that, its invalidity could not be corrected, even by the consent of the concerned parties. We are of the considered view, that the proposition debated and concluded in the judgments relied upon by learned counsel for the appellants (referred to above) are of no relevance, to the conclusions drawn in the foregoing paragraph. In our determination hereinabove, we have not held, that a void order can be legitimized. What we have concluded in the foregoing paragraph is, that while an order passed by a Court subsists, the same is liable to be complied with, till it is set aside.”

PART – IV

Civil Court can Examine ‘Non-compliance of Law’; Not, ‘Erroneous’ Orders

Even when a tribunal is provided for reddressal of remedies, the civil courts will have jurisdiction to examine the allegation of non-compliance of the provisions of the statute or of any of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure. If the challenge is only as to the ‘erroneous’ character of the order, other than ‘jurisdictional error’, the suit will not be maintainable. (South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33). Erroneous decisions of a tribunal can be corrected only in an appeal, if so provided.

Civil Court can adjudge plea – Order of the (Land) Tribunal is one without jurisdiction

The ultimate decision of the (Land) Tribunal can be challenged in the Civil Court and it can adjudge the plea that the order passed by the Tribunal was one without jurisdiction and was a nullity, in spite of finality and exclusionary clauses (or of provision for appeal/revision), if the order passed by the (Land) Tribunal was one illegally assuming jurisdiction, where it did not exist, and the decision was not a decision under the Act, but a nullity. (Muhammad Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, AIR  1993 Ker 104).

Tribunal violates mandatory provision – Order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity

When an order is passed by a statutory Land-Tribunal violating a mandatory provision, the order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity. The civil courts which are courts of “general jurisdiction” can decide whether a tribunal or authority exercising statutory jurisdiction has acted in excess or beyond the statutory powers. The civil courts can interfere when the order of the statutory tribunal or authority is really not an order under the Act conferring jurisdiction on it. In other words, if a tribunal abuses its power or does not act in conformity with the Act, but in violation of its provisions (Firm Seth Radha Kishan v. Ludhiana Municipality AIR 1963 SC 1547), the jurisdiction of the civil court will not be excluded (Srinivasa v. State of A.P., AIR 1971 S.C.71).

In Secretary of State v. Mask & Co. (AIR 1940 PC 105) it was held as under:

  • “It is settled law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Courts is not to be readily inferred, but that such exclusion must either be explicitly expressed or clearly implied. It is also well settled that even if jurisdiction is so excluded, the Civil Courts have jurisdiction to examine into cases where the provisions of the Act have not been complied with, or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure”.

In Dhulabai v. State of M.P. (AIR 1969 S.C. 78), it is held as follows:

  • “Where the statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the civil courts jurisdiction must be held lobe excluded if here is adequate remedy to do what the civil courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, dues not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or me statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principle of judicial procedure.”

See Blog: Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs of a Club or Society

In Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra, AIR 2021 SC 2932, our Apex Court considered whether the requirement in Sec. 31 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA) that that when a foreign citizen ‘acquire or hold or transfer or dispose of’ Immovable Property in India, he must have obtained the prior permission for the same from the Reserve Bank of India.was mandatory or only directory. The Supreme Court held that the provision is mandatory, relying on the following earlier Decisions:

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536;  (1977) 2 SCC 424 Prohibition and negative words can rarely be directory. Under Section 31  read with Sections 47, 50 and 63 of the Act, it is in the nature of prohibition. When penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.
Union of India & Ors. v. A.K. Pandey, (2009) 10 SCC 552Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
Union of India v. Colonel L.S.N. Murthy & Anr. (2012) 1 SCC 71  The contract would be lawful, unless the consideration and object thereof is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of law. And, in such a case the consideration or object is unlawful and would become void and that unless the effect of an agreement results in performance of an unlawful act, an agreement which is otherwise legal cannot be held to be void. Further, if the effect of an agreement did not result in performance of an unlawful act, as a matter of public policy, the court should refuse to declare the contract void with a view to save the bargain entered into by the parties and the solemn promises made thereunder. The Court adverted to the exposition in the earlier decision in Shri Lachoo Mal v. Shri Radhey Shyam, AIR  1971 SC 221 as to what makes an agreement, which is otherwise legal, void is that its performance is impossible except by disobedience of law.

Void Decree or Document – Setting Aside or Declaration – Not needed

Sale deed executed by a stranger:

A sale deed executed by a stranger to the property is void an initio. It need not be cancelled or set aside.’ (See: Muppudathi Pillai v. Krishnaswami Pillai, AIR 1960 Mad 1; Kamalakshi Amma v. Sangeetha, AIR 2012 Ker 180.) A suit for declaration will be sufficient.

Title deed conveys no title – can be ignored

In Pragnya Rout V. Hemaprava Ray, AIR 2006 Ori 21, it is observed as under:

  • “22. Law is well settled that a decree and/or a registered document which is otherwise ab initio void need not be set aside. Such decree does not strip the right of a party who is the real owner and was not a signatory to the document in question or a party to the suit. It is not the law that merely because somebody has obtained a sale deed he has got title to the property as vendee and his title has to be declared so long as the deed has not been set aside by a competent Court of law. If the deed is void at the threshold, no steps need be taken to set it aside. The vendor may not have title to convey, and in such a case the title deed conveys no title and can be ignored as not worth the paper written on. (see (1992) 2 OLR 362 Sarbeswar v. Commissioner, Consolidation.) In view of such position of law, the argument advanced by Mr. P. Mohanty, learned counsel for the appellant, that the suit is not maintainable in the absence of a prayer to set aside the subsequent sales cannot be accepted.”

In Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608: (2006) 5 SCC 353, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “16. When a document is valid, no question arises of its cancellation. When a document is void ab initio, a decree for setting aside the same would not be necessary as the same is non-est in the eye of law, as it would be a nullity.”

It is held in Gorakh Nath Dube vs Hari Narain Singh, AIR 1973 SC 2451, that where there is a document the legal effect of which can only be taken away by setting it aside or its cancellation, it could be urged that the consolidation authorities have no power to cancel the deed, and, therefore, it must be held to be binding on them so long as it is not cancelled by a court having the power to cancel it.

In Sukhlal v. Devilal, 1954 RajLW 136, Wanchco C.J. held as under:

  • “There is a difference between a suit for the cancellation of an instrument and one for a declaration that the instrument is not binding on the plaintiff, when the plaintiff seeks to establish, a title in himself and cannot establish that title without removing an insuperable obstacle such as a decree or a deed to which he has been a party or by which he is otherwise bound then quite clearly he must get that decree or deed cancelled or declared void in toto and his suit is in substance a suit for the cancellation of the decree or deed notwithstanding the fact that the suit may have been framed as a suit for a declaration. On the other hand, when the plaintiff is seeking to establish a title and finds himself threatened by a decree or a transaction between third parties, he is not in a position to get that decree or deed cancelled in toto. The proper remedy in such a case is to get a declaration that the decree or deed is invalid so far as he himself is concerned, and, therefore, he may sue for a declaration to that effect and not for the cancellation of the decree or the deed.” [See:’ Vellayya Konar v. Ramaswami Konar’ (AIR 1939 Mad 894)].

A void deed can be ignored and seek partition. It need not be set aside

The Supreme Court held in Mrs. Umadevi Nambiar vs Thamarasseri Roman Catholic Diocese (2022-3 Ker HC 113 SC )

  • “15. It is not always necessary for a plaintiff in a suit for partition to seek the cancellation of the alienations. There are several reasons behind this principle. One is that the alienees as well as the co­ sharer are still entitled to sustain the alienation to the extent of the share of the co­sharer. It may also be open to the alienee, in the final decree proceedings, to seek the allotment of the transferred property, to the share of the transferor, so that equities are worked out in a fair manner. Therefore, the High Court was wrong in putting against the appellant, her failure to challenge the alienations.”

Kerala High Court  in A.  Baiju Vs. Sasidharan, Decided on July 30, 2019, it is observed as under:

  • “The defendants claim under a sale deed executed by Bhanu. As already seen, Bhanu could sell only his undivided interest. Even if he executed a sale deed selling the property as such, it would not bind the other co-owners. Those co-owners can just ignore the sale deed and seek partition. It is not at all necessary to get the sale deed set aside.”
  • See also: R. Ganapathi Vs. Inspector General of Registration, AIR  2020 Mad 248;
  • Perumal Vs. Ramasamy, 2018-3 MadLW 830,

PART – V

Statute imposing Penalty – Effect on Validity of Contract

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536, is a direct authority on this matter. It is laid down as under:

  • 19. Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. (See Mellis v. Shirley L.B. [(1885) 16 QBD 446 : 55 LJQB 143 : 2 TLR 360] ) A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
  • The penalty may be imposed with intent merely to deter persons from entering into the contract or for the purposes of revenue or that the contract shall not be entered into so as to be valid at law. A distinction is sometimes made between contracts entered into with the object of committing an illegal act and contracts expressly or impliedly prohibited by statute. The distinction is that in the former class one has only to look and see what acts the statute prohibits; it does not matter whether or not it prohibits a contract: if a contract is made to do a prohibited act, that contract will be unenforceable. In the latter class, one has to consider not what act the statute prohibits, but what contracts it prohibits. One is not concerned at all with the intent of the parties, if the parties enter into a prohibited contract, that contract is unenforceable. (See St. John Shipping Corporation v. Joseph Rank [(1957) 1 QB 267].) (See also Halsbury’s Laws of England, 3rd Edn., Vol. 8, p. 141.)
  • 20. It is well established that a contract which involves in its fulfilment the doing of an act prohibited by statute is void. The legal maxim A pactis privatorum publico juri non derogatur means that private agreements cannot alter the general law. Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court can lend its assistance to give it effect. (See Mellis v. Shirley L.B.) What is done in contravention of the provisions of an Act of the legislature cannot be made the subject of an action.
  • 21. If anything is against law though it is not prohibited in the statute but only a penalty is annexed the agreement is void. In every case where a statute inflicts a penalty for doing an act, though the act be not prohibited, yet the thing is unlawful, because it is not intended that a statute would inflict a penalty for a lawful act.
  • 22. Penalties are imposed by statute for two distinct purposes:
    • (1) for the protection of the public against fraud, or for some other object of public policy;
    • (2) for the purpose of securing certain sources of revenue either to the State or to certain public bodies. If it is clear that a penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.”
  • (Quoted in: Asha John vs. Vikram Malhotra, AIR 2021 SC 2932.)

PART – VI

LIMITATION

No Period for Declaration, for Void Marriage

It is observed in Swapnanjali Sandeep Patil v. Sandeep Ananda Patil, 2019 AIR SC 1500, that No period of limitation is prescribed so far as presentation of petition for declaration to declare a marriage being nullity/void marriage, under Section 24 of the Act and that once the marriage is found to be void the same is a nullity and at any time the same can be declared as null.

Dismissal of plaintiff from service

State of Punjab v. Gurdev Singh, AIR 1991 SC 2219 arose from the suit for declaration that the order dismissing the plaintiff from service was ultra vires, unconstitutional, violative of principles of natural justice and void ab initio. It is observed that such a suit must be filed with three years from the date of passing of order or when departmental appeal or revision is filed from the date of dismissal of such appeal/revision, according to the provisions of Article 113 of the Limitation Act, 1963,.

Invalidity of the order

In Pune Municipal Corporation v. State of Maharashtra, 2007 AIR SC 2414; 2007 5 SCC 211, it is held as under:

  • “Setting aside the decree passed by all the Courts and referring to several cases, this Court held that if the party aggrieved by invalidity of the order intends to approach the Court for declaration that the order against him was inoperative, he must come before the Court within the period prescribed by limitation. If the statutory time of limitation expires, the Court cannot give the declaration sought for”.

Cancellation of a transaction on fraud (voidable transaction)

The Supreme Court, in Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608, it was held that where a suit is filed for cancellation of a transaction on the ground of coercion, under influence or fraud, Article 59 of the Limitation Act would apply. (Referred to in Mohinder Singh Verma v. J P S Verma, 2015 AIR(CC) 3043).

Declaration and Recovery– Limitation, governed by Article 65 and not Article 58

A suit for declaration is governed by Article 58 of the Limitation Act and the period of limitation is three years. But, in Seshumull MShah vSayed Abdul Rashid , AIR 1991 Kar. 273, Karnataka High Court observed that a suit where possession is claimed as a consequence of the declaration, it would be governed by Article 65 and not Article 58 of the Limitation Act.

In State of Maharashtra Vs. Pravin Jethalal Kamdar, (2000) 3 SCC 460, it was held by the Supreme Court that merely for the fact that the plaintiff, besides the relief of possession, sought declaration also is of no consequence, and that in such a case the governing article of the Schedule to the Limitation Act would be Article 65. In C. Natrajan v. Ashim Bai, (2007) 14 SCC 183, the Apex Court held that in the suit which has been filed “for possession, as a consequence of declaration of the plaintiff‘s title, Article 58 will have no application.” ,

In Ashok Kumar v. Mohd. Rustam, 2016 SCC OnLine Del 466: MANU/DE/0197/2016
CS (OS) 3195/2012, it was held as under:

  • “16. Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, for the relief of declaration, undoubtedly provides limitation of three years from the date when the cause of action accrues. However I am of the opinion that once the plaintiff, besides suing for declaration of title also sues for recovery of possession of immovable property on the basis of title, the limitation for such a suit would be governed by the limitation provided for the relief of possession and not by limitation provided for the relief of declaration. To hold otherwise would tantamount to providing two different periods of limitation for a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on title i.e. of three years if the suit besides for the said relief is also for the relief of declaration of title and of twelve years as aforesaid if no relief of declaration is claimed. A relief of declaration of title to immovable property is implicit in a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on title inasmuch as without establishing title to property, if disputed, no decree for the relief of possession also can be passed. Thus, merely because a plaintiff in such a suit also specifically claims the relief of declaration of title, cannot be a ground to treat him differently and reduce the period of limitation available to him from that provided of twelve years, to three years. “
  • (referred to in Vidur Impex and Traders Pvt. Ltd. v. Pradeep Kumar Khanna, , 241 (2017) DLT 481)

In Ashok Kumar v. Gangadhar, 2007 (2) ALD 313, 2007 (3) ALT 561 , it is held as under:

  • “If the contention of the defendants that Article 58 applies to the suit for possession based on title where declaration of title is also sought, is accepted, it would amount to ignoring the relief for recovery of possession and application of Article 65 to a suit for possession and taking away the right of the plaintiff to prove that the suit is within 12 years from the date when the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff.  If such a suit were to be decided with reference to Article 58 on the ground that the declaration is sought for, application of Article 65 to the suit for possession would be rendered otiose.  Such a construction would be opposed to all principles of interpretation of statutes.  Therefore different Articles of the Limitation Act will have to be interpreted harmoniously.  When such an interpretation is given to Articles 58 and 65 and when the suit is filed for declaration of title to the suit property with consequential relief of possession in my humble view Article 65 of the Limitation Act would apply and not Article 58 of the Limitation Act”.

It is held in Mechineni Chokka Rao v Sattu Sattamma, 2006 (1) ALD 116,   as under:

  • “10…. It is obvious that Article 58 is in the nature of residuary provision among the declaratory suits. Indubitably the relief of declaration can be sought for in respect of an immovable property or movable property, or in respect of an instrument, or in respect of a decree, or in respect of an adoption. Thus, various types of declaratory reliefs can be sought for pertaining to those categories. Therefore, the relief of declaration alone appears to be not the criterion for prescribing the period of limitation but the subject-matter of the suit in respect of which the declaration is sought for, appears to be germane for consideration.”
  • “13. The problem can be viewed in a different dimension. The right over an immovable property will get extinguished as can be seen from Section 27 of the Act only after the expiry of the period prescribed for filing the suit for possession as per Articles 64 and 65 of the Act. Therefore, if the period falls short of the requisite period of 12 years the right over an immovable property will not get extinguished. When the person has a right over an immovable property which right is not extinguished as yet, he can lay the suit in respect of an immovable property even praying for the relief of declaration at any time within the period of 12 years at the end of which, his right would get extinguished. When we consider this clear mandate contained in Section 27 f the Act, it becomes manifest that a declaratory relief in respect of an immovable property can be sought for at any time within the period of 12 years after which the right will get automatically extinguished, notwithstanding the fact that Article 58, the residuary Article for filing declaratory suits, prescribes a period of three years limitation. … ….”

Declaration on VOID character of document – Limitation governed by consequential relief

In S. Krishnamma v. T.S. Viswajith :  2009 (4) KLT 840 it is held that Article 58 is not applicable for declaration that is sought only as an ancillary relief. It is held as under:

  • When a declaration regarding the void character of the document is sought for that is which would not govern the period of limitation for the suit. The consequential relief sought for is to be treated as main relief governing the period of limitation for the suit. (See Mrs. Indira Bhalchandran Gokhale Vs. Union of India & Another-AIR 1990 Bombay 98). Therefore declaration prayed for in this case as relief Nos. 1 and 2 were unnecessary, and even if made, need only be treated as ancillary to the main relief of partition of immovable properties and the claim that appellant is entitled to get family pension.

PART – VI

NATURAL JUSTICE: Sea Change in Application – Treating an Order ‘Nullity’

In early times, uniformly followed legal concept was that ‘denial of natural justice itself causes prejudice’. It is pointed out by the Bombay High Court in Gulab Babusaheb Bargiri Vs. Executive Engineer, Maharashtra State Electricity Board[1]  that, after Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India,[2] the principle of natural justice has undergone a sea change.

In PD Agrawal v. State Bank of India (2006)[3] the Apex Court observed that the principles of natural justice ‘has in recent time‘ undergone a sea change. Relying on State Bank of Patiala Vs. SK Sharma (1996)[4] and Rajendra Singh Vs. State of MP (1996)[5] the Court held that principle of law was that some real prejudice must have been caused to the complainant. 

Analysing previous judgments it is observed in State of UP Vs. Sudhir Kumar Singh, 2020 SCC OnLine SC 847, that the following are the tests to determine the non-observance of natural justice:

  • “(1)Natural justice is a flexible tool in the hands of the judiciary to reach out in fit cases to remedy injustice. The breach of the audi alteram partem rule cannot by itself, without more, lead to the conclusion that prejudice is thereby caused.
  • (2)Where procedural and/or substantive provisions of law embody the principles of natural justice, their infraction per se does not lead to invalidity of the orders passed. Here again, prejudice must be caused to the litigant, except in the case of a mandatory provision of law which is conceived not only in individual interest, but also in public interest.
  • (3)No prejudice is caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice where such person does not dispute the case against him or it. This can happen by reason of estoppel, acquiescence, waiver and by way of non-challenge or non-denial or admission of facts, in cases in which the Court finds on facts that no real prejudice can therefore be said to have been caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice.
  • (4)In cases where facts can be stated to be admitted or indisputable, and only one conclusion is possible, the Court does not pass futile orders of setting aside or remand when there is, in fact, no prejudice caused. This conclusion must be drawn by the Court on an appraisal of the facts of a case, and not by the authority who denies natural justice to a person.
  • (5)The “prejudice” exception must be more than a mere apprehension or even a reasonable suspicion of a litigant. It should exist as a matter of fact, or be based upon a definite inference of likelihood of prejudice flowing from the non-observance of natural justice.”

Natural justice is not applied in a vacuum without reference to the relevant facts and circumstances of the case. It is no unruly horse. It cannot be put in a straight jacket formula. [See: Maharashtra State Financial Corporation v. Suvarna Board Mills, 1994-5 SCC 566, Viveka Nand Sethi vs. Chairman, J. & K. Bank Ltd. & Ots. (2005) 5 SCC 337 and State of U.P. vs. Neeraj Awasthi & Ors. JT 2006 (1) SC 19. See also Mohd. Sartaj vs. State of U.P. (2006) 1 SCALE 265

EARLIER VIEWOrder in breach of Natural Justice is a Nullity

In AR Antulay Vs. RS Nayak (1988)[6] a seven Judge Bench of our Apex Court has held that when an order has been passed in violation of a fundamental right or in breach of the principles of natural justice, the same would be nullity.[7]

The Supreme Court, in SL KapurVs. Jagmohan (1981),[8]  held as under:

  • “In our view the principles of natural justice know of no exclusionary rule dependent on whether it would have made any difference if natural justice had been observed. The non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice to any man and proof of prejudice independently of proof of denial of natural justice is unnecessary. It ill comes from a person who has denied justice that the person who has been denied justice is not prejudiced.”

See Blog: Natural Justice – Not an Unruly Horse, Cannot be Placed in a Straight-Jacket & Not a Judicial Cure-all.

PART – VII

SHAM transactions and Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act

Diplock LJ, in Snook v. London and West Riding Investments Ltd., [1967] 2 QB 786, it is observed as under:

  • “As regards the contention of the plaintiff that the transactions between himself, Auto Finance and the defendants were a ‘sham,’ it is, I think, necessary to consider what, if any, legal concept is involved in the use of this popular and pejorative word. I apprehend that, if it has any meaning in law, it means acts done or documents executed by the parties to the ‘sham’ which are intended by them to give to third parties or to the court the appearance of creating between the parties legal rights and obligations different from the actual legal rights and obligations (if any) which the parties intend to create.”
  • “But one thing, I think, is clear in legal principle, morality and the authorities (see Yorkshire Railway Wagon Co. v Maclure and Stoneleigh Finance Ltd. v Phillips), that for acts or documents to be a ‘sham,’ with whatever legal consequences follow from this, all the parties thereto must have a common intention that the acts or documents are not to create the legal rights and obligations which they give the appearance of creating. No unexpressed intentions of a ‘shammer’ effect the rights of a party whom he deceived. There is an express finding in this case that the defendants were not parties to the alleged ‘sham.’ So this contention fails.”

Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 directs exclusion of evidence or oral agreement as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso to Section 92 any fact that may invalidate any document, such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution can be led into evidence. It permits the plaintiff to assert that the document was never intended to be acted upon and the document is a sham. But, such question arises only when one party asserts that there has been a different transaction altogether than what is recorded in the document. Oral evidence is admissible in law for that purpose. [See: Placido Francisco Pinto
v. Jose Francisco Pinto, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 842. Referred: Smt. Gangabai v. Smt. Chhabubai (1982) 1 SCC 4, and Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani, (2003) 6 SCC 595].

Section 92 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “92. Exclusion of evidence or oral agreement. – When the terms of any such contract, grant or other disposition of property, or any matter required by law to be reduced to the form of a document, have been proved according to the last section, no evidence of any oral agreement or statement shall be admitted, as between the parties to any such instrument or their representatives in interest, for the purpose of contradicting, varying, adding to, or subtracting from, its terms:
  • Proviso (1).—Any fact may be proved which would invalidate any document, or which would entitle any person to any decree or order relating thereto; such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution, want of capacity in any contracting party, want or failure of consideration, or mistake in fact or law.”

In Roop Kumar it is held as follows:

  • “22. This Court in Gangabai v. Chhabubai [(1982) 1 SCC 4 : AIR 1982 SC 20] and Ishwar Dass Jain v. Sohan Lal [(2000) 1 SCC 434 : AIR 2000 SC 426] with reference to Section 92(1) held that it is permissible to a party to a deed to contend that the deed was not intended to be acted upon, but was only a sham document. The bar arises only when the document is relied upon and its terms are sought to be varied and contradicted. Oral evidence is admissible to show that document executed was never intended to operate as an agreement but that some other agreement altogether, not recorded in the document, was entered into between the parties.”

See blog: Oral Evidence on Contents of Document, Irrelevant

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Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

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Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India



‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be proved by ‘CERTIFICATE’ under Sec. 65B Evidence Act.

Other ‘information’ like photo, audio/video CD, etc. cannot be proved by ‘Certificate’.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Introspection

No.Analysis of the authorLaw rendered by the Supreme Court
[Arjun Panditrao, (2020)3 SCC 216]
1Sec. 65B deals with ‘Admissibility’ (alone) of a Computer Output (copy).**
If ‘truth’ (of information in an electronic record) is in question, it must be proved, as in the matter of any other fact.
“31. The non-obstante clause (in Sec. 65B) … makes it clear that when it comes to information contained in an electronic record, admissibility and proof thereof must follow the drill of Section 65B…..”
2The non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything’) in Sec. 65B does not exclude application of Sec. 62 to 65. 
It is an (additional) enabling provision to prove copy ‘notwithstanding anything contained’ in the Evidence Act.
“31.  … Sec. 65B, … is a special provision in this behalf – Sec. 62 to 65 being irrelevant for this purpose (admissibility and proof).
“34. … the special provisions of Sec. 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act are a complete Code in themselves when it comes to admissibility of evidence of information contained in electronic records …. a written certificate under Sec. 65B(4) is a sine qua non for admissibility of (such evidence)….”
3Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit (except for ‘Statements’. 
‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be PROVED by ‘Certificate’ under S. 65B(4). 
“59. .. the certificate required under Sec. 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of EVIDENCE by way of ELECTRONIC RECORD
Oral evidence in the place of such certificate cannot possibly suffice as Sec. 65B(4) is a mandatory requirement of the law. …
Sect. 65B(4) … clearly states that secondary evidence is admissible only if lead in the manner stated and not otherwise. To hold otherwise would render Section 65B(4) otiose.”
4Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B.
•The computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
(i) USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
(ii) activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
(iii) BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
(iv) information was REGULARLY FED
(v) in the ORDINARY COURSE,
(vi) information is REPRODUCED in the ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
Apex Court accepted –
CCTV footage in: Navjot Sandhu, (2005); Tomaso Bruno (2015),
CDs/VCDs in: Arjun Panditrao (2020)
CDs in: Anvar PV (2014).
CDR in: Sonu (2017)
Tape recorded conversation in: Vikram Singh (2017)
Videography of the scene of crime in: Shafhi (2018).
** Note: Sec. 65B Certificate is needed only for proving ‘computer output’ – secondary evidence; and not for original ‘electronic evidence’.
The distinction between original and copy (secondary evidence) is maintained in Sec. 65B so also in the Supreme Court decision , Arjun Panditrao.

Contents in a Nutshell

What is brought about by Section 65B, Evidence Act?

  1. It enables a litigant to prove computer output (secondary evidence)
    • without further proof or production of electronic record’ (original), and
    • by producing a ‘certificate’ (as provided in this Section).
  2. Presumption is provided as to the correctness of the computer output (copy or print out) under Sec. 65B(5)(c).

I. Does the duo by Sec. 65A & 65B Evid. Act Oust the Operation of Sec. 63 & 65?

In other words, whether ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘ electronic record’) can be proved only by Sec. 65B, and it Constitute a ‘Complete Code’?

The Answer is No.

What does the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything’ in the Act ….’) denote?

On analysis of Sec. 65A and 65B it is clear that:

  • (i) The new provisions in Sec. 65A and 65B are independent from, Sec. 62 to 65; and
  • (ii) the non-obstante clause in Sec. 65B does not oust Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act in proving a computer output (secondary evidence).

Because:

  1. Sec. 65A is an introductory provision to Sec. 65B.
    • Sec. 65A does not control Sec. 65B.
  2. Sec. 65A indicates only an (enabling) method to PROVE (not the only one method) the CONTENTS of electronic records –  by producing print/copy – invoking Sec. 65B.
    • Sec. 65A reads: The contents of electronic records MAY be proved (not shall be proved) in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Thus, Sec. 65B is an Enabling or Added provision; and, other enabling (existing) provisions in the Indian Evidence Act, to prove documents by secondary evidence invoking Sec. 63 and 65, are not taken away.
  3. Sec. 65B(1) lays down that the computer output (copy) shall be “deemed to be ALSO” an (original) document, if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, “notwithstanding anything contained in the Act”.
    • That is, Sec. 65B, does not bar proving a print/copy (as secondary evidence) by satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65 (i. e., otherwise than satisfying conditions in sub Sec. 2 of Sec. 65B), by oral evidence or affidavit, as to loss of original, original with other side and notice given, original not easily movable, etc., as the case may be.

In short, compliance of this enabling provision is not an invariable or imperative condition precedent to the admissibility’ of ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence); and it does not stand in the way of proving a secondary evidence of the contents of the ‘electronic record’, invoking the usual method laid down in Sec. 65 read with Sec. 63 of the Evidence Act – that is, satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, by oral evidence or affidavit. (Note: Contra view in: Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216).

2. ‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be ‘PROVED’ by ‘CERTIFICATE’ under Sec. 65B

  • The ‘statements‘ (such as bank account statements and phone call details) alone can be PROVED in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under Sec. 65B(4).
  • It is clear from a simple reading – 65B(4) is applicable only to ‘statements’. 

Sec. 65B(4) reads:

  • “(4) In any proceedings where it is DESIRED TO GIVESTATEMENT  in evidence, by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—
    • (a) identifying the electronic record CONTAINING the STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
    • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be EVIDENCE of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section
  • it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.”

See Blog: How to Prove WhatsApp Chats, Facebook Messages and Website Information in Courts?

3. What is a “Statement” in Evidence Act?

  1. The ‘statement’ referred to herein is that which can be pointed out “identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced” as stated in Section 65B(4)(a); and which can be ‘purporting to be signed‘, as stated in Section 65B(4)(c).
    • The Information Technology Act, 2000 (No. 21 of 2000) defines Electronic Record’ as under:
    • “ ‘Electronic Record’ means data, record or data generated, image or sound stored, received or sent in an electronic form or micro film or computer generated micro fiche.”
  2. According to Evidence Act, ‘statement’ is – that which can be expressed or translatable in the form of ‘oral evidence’.
    • Because, “Evidence” is defined in Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act as under:
  • “Evidence means and includes—
    • all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry; such statements are called oral evidence.
    • all documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court, such documents are called documentary evidence.”
  • See also: Sec. 8
    • Explanation 1.––The word “conduct” in this section does not include statements, unless those statements accompany and explain acts other than statements; but this explanation is not to affect the relevancy of statements under any other section of this Act.
    • Explanation 2.––When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct, is relevant.
  • Section–32
    • Cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found, etc., is relevant.
  • Section–. 34
    • Entries in books of account when relevant. …. but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to charge any person with liability
  • Section–. 36
    • Relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans.
  • Section–. 32
    • Relevancy of statement as to fact of public nature contained in certain Acts or notifications.
  • Section–. 37
    • Relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law-books.
  • Section–. 38
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 39
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 145
    • Cross-examination as to previous statements in writing
  • Section–. 157
    • Former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact
  • Section–. 158
    • What matters may be proved in connection with proved statement relevant under section 32 or 33.

Thus it appears that the statements entered in a personal-computer (by DTP), bank-account-statements etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’. And, it is clear that the ‘statement’ does not pertain to other ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD. (Note – contra view in Supreme Court decisions).

4. ‘Statement‘ in S. 65B(4) is the STATEMENT  ‘CONTAINED‘ in the “ELECTRONIC RECORD” and NOT that GIVEN IN COURT

Now, the potential question that arises for consideration is the following:

  • Whether the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is
    • (i) that given in court, to support the copy or printout, or
    • (ii) that is contained in the electronic record?

It is beyond doubt that the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is not the one that is given in court; but, the statement ‘CONTAINED‘ in “the electronic record“. Because:

  • The “statement” referred to in Sec. 65B (4) is one that may be:
    • desired to give” “in evidence by virtue of this section” (Sec. 65B(4) first clause); and
  • The “certificate” must be one that
    • “identifying the ELECTRONIC RECORD CONTAINING THE STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced” [Section 65B(4)(a)].

The above view is fortified by the following:

  1. Sec. 65B(4) (c) says that the certificate must state, among other things, facts as to “dealing with any (?) of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate”.
    • Note: Proving matters with ’certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4) is a species and proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65B(2) is genus.
  2. The certificate could be signed by a person who has
    • “a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities” (Section 65B(4)(c).

Thus, the formal assertions like statements of witnesses, bank-account-statements, etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’, by virtue of section 65B; and not ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD.

How UK Courts Handled this Matter

The Civil Evidence Act 1968 contained strict provisions governing computer evidence. Section 69 of the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984 (PACE) dealt with the admissibility of computer records in criminal proceedings.

It has been observed in Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal that the provisions relating to electronic evidence in Indian law were, in substance, a “poor reproduction” of Section 5 of the 1968 UK Act.

Subsequently, the legal position in the UK underwent a significant change:

  • Section 69 of the PACE Act, which imposed such strict conditions for admitting electronic evidence in criminal cases, was abolished in 1999.
  • The 1968 Act was replaced by the Civil Evidence Act 1995, which did not retain the earlier strict and technical requirements for electronic evidence.

Section 69(2) of the PACE Act read as under:

  • “(2) Provision may be made by rules of court requiring that in any proceedings where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section such information concerning the statement as may be required by the rules shall be provided in such form and at such time as may be so required.”

The UK courts adhered to the textual limitation as regards the expression “statements” under both these Acts (when it existed); they did not expand the expression into a broader rule to enfold all forms of computer output (copies).

Present Position: After the repeal of the provisions relating to electronic evidence in the UK Acts, the UK courts have effectively reverted to the common law approach, under which electronic evidence is admitted based on general principles of relevance and reliability, rather than rigid or technical admissibility requirements.

Videos Speak for Themselves – English Decision

It is laid down by the United Kingdom Court of Appeal in R v. Downey, [1995] 1 Cr.App.R. 547 CA and R v Blenkinsop, [1995] 1 Cr.App.R. 7, CA as regards a video –

  • It “should be shown without comment, since it was for the jury to decide what they revealed.”

In R v. Downey, [1995] 1 Cr.App.R. 547, the principle accepted was that a video can “speak for itself” if properly proved. In this case, the same type of offence was committed at different places. Both were video recorded. The similarities were well identified. This led to an acceptance of the video by the court. It was found that the perpetrator of one of the crimes was likewise guilty of the other.

CCTV Footage – The Best Evidence

In Tomaso Bruno v. State of Uttar Pradesh, (2015) 7 SCC 178, it is held that the CCTV footage is the best evidence (R. Banumathi, Kurian Joseph, Anil R. Dave, JJ.). It was a case concerning two Italian nationals. They were accused of the murder of another Italian national. The place of occurrence was a hotel room. All were on their trip to Varanasi. It was a case of circumstantial evidence. Symptoms of strangulation were absent in the medical reports. The defence was that the death occurred during their absence. They relied on the non-production of the digital evidence – CCTV footage and SIM card details. The Supreme Court set aside the conviction, pointing out –

  • “The courts below have ignored the importance of best evidence, i.e. CCTV camera in the instant case.”
  • “Notwithstanding the fact that the burden lies upon the accused to establish the defence plea of alibi in the facts and circumstances of the case, in our view, prosecution in possession of the best evidence– CCTV footage ought to have produced the same. In our considered view, it is a fit case to draw an adverse inference against the prosecution under Section 114 (g) of the Evidence Act that the prosecution withheld the same as it would be unfavourable to them had it been produced.”
  • Note: Tomaso Bruno is overruled in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, on the point – whether computer output can be proved otherwise than invoking Section 65(4) of the Evidence Act; that is, under Section 65. In Tomaso Bruno it was held that secondary evidence of the contents of CCTV footage can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act. Hence the CCTV footage was found admissible. In this regard Tomaso Bruno followed Navjot Sandhu. It is held in Arjun Panditrao that in the teeth of Anvar P. V., it could not have been said to be a correct statement of the law.

Photographs/Videos Speak for Themselves – Indian Decisions

In Rajendra Sail v. M P High Court Bar Association, AIR 2005 SC 2473; 2005-6 SCC 109; (Y.K. Sabharwal & Tarun Chatterjee, JJ.), it is held that the video exhibited in that case speaks for itself.

The Madras High Court in Chairman, Tamil Nadu Electricity Board, Chennai v. Kogila,
2021-3 CTC 118; 2021-2 LW 28, while dealing with a suit for damages, filed by the legal heirs of a person who died due to the fall of an electrical pole on him, held as under:

  • “Ex. A-10 photos and CD clearly show that the pole was heavily damaged. One could also to see the iron rods exposed and rusted. The cement concrete covering peeled off. The broken electrical pole on the ground with live wire seen in the photographs speak for itself.”

In Pawan Kumar Agarwal v. State of Uttar Pradesh, 2007-6 ADJ 551, Allahabad High Court held as under:.

  • “The photographs of the constructions which were given at that point of time, show that it was semi finished construction, and the photographs appended with this Review Application, show that constructions have been completed and they speak in volumes for itselfPhotographs, which have been filed as Annexure-16 to the writ petition, and the photographs, which have been annexed along with this Review Application clearly speak that the applicant had full knowledge of the pendency of the aforementioned writ petition and in spite of the same constructions were carried on and completed.”

Following decisions also say – the photographs/videos speak for itself.

  • Swami Vivekanandnagar Co-op. Housing So. Ltd. v. Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation, 2022-3 GLH 122; 2022-4 GLR 2732 (Photograph)
  • Madhavnagar Coop. Housing So. Ltd v. Joint Registrar, 2020-2 GLR 1437, J.B. Pardiwala, J. (Photograph)
  • Jetunben v. State of Gujarat, 2017-2 GLR 1640, J.B. Pardiwala, J. (Video)
  • New India Assurance Company v. Mohd. Akram Bhat, 2016-2 JKJ 12 (Photograph)
  • Shakuntala Bhadouria v. M. P. Griha Nirman Mandal, 2014-3 MPHT 62; 2014-1 MPJR 131 (DB) (Photographs)
  • Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Bhagirathi Ganapathy, 2010-2 CCR 1041 (Photograph)
  • Raghuveer Singh v. Shiv Kumar Swami, 2006-3 RDD 1653; 2006-3 RLW(Raj) 2266; 2006-4 WLC 210 (Video)
  • Taran Parkash Mohan Lal v. State, 1962 CrLJ 189 (P&H) (Photograph)

Seizure Of Heroine Non-Production of CCTV Footage – Not Invite Acquittal

It is also relevant to note the following decision of the Madras High Court on seizure of the contraband, a commercial quantity of 1 kg. of Heroine, in Intelligence Officer, Narcotic Control Bureau, Chennai v. Rasool Mydeen, 2023-1 MLJ(Cri) 19, which reads as under:

  • “Though the prosecution could have also produced the CCTV footage from the Central Railway Station, the very absence by itself will not entitle the accused for acquittal. The principle that non-production of the best evidence in the case of the prosecution could not be employed, as the CCTV cannot be said to be a best evidence when the seizing officer and the witnesses have deposed and the mahazar is produced and the CCTV footage can at best be termed as a corroborative material. Therefore, the mere non-production thereof will not entitle the appellant for an acquittal.”

5. Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B.

  • It is clear that the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
    • S. 65B(2)(a) – computer was USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
      • of the activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
      • BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
    • S. 65B(2)(b) – information was REGULARLY FED
      • in the ORDINARY COURSE,
    • S. 65B(2)(d) – the information is REPRODUCED in the
      • ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
    • (For example – Computer Account statements in a Bank.)
  • For all other computer outputs (copies of, photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc., as stated below), one has to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65.
  • Therefore, it is beyond any doubt that the following computer outputs (copies) cannot be used under Sec. 65B:
    1. CCTV footage – For
      • (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON and
      • (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    2. CDs containing speech – For
      • (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information,
      • (ii) not regularly fed in the ORDINARY course and
      • (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    3. Videograph of the scene of crimeor trap-video – For
      • (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information,
      • (ii) not regularly fed in the ORDINARY course and
      • (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    4. Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones – For
      • (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON and
      • (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
  • But, the Supreme Court dealt with CCTV footage (copy) in the following landmark cases:
    • State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,
    • Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178),
  • CDs/VCDs in respect of video recording by the Election Commission
    • Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216
  • CDs containing election speeches and songs, in:
    • Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473).
  • Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones, in:
    • Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570)
  • Tape recorded conversation on the landline phone, in
    • Vikram Singh v. State of Punjab, (2017) 8 SCC 518
  • Propriety of videography of the scene of crime or scene of recovery during investigation, in:
    • Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ).

6. Computer output’ can be got produced by ‘any computer‘ and no evidence/certificate required

A ‘Computer Output’ can be got copied or printed by ‘any‘ computer. It need not be the part of the device that was “used regularly to store or process information”. It is clear from the phrase – shall be taken to have been produced by “a” computer – in 65B(5)(c). It stands contradistinct to “the” computer in Sec. 65B(2).

7. Anomaly between the Heading and the Sub Section in Sec.65B

If we go by the heading of the Sec. 65B, we find that it deals about ‘ADMISSIBILITY’ alone; and not proof. But, there is an anomaly – for, it appears from Sec. 65B(4)(c) that Sec. 65B deals with proof also.

  • Because, it is laid down in Sec. 65B(4)(c)
    • (i) that the certificate “shall be evidence of any(?matter stated” therein, and
    • (ii) that for the purposes of this sub-section “it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.”
  • It is legitimate to take that Sec. 65B deals with ‘admissibility’ alone, and not as to ‘proof of contents’; and that the anomaly has come out of a ‘callous drafting’.

8. Presumption on ‘Computer output’ (print or copy)

From the very wordings in Sec. 65B(5)(c), the ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) as to the involvement of the computer which (finally) produced the computer output (print or copy) need not be furnished. Because, the legislature contemplated a presumption as to correctness of the computer output (not truth of contents), under Sec. 65B(5)(c), as it reads:

  • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

It is similar to Sec. 63 clause (2) which reads as under:

  • “Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy …. …”

Sec. 63 lays down the sorts of secondary evidence accepted by the Evidence Act. It is seen that Sec. 65B(5)(c) expressly says also as to presumption on correctness, as stated above.

9. Admissibility and Presumption as to correctness of Computer Output

  • Sec. 65B does not deal with ‘truth’ of the contents of the electronic record; it deals with only ‘admissibility of copy’.
  • The electronic record mentioned in Sec. 65B is – that is ‘relevant‘; for, it must be one “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  • Therefore, if truth is in question, it must be proved according to other provisions of the evidence act; ie. by oral, documentary (such as admission) or presumptive (including circumstantial) evidence.
  • Relevant portions of 65A & 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
      • The contents of electronic records MAY BE proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) … any information contained in an electronic record which is printed ….. or copied ….. shall be ADMISSIBLE in any proceedings ….. as evidence of any contents of the original … of which direct evidence would be admissible.”

Sec. 65B declares and expressly lays down that computer output (copy or print)

  • (i) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and
  • (ii) shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence
    • of any contents of the original or
    • of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

If the conditions mentioned in this Section Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, by necessary implication, it will bring a presumption under Sec. 114 with respect to regularity of the computer output . Because, admissibility of ‘any fact stated therein‘ ‘without further proof’ is nothing but ‘presumption’ of its regularity and correctness. The net result is that (if the conditions in sub-sec. 2 of Sec. 65B are satisfied) the burden to prove ‘otherwise’ is cast on the person who opposes it.

The requirement in Sec. 65B(2) as to ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) for ‘regularity‘ of ‘feeding information into the computer’ in the ‘ordinary course‘ eloquently support this proposition.

  • Note:
    • (i) ‘Statements’ alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4); other ‘information’ are to be proved by proper evidence.
    • (ii) Presumption of ‘regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act can be applied in Sec. 65B.
    • (iii) Presumption of a ‘fact or regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act is, essentially presumption of ‘Truth’ and ‘Correctness’.
      • Here, it is limited to the correctness of the copy or ‘computer output’.

Presumption of Fact Means Truth/Correctness of Fact

St. of West Bengal Vs. Mir Mohammad Omar (AIR 2000 SC 2988) it is held by our Apex Court as under:

  • “Presumption of fact is an inference as to the existence of one fact from the existence of some other facts, unless the truth of such inference is disproved. Presumption of fact is a rule in law of evidence that a fact otherwise doubtful may be inferred from certain other proved facts. When inferring the existence of a fact from other set of proved facts, the Court exercises a process of reasoning and reach a logical conclusion as the most probable position. The above principle has gained legislative recognition in India when Section 114 is incorporated in the Evidence Act. It empowers the Court to presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened. In that process Court shall have regard to the common course of natural events, human conduct etc. in relation to the facts of the case.”

Read Blog: Presumptions on Documents and Truth of its Contents

10. Section 65B is a borrowed provision

Section 65B is brought to Indian law from Section 5 of the UK Civil Evidence Act, 1968. It remains a sheer fact that by the time we borrowed this provision (2000) from the UK law, they repealed (1995) it. (It is pointed out in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020) 3 SCC 216.)

The present UK Act (Civil Evidence Act 1995) does not make any special provision for Electronic Evidence or Computerised Records. It deals this matter under the head ‘hearsay evidence’ and makes ‘safeguards’ with respect to the hearsay evidence.

11. Conclusions

  1. Sec. 65B is invoked only when a computer output (copy) is used in evidence.
    • Sec. 65B pertains to ‘admissibility'(not truth) of a computer output/copy.
    • It deals with computer output/copy alone; and it does not deal with (original) electronic record.
  2. Non-obstante clause does not oust S. 63 and 65.
    • The non-obstante clause in Sec. 65B does not oust operation of Secs. 63 & 65 of the Evidence Act; and, therefore, secondary evidence of an electronic record can be given in evidence, invoking Sec. 65, read with Sec. 63.
    • Sec. 65B is an added and enabling provision to prove the copy or print out (otherwise than by proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, such as loss of original, original with other side).
    • It relates to relevant matters alone “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  3. Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • The computer output (copy) containing the information, such as CCTV footage, photo or video in a CD, can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly) mentioned in S. 65B(2) are satisfied, through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • A computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B if the computer was one not used regularly, or the information was one not ‘regularly fed’ into the computer in the ordinary course, etc., (as in the case of a photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.).
    • In such a case (photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.), we have to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65; because, if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly)  mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, then only the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’.
  4. Statements alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under S. 65B(4).
    • The statements (such as e-mail, call records of phones, bank account statements) alone can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under S. 65B(4). 
    • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not authenticity. Provision in Sec. 65B(4) that deals with authenticity/proof stands as an anomaly.
  5. Presumption as to correctness of the copy or print-out ‘produced by a computer’ under S. 65B(5)(c)
    • S. 65B(5)(c) lays down a presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer out-put, inasmuch as S. 65B(5)(c) lays down that ‘a computer out-put shall be taken to have been produced by a computer’. 

End Notes – 1

What is brought about by Section 65B, Evidence Act?

  1. Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act enables a litigant to prove computer output (derived from original – secondary evidence) ‘without further proof or production of electronic record’ (original), provided the conditions laid down in Sec. 65B(2) are fulfilled (such as: the computer was operating properly, the electronic record is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the activities, etc.). Sec. 65B declares that the computer output (copy or print out) ‘shall be deemed to be also a document‘.
    • The (general) provision, in the Evidence Act, to admit a copy of a document is Sec. 65. Under Sec. 65, it must be proved by evidence – oral evidence or affidavit – that one of the conditions laid down in the section, for production of copy, is satisfied (that is: loss of original, original with other side and notice given, etc.). Sec. 63, Evidence Act lays down the sorts of admissible copies (such as: certified copies, copies made from the original by mechanical processes etc.).
    • The non-obstante clause (‘notwithstanding anything’) in Sec. 65B, Evidence Act does not oust Sec. 63 and 65; Sec. 65B is only an added provisionto prove copy or print out.
      • Note: If the computer was one not used regularly, or the information was one not ‘regularly fed’ into the computer in the ordinary course, etc., Sec. 65B cannot be invoked (‘without further proof or production of the original’). E.g. photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’. In such a case, we have to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act.
  2. Still simpler provisions are introduced to prove ‘statements (call-records of phones, bank-account-statements, etc.), inasmuch as:
    • ‘Statements’ can be proved by a mere ‘certificate provided under Sec. 65B(4).
      • [Note: It is not made applicable to ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD (Contra view in Court decisions) ].
  3. There is presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer output (copy or print out) under Sec. 65B(5)(c), as it provides:
    • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

What is ‘certificate’, in law

  • The usual method to prove documents (both, existence and truth of contents) is giving oral evidence or furnishing affidavit. A certificate, in most cases, is an opinion, and prepared on the basis of other documents or evidences. In such cases, when it is an assumption or inference, it by itself, is not admissible, as it will only be, at the most, a secondary evidence. A Wound Certificate is not a substantive evidence. It has to be proved by a competent witness. If presumption cannot be invoked under Clause (e) of Sec. 114 Evidence Act (that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed), especially in the light of ‘best evidence rule’, no certificate or report can be taken as proved unless its contents are proved in a formal manner. (This is why Order XXVI rule 10 CPC specifically says – Commission Report shall ‘form part of the record’.)
  • Our Apex Court held in Dharmarajan v. Valliammal, 2008 (2) SCC 741, that ‘a certificate issued by the Tahsildar cannot be relied on without examining the Tahsildar who issued the same’. It is referred to in Pankajakshan Nair v. Shylaja, ILR 2017-1 Ker 951.

End Notes – 2

Landmark Decisions

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision.
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
    • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570): two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ), two- judge bench decision. Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision. It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is “clarified” and directed to “read” Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’  ”.
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
    • “What is clear from this judgment (Tomaso Bruno) is that the judgment of Anvar P. V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P. V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P. V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

End Notes – 3

Sec. 65A and Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act reads:

Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:

The CONTENTS of electronic records may be PROVED in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 

65B. Admissibility of electronic records

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence of any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

(2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—

  • (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer during the period over which the computer was used regularly to store or process information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer;
  • (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
  • (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
  • (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces (sic?) or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.

(3) Where over any period, the function of storing or processing information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by computers, whether—

  • (a) by a combination of computers operating over that period; or
  • (b) by different computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (c) by different combinations of computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (d) in any other manner involving the successive operation over that period, in whatever order, of one or more computers and one or more combinations of computers, all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.

(4) In any proceedings where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—

  • (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
  • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section
  • it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.

(5) For the purposes of this section,—

  • (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
  • (b) whether in the course of activities carried on by any official information is supplied with a view to its being stored or processed for the purposes of those activities by a computer operated otherwise than in the course of those activities, that information, if duly supplied to that computer, shall be taken to be supplied to it in the course of those activities;
  • (c) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section any reference to information being derived from other information shall be a reference to its being derived therefrom by calculation, comparison or any other process.



Read in this Cluster (Click on the Topic):

Book No. 1.   Handbook of a Civil Lawyer

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Does Alternate Remedy Bar Civil Suits and Writ Petitions?

Saji Koduvath.

1. If Effective alternate remedyCourt refuses relief

In Assistant Commissioner (CT) LTU, Kakinada v. Glaxo Smith Kline Consumer Health Care Limited, AIR 2020 SC 2819,  it is pointed out by our Apex Court that when  the aggrieved person has an effective alternate remedy available in law, normally, the courts will not entertain a Writ petition. It is observed in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that if the High Court is satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate or suitable relief elsewhere, it can refuse to exercise its jurisdiction.

See also:

  • Rashid Ahmed v. Municipal Board, Kairana, AIR 1950 SC 163.
  • G. Veerappa Pillai v. Raman & Raman Ltd., AIR 1952 SC 192;
  • C.A. Abraham v. ITO, (1961) 2 SCR 765: AIR 1961 SC 609;
  • First IT Officer, Salem v. Short Brothers (P) Ltd. (1966) 60 ITR 83(SC);
  • L. Hirday Narain v. Income Tax Officer, Bareilly, (1970) 78 ITR 26 (SC);
  • State of U.P. v. Indian Hume Pipe Co. Ltd. (1977) 2 SCC 724;
  • Munshi Ram v. Municipal Committee, Chheharta, (1979) 3 SCC 83;
  • Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433;
  • CCE v. Dunlop India Ltd., (1985) 1 SCC 260;
  • H.B. Gandhi v. Gopi Nath and Sons, 1992 Supp (2) SCC 312;
  • Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536;
  • Whirlpool Corpn. v. Registrar of Trade Marks, (1998) 8 SCC 1;
  • Tin Plate Co. of India Ltd. v. State of Bihar, (1998) 8 SCC 272;
  • Ramendra Kishore Biswas v. State of Tripura, (1999) 1 SCC 472;
  • Shivgonda Anna Patil v. State of Maharashtra, (1999) 3 SCC 5;
  • Sheela Devi v. Jaspal Singh, (1999) 1 SCC 209,  AIR 1999 SC 2859;
  • A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu v. S. Chellappan, (2000) 7 SCC 695;
  • Karnataka Chemical Industries v. Union of India, (2000) 10 SCC 13;
  • Punjab National Bank v. O.C. Krishnan, (2001) 6 SCC 569);
  • National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Nicolletta Rohtagi, (2002) 7 SCC 456;
  • Sadhana Lodh v. National Insurance Co. Ltd. (2003) 3 SCC 524;
  • Satya Pal Anand v. State of M.P. and Ors. ((2016)10 SCC 767;
  • Maharashtra Chess Assn. v. Union of India, 2019 SCC Online SC 932.

2. Alternative remedy not to operate as a bar in certain contingencies

Our Apex Court further observed in M/S Radha Krishan Industries v. The State of Himachal Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 334, that alternative remedy would not operate as a bar in certain contingencies. They include:

  • where, the statutory authority has not acted in accordance with the provisions of the law or
  • acted in defiance of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure; or
  • has resorted to invoke provisions, which are repealed; or
  • where an order has been passed in violation of the principles of natural justice.

Their Lordships quoted the following from Harbanslal Sahnia v. Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd. (2003) 2 SCC 107:

  • “7. So far as the view taken by the High Court that the remedy by way of recourse to arbitration clause was available to the appellants and therefore the writ petition filed by the appellants was liable to be dismissed is concerned, suffice it to observe that the rule of exclusion of writ jurisdiction by availability of an alternative remedy is a rule of discretion and not one of compulsion. In an appropriate case, in spite of availability of the alternative remedy, the High Court may still exercise its writ jurisdiction in at least three contingencies:
    • (i) where the writ petition seeks enforcement of any of the fundamental rights;
    • (ii) where there is failure of principles of natural justice; or
    • (iii) where the orders or proceedings are wholly without jurisdiction or the vires of an Act is challenged. (See: Whirlpool Corpn. v. Registrar of Trade Marks,(1998) 8 SCC 1 .)
  • The present case attracts applicability of the first two contingencies. Moreover, as noted, the appellants’ dealership, which is their bread and butter, came to be terminated for an irrelevant and non-existent cause. In such circumstances, we feel that the appellants should have been allowed relief by the High Court itself instead of driving them to the need of initiating arbitration proceedings.”

3. Appeal from “Caesar to Caesar’s wife”

In Ram and Shyam Co. vs. State of Haryana, (1985) 3 SCC 267 the Supreme Court has noticed that if an appeal is from “Caesar to Caesar’s wife” the existence of alternative remedy would be a mirage and an exercise in futility (referred to in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603; Shauntlabai Derkar v. Maroti Dewaji Wadaskar  2014-1 SCC 602).

4. Courts have wide discretionary powers in issuing Writs

It is pointed out in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that various Constitution Benches of the Apex Court have held that though Article 226 confers a very wide powers in the matter of issuing writs on the High Court, the remedy of writ absolutely discretionary in character.

  • See: K.S. Rashid vs. Income Tax Investigation Commission, AIR 1954 SC 207;
  • Sangram Singh vs. Election Tribunal, Kotah, AIR 1955 SC 425;
  • Union of India vs. T.R. Varma, AIR 1957 SC 882;
  • State of U.P. vs. Mohd. Nooh, AIR 1958 SC 86 and
  • K.S. Venkataraman and Co. (P) Ltd. vs. State of Madras, AIR 1966 SC 1089

5. If sufficient grounds, extraordinary jurisdiction under Art. 226 invoked

The Supreme Court has pointed out in U.P. State Spinning Co. Ltd. v. R.S. Pandey, (2005) 8 SCC 264, that the Constitution confers on all the High Courts a very wide power in the matter of issuing writs. However, the remedy of writ is an absolutely discretionary remedy and the High Court has always the discretion to refuse to grant any writ if it is satisfied that the aggrieved party can have an adequate or suitable relief elsewhere. The Court, in extraordinary circumstances, may exercise the power if it comes to the conclusion that there has been a breach of principles of natural justice or procedure required for decision has not been adopted.

As pointed out in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, the High Court must not interfere if there is an adequate efficacious alternative remedy available to the petitioner and he has approached the High Court without availing the same unless he has made out an exceptional case warranting such interference or there exist sufficient grounds to invoke the extraordinary jurisdiction under Article 226.

  • See also: Union of India v. T.R. Verma AIR 1957 SC 882;
  • State of U.P. vs. Mohammad Nooh, AIR 1958 SC 86;
  • Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. vs. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433;
  • Harbanslal Sahnia vs. Indian Oil Corpn. Ltd., (2003) 2 SCC 107;
  • State of H.P. vs. Gujarat Ambuja Cement Ltd., (2005) 6 SCC 499).

6. Non-entertainment of writ (when exists alternative remedy) is a self-imposed rule only

It is further observed in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that it is a settled law that non-entertainment of petitions under writ jurisdiction by the High Court when an efficacious alternative remedy is available, is a rule of self-imposed limitation. It is essentially a rule of policy, convenience and discretion rather than a rule of law. Undoubtedly, it is within the discretion of the High Court to grant relief under Article 226 despite the existence of an alternative remedy.

  • (Also See: Thansingh Nathmal v. Supdt. of Taxes, AIR 1964 SC 1419;
  • Nivedita Sharma vs. Cellular Operators Assn. of India, (2011) 14 SCC 337;
  • U.P. State Spinning Co. Ltd. v. R.S. Pandey, (2005) 8 SCC 264).

7. Breach of principles of natural justice or procedure

It is also observed in Commissioner of Income Tax v. Chhabil Dass Agarwal, 2014-1 SCC 603, that the Court, in extraordinary circumstances, may exercise the power in the following instances:

  1. where the statutory authority has not acted in accordance with the provisions of the enactment in question, or
  2. in defiance of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure, or
  3. has resorted to invoke the provisions which are repealed, or
  4. when an order has been passed in total violation of the principles of natural justice,
  • See also:
  • N.T. Veluswami Thevar vs. G. Raja Nainar, AIR 1959 SC 422;
  • Municipal Council, Khurai vs. Kamal Kumar, (1965) 2 SCR 653;
  • Trimbak Gangadhar Telang v. Ramchandra Ganesh Bhide, AIR 1977 SC 1222;
  • Siliguri Municipality vs. Amalendu Das, (1984) 2 SCC 436;
  • S.T. Muthusami vs. K. Natarajan, (1988) 1 SCC 572;
  • Rajasthan SRTC vs. Krishna Kant, (1995) 5 SCC 75;
  • Kerala SEB vs. Kurien E. Kalathil, (2000) 6 SCC 293;
  • A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu vs. S. Chellappan, (2000) 7 SCC 695;
  • L.L. Sudhakar Reddy vs. State of A.P., (2001) 6 SCC 634;
  • Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami (Moingiri Maharaj) Sahakari Dugdha Utpadak Sanstha vs. State of Maharashtra, (2001) 8 SCC 509;
  • Pratap Singh vs. State of Haryana, (2002) 7 SCC 484;
  • GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. vs. ITO, (2003) 1 SCC 72;
  • Union of India v. Guwahati Carbon Ltd. 2012 (11) SCC 651.

8. Civil Court can Examine ‘Non-compliance of Law’

Even when a tribunal is provided for reddressal of remedies, the civil courts will have jurisdiction to examine the allegation of non-compliance of the provisions of the statute or of any of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure. If the challenge is only as to the ‘erroneous’ character of the order, other than ‘jurisdictional error’, the suit will not be maintainable. (South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33).

When an order is passed by a statutory Land-Tribunal violating a mandatory provision, the order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity. The civil courts which are courts of “general jurisdiction” can decide whether a tribunal or authority exercising statutory jurisdiction has acted in excess or beyond the statutory powers. The civil courts can interfere when the order of the statutory tribunal or authority is really not an order under the Act conferring jurisdiction on it. In other words, if a tribunal abuses its power or does not act under the Act but in violation of its provisions (Firm Seth Radha Kishan v. Ludhiana Municipality AIR 1963 SC 1547), the jurisdiction of the civil court will not stand excluded.

Transgression of Jurisdiction Order Nullity

A certificate of purchase is issued and an order passed by the Land Tribunal without complying with the provisions of the Act and the Rules would be a nullity (Muhammed Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, 1993-1 KLT 227; Secretary, TDB VS Mohanan Nair, ILR 2013-2 Ker883; P. N. Viswambaran v. T. P. Sanu, AIR 2018  Ker 116).

In Muhammed Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, 1993-1 KLT 227(FB),  it was found that the order passed by the Land Tribunal under the Kerala Land Reforms Act  was illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity and that the order was of no legal effect for the provisions of the Act and the Rules have not been complied with and the fundamental principles of judicial procedure, as required by the Act, were totally contravened. In such cases, it was pointed out, the jurisdiction of the civil court was not excluded as stated by the Privy Council in Secretary of State v. Mask & Co. (AIR 1940 PC 105) and Ram Swarup’s case (AIR 1966 SC 893).

Similarly, the ultimate decision can be challenged, in spite of finality and exclusionary clauses (or provision for appeal/revision), if the jurisdiction had been (wrongly) assumed by the tribunal, where it did not exist, and the decision was not a decision under the Act, but a nullity. (Muhammad Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, AIR  1993 Ker 104 – tribunal proceeded without issuing notice; Prasannakumar V. State of Kerala, Laws(Ker) 2014-10-127 – the statutory Land tribunal proceeded upon an exempted temple land illegally assuming jurisdiction; Travancore Devaswom Board v. Mohanan Nair, ILR 2013- 2 Ker 883).

It was observed in Mathew v. Taluk Land Board, AIR 1979 SC 1573 that the certificate of purchase issued under the Kerala Land Reforms Act was not conclusive proof of the assignment of the right, as provided under the Act, when title and interest of the landowner had been conferred, under the Act, in favour of the holder when it was found inaccurate on its face or when it is shown that it has been obtained by playing fraud (Relied on in: Ahmmed Kutty v. Mariakutty Umma, 2000 (1) KLT 829 (SC); Mathilakath Skaria VS Mathilakath Joseph, 2013 1 KHC 293; 2013 1 KLJ 410; P. N. Viswambaran v. T. P. Sanu, AIR 2018  Ker 116).

9. If disputed questions of fact, courts decline jurisdiction in a writ petition

It is observed in M/S Radha Krishan Industries vs The State Of Himachal Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 334, that where there are disputed questions of fact, the High Court may decide to decline jurisdiction in a writ petition; and it is pointed out that this principle have been consistently upheld by the Apex Court in Seth Chand Ratan v Pandit Durga Prasad, (2003) 5 SCC 399, Babubhai Muljibhai Patel v Nandlal Khodidas Barot, (1974) 2 SCC 706 , and Rajasthan SEB v. Union of India, (2008) 5 SCC 632, etc.

10. Important Legal Propositions on Jurisdiction of Civil Courts, Under Sec. 9 CPC

  • 1. When Right or Liability exists at common law, and is re-enacted by the statute with a special forum for efficacious remedy and civil court remedy is expressly barred, there will be an implied bar for civil courts.
  • Eg. Bylaws of a society provides for efficacious redressal of remedies on wrongful expulsion from a club and the bye laws states that the decisions of that authority is final.
  • 2. When Right or Liability exists at common law, and is re-enacted by the statute with a special forum for efficacious remedy and civil court remedy is not expressly barred, there will be an election of forum (that special forum or civil courts).
  • Municipal law provides for leaving a particular distance from the boundary so that no nuisance of obstructing light be caused to a neighbor by the building construction (a right exists in common law).
  • 3. New rights conferred by enacted laws (not pre-existing in common law) also provides the machinery for enforcement of such right or liability or for adjudication of disputes, then, even in the absence of an exclusionary provision, the jurisdiction of the civil court will be stood barred by necessary implication. (Raja Ram Kumar Bhargava (Dead) By LRs v. Union of India, (1988) 1 SCC 681; Quoted in South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33).
  • 4. Noncompliance of fundamental principles of law – civil courts will have jurisdiction. Despite express bar, if the decision of the authority under challenge is in:
    • (i)    non-compliance of fundamental principles of law (like, natural justice),
    • (ii)   non-compliance of fundamental principles of (that or any other) statute or
    • (iii)  without jurisdiction (like, Village Officer takes decision where the Collector has to) civil courts will have jurisdiction
    • (iv) where the plea of illegality raised before the Civil Court goes to the root of the matter and would, if upheld, lead to the conclusion that the impugned order is a nullity (Ram Swamp v. Shikar Chand, AIR 1966 SC 893).
      • Eg. Rights to vote in an election, candidature (under Acts or Bylaws);
      • Right to Ration under Ration Supply Laws.

11. The fundamentals of these principles are laid down in the following two decisions:

  • 1. Wolverhampton New Waterworks Co. v. Hawkesford, [1859] 6 C. B. (NS) 336: 28 LJ CP 242: 141 ER 486. It is observed as under:
    • “One is where there was a liability existing at common law, and that liability is affirmed by a Statute which gives a special and peculiar form of remedy different from the remedy which existed at common law: there, unless the Statute contains words which expressly or by necessary implication exclude the common law remedy the party suing has his election to pursue either that or the statutory remedy. The second class of cases is, where the Statute gives the right to sue merely, but provides, no particular form of remedy: there, the party can only proceed by action at common law. But there is a third class, viz., where a liability not existing at common law is created by a Statute which at the same time gives a special and particular remedy for enforcing it…….. The remedy provided by the Statute must be followed and it is not competent to the party to pursue the course applicable to cases of the second class.”
  • 2. It is observed by Lord Thankerton in The Secretary of State vs Mask and Co., AIR 1940 PC 105, as under:
    • “It is settled law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil courts is not to be readily inferred, but that such exclusion must either be explicitly expressed or clearly implied. It is also well settled that even if jurisdiction is so excluded, the civil courts have jurisdiction to examine into cases where the provisions of the Act have not been complied with, or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principle of judicial procedure.”
  • (See: Titaghur Paper Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Orissa, (1983) 2 SCC 433;
  • South Delhi Municipal Corporation Vs. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt. Ltd., 2019-11 SCALE 33;
  • Zenith Steel Tubes and Industries Ltd Vs. Sicom Litd. AIR 2008  SC 451;
  • Devinder Singh Vs. State of Haryana, AIR 2006 SC 2850;
  • Mafatlal Industries Limited Vs. Union Of India, 1997-5 SCC 536;
  • Pandurang Ramchandra Mandlik Vs. Shantibai Ramchandra Ghatge, AIR 1989 SC 2240)

12. Dhulabhai v. State of MP, AIR 1969 SC 78

Hidayatullah, J. in Dhulabhai v. State of MP observed as to uster of jurisdiction of the civil courts as follows:

  • (1) Where the Statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the Civil Courts’ jurisdiction must be held to be excluded if there is adequate remedy to do what the Civil Courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, does not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • (2) Where there is an express bar of the jurisdiction of the Court, an examination of the scheme of the particular Act to find the adequacy or the sufficiency of the remedies provided may be relevant but is not decisive to sustain the jurisdiction of the Civil Court.
  • Where there is no express exclusion the examination of the remedies and the scheme of the particular Act to find out the intendment becomes necessary and the result of the inquiry may be decisive. In the latter case it is necessary to see if the Statute creates a special right or a liability and provides for the determination of the right or liability and further lays down that all questions about the said right and liability shall be determined by the tribunals so constituted, and whether remedies normally associated with actions in Civil Courts are prescribed by the said Statute or not.
  • (3) Challenge to the provisions of the particular Act as ultra vires cannot be brought before Tribunals constituted under that Act. Even the High Court cannot go into that question on a revision or reference from the decision of the Tribunals.
  • (4) When a provision is already declared unconstitutional. or the constitutionality of any provision is to be challenged, a suit is open. A writ of certiorari may include a direction for refund if the claim is clearly within the time prescribed by the Limitation Act but it is not a compulsory remedy to replace a suit.
  • (5) Where the particular Act contains no machinery for refund of tax collected in excess of constitutional limits or illegally collected a suit lies.
  • (6) Questions of the correctness of the assessment apart from its constitutionality are for the decision of the authorities and a civil suit does not lie if the orders of the authorities are declared to be final or there is an express prohibition in the particular Act. In either case the scheme of the particular Act must be examined because it is a relevant enquiry.
  • (7) An exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is not readily to be inferred unless the conditions above set down apply.

These propositions are emphasised further in several Supreme Court decisions including the following:

  • Premier Automobiles Limited v. Kamalakar Shantharam Wadke, (1995) 5 SCC 75,
  • Rajasthan State Road Transport Corpn. v. Krishna Kant, AIR 1995 SC 1715,
  • Mafatlal Industries Ltd. v. Union of India, (1997) 5 SCC 536.

13. Construction in Violation of Municipal Building Regulation

In K. Ramdas Shenoy v. Chief Officer, Town Municipal Council, Udipi, AIR 1974 SC 2177, the Apex Court held as follows:

  • “An illegal construction of a cinema building materially affects the right to of enjoyment of the property by persons residing in the residential area. The Municipal Authorities owe a duty and obligation under the statute to see that the residential areas is not spoilt by unauthorized construction. The scheme is for the benefit of the residents of the locality. The Municipality acts in aid of the scheme. The rights of the residents in the area are invaded by an illegal construction of a cinema building. It has to be remembered that a scheme in residential area means planned orderliness in accordance with the requirements of the residents. If the scheme is nullified by arbitrary acts in excess and derogation of the powers of the Municipality the courts will quash orders passed by Municipalities in such cases.”

A person who is affected by neighbour’s illegal construction which is in infraction of a Municipal regulation will have the locus to maintain a suit for perpetual injunction. The Kerala High Court, in Saina v. Konderi, AIR 1984 Ker 170, turned down the argument that the matters concerning violation of the Municipal Rules are entirely rest in the look-out of the local authority. It was observed that unless, by express words or by necessary implication, he is debarred (Sec. 9 CPC) from doing so, the civil court would have jurisdiction if there was violation of Building Rules. Finally, it is held that the law recognises a citizen’s right to institute a suit with a view to ensure effective implementation of the Municipal regulations, such as the Buildings Rules, even in the absence of a specific personal injury to the person suing. The High Court quoted Lord Wright in (1868) 4 Ex. 43 where it was said:

  • “If you have an infringement of a legal right there is a right of action without actual damage being proved….  Where you have an interference with a legal right, the law presumes damage.”

Referring the Kerala decision, it is observed in Sindhu Education Society v. Municipal Corporation of City of Ulhasnagar, AIR 2001 Bom 145 and in Fatima v. Village Panchayat of Merces, AIR 2000 Bom 444, that the citizens will have the right to enforce Rules through Court if the Municipal Corporation fails to perform its duty and that courts in India has the duty to see that the law is obeyed and not violated.

(See also: Babulal Shivlal Upadhye v. Yadav Atmaram Joshi, 1994-2 Bom CR 583; 1994-2 MahLR 869; 1994-1 MhLJ 256; D.  Thomas v. N.  Thomas1999-2 MLJ 260;Musstt Anjira Khatoon Hazarika v. Tapan Kumar Das: 2015-1 GauLR 133.)

Andhra Pradesh High Court held in Bhagwan Das v. Harish ChetwalIt, as quoted in Sarada Bai v. Shakuntala Bai, AIR 1993 AP 20, as under:

  • “The pronouncement of the Supreme Court in K.R. Shenoy v. Udipi Municipality emboldens us to take a view at variance with the one expressed by a Division Bench of this Court in Kamalamma v. Subba Rao and so hold that an individual, be he a neighbour or one of a class of persons where the infraction of a right is involved and complained of, is certainly clothed with a right to invoke the jurisdiction of a Civil Court not only to enforce the obligations and duties was on the concerned authorities, but also subject the individual or class of individuals to conform to the obligations of the statute.
  • If that be so, it presents no difficulty in answering one of the questions raised in this case, viz., whether it would be competent for the neighbour, namely, the petitioners herein to enforce the obligation cast on the Municipal Corporation to remove the structures constructed in contravention of the statutory provisions; and to seek a direction against an individual, plaintiff herein to conform to the obligation laid down in Chapter XII of the Act and to demolish any construction made in contravention thereof, either by way of a civil proceeding or seeking mandamus under Article 226 of the Constitution. The answer is quite apparent and it is in the affirmative.”

15. Liquor Shop causing Public Nuisance

The question that required consideration in D.  Thomas v. N.  Thomas, 1999-2 MLJ 260 was whether the civil court had jurisdiction to entertain suit for permanent prohibitory injunction restraining defendants from conducting a liquor shop for apprehended injury of public nuisance to the residents of locality. The plaintiffs filed the suit in representative capacity under Order 1, Rule 8 of the CPC. The defendants resisted the suit on the ground that it was barred under Sec. 56 of Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act. In this decision the court held as under:

  • “Under Specific Relief Act, a suit to prevent the nuisance is maintainable under Secs. 38 and 39. Plaintiff is also entitled to file a suit for perpetual prohibitory and mandatory injunction from causing any nuisance. Nuisance is an act of omission which is an interference with, disturbance of or annoyance to a person in the exercise or enjoyment of (a) a right belonging to him as a member of the public, when it is a public nuisance, or (b) his ownership or occupation of land or of some easement, quasi-easement, or other right used or enjoyed in connection with land, when it is a private nuisance.
  •  Whether it is public or private, it is common law right and the suit to prevent the occurrence of nuisance is also a suit of civil nature. So the enforcement of such civil right can be had through court.”
  • “Plaintiffs are not claiming any right under Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act and what want to enforce is only a common law right. I do not find any prohibition under Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act that the common law right to prevent a nuisance is taken away by any other provisions of Prohibition Act. Plaintiffs are not claiming any right by virtue of statute which creates a right for do they want enforcement of such a right created by statute. To prevent a person from committing nuisance is all along a common law right and that could be enforced de hors the enactment of Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act.”

16. Forum for Enforcement of Right like Avoidance of Nuisance

It was held in Saraswathi v. Lachanna (1994)1 SCC 611, while considering bar of suit, that the court had to see where a particular act creates a right and also provides a forum for enforcement of such right and bars the jurisdiction of the civil court, then ouster of the civil court jurisdiction had to be upheld. But the situation will be different where the statute neither creates the right in question nor provides any remedy or having created any right or liability no forum for adjudication of any dispute arising out or such right or liability is provided. In such a situation, the ouster of the civil courts jurisdiction is not to be easily inferred.

In D.  Thomas v. N.  Thomas, 1999-2 MLJ 260, a suit filed in representative capacity under O.1, Rule 8 of the CPC, it was observed that prevention of nuisance is not a matter to be decided by authorities under the Act and that for considering location of shop, certain guidelines were given under Rule 18. Though they were not exhaustive, it was clear that authorities under Prohibition Act could not adjudicate private rights of a citizen. So long as plaintiffs were not claiming right under the Act, nor the right to prevent nuisance was created under the Act, there could not be bar under Sec. 9 of Code of Civil Procedure read with Sec. 56 of Tamil Nadu Prohibition Act.



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Evidence Act

Constitution

Contract Act

Easement

Club/Society/Trust

When ‘Possession Follows Title’; When ‘Title Follows Possession’?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Inquisition.

  • Whether Section 110, Indian Evidence Act follows the principle ‘Title Follows Possession’? (Section 110: When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner)
    • Note: Section 110 is pertained to ownership; and NOT, title’.
  • Whether Section 114 admits both ‘Title Follows Possession’ and ‘Possession Follows Title’? (Section 114: The court may ‘presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of natural events, human conduct, etc.)
    • Note: The principles ‘Title Follows Possession’ and ‘Possession Follows Title’ apply only when the facts disclose no title/possession, as the case may be, in either of the disputants.

Introduction.

The legal principles, ‘Possession Follows Title’ and ‘Title Follows Possession’, are Rules of Evidence. (In grammar – ‘B follows A’ means ‘A comes before B’ or ‘A is followed by B’.) They are applied in cases where there are no sufficient and independent evidence to prove possession or title, as the case may be.

Under S. 110 Evidence Act, ownership is presumed on the proof of possession. It ‘follows from well settled principle of law that normally, unless contrary is established, title always follows possession’ (Chuharmal v.  Commissioner of Income Tax, M P, AIR  1988 SC 1384; 1988 3 SCC 588).

S. 114 Evidence Act, expressly permits the court to ‘presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of natural events, human conduct and public and private business, in their relation to the facts of the particular case’. Therefore, by virtue of Sec. 114,

  • (i) possession can be presumed on the basis of title (possession follows title), and
  • (ii) title/ownership can be presumed on the basis of possession (title follows possession).

Read Blog (Cllic): POSSESSION is a Substantive Right in Indian Law

S. 110 Evidence Act & the Principle, ‘Title Follows Possession’

Section 110 of the Evidence Act, 1872, reads as under:

  • “110. Burden of proof as to ownership.—When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner.”

This section deals with the burden of proof as to ownership – when a question arises as to whether a person in possession of anything is the owner of such thing. There, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who avers that he is not the owner.

In State of A.P. v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319, the Apex Court held that the object of Section 110 is based on public policy. The object is to prevent persons from committing a breach of peace by taking the law into their own hands however good their title may be over the land in question. This object underlies provisions such as Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act 1963, Section 145 of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973 and Sections 154 and 158 of the Indian Penal Code 1860.

In M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, it is observed as under:

  •  “784. Section 110 deals with the burden of proof – Where the provision applies, the burden of proving that another person who is in possession is not the owner lies on the person who affirms against the ownership of that other person. But, for Section 110 to be attracted, there must be a question as to whether any person is the owner of anything and the ownership claimed must be that of which he is shown to be in possession. Section 110 is based on the principle that title follows possession. That is why the provision postulates that where a person is shown to be in possession, and a question arises as to whether that person is the owner, the law casts the burden of disproving ownership on the individual who affirms that the person in possession is not the owner.”
  • “785. Several decisions of this Court have interpreted the provisions of Section 110. Section 110 is based on the principle that possession in and of itself may raise a presumption of title. But this applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, as it is said, possession alone decides. Hence, on the other hand, it is also well-settled that the presumption cannot be arise when the facts are known.”

The Apex Court, in M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, relied on Nair Service Society v. Fr. KC Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, wherein it was observed that when no title in either of the disputants, ‘possession alone decides’.

S. 110 Attracted only if possession is Not ‘prima facie’ Wrongful

In Municipality Indore v. Gopalpuri, AIR 1956 MB 70, it is pointed out as under:

  • “The presumption under Section 110 would apply only if the conditions are satisfied, viz., that the possession of the plaintiff is not ‘prima facie’ wrongful, and, secondly, the title of the defendant is not proved.”

‘Possession is good against all but the True Owner’ & Sec. 6 of the Sp. Relief Act

The principle ‘Possession is Good against all but the True Owner’ is declared in Parry v. Clissold, (1907) AC 73. In this decision it was also pointed out that if the rightful owner did not come forward and assert his title within the period of limitation, his right would be extinguished and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.

The Supreme Court of India while accepting this principle in Nair Service Society Ltd. vs. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, pointed out that the law in India allows a plaintiff to maintain a possessory suit under Sec. 9 (preset Sec. 6) of the Specific Relief Act. Such a suit can be filed against a title holder, if he had dispossessed the plaintiff ‘otherwise than in due course of law’.

Sec. 6 of the Specific Relief Act reads as under:

  • 6. Suit by person dispossessed of immovable property.
  • (1) If any person is dispossessed without his consent of immovable property otherwise than in due course of law, he or any person claiming through him may, by suit, recover possession thereof, notwithstanding any other title that may be set up in such suit.
  • (2) No suit under this section shall be brought
    • (a) after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession; or
    • (b) against the Government.
  • (3) No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section, nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed.
  • (4) Nothing in this section shall bar any person from suing to establish his title to such property and to recover possession thereof.

In Nair Service Society Ltd. vs. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, it is observed as under:

  • “17. … To express our meaning we may begin by reading 1907 AC 73 (Perry V. Clissold), to discover if the principle that possession is good against all but the true owner has in any way been departed from.
  • 1907 AC 73 reaffirmed the principle by stating quite clearly:
    • “It cannot be disputed that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner. And if the rightful owner does not come forward and assert his title by the process of law within the period prescribed by the provisions of the statute of Limitation applicable to the case, his right is for ever extinguished and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.”
  • Therefore, the plaintiff who was peaceably in possession was entitled to remain in possession and only the State could evict him. The action of the Society was a violent invasion of his possession and in the law as it stands in India the plaintiff could maintain a possessory suit under the provisions of the Specific Relief Act in which title would be immaterial or a suit for possession within 12 years in which the question of title could be raised.”

If Title not Perfected by Adver. Posn, Can one eject a Trespasser After 6 Months

High Courts differ, as pointed out in Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179.

Now it is settled that if one fails to exercise his option by filing a suit under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act within six months, he is at liberty to file a suit to recover his possession (with or without declaration) by a regular suit for recovery of possession. It can be based on title or on his possession in assumed or presumed character of ownership (even if title not perfected by doctrine of adverse possession) on the principle that possession is good title against all the world but the rightful owner. See: Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179; Kanti Lal v. Smt. Shanti Devi, AIR 1997 Raj 230.

Sec. 110 is invoked on Ownership; and NOT on ‘title

 Section 110 of the Evidence Act, 1872, speaks of the burden of proof as to ownership (contra-distinct to title): when a question arises as to whether a person in possession of anything is the owner of such thing, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is cast on the person who avers that he is not the owner. Though it appears to be based on the principle ‘Title Follows Possession’, what is decisively articulated in this section is ‘ownership’; and not title.

M.  Siddiq  v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, lays down (paras 784 and 785 – quoted above) the following:

  • For Section 110 to be attracted, there must be a question as to ownership of anything.
  • Section 110 deals with the burden of proof.
  • The ‘thing’ must be in possession of one individual.
  • That individual is presumed to be the owner (on the principle that ‘title follows possession’. That is, possession in and of itself may raise a presumption of title.)
  • Section 110 applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, possession alone decides (presumption cannot be invoked when the facts are known).
  • The law casts the burden of disproving ownership on that individual in the person who affirms that the individual in possession is not the owner.

As signified in Sec. 110, Evidence Act, in law, ownership alone can be presumed; and not title. Title is the legal and authoritative expression of ownership; or, it is the legal recognition of a right. No doubt, it is true, one can acquire title by adverse possession. But, it is said to be inchoate until the such title is upheld by a competent court.

When Sec. 110 is invoked

It is held in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, AIR 2003 SC 1805, that Section 110 embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership, and that the presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted:

  • “when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title“.

The Supreme Court observed further as under:

  • ““Section 110 of the Evidence Act reads thus:
    • “110. Burden of proof as to ownership.-When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner.”
  • It embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership. The presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title.
  • This Court in Nair Service Society Limited v. K.C. Alexander and Ors., A.I.R. (1968) S.C. 1165 observed,
    • “the possession may prima facie raise a presumption of title no one can deny but this presumption can hardly arise when the facts are known, when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides.”
  • The pattedars proved their possession of the lands in question from 1312 Fasli (1902 A.D.) as pattedars. There is long and peaceful enjoyment of the lands in question but no proof of conferment of patta on the late Raja and the facts relating to acquisition of title are not known. The appellant- State could not prove its title to the lands. On these facts, the presumption under Section 110  of the Evidence Act applies and the appellants have to prove that the pattedars are not the owners. The appellants placed no evidence on record to rebut the presumption. Consequently, the pattedars, title to the land in question has to be upheld.”
  • But SeeNotes below under the following headings:
    • When the principles in Sec. 110 and 114 CANNOT be invoked
    • Mutation will not confer ‘title’” and
    • Revenue Records Do Not Confer Presumptive Value on Title

This principle in Section 110 of the Evidence Act is usually adopted in cases where it is not independently possible to prove possession (i) due to the nature of the property or (ii) due to the extent of the property available (Devasia @ Kutty v. Jose, 2014-4 KLJ 41; 2014-3 KLT(SN) 50).

It is held in Nazir Mohamed v. J.  Kamala, AIR 2020 SC 4321, as under:

  • “52. The maxim “possession follows title” is limited in its application to property, which having regard to its nature, does not admit to actual and exclusive occupation, as in the case of open spaces accessible to all. The presumption that possession must be deemed to follow title, arises only where there is no definite proof of possession by anyone else.” 

When ‘Possession Follows Title invoked

In Jones v. Chopman, (1849) 2 Ex. 803: 18 LJ Ex. 456: 76 PR 794; Maule, J, expounded the doctrine ‘Possession Follows Title’ as under:

  • “If there are two persons in a field, each asserting that the field is his, and each doing some act in the assertion of the right of possession, and if the question is, which of these two is in actual possession, I answer, the person who has the title is in actual possession and the other person is a trespasser. In such a case who is in possession is to be determined by the fact of the title and having the same apparent actual possession; The question as to which of the two really is in possession is determined by the fact of the possession; following the title, that is by the law, which makes it follow the title.” (Mitra quoted it in “Law of Possession and Ownership of Property”, as pointed out in Indore Development Authority vs. Manoharlal, (2020) 8 SCC 129)

In Indore Development Authority vs. Manoharlal, (2020) 8 SCC 129, Arun Misra, J. pointed out as to possession as under:

  • “247. The concept of possession is complex one. It comprises the right to possess and to exclude others, essential is animus possidendi. Possession depends upon the character of the thing which is possessed. If the land is not capable of any use, mere non-user of it does not lead to the inference that the owner is not in possession. The established principle is that the possession follows title. Possession comprises of the control over the property. The element of possession is the physical control or the power over the object and intention or will to exercise the power. Corpus and animus are both necessary and have to co-exist.”

It held further:

  • “251. A person with title is considered to be in actual possession. The other person is a trespasser. The possession in law follows the right to possess as held in Kynoch Limited v. Rowlands, (1912) 1Ch 527. Ordinarily, the owner of the property is presumed to be in possession and presumption as to possession is in his favour.”

Sec. 114 Evidence ActTitle Follows Possession & Possession Follows Title

In M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1, the Apex Court quoted the following from State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319 where Justice B.S. Chauhan explained as under:

  • ‘21…..The said presumption is read under Section 114 of the Evidence Act and applies only in a case where there is either no proof, or very little proof of ownership on either side. The maxim – possession follows title – is applicable in cases where proof of actual possession cannot reasonably be expected, for instance, in the case of wastelands, or where nothing is known about possession one way or another.
  • Presumption of title as a result of possession, can arise only where facts disclose that no title vests in any party. Possession of the plaintiff is not prima facie wrongful, and title of the plaintiff is not proved. It certainly does not mean that because a man has title over some land, he is necessarily in possession of it. It in fact means, that if at any time a man with title was in possession of the said property, the law allows the presumption that such possession was in continuation of the title vested in him.
  • A person must establish that he has continued possession of the suit property, while the other side claiming title, must make out a case of trespass/ encroachment, etc.
  • Where the apparent title is with the plaintiffs, it is incumbent upon the defendant, that in order to displace this claim of apparent title and to establish beneficial title in himself, he must establish by way of satisfactory evidence, circumstances that favour his version.
  • Even, a revenue record is not a document of title. It merely raises a presumption in regard to possession.
  • Presumption of possession and/or continuity thereof, both forward and backward, can also be raised under Section 110 of the Evidence Act.’ ”

In Anathula Sudhakar  v. Buchi Reddy, AIR 2008 SC 2033, Apex Court held as under:

  • “But what if the property is a vacant site, which is not physically possessed, used or enjoyed? In such cases the principle is that possession follows title. If two persons claim to be in possession of a vacant site, one who is able to establish title thereto will be considered to be in possession, as against the person who is not able to establish title. This means that even though a suit relating to a vacant site is for a mere injunction and the issue is one of possession, it will be necessary to examine and determine the title as a prelude for deciding the de jure possession.”

In Arumaraj Devadhas v. K. Sundaram Nadar, 2009-17 SCC 467, also it was held that the principle possession follows title applies in vacant land. This principle is applied in ‘open space‘ in Praprai N Kothari Vs. John Braganza, AIR 1999 SC 1666 and in Rajendar Singh Vs. Santa Singh, AIR 1973 SC 2537. In Naval Shankar Ishwarlal Dave v. State of Gujarat, AIR 1994 SC 1496,  the Apex Court observed that it was ‘settled law that in respect of open land, title follows possession’. In  Kashi Bai v. Sudha Rani Ghose, AIR 1958 SC 434, it was observed that when the land was vacant and was lying open, it was presumed to be that of the owner (possession follows title).

Possession Follows Title and Adverse Possession

It is held in MS Jagadambal v. Southern Indian Education Trust, 1988 (Supp) SCC 144 that the possession continues with the title holder unless and until the defendant acquires title by adverse possession (possession follows title). In LN Aswathama v. P Prakash, 2009-13 SCC 229, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In law, possession follows title. The plaintiffs having established title to the suit property, will be entitled to decree for possession, unless their right to the suit property was extinguished, by reason of defendant being in adverse possession for a period of twelve years prior to the suit.”

When the principles in Sec. 110 and 114 CANNOT be invoked

As we find in M.  Siddiq  v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, Section 110 or the principle ‘title follows possession‘ applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, possession alone decides (presumption cannot be invoked when the facts are known). But, with respect to the principle ‘possession follows title‘, as we find in Anathula Sudhakar  v. Buchi Reddy, AIR 2008 SC 2033, if only title is proved by one party, then only the principle ‘possession follows title’ comes in.

It is equally important that both these principles on presumption, ‘possession follows title’ and ‘title follows possession’, cannot be invoked in cases where:

  • (i) the defendants do not claim title/possession to the suit property (Devasia @ Kutty v. Jose, 2014-4 KLJ 41; 2014-3 KLT(SN) 50).
  • (ii) the facts (on title/possession) are known (M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1), or
  • there is evidence of independent possession/title (Bhavnagar Municipality Vs. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 717).

Possession is a Good Title of right Against any one who cannot Show a Better

In Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813, our Apex Court explained the principle ‘possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better’ as under:

  • “9. The law in India, as it has developed, accords with jurisprudential thought as propounded by luminaries like Salmond. Salmond on Jurisprudence states:­
    • “These two concepts of ownership and possession, therefore, may be used to distinguish between the de facto possessor of an object and its de jure owner, between the man who actually has it and the man who ought to have it. They serve also to contract the position of one whose rights are ultimate, permanent and residual with that of one whose rights are only of a temporary nature.
    • x x x x x In English law possession is a good title of right against any one who cannot show a better. A wrongful possessor has the rights of an owner with respect to all persons except earlier possessors and except the true owner himself. Many other legal systems, however, go much further than this, and treat possession as a provisional or temporary title even against the true owner himself. Even a wrongdoer, who is deprived of his possession, can recover it from any person whatever, simply on the ground of his possession. Even the true owner, who takes his own, may be forced in this way to  restore it to the wrongdoer, and will not be permitted to set up his own superior title to it. He must first give up possession, and then proceed in due course of law for the recovery of the thing on the ground of his ownership. The intention of the law is that every possessor shall be entitled to retain and recover his possession, until deprived of it by a judgment according to law.
    • Legal remedies thus appointed for the protection of possession even against ownership are called possessory, while those available for the protection of ownership itself may be distinguished as proprietary. In the modern and medieval civil law the distinction is expressed by the contrasted terms petitorium (a proprietary suit) and possessorium (a possessory suit).”
  • 10. As far back as 1924, in the case of Midnapur Zamindary Co. Ltd. v. Naresh Narayan Roy, AIR 1924 PC 144, the learned Judge observed that in India, persons are not permitted to take forcible possession; they must obtain such possession as they are entitled to through a court. Later, in the case of Nair Service Society Ltd. v. K.C. Alexander, AIR 1968 SC 1165, this Court ruled that when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides. It was further held that if Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act, 1877 (corresponding to the present Section6) is employed, the plaintiff need not prove title and the title of the defendant does not avail him. When, however, the period of six months has passed, questions of title can be raised by the defendant, and if he does so the plaintiff must establish a better title or fail. In other words, such a right is only restricted to possession in a suit under Section 9 of the Specific Relief Act (corresponding to the present Section 6) but does not bar a suit on prior possession within 12 years from the date of dispossession, and title need not be proved unless the defendant can provide one.
  • 11. It was also observed by this Court in Nair Service Society Ltd (supra) that a person in possession of land in assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against the entire world except the rightful owner. In such a case, the defendant must show in himself or his predecessor a valid legal title and probably a possession prior to the plaintiff’s, and thus be able to raise a presumption prior in time.”

Settled Possession and Established Possession

In A. Subramanian v. R. Pannerselvam, AIR 2021 SC 821, the Supreme Court held that even a trespasser, who is in established possession of the property could obtain injunction. But, it was cautioned that the matter would be different, if the plaintiff himself elaborated in the plaint about title dispute and fails to make a prayer for declaration of title along with injunction relief.

In Poona Ram v. Moti Ram, AIR 2019 SC 813, it was pointed out in a case where there was no document to prove settled possession that ‘merely on doubtful material and cursory evidence, it cannot be held that the plaintiff was ever in possession of the property, and that too in settled possession’. It held further as under:

  • “13. The crux of the matter is that a person who asserts possessory title over a particular property will have to show that he is under settled or established possession of the said property. But merely stray or intermittent acts of trespass do not give such a right against the true owner. Settled possession means such possession over the property which has existed for a sufficiently long period of time, and has been acquiesced to by the true owner. A casual act of possession does not have the effect of interrupting the possession of the rightful owner. A stray act of trespass, or a possession which has not matured into settled possession, can be obstructed or removed by the true owner even by using necessary force. Settled possession must be (i) effective,(ii) undisturbed, and (iii) to the knowledge of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser. There cannot be a straitjacket formula to determine settled possession. Occupation of a property by a person as an agent or a servant acting at the instance of the owner will not amount to actual legal possession. The possession should contain an element of animus possidendi. The nature of possession of the trespasser is to be decided based on the facts and circumstances of each case.”

See Blog (Click): Declaration and Injunction

Nature of Property and Claim of Occupant Whether Bona Fide were Determinative Factors

In Government of A.P. v. Thummala Krishna Rao, (1982) 2 SCC 134,  the question considered was whether summary remedy for evicting a person provided for by section 6 of the Andhra Pradesh Land Encroachment Act, 1905, could be resorted to. It was pointed out

  • the duration of encroachment, short or long, was not the determinative matter
  • what was relevant for the decision was more the nature of the property and
  • whether the claim of the occupant was bona fide.

It was also found that if there was bona fide dispute, on title between the Government and the occupant, it must be adjudicated upon by the Ordinary courts of law. The Government cannot decide such questions unilaterally in its own favour and evict any person summarily. Duration of occupation would be relevant requiring an impartial adjudication according to the established procedure of law, if the person –

  • occupied openly for an appreciable length of time and
  • could be taken, prima facie, to have a bonafide claim to the property.

Possession is Heritable and Transferable

Possession by itself is a substantive right recognised by law. It is heritable and transferable. (Kuttan Narayanan v. Thomman Mathayi, AIR 1966 Ker 179; Phirayalal Kapur Vs. Jia Rani, AIR 1973 Delhi 186; Nallammal Vs. Ayisha Beevi, 2017-5 Mad LJ 864). 

Injunction is a Possessory Remedy.

Courts protect settled possession (Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, 2004-1 SCC 769). Injunction is a possessory remedy. (See: Ladies Corner, Bangalore vs State of Karnataka, ILR 1987 KAR 1710, 1987 (1) KarLJ 402. Patil Exhibitors (Pvt.) Ltd. vs The Corporation of The City (M Venikatachaliah, J.) : AIR 1986 Kant 194, ILR 1985 KAR 3700, 1985 (2) KarLJ 533. Referred to in Chetak Constructions Vs. Om Prakash, AIR 2003 MP 145. )

But, an injunction cannot be issued against a true owner or title holder and in favour of a trespasser or a person in unlawful possession. See: Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji vs Maniben Jagmalbhai: 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258.

See Blog: Civil Rights and Jurisdiction of Civil Courts

Kesar Bai v. Genda Lal – HC and SC Approached in different Perspectives

Kesar Bai v. Genda Lal, 2022-10 SCC 217, arose from a suit seeking declaration of ownership and permanent injunction. The findings of the High Court were the following:

  • the plea of ownership claimed by the plaintiff based on a sale deed and the plea of adverse possession were contrary to each other;
  • the plaintiffs could not have been permitted to take both the pleas at the same time;
  • but, in view of the fact that the plaintiff was in possession of the suit land since the execution of the said sale deed, the plaintiff was entitled for injunction on the basis of his possession.

Setting aside the High Court judgment the Apex Court held as under:

  • “The possession/alleged possession of the plaintiffs could not have been protected by passing a decree of permanent injunction in favour of the plaintiffs”.

Should the Defendant-Rightful-Owner Approach the Court Again For Recovery?

No.

Before Kesar Bai v. Genda Lal, our Apex Court held in Padhiyar Prahladji Chenaji v. Maniben Jagmalbhai, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 258 (M.R. Shah, B.V. Nagarathna, JJ.) to the following effect (see ‘End Notes’ below):

  • The plaintiff is not entitled to any injunction and/or protect his possession against the rightful owner, more particularly, when he fails to get the declaratory relief with respect to the title.
  • In a suit for permanent injunction to restrain the defendant from interfering with the plaintiff’s possession, the only thing the plaintiff will have to establish is that as on the date of the suit, he was in lawful possession of the suit property and the defendant has tried to interfere or disturb his possession
  • the plaintiff, who has failed to get any declaratory relief on title cannot be said to be in “lawful possession”. Only when the person seeking the relief is in lawful possession and enjoyment of the property, he is legally entitled to be in possession, and not to disposes him, except in due process of law.
  • The contention of the plaintiff that even if the plaintiff failed to get the declaratory relief and the suit is dismissed, once the plaintiff is found to be in possession, her possession cannot be disturbed except in due process of law and the only remedy available to the defendant would be “to file a substantive suit to get back the possession is noticed only to be rejected outright”.
  • In Maria Margarida Sequeira Fernandes Vs. Erasmo Jack de Sequeira, (2012) 5 SCC 370, it was held that the ‘due process’ or ‘due course’ condition was satisfied the moment the rights of the parties were adjudicated upon by a court of competent jurisdiction, and that it did not matter who brought the action to court.
  • In Maria Margarida Sequeira Fernandes Vs. Erasmo Jack de Sequeira, the Court has approved the following findings of the High Court of Delhi in Thomas Cook (India) Ltd. Vs. Hotel Imperial (2006) 88 DRJ 545:
    • “In this context, when a party approaches a court seeking a protective remedy such as an injunction and it fails in setting up a good case, can it then say that the other party must now institute an action in a court of law for enforcing his rights i.e. for taking back something from the first party who holds it unlawfully, and, till such time, the court hearing the injunction action must grant an injunction anyway? I would think not.”

Even the Rightful Owner is NOT entitled to Eject a Trespasser, by Force

It goes without saying that the the rightful owner is not legally entitled to eject the interloper or trespasser by force, otherwise than by due process of law; especially when the trespasser is in settled possession.

In Karthiyayani Amma v. Govindan, AIR 1980 Ker 224, the High Court considered the question whether the rightful owner can eject a trespasser in possession with force; and whether a person in illegal possession could sustain a suit for injunction against the true owner, from forcibly dispossessing him from the property.  It was held as under:

  • “The ultimate position, therefore, reduces itself to this:
  • Can a person in possession without title sustain a suit for injunction against the rightful owner if he proves possession?
  • Yes.
  • In this case, plaintiff is found to in be possession. On the finding, he should be granted the injunction prayed for. A person in possession can be evicted only in due process of law. Even the rightful owner cannot eject him with force. If he cannot be evicted with force, he continues to be in possession and he can resist invasion of his possession by everyone including the rightful owner. If the rightful owner threatens his peaceful possession, he can approach Courts of Law and pray for the equitable relief of injunction to protect his possession”. (Followed in Aiysumma Vs. Mariyamma, 1994-2 CIVCC 52, 1994-1 KerLT 570. )

It is pointed out in Suresh v. Ashok Girdharilal Chandak, 2016-1 MHLJ 171 that ‘bearing in mind the basic principle of law in civil jurisprudence that even a trespasser cannot be evicted without following due process of law and no one can be allowed to take law into his own hands to recover possession of the property without following due process of law and without proving title to the immovable property in possession of a person holding actual physical possession thereof’.

Person in possession can use Reasonable Force to keep out a Trespasser

In Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, (2004) 1 SCC 769, our Apex Court Court, observed as under:­ 

  • “8. It is thus clear that so far as the Indian law is concerned the person in peaceful possession is entitled to retain his possession and in order to protect such possession he may even use reasonable force to keep out a trespasser.
  • A rightful owner who has been wrongfully dispossessed of land may retake possession if he can do so peacefully and without the use of unreasonable force.
  • If the trespasser is in settled possession of the property belonging to the rightful owner, the rightful owner shall have to take recourse to law; he cannot take the law in his own hands and evict the trespasser or interfere with his possession.
  • The law will come to the aid of a person in peaceful and settled possession by injuncting even a rightful owner from using force or taking law in his own hands, and also by restoring him in possession even from the rightful owner (of course subject to the law of limitation), if the latter has dispossessed the prior possessor by use of force.
  • In the absence of proof of better title, possession or prior peaceful settled possession is itself evidence of title. Law presumes the possession to go with the title unless rebutted. The owner of any property may prevent even by using reasonable force a trespasser from an attempted trespass, when it is in the process of being committed, or is of a flimsy character, or recurring, intermittent, stray or casual in nature, or has just been committed, while the rightful owner did not have enough time to have recourse to law. In the last of the cases, the possession of the trespasser, just entered into would not be called as one acquiesced to by the true owner.” (quoted in: Subramanya Swamy Temple, Ratnagiri v. V. Kanna Gounder, 2009-3 SCC 306)

What is the settled possession or effective possession of a person without title which would entitle him to protect his possession even as against the true owner was made clear in Rame Gowda v. M. Varadappa Naidu, (2004) 1 SCC 769. It reads as under:

  • “9. …The “settled possession” must be (i) effective, (ii) undisturbed, and (iii) to the knowledge of the owner or without any attempt at concealment by the trespasser. The phrase “settled possession” does not carry any special charm or magic in it; nor is it a ritualistic formula which can be confined in a straitjacket. An occupation of the property by a person as an agent or a servant acting at the instance of the owner will not amount to actual physical possession.” (quoted in Samarpan Varishtha Jan Parisar vs Rajendra Prasad Agarwal, 2022 SCC OnLine SC 564)

No decree for recovery unless ‘present right to the possession’

While considering the question whether a worshipper can file a suit for recovery, it is held by our Apex Court, in M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) 2019-1 SCC 1, that no decree for recovery of possession can be made in such a suit unless the worshipper has the ‘present right to the possession’. But it is pointed out that in such situations, a worshipper must be permitted to sue as next friend of the deity, sue on behalf of the idol itself – directly exercising the deity’s right to sue.

See Blog: Mandatory Injunction – Law and Principles

Govt. to Prove Title, When Pattedars are in PossessionChief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, AIR 2003 SC 1805

It is held in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, AIR 2003 SC 1805, that Section 110 embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership, and that the presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title. The Supreme Court observed further in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors, as under:

  • “Section 110 of the Evidence Act reads thus:
    • “110. Burden of proof as to ownership.-When the question is whether any person is owner of anything of which he is shown to be in possession, the burden of proving that he is not the owner is on the person who affirms that he is not the owner.”
  • It embodies the principle that possession of a property furnishes prima facie proof of ownership of the possessor and casts burden of proof on the party who denies his ownership. The presumption, which is rebuttable, is attracted when the possession is prima facie lawful and when the contesting party has no title.
  • This Court in Nair Service Society Limited v. K.C. Alexander and Ors., A.I.R. (1968) S.C. 1165 observed,
    • “The possession may prima facie raise a presumption of title no one can deny but this presumption can hardly arise when the facts are known, when the facts disclose no title in either party, possession alone decides.”
  • The pattedars proved their possession of the lands in question from 1312 Fasli (1902 A.D.) as pattedars. There is long and peaceful enjoyment of the lands in question but no proof of conferment of patta on the late Raja and the facts relating to acquisition of title are not known. The appellant- State could not prove its title to the lands. On these facts, the presumption under Section 110  of the Evidence Act applies and the appellants have to prove that the pattedars are not the owners. The appellants placed no evidence on record to rebut the presumption. Consequently, the pattedars, title to the land in question has to be upheld.”

In short, in Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors (supra) our Apex Court decided the case against the State for the following:

  • State could not prove its title to the lands;
  • the respondents/pattedars were in possession, and hence presumption under Section 110  of the Evidence Act (‘Possession Follows Title’) applies; and
  • therefore, the State had to prove that the pattedars are not the owners.

Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors – Proffers a Bad Law

It is beyond doubt that the following important and subsequent decisions took a contra-view to Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors (supra):

  • R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203;
  • Government of Kerala v. Joseph, AIR 2023 SC 3988.

In R. Hanumaiah v. Secretary to Government of Karnataka, Revenue Department, (2010) 5 SCC 203, it was held as under:

  • “15. Suits for declaration of title against the government, though similar to suits for declaration of title against private individuals differ significantly in some aspects.
  • The first difference is in regard to the presumption available in favour of the government. All lands which are not the property of any person or which are not vested in a local authority, belong to the government. All unoccupied lands are the property of the government, unless any person can establish his right or title to any such land. This presumption available to the government, is not available to any person or individual. …”

In Government of Kerala v. Joseph, AIR 2023 SC 3988 – It was pointed out –

  • “When the land subject to proceedings wherein adverse possession has been claimed, belongs to Government, the court is duty-bound to act with greater seriousness, effectiveness, care and circumspection as it may lead to destruction of a right/title of the State to immovable property.”

Chief Conservator of Forests v. Collectors Stands Against Several Decisions on the following Propositions

  • 1. Mutation will not confer ‘title’ (see notes below)
  • 2. Revenue Records Do Not Confer Presumptive Value on Title (see notes below).

The principles in Sec. 110 and 114 CANNOT be invoked –

It is held in the following decisions that the Principle ‘Possession Follows Title’ does not apply in the following situations-

  • The facts (on title/possession) are known (M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1)
  • There is evidence of independent possession/title (Bhavnagar Municipality v. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 717).

As we find in M.  Siddiq  v. Mahant Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case), 2020-1 SCC 1, Section 110 or the principle title follows possession‘ applies when the facts disclose no title in either of the disputants in which case, possession alone decides (presumption cannot be invoked when the facts are known). But, with respect to the principle ‘possession follows title‘, as we find in Anathula Sudhakar  v. Buchi Reddy, AIR 2008 SC 2033, if only title is proved by one party, then only the principle ‘possession follows title’ comes in.

It is equally important that both these principles on presumption, ‘possession follows title’ and ‘title follows possession’, cannot be invoked in cases where:

  • (i) the defendants do not claim title/possession to the suit property (Devasia @ Kutty v. Jose, 2014-4 KLJ 41; 2014-3 KLT(SN) 50).
  • (ii) the facts (on title/possession) are known (M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1), or
  • (iii) there is evidence of independent possession/title (Bhavnagar Municipality v.. Union of India, AIR 1990 SC 717).

Mutation will not confer ‘title’

It is a settled proposition of law (i) that the mutation entry in revenue documents will not confer any right, title or interest in favour of any person and (ii) that the mutation in the revenue record is only for the fiscal purpose. After pointing out these legal propositions it is observed in Jitendra Singh v. The State of Madhya Pradesh, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 802, as under:

  • “6. Right from 1997, the law is very clear. In the case of Balwant Singh v. Daulat Singh (D) By Lrs., reported in (1997) 7 SCC 137 , this Court had an occasion to consider the effect of mutation and it is observed and held that mutation of property in revenue records neither creates nor extinguishes title to the property nor has it any presumptive value on title. Such entries are relevant only for the purpose of collecting land revenue. Similar view has been expressed in the series of decisions thereafter.
  • 6.1 In the case of Suraj Bhan v. Financial Commissioner, (2007) 6 SCC 186 , it is observed and held by this Court that an entry in revenue records does not confer title on a person whose name appears in record-of-rights. Entries in the revenue records or jamabandi have only “fiscal purpose”, i.e., payment of land revenue, and no ownership is conferred on the basis of such entries. It is further observed that so far as the title of the property is concerned, it can only be decided by a competent civil court. Similar view has been expressed in the cases of Suman Verma v. Union of India, (2004) 12 SCC 58; Faqruddin v. Tajuddin (2008) 8 SCC 12; Rajinder Singh v. State of J&K, (2008) 9 SCC 368; Municipal Corporation, Aurangabad v. State of Maharashtra, (2015) 16 SCC 689; T. Ravi v. B. Chinna Narasimha, (2017) 7 SCC 342; Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import & Export Co., (2019) 3 SCC 191; Prahlad Pradhan v. Sonu Kumhar, (2019) 10 SCC 259; and Ajit Kaur v. Darshan Singh, (2019) 13 SCC 70.”

Revenue Records Do Not Confer Presumptive Value on Title

The Supreme Court in  Smt. Bhimabai Mahadeo Kambekar v. Arthur Import and Export Company (2019) and Commissioner, Bruhath Bangalore Mahanagra Palike v. Faraulla Khan (2021)observed that mutation in revenue records will not confer or lose title (Relied on Sawarni (Smt.) v. Inder Kaur (1996) 6 SCC 223, Balwant Singh & Anr. v. Daulat Singh (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (1997) 7 SCC 137,  Narasamma & Ors. v. State of Karnataka & Ors. (2009) 5 SCC 591).

As pointed out above, it is observed by the Apex Court in State of AP v. Star Bone Mill & Fertiliser Company, (2013) 9 SCC 319 that revenue record is not a document of title; it merely raises a presumption in regard to possession (Quoted in M.  Siddiq   v. Mahant Suresh Das, 2020-1 SCC 1). The argument as to ownership based upon entries in the revenue records had been negated in Prahlad Pradhan  v. Sonu Kumhar,(2019) 10 SCC 259. It was held that the revenue record does not confer title to the property nor do they have any presumptive value on the title. (Quoted in Prabhagiya Van Adhikari Awadh Van Prabhag v. Arun Kumar Bhardwaj (SC): 2021).

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Adverse Possession: Burden to Plead Sabotaged in Nazir Mohamed v. J. Kamala

Postscript – In the recent decision, Government of Kerala v. Joseph, 2023 KHC OnLine 6764, our Apex Court observed that burden of proof rests on the person claiming adverse possession. The Court followed P.T. Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, (2007) 6 SCC 59.

Saji Koduvath.

1. Introduction.

Adverse Possession is a common law doctrine. The true title holder loses his title by adverse possession; and it is acquired by the ‘trespasser’. Period of limitation, for acquiring adverse possession, under Article 65 of The Limitation Act, is 12 years. It starts, ‘when the possession of defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff’.

2. ‘Evolving’ Concept

Adverse possession being essentially a judge-made law, and not exhaustively defined in any statute, the concept of adverse possession has been ‘evolving’. It is interesting to note that there were divergent views even with respect to the very fundamentals of ‘adverse possession’.

3. Earlier view – Inaction of true-owner matters (not overt-acts of trespasser) 

At one time it was considered that inaction/acquiescence of the true owner for 12 years brings-in adverse possession. Because,

  • Article 65, which speaks of as to limitation of suits (to be filed by the plaintiffs) does not specifically speak as to (i)  intention to dispossess title owner or (ii) knowledge on the part of trespasser as to who is the true owner.
  • “Nec vi, nec clam, nec precario” does not refer to (or speak as to) ‘hostile’ possession
  • “Animus possidendi” also does not say – hostile possession.
  • Inaction, acquiescence etc. of true owner are the material considerations – to become a ‘possession’ adverse to plaintiff.
  • Therefore, to attract adverse possession the trespasser need not know the true owner.

Philosophy of the earlier view can be seen from Amrendra Pratap Singh v. Tej Behadur (Para 22 – AIR 2004 SC 3782)

  • “What is adverse possession? ………The process of acquisition of title by adverse possession springs into action essentially by default or inaction of the owner. ……… The law does not intend to confer any premium on the wrong doing of a person in wrongful possession; it pronounces the penalty of extinction of title on the person who though entitled to assert his right and remove the wrong doer and re-enter into possession, has defaulted and remained inactive for a period of 12 years, which the law considers reasonable for attracting the said penalty. ………..”

4. Present view – Give prominence to overt and adverse acts of trespasser. 

Following are the important decisions to see the present view on adverse possession:

  1. Karnataka Board of Wakaf v. Govt of India – AIR 2004 SC 2096
  2. T. Anjanappa v. Somalingappa [(2006) 7 SCC 570]
  3. PT Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, AIR 2007 SC 1753
  4. Ravinder Kaur Grewal v. Manjit KaurAIR 2019 SC 3827: (2019) 8 SCC 729

PT Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, AIR 2007 SC 1753, is the latest decision of the Supreme Court that discussed various views on adverse possession. It is observed in this decision as under:

  • “Adverse possession in one sense is based on the theory or presumption that the owner has abandoned the property to the adverse possessor on the acquiescence of the owner to the hostile acts and claims of the person in possession. It follows that sound qualities of a typical adverse possession lie in it being open, continuous and hostile.”
  • Thus, there must be intention to dispossess. And it needs to be open and hostile enough to bring the same to the knowledge and plaintiff has an opportunity to object

In a nutshell, adverse possession arises from:

  1. acquiescence of the owner to the hostile acts
  2. hostile acts of the trespasser.

5. Article 142 of the (Repealed) Limitation Act, 1908

Article 142 of the (repealed) Limitation Act, 1908, which dealt with the subject, did not put down the term ‘adverse’ in the relevant article concerned with “adverse possession”. 

Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 reads as under:

142. For possession of immovable property when the plaintiff, while in possession of the property, has been dispossessed or has discontinued the possession12 yearsThe date of the dispossession or discontinuance

Article 142 of the Limitation Act, 1908 provided that the true owner would lose his right to recover the property from a trespasser if he failed to file a suit within the period of 12 years.

6. Article 65 of Limitation Act, 1963: Complete Change in Law of Adverse Possession

Articles 65 of the Limitation Act, 1963 brought-in  complete change insofar as the onus of proof is concerned: The new provision casted onus on the trespasser to prove claims of title by ‘adverse’ possession. Adverse possession arises, under Article 65 of Limitation Act, 1963, only ‘by the positive and hostile acts’ of the trespasser; that is, mere possession is not sufficient, but, it must be ‘adverse’ to the true owner.

Article 65 of Limitation Act reads as under:

65. For possession of immovable property or any interest therein based on title.12 yearsWhen the possession of Defendant becomes
adverse to the plaintiff.

In T. Anjanappa v. Somalingappa, (2006) 7 SCC 570, it is observed by our Apex Court as under:

  • The possession must be open and hostile enough to be capable of being known by the parties interested in the property, though it is not necessary that there should be evidence of the adverse possessor actually informing the real owner of the former’s hostile action. … … The person who bases his title on adverse possession, therefore, must show by clear and unequivocal evidence i.e. possession was hostile to the real owner and amounted to a denial of his title to the property claimed…. …. If the defendants are not sure who is the true owner the question of their being in hostile possession and the question of denying title of the true owner do not arise.

7. Burden of Proof Sabotaged

Is it the burden of the defendant, in a suit for recovery, to plead adverse possession? Or, is it the duty of the plaintiff to show that the suit for possession was within the period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act (especially where there is a possible claim of Adverse Possession)?

Supreme Court of India considered hitherto that the burden fully rested upon the defendant.

But, in Nazir Mohamed v. J.  Kamala, AIR 2020 SC 4321, arose from a suit for recovery of possession, the Apex Court held that the plaintiff had to plead the date on which the defendant took possession and in the absence of pleading to show that the relief of decree for possession was within limitation, the suit would be dismissed; for, Section 3 of the Limitation Act barred the institution of any suit after expiry of the period of limitation prescribed in the said Act, even though the plea of limitation had not been taken in defence. It is pointed out in this decision that the Presumption that possession must be deemed to follow title, arises only where there is no definite proof of possession by anyone else.

The dispute in the case as to title is stated in Para 5 and 6 of the judgment, as under:

  • “5. In the plaint filed in the said suit, it has been alleged that the said premises, which had been purchased by the Respondent Plaintiff’s father, by a registered sale deed dated 17.9.1940, had originally been let out to the Appellant’s father M. Abdul Aziz. After the death of M. Abdul Aziz, the tenancy was attorned in the name of the Appellant, who agreed to pay rent of Rs.25/- per month, and also the requisite Panchayat Tax.
  • 6. Alleging that the Appellant had been trying to set up title in respect of the said premises, by applying for ‘Patta’ to the Tahsildar Natham, and further alleging that the Appellant was in arrears of rent to the tune of Rs.1225/- up to February, 1994, the Respondent Plaintiff filed the aforesaid suit.”

It is held further, as under:

  • “46. A decree of possession does not automatically follow a decree of declaration of title and ownership over property. It is well settled that, where a Plaintiff wants to establish that the Defendant’s original possession was permissive, it is for the Plaintiff to prove this allegation and if he fails to do so, it may be presumed that possession was adverse, unless there is evidence to the contrary.
  • 47. The Appellant-Defendant has in his written statement in the suit, denied the title and ownership of the Respondent- Plaintiff to the suit property. The Appellant-Defendant has asserted that the Appellant-Defendant is the owner of the suit property and has been in possession and in occupation of the suit premises as owner from the very inception.
  • 52. The maxim “possession follows title” is limited in its application to property, which having regard to its nature, does not admit to actual and exclusive occupation, as in the case of open spaces accessible to all. The presumption that possession must be deemed to follow title, arises only where there is no definite proof of possession by anyone else. In this case it is admitted that the Appellant-Defendant is in possession and not the Respondent Plaintiff.
  • 53. A suit for recovery of possession of immovable property is governed by the Limitation Act, 1963. Section 3 of the Limitation Act bars the institution of any suit after expiry of the period of limitation prescribed in the said Act. The Court is obliged to dismiss a suit filed after expiry of the period of limitation, even though the plea of limitation may not have been taken in defence.”

After quoting Article 65 of the Limitation Act the Court observed as under:

  •  “55. In the absence of any whisper in the plaint as to the date on which the Appellant-Defendant and/or his Predecessor-in-interest took possession of the suit property and in the absence of any whisper to show that the relief of decree for possession was within limitation, the High Court could not have reversed the finding of the First Appellate Court, and allowed the Respondent-Plaintiff the relief of recovery of possession, more so when the Appellant-Defendant had pleaded that he had been in complete possession of the suit premises, as owner, with absolute rights, ever since 1966, when his father had executed a Deed of Release in his favour and/or in other words for over 28 years as on the date of institution of the suit.
  • 56. As held by the Privy Council in Peri v. Chrishold reported in (1907) PC 73, it cannot be disputed that a person in possession of land in the assumed character of owner and exercising peaceably the ordinary rights of ownership has a perfectly good title against all the world but the rightful owner…and if the rightful owner does not come forward and assert his right of possession by law, within the period prescribed by the provisions of the statute of limitation applicable to the case, his right is forever distinguished, and the possessory owner acquires an absolute title.”

Above decision stands against the consistent earlier view

It is pertinent to see that above decision stands against the consistent earlier view of the Supreme Court as expressed in L N Aswathama v. P Prakash, 2009-13 SCC 229, as under:

  • “In law, possession follows title. The plaintiffs having established title to the suit property, will be entitled to decree for possession, unless their right to the suit property was extinguished, by reason of defendant being in adverse possession for a period of twelve years prior to the suit.”

It is held in MS Jagadambal v. Southern Indian Education Trust, 1988 (Supp) SCC 144, that the possession continues with the title holder unless and until the defendant acquires title by adverse possession (possession follows title).

Postscript – In the recent decision, Government of Kerala v. Joseph, 2023 KHC OnLine 6764, our Apex Court observed that burden of proof rests on the person claiming adverse possession. The Court followed P.T. Munichikkanna Reddy v. Revamma, (2007) 6 SCC 59, where it is observed as under:

  • “34. The law in this behalf has undergone a change. In terms of Articles 142 and 144 of the Limitation Act, 1908, the burden of proof was on the plaintiff to show within 12 years from the date of institution of the suit that he had title and possession of the land, whereas in terms of Articles 64 and 65 of the Limitation Act, 1963, the legal position has underwent complete change insofar as the onus is concerned : once a party proves its title, the onus of proof would be on the other party to prove claims of title by adverse possession….”

Our Apex Court referred, in Government of Kerala v. Joseph, 2023 KHC OnLine 6764, the following decisions, also :

  • (i) M Siddiq v. Mahant Suresh Das (five-Judge Bench). It observed as under:
  • “748. A person who sets up a plea of adverse possession must establish both possession which is peaceful, open and continuous – possession which meets the requirement of being ‘nec vi nec claim and nec precario’. To substantiate a plea of adverse possession, the character of the possession must be adequate in continuity and in the public because the possession has to be to the knowledge of the true owner in order for it to be adverse. These requirements have to be duly established first by adequate pleadings and second by leading sufficient evidence.”
  • (ii) Thakur Kishan Singh v. Arvind Kumar, (1994) 6 SCC 591. It is held as under:
  • “5. A possession of a co-owner or of a licensee or of an agent or a permissive possession to become adverse must be established by cogent and convincing evidence to show hostile animus and possession adverse to the knowledge of real owner. Mere possession for howsoever length of time does not result in converting the permissive possession into adverse possession…”
  • (iii) Chatti Konati Rao v. Palle Venkata Subba Rao, (2010) 14 SCC 316, (two-Judge Bench). It is observed as under:
  • “15. Animus possidendi as is well known is a requisite ingredient of adverse possession. Mere possession does not ripen into possessory title until the possessor holds the property adverse to the title of the true owner for the said purpose. The person who claims adverse possession is required to establish the date on which he came in possession, nature of possession, the factum of possession, knowledge to the true owner, duration of possession and that possession was open and undisturbed…”


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Sec. 65B, Evidence Act: Arjun Paditrao Criticised.

Saji Koduvath.

Introduction.  

Sec. 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act are the new enabling provisions introduced to confer a right to a party who wishes to rely upon the contents of an ‘electronic record’ by ‘computer output’ (copy or print – derived from original), adopting the procedure/drill given in Sec. 65B ‘without further proof or production of the original’; that is, without accounting for (original) ‘electronic record’. It is to simplify the proceedings and procedures.

Landmark Decisions

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is 26 not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65-B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision.
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
      • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570) two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ) two- judge bench decision. Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision. It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is “clarified” and directed to “read” Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’  ”.
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
      • “What is clear from this judgment is that the judgment of Anvar P.V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P.V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P.V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

ARJUN PANDITRAO v. KAILASH KUSHANRAO (2020)3 SCC 216, CRITICISED: 

  1. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020) 3 SCC 216, is per incurium as it went wrong in observing:
    • that ‘the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility’ of ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence);
    • that by virtue of the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act .. .. the computer output shall be deemed to be ALSO a document’) Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot at all be adverted to in proving a computer output (secondary evidence); and
    • that Section 65B being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield; and therefore, the computer outputs (secondary evidence) cannot be proved under Sec. 65 read with Sec. 63 of the Evidence Act.
  2. It failed to observe:
    • that “Electronic record containing the statement alone can be proved with Sec. 65B(4) Certificate (statement is confined to the matters that can be made in a written form: e.g. call-records of phones, bank-account-statements); and not all information (such as: photo, video etc. in a computer, pen-drive or CD etc.).
    • The non-obstante clause is for enabling admission of ‘computer output’ (derived from original) in evidence, as (original) ‘document’ itself (“the computer output shall be deemed to be ALSO a document”), in a simpler manner,  notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’.
  3. It should have noticed:
    • only formal evidence and admissibility (and not truth of contents) are dealt with in Sec. 65B; and
    • correctness of the computer output produced by a computer (print out or other copy), is presumed under Sec. 65B(5)(c).
  4. It was thoroughly mistaken in holding:
    • that a certificate, swearing ‘best of the knowledge and belief’, can be brought by ‘force’ (as a ‘thing’).
  5. It missed to see:
    • that the changes made to law by the introduction of Sec. 65A and 65B are:
      1. simplification of procedure for proving electronic record (‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act) by producing a copy (computer output) by declaring the copy also as a (deemed) document – if the conditions are satisfied.
      2. “where it is desired to give a statement in evidenceit can be had by “a certificate” as provided in Sec. 65B(4).
      3. the computer output (print or copy) can be tendered in evidence without evidence as to the computer which (finally) produced it – for, it will be presumed (shall be taken) “to have been produced by a computer … by means of any appropriate equipment”, as per Sec. 65B(5)(c).
Observations in   Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash KushanraoCriticism
1. Non-obstante clause is given in Sec. 63B – because, ‘Electronic Record’ is not a ‘document’. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, para 21 reads as under:1. Electronic records’ are already declared as ‘documents’ (When defined ‘Evidence’ in S. 3 ). Section 65B (1) needed to declare ‘computer output’ (derived from original) alone as documents.
“Section 65B(1) opens with a non-obstante clause, and makes it clear that any information that is contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer shall be deemed to be a document, and shall be admissible in any proceedings without further proof of production of the original, as evidence of the contents of the original or of any facts stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible. The deeming fiction is for the reason that “document” as defined by Section 3 of the Evidence Act does not include electronic records.The deeming fiction in S. 65B (1), need not be applied to an ‘electronic record’ (primary evidence). The principles of ‘presumption’ are introduced herein.  It is needed only for the ‘computer output’; and not for ‘electronic record’. The doubt as to whether electronic – records are also ‘documents’ is already removed by the amendment to Sec. 3 Evd. Act. (Evidence’ means and includes … .. all documents including electronic records’.)
Sec. 65A and 65B do not bar proving (i) (original) ‘electronic records’ under Sec. 62 and (ii) computer outputs (derived from original ) under Sec. 65. (Sec. 65 provides for adducing secondary evidence if the original is lost, not easily movable etc.)
2. Non-obstante clause (‘notwithstanding anything …’) excludes S. 62 and 65. It is observed in para 31:2. Non-obstante clause does not exclude Sec. 62 and 65 –
“The non-obstante clause in sub-section (1) makes it clear that when it comes to information contained  in an electronic record, admissibility and proof thereof must follow the drill of Section 65B, which is a special provision in this behalf – Sections 62 to 65 being irrelevant for this purpose.”  
Para 59: “We may reiterate, therefore, that the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of evidence by way of electronic record, as correctly held in Anvar P.V. (supra), and incorrectly “clarified” in Shafhi Mohammed (supra).”
 The non-obstante clause is for enabling admission of ‘computer output’  (derived from original)  as ‘document’ itself, in a simpler manner, by the deeming provision notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’.

The non-obstante clause is an enabling provision. (See ‘Note’ – 1 below.)
3. Production of Certificate  under Sec. 65B(4):3. A certificate cannot be ordered to be given as a thing:
In Arjun Panditrao para 50 it is observed as under: “However, in cases where either a defective certificate is given, or in cases where such certificate has been demanded and is not given by the concerned person, the Judge conducting the trial must summon the person/ persons referred to in Section 65B(4) of the Evidence  Act, and require that such  certificate be given by such person/ persons.” Arjun Panditrao directs  to seek help of the court to obtain the required certificate under S. 65B(4) invoking Sec. 165, Evidence Act; Order XVI, CPC or Ss. 91 & 349 of the Cr.P.C.  
This certificate ‘to the best of the knowledge and belief’ of a person, is based on his ‘subjective-satisfaction’.
It cannot be ordered to be given as a thing’ under S. 165 and Ss. 91 & 349 Cr.P.C.
(Order XVI  Rule 6, CPC says as to document alone; not any ‘thing’.) 
A certificate, swearing ‘best of the knowledge and (or?) belief’, cannot be brought by ‘force’ also. (See ‘Note’ – 2 below.)
4. Tomaso Bruno was held to be ‘per incurium‘:4. Should have been referred to a higher bench. 
 PV Anwar (2014-10 SCC 473), three-judge bench decision, was not followed in the three-judge bench decision in Tomaso Bruno (2015-7 SCC 178).
Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in Shafhi Muhammed (2018-2 SCC 801 ).
Arjun Panditrao substantially followed PV Anwar (2014).
It was observed in Arjun Panditrao (3-judge bench) that Tomaso Bruno was per incurium (3-judge bench).  Tomaso Bruno being of a 3-judge bench, the case should have been referred to a higher bench.  
[PV Anwar (2014) was rendered by Kurian Joseph, J.  He was a judge in the unanimous 3-bench decision in Tomaso Bruno (2015) which was ‘followed’ in Shafhi Muhammed (2018) ].

‘Note: 1’:  Why the Non-obstante Clause

Sec. 65B speaks: ‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act .. .. the computer output shall be deemed to be ALSO a document’ (if the conditions laid down are fulfilled). It is clear:

  • Sec. 65B is an enabling provision. The non-obstante clause is introduced not to exclude Sec. 62 and 65.  (Contra view in Arjun Panditrao).
  • It declares ‘computer output’ (derived from original or copy) ALSO as an (original) document by the deeming provision.
  • Section 65A and 65B deal with evidence ‘derived from original’ (computer output) alone; and not about original (electronic record).
  • From Sec. 65A and 65B it is clear that its application is ‘notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’, and the application of Sec. 62 to 65 are not curtailed; and, therefore, copy or computer outputs (derived from original ) can be used under Sec. 65 (Sec. 65 provides for adducing secondary evidence if the original is lost, not easily movable etc.); that is, otherwise than by producing the ‘Certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4).

It is correctly held in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu,  (2005) 11 SCC 600, as under:

  • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65.

Sec. 65A and 65B do not bar proving (i) (original) ‘electronic records’ under Sec. 62 and (ii) computer outputs (derived from original ) under Sec. 65 (Sec. 65 provides for adducing secondary evidence if the original is lost, not easily movable etc.).  From Sec. 65A and 65B it is clear that Sec. 62 to 65 are independent from Sec. 65B (‘notwithstanding anything contained in the Act’); and, therefore,

  • Sec. 62 to 65 can also be invoked to prove ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘electronic record’). That is, otherwise than by producing the Certificate under Sec. 65B(4). (Contra view in Arjun Panditrao).

‘Note: 2’: Assume, the competent person gives a ‘statement’ that he cannot vouchsafe as to the truth and veracity of the document, then what will be the next step? Or, what will be the position if that person gives a false statement with respect to the document (though he knows it to be true and genuine)? Further, if the circumstances or admission by the parties show it is a genuine copy and the competent person pretends ignorance as to the truth of the document, how it will be dealt with?

  • In all these circumstances, the ultimate way-out is to apply the principle accepted by by Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP (and followed in Shafhi Muhammed – the overruled decision).

Does the duo by Sec. 65A & 65B Evid. Act Oust the Operation of Sec. 63 & 65?

  • That is, whether ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘ electronic record’) can be proved only by Sec. 65B and it Constitute a ‘Complete Code’?

The Answer is No.

Then, what does the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything’) denote? It is clear that Sec.62 to 65 are independent from the new provisions, Sec. 65A and 65B; and Sec. 62 to 65 can also be invoked to prove ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence of the ‘electronic record’). It is definite that the non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding anything contained in the Act .. .. ’) in Sec. 65B does not oust Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act in proving a computer output (secondary evidence). Because:

  1. Sec. 65A is an introductory provision to Sec. 65B.
  2. Sec. 65A does not control Sec. 65B.
  3. Sec. 65A directs only an (enabling) method to PROVE (not the only one method) the CONTENTS of electronic records –  by print/copy – invoking Sec. 65B.
    • (Sec. 65A reads: The contents of electronic records may be proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B.) 
    • Thus, Sec. 65B is an Enabling or Added provision; and, other enabling (existing) provisions in the Indian Evidence Act, to prove documents by secondary evidence invoking Sec. 63 and 65, are not taken away.
  4. Sec. 65B(1), further lays down that the computer output (copy) shall be “deemed to be ALSO” an (original) document, if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, “notwithstanding anything contained in the Act”.
    • That is, Sec. 65B, does not bar proving a print/copy (as secondary evidence) by satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, by oral evidence or affidavit, as to loss of original, original with other side and notice given, original not easily movable, etc., as the case may be.
  5. Sec. 65B deals with ‘ADMISSIBILITY of ‘computer output’ (derived from original) alone. 
  6. The conditions in Sec. 65B(2) (such as: computer was used regularly and operating properly, information was regularly fed into in the ordinary course, etc.) have to be satisfied by oral evidence or affidavit. In case of ‘statements’ alone, it can be had by the ‘certificate’ provided under Sec. 65B(4).

In short, compliance of this enabling provision is not an invariable or imperative condition precedent to the admissibility’ of ‘computer output’ (secondary evidence); and it does not stand in the way of proving a secondary evidence of the contents of the ‘electronic record’, invoking the usual method laid down in Sec. 65 read with Sec. 63 of the Evidence Act – that is, satisfying the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, by oral evidence or affidavit. (Note: Contra view in: Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216).

‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be proved by ‘CERTIFICATE’ under Sec. 65B

  • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not authenticity. Sec. 65B(4) alone deals with authenticity; because, it is laid down that the certificate “shall be evidence of any(?) matter stated” therein.

Sec. 65B(4) reads as under:

“(4) In any proceedings where

it is desired to give a statement  

in evidence, by virtue of this section,

a certificate doing any of the

following things, that is to say,—

  • (a) identifying the electronic record CONTAINING the STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced;
  • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section

it shall be sufficient

for a matter to be stated to the

best of the knowledge and belief

f the person stating it.”

What is a “Statement” in Evidence Act?

According to Evidence Act, ‘statement’ is – that which can be expressed in the form of ‘oral evidence’. Because, “Evidence” is defined in Sec. 3 of the Evidence Act as under:

  • “Evidence means and includes—
    • all statements which the Court permits or requires to be made before it by witnesses, in relation to matters of fact under inquiry; such statements are called oral evidence.
    • all documents including electronic records produced for the inspection of the Court, such documents are called documentary evidence.”
  • See also: Sec. 8
    • Explanation 1.––The word “conduct” in this section does not include statements, unless those statements accompany and explain acts other than statements; but this explanation is not to affect the relevancy of statements under any other section of this Act.
    • Explanation 2.––When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct, is relevant.
  • Section–32
    • Cases in which statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found, etc., is relevant.
  • Section–. 34
    • Entries in books of account when relevant. …. but such statements shall not alone be sufficient evidence to charge any person with liability
  • Section–. 36
    • Relevancy of statements in maps, charts and plans.
  • Section–. 32
    • Relevancy of statement as to fact of public nature contained in certain Acts or notifications.
  • Section–. 37
    • Relevancy of statements as to any law contained in law-books.
  • Section–. 38
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 39
    • What evidence to be given when statement forms part of a conversation, document, electronic record, book or series of letters or papers.
  • Section–. 145
    • Cross-examination as to previous statements in writing
  • Section–. 157
    • Former statements of witness may be proved to corroborate later testimony as to same fact
  • Section–. 158
    • What matters may be proved in connection with proved statement relevant under section 32 or 33.

Thus it appears that the call-records of phones, bank-account-statements etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’. The ‘statement’ referred to herein is that which can be pointed out “identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced” as stated in Section 65B(4)(a); and which can be ‘purporting to be signed‘, as stated in Section 65B(4)(c). And, it is clear that the ‘statement’ does not pertain to other ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD. (Note – contra view in Supreme Court decisions).

See Blog: How to Prove WhatsApp Chats, Facebook Messages and Website Information in Courts?

‘Statement‘ in S. 65B(4) is the ‘STATEMENT ‘CONTAINED‘ IN THE ELECTRONIC RECORD‘and NOT that GIVEN IN COURT

Now, the potential question that arises for consideration is the following:

  • Whether the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is
    • (i) that given in court, to support the copy or printout, or
    • (ii) that is contained in the electronic record?

It is beyond doubt that the ‘statement’ mentioned in Sec. 65B(4) is not the one that is given in court; but, the statement ‘CONTAINED‘ in “the electronic record“. Because:

  1. The “statement” referred to in Sec. 65B (4) is one that-
    • may be:
      • desired to give” “in evidence by virtue of this section” (Sec. 65B(4) first clause); and
  2. The “certificate”-
    • must be one that
      • “identifying the ELECTRONIC RECORD CONTAINING THE STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced” [Section 65B(4)(a)].

The above view is fortified by the following:

  • Sec. 65B(4) says that the certificate
    1. must state, under Sec. 65B(4)(c), among other things, facts as to “dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate”
      • Note: Proving matter with ’certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4) is a species and proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65B(2) is genus.
    2. could be signed by a person who has
      • “a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities” (Section 65B(4)(c).

Thus, the formal assertions like statements of witnesses, call-records of phones, bank-account-statements, etc. alone can be proved as ‘statements’, by virtue of section 65B; and not ‘information’ like CCTV Footage, photo in a pen-drive or video in a CD.

In short, going by Sec. 65B, it is definite that-

  • the computer-output (copy) containing the ‘information’ (e.g. CCTV Footage, photo or video in a CD) in the electronic-record (original) can be admitted in evidence, under Sec. 65B, if only the conditions (such as: the computer was operating properly, the electronic record is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the activities, etc.) mentioned in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied (that is, the conditions are to be proved through the usual mode of oral evidence or affidavit); and
  • the ‘statements’ (e.g. call-records of phones, bank-account-statements) alone can be admitted in evidence, under Sec. 65B (by computer-output, without further proof or production of the original electronic-record), through a ‘certificate‘ (Note – Contra view in Court decisions. In the binding Court decisions it is stated that sans the Certificate, no computer-output can be taken into consideration).

Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B.

  • It is clear that the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
    • S. 65B(2)(a) computer was USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
      • of the activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
      • BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
    • S. 65B(2)(b) information was REGULARLY FED
      • in the ORDINARY COURSE,
    • S. 65B(2)(d) the information is REPRODUCED in the
      • ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
    • (For example – Computer Account statements in a Bank.)
  • For all other computer outputs (copy of, photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc.), one has to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65.
  • Therefore, it is beyond any doubt that the following computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B:
    • CCTV footage – (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON and (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    • CDs containing speech – (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information, (ii) not regularly fed in the ordinary course and (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
    • videograph of the scene of crime or trap-video – (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information, (ii) not regularly fed in the ordinary course and (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course.
  • But, the Supreme Court dealt with CCTV footage in the following landmark cases:
    • State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,
    • Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178),
  • CDs/VCDs in respect of video recording by the Election Commission
    • Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216
  • CDs containing election speeches and songs in:
    • Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473).
  • Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones in:
    • Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570)
  • Tape recorded conversation on the landline phone
    • Vikram Singh v. State of Punjab, (2017) 8 SCC 518
  • Propriety of videography of the scene of crime or scene of recovery during investigation, in:
    • Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ).

Computer output’ can be got produced by ‘any computer‘ and no evidence/certificate required

A ‘Computer Output’ can be got copied or printed by ‘any computer’. It need not be the part of the device that was “used regularly to store or process information”. It is clear from the phrase – shall be taken to have been produced by “a computer” – in 65B(5)(c). It stands contradistinct to “the computer” in Sec. 65B(2).

Presumption on ‘Computer output’ (print or copy)

From the very wordings in Sec. 65B(5)(c), the ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) as to the involvement of the computer which (finally) produced the computer output (print or copy) need not be furnished. Because, the legislature contemplated a presumption as to correctness of the computer output (not truth of contents), under Sec. 65B(5)(c), as it reads:

  • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

It is similar to Sec. 63 clause (2) which reads as under:

  • “Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy …. …”

Sec. 63 lays down the sorts of secondary evidence accepted by the Evidence Act. It is seen that Sec. 65B(5)(c) expressly says also as to presumption on correctness, as stated above.

Mere marking– not dispense with proof (of truth of contents)

In Sait Tarajee Khimchand v. Yelamarti Satyam, AIR 1971 SC 1865, the Supreme Court observed that mere marking of a documents (day book and ledger) as exhibits do not dispense with the proof of documents. In Nandkishore Lalbhai Mehta Vs. New Era Fabrics, AIR 2015 SC 3796, it is observed that mere marking as exhibit and identification of executor’s signature by one of witnesses does not prove contents of a document.

In Kaliya Vs. State of Madhya Pradesh (2013-10 SCC 758) it is held as under:

  • “Mere admission of a document in evidence does not amount to its proof. Nor, mere marking of exhibit on a document does not dispense with its proof, which is otherwise required to be done in accordance with law. (Vide: The Roman Catholic Mission Vs. The State, AIR 1966 SC 1457; Marwari Khumhar Vs. Bhagwanpuri Guru Ganeshpuri AIR 2000 SC 2629; RVE Venkatachala Gounder Vs. Arulmigu AIR 2003 SC 4548; Smt. Dayamathi Bai Vs. K.M. Shaffi, AIR 2004 SC 4082; and LIC of India  Vs. Rampal Singh Bisen,2010-4 SCC 491).”
  • “The court is obliged to examine the probative value of documents produced in court or their contents and decide the question of admissibility of a document in secondary evidence.”
  • [Note: Further held: “In case, an objection is not raised at that point of time, it is precluded from being raised at a belated stage.”]

IF the TRUTH is IN ISSUE mere proof of handwriting or execution not evidence of truth:   IF the TRUTH of the facts stated in a document is IN ISSUE mere proof of the hand-writing and execution of the document would not furnish evidence of the truth of the facts or contents of the document.

In Ramji Dayawala Vs. Invest Import: AIR 1981 SC 2085, it us held as under:

  • “If the truth of the facts stated in a document is in issue mere proof of the handwriting and execution of the document would not furnish evidence of the truth of the facts or contents of the document. The truth or otherwise of the facts or contents so stated would have to be proved by admissible evidence, i.e. by the evidence of those persons who can vouchsafe for the truth of the facts in issue.”

If ‘truth’ is in issue, or in dispute, marking without objection by itself does not absolve the duty to prove the truth as to the contents of the documents. (See: Achuthan Pillai vs Marikar (Motors) Ltd., AIR 1983 Ker 81, 1976 Cr.LJ 1507; 2016 (1) Gau. LJ 88,  2012(1) CTC 53; 2013-1 KLT 293.)

Admissibility and Presumption as to correctness of Computer Output

  • Sec. 65B does not deal with ‘truth’ of the contents of the electronic record; it deals with only ‘admissibility of copy’.
  • The electronic record mentioned in Sec. 65B is – that is ‘relevant‘; for, it must be one “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  • Therefore, if truth is in question, it must be proved according to other provisions of the evidence act; ie. by oral, documentary (such as admission) or presumptive (including circumstantial) evidence.
  • Relevant portions of 65A & 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
      • The contents of electronic records MAY BE proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) … any information contained in an electronic record which is printed ….. or copied ….. shall be ADMISSIBLE in any proceedings ….. as evidence of any contents of the original … of which direct evidence would be admissible.”

Sec. 65B declares and expressly lays down that computer output (copy or print)

  • (i) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and
  • (ii) shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence
    • of any contents of the original or
    • of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

If the conditions mentioned in this Section Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, by necessary implication, it will bring a presumption under Sec. 114 with respect to regularity of the computer output . Because, admissibility of ‘any fact stated therein‘ ‘without further proof’ is nothing but ‘presumption’ of its regularity and correctness. The net result is that (if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied) the burden to prove otherwise is cast on the person who opposes it.

The requirement in Sec. 65B(2) as to ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) for ‘regularity‘ of feeding information into the computer in the ‘ordinary course‘ eloquently support this proposition.

  • Note:
    • (i) ‘Statements’ alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4); other ‘information’ are to be proved by proper evidence.
    • (ii) Presumption of ‘regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act can be applied in Sec. 65B.
    • (iii) Presumption of a ‘fact or regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act is, essentially presumption of ‘Truth’ and ‘Correctness’.

Presumption of Fact Means Truth/Correctness of Fact

St. of West Bengal Vs. Mir Mohammad Omar (AIR 2000 SC 2988) it is held by our Apex Court as under:

  • “Presumption of fact is an inference as to the existence of one fact from the existence of some other facts, unless the truth of such inference is disproved. Presumption of fact is a rule in law of evidence that a fact otherwise doubtful may be inferred from certain other proved facts. When inferring the existence of a fact from other set of proved facts, the Court exercises a process of reasoning and reach a logical conclusion as the most probable position. The above principle has gained legislative recognition in India when Section 114 is incorporated in the Evidence Act. It empowers the Court to presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened. In that process Court shall have regard to the common course of natural events, human conduct etc. in relation to the facts of the case.”

Substance and Conclusion

  1. Sec. 65B is invoked only when a computer output (copy) is used in evidence.
    • Sec. 65B pertains to ‘admissibility'(not truth) of a computer output/copy.
    • It deals with computer output/copy alone; and it does not deal with (original) electronic record.
  2. Non-obstante clause does not oust S. 63 and 65.
    • The non-obstante clause in Sec. 65B does not oust operation of Secs. 63 & 65 of the Evidence Act; and, therefore, secondary evidence of an electronic record can be given in evidence, invoking Sec. 65, read with Sec. 63.
    • Sec. 65B is an added and enabling provision to prove the copy or print out (otherwise than by proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65, such as loss of original, original with other side).
    • It relates to relevant matters alone “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  3. Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • The computer output (copy) containing the information, such as CCTV footage, photo or video in a CD etc., can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly) mentioned in S. 65B(2) are satisfied, through oral evidence or affidavit.
    • A computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B if the computer was one not used regularly, or the information was one not ‘regularly fed’ into the computer in the ordinary course, etc., (as in the case of a photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.).
    • In such a case (photo or video captured in a mobile phone; ‘trap-video’, etc.), we have to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65; because, if only the conditions (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly)  mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, then only the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’.
  4. Statements alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under S. 65B(4).
    • The statements (such as e-mail, call records of phones, bank account statements, etc.) alone can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under S. 65B(4). 
    • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not authenticity. Sec. 65B(4) alone deals with authenticity; because, it is laid down that the certificate “shall be evidence of any(?) matter stated” therein.
  5. Presumption as to correctness of the copy or print-out ‘produced by a computer’ under S. 65B(5)(c)
    • S. 65B(5)(c) lays down a presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer out-put, inasmuch as S. 65B(5)(c) lays down that ‘a computer out-put shall be taken to have been produced by a computer’. 

As shown by Justice V. Ramasubramanian in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, Sec. 65B is a substantial reproduction of Sec. 5 of the UK Civil Evidence Act, 1968, and that it is introduced in India 10 years after it was repealed in UK. No doubt, it will stand as a masterly provision, if it aids simplification of procedure and leads to attain ends of justice. Even if any deflection in any corner, the judicial wisdom of the Apex Court will guide the courts in India through correct path.

The present UK Act (Civil Evidence Act 1995) does not make any special provision for Electronic Evidence or Computerised Records. It deals this matter under the head ‘hearsay evidence’ and makes ‘safeguards’ with respect to the hearsay evidence.


End Notes – 1

What is ‘certificate’, in law

  • The usual method to prove documents is by giving oral evidence or furnishing affidavit. A certificate, in most cases, is an opinion, and prepared on the basis of other documents or evidences. In such cases, when it is an assumption or inference, it by itself, is not admissible, as it will only be, at the most, a secondary evidence. A Wound Certificate is not a substantive evidence. It has to be proved by a competent witness. If presumption cannot be invoked under Clause (e) of Sec. 114 Evidence Act (that judicial and official acts have been regularly performed), no certificate or report can be taken as proved unless its contents are proved in a formal manner. (This is why Order XXVI rule 10 CPC specifically says – Commission Report shall ‘form part of the record’.)
  • Our Apex Court held in Dharmarajan v. Valliammal, 2008 (2) SCC 741, that ‘a certificate issued by the Tahsildar cannot be relied on without examining the Tahsildar who issued the same’. It is referred to in Pankajakshan Nair v. Shylaja, ILR 2017-1 Ker 951.

End Notes – 2

Landmark Decisions

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is 26 not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision.
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
    • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570): two- judge bench decision. It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ), two- judge bench decision. Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision. It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is “clarified” and directed to “read” Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’  ”.
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
    • “What is clear from this judgment (Tomaso Bruno) is that the judgment of Anvar P. V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P. V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P. V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

End Notes – 3

Sec. 65A and Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act reads:

Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:

The CONTENTS of electronic records may be PROVED in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 

65B. Admissibility of electronic records

(1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence of any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

(2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—

  • (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer during the period over which the computer was used regularly to store or process information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer;
  • (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
  • (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
  • (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.

(3) Where over any period, the function of storing or processing information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by computers, whether—

  • (a) by a combination of computers operating over that period; or
  • (b) by different computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (c) by different combinations of computers operating in succession over that period; or
  • (d) in any other manner involving the successive operation over that period, in whatever order, of one or more computers and one or more combinations of computers, all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.

(4) In any proceedings where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—

  • (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
  • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.

(5) For the purposes of this section,—

  • (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
  • (b) whether in the course of activities carried on by any official information is supplied with a view to its being stored or processed for the purposes of those activities by a computer operated otherwise than in the course of those activities, that information, if duly supplied to that computer, shall be taken to be supplied to it in the course of those activities;
  • (c) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment.

Explanation.—For the purposes of this section any reference to information being derived from other information shall be a reference to its being derived therefrom by calculation, comparison or any other process.

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Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

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Easement

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Is the Basis of Every Easement, Theoretically, a Grant

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

 “An easement is a Right

  • Easement is a right possessed by the owner of a land (dominant land),
    • to use the land of another (servient land),
    • for the beneficial enjoyment of the (dominant) land.

Easement Does Not Confer Ownership or Possession

  • No Ownership is bestowed in the (servient) land (AIR 2004 All 359; AIR 1925 Bom 335).
  • No Possession obtained in the (servient) land. (2011 (2) KLT 605; AIR 1925 Bom 335).  
  • No Interest is created in the (servient) land. (2003 (1) KLT 320; AIR 1954 All 393).

Easement (सुखाधिकार) is Well Recognised; And Circumscribed by Law

  • Easement is a limited right touse’or ‘enjoyanother’s land.
  • It is to do, or to prevent to do, some specific thing.
  • It is to be exercised in a way least onerous to ‘another’s land’.
  • It is not a right to build and enjoy.
  • The right gained cannot be enlarged.
    • That is, an easement of way to a particular (dominant) property cannot be extended to another property by the dominant owner; an easement for residential purpose cannot be enlarged for an industrial purpose. (Sec. 28, 29, 43 etc.)
  • Servient owner can use his land in any manner (without disturbing enjoyment of the easement).

According to ‘Katiyar on Easements’:                                                                   

  • Easement is not a right to land or exclude owner.
  • It is not a right to permanent occupation. 
  • It does not confer exclusive right of user/enjoyment.
  • And, it is not a corporeal interest in land.

Easement – Definition under the Indian Easements Act

SECTION 4 of the Indian Easements Act defines Easements as under:

  • “An easement is a right
  • which the owner or occupier of certain land possesses,
    • as such,
  • for the beneficial enjoyment of that land 
  • to do and continue to do something, or to prevent and continue to prevent something being done,
  • in or upon, or in respect of, certain other land not his own.”

Salient Limitations of Easement under the Indian Easements Act

  • The owner of a land only ‘uses’or ‘enjoys‘ another’s land (Sec. 31)
  • Only ‘enjoyment’ of soil or things ‘subsisting’ (Explanation in Sec. 4).
  • Limited enjoyment of (a) land & (b) advantages from its situation: S. 7
  • Right be exercised in a way least onerous to ‘another’s land’: Sec. 22
  • Secure full enjoyment, cause as little inconvenience: Sec. 24: 2017-2 KLT 63

It is Not a right to:                                            

  • tend to total destruction of servient tenement: S. 17 (2003 (1) KLT320)
  • make additional burden: S. 23
  • make constructions in, or cultivate upon: (2003 (1) KLT 320).
  • prevent servient owner to use: S. 27 : 2003 (1) KLT 320
  • enlarge purpose of, or accustomed user: S. 28
  • substantially increase an easement: S. 29
  • prevent servient owner from obstructing excessive  ‘user’ of servient land – as ‘enjoyment of easement’: S. 31
  • increase burden by making permanent change in do. tent: S. 43
  • capable of forming grant – No easement, if Not capable of forming grant (without document or registration): Mohammed vs. Doomunhi Achari, 1987 (2) KLT 1037.

No easement if:

  • right claimed is incidents of ownership.
  • servient property belongs to him. Easement is a right with conscious knowledge that the servient property does not belong to him. AIR 1966 Raj 265. It must also be with proper animus as to easement: AIR 1973 Mad 173.

The word ‘Servient’ is derived from ‘Serve’

Literal meaning of the word ‘servient’ is – subordinate, subservient and subject to another. Etymologically it is derived from ‘servus’ (Latin) meaning – slave or servant.

Sec. 4 Explains ‘Servient Heritages’ as under:

  • “Dominant and Servient Heritages and OwnersThe land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right exists is called the dominant heritage, and the owner or occupier thereof the dominant owner; the land on which the liability is imposed is called the servient heritage, and the owner or occupier thereof the servient owner.”

Thus, the land upon which the right is claimed is ‘servient’ land.

Methods of Acquisition of Easements

The Indian Easements Act, 1882 refers to the different methods by which easements are acquired. They are pointed out (Ramkanya Bai v. Jagdish, AIR 2011 SC 3258) to be the following:

  1. easements by grantexpress grant by the owner of the servient heritage
  2. easements of necessity: based on implied grants or reservations made by the owner of a servient heritage at the time of transfers or partitions
  3. easements by prescription: that it is presumed to be acquired by peaceable and open enjoyment, without interruption for twenty years and
  4. customary easements: it is inferred to be acquired by virtue of a local custom.

For easement by prescription, it is not necessary that the user should be exclusive, but the claimant should exercise it under some claim existing in his own favour independently of all others.

‘Grant’ in Law

The term ‘Grant’ is used to denote-

  • A generic term to mean ‘transfer’ of immovable property (e.g., sale, lease, gift etc.).
  • But, in judicial parlance, it will not be an absolute ‘transfer’ of property; and remain as a concession, permission, settlement, grant of easement etc., if it is used in place of ‘transfer’ of property.
  • Present, aid, help etc., and the act of a settlor of trust, or of donor of a charity.
  • A technical term to denote conditional-transfer of lands by sovereign especially when it is purposefully used to differentiate from ‘transfer’ of property.
  • More than a licence (which does not create an estate or interest) and less than an outright and unconditional ‘transfer’ of property similar to sale, gift etc. (Note: A license is personal to an individual, whereas a ‘grant’ in an easement pertains to a right attached to the land.)

Characteristics of ‘Grant’

  • Usually it denotes a grant by deed.
  • It can be with or without consideration.
  • Unless specifically specified, it is creation of an ‘interest’ in property. 
  • As long as the conditions are fulfilled, grant is usually irrevocable.
  • Conditions can also be fixed to limit the period of grant.
  • Inferior interest, out of an interest retained by the grantor, e.g. the grant of a lease of land by the person holding the freehold. (Collins Dictionary of Law).

‘Grant’ – Salmond on Jurisprudence

What is ‘grant’ is stated in Salmond’s Jurisprudence, 12th Edition, at pages 338-339, under the heading ‘The Classes of Agreements’, as under:

  • • “…. A contract is an agreement which creates an obligation or a right in Personam between the parties to it. A grant is an agreement which creates a right of any other description; examples being grants of leases, easements, charges, patents, franchises, licences and so forth. An agreement which transfers a right may be termed generically an assignment. On which extinguishes a right is a release, discharge, or surrender.” (Quoted in H. Anraj v. Government of Tamil Nadu  (& Shri Dipak Dhar v. The State of West Bengal), AIR 1986 SC 63: (1986) 1 SCC 414.)

Grant by a Co-owner

Grant effected by a co-owner with the consent of other co-owners, or validated by their approval or ratification, alone is valid. In proper cases such consent or ratification may be presumed.

Grant of Land by Government

The lands granted continued to be lands belonging to the Government and the grantees did not acquire absolute proprietary rights over the granted area under the grant. We can see the ‘conditions’ of deeds under which the grants were made by the Travancore government in the following decisions-

  • State of Kerala v. Kanan Devan Hills Produce Co. Ltd., (1991) 2 SCC 272
  • Kannan Devan Hills Produce v.  The State of Kerala, AIR 1972 SC 2301
  • State of Kerala v. The Kannan Devan Hills Produce Co.,  AIR 1998 Ker 267

See also:

  • Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86
  • Padmanabharu Govindaru  v. The State of Kerala, AIR 1963 Ker 86 gives us “illuminative information as to the concept of ‘jenmom’” as pointed out in Harrisons Malayalam Limited v. State of Kerala, 2018 2 KHC 719; 2018 2 KLT 369 – though this decision was overruled by the larger Bench in Rev. Fr. Victor Fernandez Vs. Albert Fernandez, AIR 1971 Ker 168 :1971 KLT 216).

Grant may be Express or “Implied

The origin of all easements is, theoretically, grant by the servient owner. It may be express or implied. It may also be presumed from long user.

  • Note: Traditionally, the term ‘implied easement’ was used by the conventional authorities only to denote ‘easement of necessity‘. However, in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, the Supreme Court used the same to refer to an easement of grant ‘arising by implication‘.

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “13. On the question of easement by grant, the Appellate Court was of the opinion that the plaintiff’s claim in that respect stood proved. The plaintiff had acquaintance and association with the Ashramam and Yogini Amma from his childhood days as revealed from the oral and documentary evidence. Considering the location and nature of `B’ schedule pathway, the location of two pillars at its inception and the gate from which it started, it could be seen that it had been in use by the plaintiff as a pathway. The plaintiff had been residing in the house on `A’ schedule property even prior to the deed of settlement. Therefore, the Appellate Authority arrived at the conclusion that the plaintiff had obtained right of easement of grant from Yogini Amma over the `B’ schedule pathway.
  • An easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties and it may have its own consideration. (B.B. Katiyar’s Commentaries on Easements and Licenses, p. 762).  It may be either express or even by necessary implication. Though easement of necessity will come to an end with the termination of necessity, easement acquired by grant cannot be extinguished on that ground as per section 13(b) of the Indian Easements Act, 1882. Therefore, even assuming that the plaintiff had an alternative pathway as contended by the defendants, it does not extinguish the right of easement of grant in favour of the plaintiff. Therefore, the Trial Court was justified in granting a relief of declaration of right of easement of grant over the `B’ schedule pathway. However, the declaration granted on the ground of easement of necessity was not justified.”

The aforesaid Supreme Court decision (Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622) arose from the Kerala High Court decision, Sree Swyam Prakash Ashramam v. N. Gopala Pillai on 9 May, 2006. It was affirmed by the Supreme Court. The Kerala High Court held as under:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user. In the case of an express grant of easement the limit thereof depends on the words used.”

Upholding the view of the Kerala High Court the Apex Court held as under:

  • “In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

No Explicit ‘Consideration’ Required for Easement by Grant

Neither the provisions of the enacted law (Easements Act, 1882) nor judicial decisions specifically address the requirement of ‘consideration’ in the creation of easements by grant. This omission is understandable, as Indian law clearly permits the acquisition of easements by grant – both express and implied. Since an easement may arise by implication, and the intention to grant can be inferred from the terms of the grant or the surrounding circumstances, the fundamental principle of easement law – that every easement is, in theory, rooted in a grant – supports the conclusion that no express consideration is required for the creation of an easement by grant.

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act reads:

  • “An easement may be acquired by the owner of the immovable property for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right is created, or, on his behalf, by any person in possession of the same.”

Sec. 13 further elaborates on easements of necessity and quasi-easements, indicating that such easements can arise from the transfer or bequest of immovable property, again without a requirement for consideration.

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, the Supreme Court held:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user.”

Also read: Implied Grant: A Valid Mode of Creation of Easement under Indian Law

Basis of every Right of Easement is Theoretically a Grant

In Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89, it is held as under:

  • “The basis of every right of easement by whatsoever method it may have been acquired, is theoretically a grant from the servient-owner.
    • It may be expressed, as is mentioned in Sections 8 to 12 of the Act, or
    • it may be implied from the circumstances as in Section 13 of the Act. or
    • it may be presumed from long and continued user for a certain period as in Section 15 of the Act, or
    • it may be inferred from a long and continued practice of user by a certain class of the public in certain locality.” 

No Explicit ‘Consideration’ Required for Easement by Grant

Neither the provisions of the enacted law (Easements Act, 1882) nor judicial decisions specifically address the requirement of ‘consideration’ in the creation of easements by grant. This omission is understandable, as Indian law clearly permits the acquisition of easements by grant – both express and implied. Since an easement may arise by implication, and the intention to grant can be inferred from the terms of the grant or the surrounding circumstances, the fundamental principle of easement law – that every easement is, in theory, rooted in a grant – supports the conclusion that no express consideration is required for the creation of an easement by grant.

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act reads:

  • “An easement may be acquired by the owner of the immovable property for the beneficial enjoyment of which the right is created, or, on his behalf, by any person in possession of the same.”

Sec. 13 further elaborates on easements of necessity and quasi-easements, indicating that such easements can arise from the transfer or bequest of immovable property, again without a requirement for consideration.

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, the Supreme Court held: “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user.”

Grant of Right of Way must be Liberally Construed

Katiyar on Easements repeatedly said in his treatise that a ‘grant of right of way must be liberally construed’ to ensure the dominant owner’s beneficial enjoyment of his land. Gale on Easements (leading English treatise) and “Law of Easements and Licenses” by P.S. Narayana also emphasised this principle.

In Mathai v. Jordi Poulose,  ILR 2011-2 Ker 484; 2011-2 KHC 591; 2011-2 KLT 605, it was found that the suit agreement, made it clear that the right given thereunder was not a personal right but a right for the beneficial enjoyment for the property, and it could only be a right of easement and not a licence. The High Court  referring Ram Sarup Gupta v. Bishun Narain Inter College, AIR 1987 SC 1242, said further as under:

  • “18. True, the plaint did not specifically show that appellant has claimed a right of easement by grant. But as rightly argued by the learned counsel appearing for the appellant, a pleading must be liberally construed and placing undue emphasis on the form is not in the interest of justice. The Honourable Supreme Court in Ram Sarup Gupta v. Bishun Narain Inter College (AIR 1987 SC 1242) held:
  • “It is well settled that in the absence of pleading, evidence, if any, produced by the parties cannot be considered. It is also equally settled that no party should be permitted to travel beyond its pleading and that all necessary and material facts should be pleaded by the party in support of the case set up by it. The object and purpose of pleading is to enable the adversary party to know the case it has to meet. In order to have a fair trial it is imperative that the party should state the essential material facts so that other party may not be taken by surprise. The pleadings however should receive a liberal construction, no pedantic approach should be adopted to defeat justice on hair splitting technicalities. Sometimes, pleadings are expressed in words which may not expressly make out a case in accordance with strict interpretation of law, in such a case it is the duty of the Court to ascertain the substance of the pleadings to determine the question. It is not desirable to place undue emphasis on form, instead the substance of the pleadings should be considered. Whenever the question about lack of pleading is raised the enquiry should not be so much about the form of the pleadings, instead the Court must find out whether in substance the parties knew the case and the issues upon which they went to trial. Once it is found that in spite of deficiency in the pleadings parties knew the case and they proceeded to trial on those issues by producing evidence, in that event it would not be open to a party to raise the question of absence of pleadings in appeal.”

Lost Grant

In Easements Act by Dr. Karandikar & Chitaley at Page 425, note 20 (Title by lost grant), it is observed as follows:

  • “(2) The evidence from which a lost grant may be inferred is not very different from the evidence on which a claim for a prescriptive easement may be established.
  • (3) (Drainage system of defendant’s building connected with sewer line of plaintiff’s building – Right claimed by defendant exercised secretly – Held, right was not proved.) The presumption of lost grant may be negatived by showing legal incompetence as regards owner of the servient tenement to grant an easement or a physical incapacity of being obstructed as regard the easement itself or an uncertainty or secrecy of enjoyment putting out of the category of all known easements.
  • (4) Where the plaintiff did make out a case of user from time immemorial in the plaint a decree could be granted on the basis of lost grant.
  • (5) Acquisition of easement by immemorial user based on doctrine of lost grant can be claimed when dominant and servient tenements are held under same landlord.
  • (6) Proof of the origin of right or by such proof of long & uninterrupted usage as in the absence of a documentary title will suffice to establish a prescriptive right.” (Quoted in Varghese v. Jose Mathew, 2014-3 Ker LT 1065).

Halsbury’s LawsPrescription based on presumed grant

In Halsbury’s Laws of England Vol 16(2) at Page 42, paragraph 76, it is observed as follows:

  • “76. Prescription based on presumed grant. The doctrine of prescription generally is based upon the presumption of a grant, the common law doctrine being that all prescription presupposes a grant once made and validly subsisting, but since lost or destroyed. The other forms of prescription are merely modifications of this doctrine. The presumption in the former instance of such a grant arises under the doctrine of prescription from the fact of enjoyment of the right. It therefore follows that a right claimed by prescription must be such that it could have formed the subject matter of a grant. Nothing which cannot have had a lawful beginning can be claimed by prescription. Recourse can only be had to the doctrine of prescription in cases where a grant of the right is not forthcoming, for prescription has no place if a grant is proved and its terms are known“. (Quoted in Varghese v. Jose Mathew, 2014-3 Ker LT 1065).

Prescriptive Rights are Inchoate until title thereof is upheld by a competent court

It was observed in Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227, that the result of the Easements Act and the similar provisions of the Limitation Act was that a right of easement could not be said to be perfected until the right was declared by a decree of court. It is more so, in case of prescriptive rights which are inchoate (started; but, not full-blown) until title thereof is upheld by a competent court. See also:

  • Sultan Ahmad v. Valiullah (1912) 10 ALJ 227 is referred to in: Nachiparayan v. Narayana Goundan, (1920): 60 Ind Cas 171, (1920) 39 MLJ 574; Arjuna Udayar v. Manuswamy Naicker, 1999-1 CurCC 97;
  • D. Ramanatha Gupta vs S. Razaack, AIR 1982 Kant 314..
  • See also: Tradesh and Miners, Ltd v. Dhirendra Nath Banerjee, AIR 1944 Pat 261.

Easement is acquired; not arise out of ‘Express Permission’

Sec. 12, Easements Act states that an easement is acquired by the owner of an immovable property. It is observed by the Apex Court in Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103, that the claimant of easement (prescription) should plead and prove that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any agreement with the owner of the property over which the right is claimed, as any user with the express permission of the owner will be a licence and not an easement. 

  • Note: A license is personal to an individual, whereas a ‘grant’ in an easement pertains to a right attached to the land.

Easement-by-Prescription – “Grantor Acquisition by “Hostile or Notorious Act? Is there incongruity?

The basis of every right of easement is theoretically a grant from the servient-owner. Grant is presumed in easement by prescription, from long and continued user. Is there incongruity (in easement by prescription) between ‘grant’ (on one part) and ‘acquisition’ of easement by “prescription” which suggests ‘adverse’ and ‘hostile or notorious’ user (on the other part)?

  • The answer is that the ‘grant’ herein is only a “presumption in law”; and virtually, easement by prescription has to be acquired by hostile and/or notorious acts.
  • It is clear from Sec. 12 and 15 of the Easement Act.

Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v. Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109 lays down the legal position accepted by Indian law, clearly, as under:

  • “The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Chapsibhai Dhanjibhai Danad vs Purushotram, 1971 AIR 1878, it was pointed out as under:

  • “In Ravachand v. Maniklal (ILR 1946 Bom. 184), it was held that an easement by prescription under ss. 12 and 15 of the Act is in fact an assertion of a hostile claim of certain rights over another man’s property and in order to acquire the easement the person who asserts the hostile claim must prove that he had the consciousness to exercise that hostile claim on a property which is not his own and where no such consciousness is proved he cannot establish a prescriptive acquisition of the fight.”

In Raychand Vanmalidas vs Maneklal Mansukhbhai, (1946) 48 BomLR 25 it was held as under:

  • “In any case it must be shown that the right was enjoyed as an easement, that is, as an assertion of a hostile claim of certain limited rights over somebody else’s property. Such an assertion cannot be held proved without satisfactory proof of the requisite consciousness. Prescriptive easement, as opposed to easement by grant, is always hostile. It is in fact an assertion of a hostile claim of certain rights over another man’s property and as such it resembles in some respects the claim to ownership by adverse possession of property; both are of hostile origin and are, therefore, prescriptive rights obtained by adverse enjoyment for a certain period, the difference being that while in the case of adverse possession the possessor must assert his own ownership, in the case of easement he must assert limited rights of user on a property and acknowledge its ownership in some one else. It must, therefore, follow, in my opinion, that a person who asserts such a hostile claim must prove that he had the consciousness of exercising that hostile claim on a property which is not his own, and where no such consciousness is proved, he cannot prove the prescriptive acquisition of the right”.

Easement by prescription is ‘acquired’ by ‘prescriptive’ user. It should not have been by permission or agreement. In case of easement, law requires pleading and proof – that the right claimed was enjoyed independent of any express permission (Bachhaj Nahar Vs. Nilima Mandal, AIR 2009 SC 1103).

It is held in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 62 that the acquisition of easement by prescription may be classified under the head of implied grant; for, all prescription presupposes a grant.

Implied Grant’ Recognised in Three Distinct Legal Connotations

  • 1. Theoretical Basis of Easement of Necessity. Implied from the necessity of enjoying the dominant tenement; arises by operation of law in the absence of any other access.
  • 2. Theoretical Basis of every Right of Easement  The origin of all easements is a grant by the servient owner; it may be expressed, as is mentioned in Sections 8 to 12, or implied from the circumstances as in Section 13, or presumed from long and continued user as in Section 15 of the Act.
  • 3. Judicially Acknowledged Sources of Easement. Common Law of India recognises following two modes of ‘easements’ –
    • (i) Village Pathways (falls under Sec. 18 Easements Act – Customary Easements): Easement inferred from a long and continued practice of user by a certain class of the public in certain locality. E.g.: a village pathway (See: Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89; Harendra Nath Chakraborti v. Asim Sindhu Chakraborty, AIR 1981 Cal 325; Yohannan Vs. Mathai, 1991-1 Ker LJ 605, 1991 KHC 571).
    • (ii) Implied Grant of Pathways: A species of easement by grant, inferred from the conduct of parties or surrounding circumstances; a recognised source of easement based on presumed intention. (See: Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622; L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR 1972 Mad 307).

Read Blog: Implied Grant: A Valid Mode of Creation of Easement under Indian Law

Implied Grant” has as much efficacy as an express grant

In Kuppakkal v. Mathan Chettiar, AIR 1924 Mad 834, Annapurna  v. Santosh Kumar, AIR 1937 Cal 661; Ratanchand Chordia v. Kasim Khaleeli, AIR 1964 Mad 209 and  L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR  1972 Mad 307, it was held that the grant of a right of way which had necessarily to be implied on a true construction of the deed, had as much efficacy as an express grant.

It was held in R. Sivanandan v. Rajammal, (1975) 1 Mad LJ 251, that the implied grant could be raised even if there was no express grant; and that the argument that the absence of an express grant would negative an implied grant was quite untenable.

Easement right by way of implied grant stated in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, is this ‘Easement by grant’ that arise by implication.

Alternative Way Will Not Defeat Claim of Implied Grant (Grant that arise by Implication)

The existence of alternative way will defeat easement of necessity and quasi easement. But, it will not defeat the claim of implied grant. (See: John, S/o. Ulahannan v. P. Janaki, D/o. Late Vava, 2012, Kerala High Court.)

Implied Grant and Easement by Prescription

  • Easement of Necessity and of Implied Grant (‘Easement by grant’ on implication) are sprouted on Analogous principles; because, both are based on some sort of ‘consent or permission’.
  • Implied Grants [both as (i) theoretical basis of Easement of Necessity and (ii) ‘Easement by grant’ on implication] are Antithetical to Easement by Prescription, because implied Grants are based on some sort of ‘consent, approval or permission’ and Easement by Prescription is arisen from prescriptive or hostile acts and it is to be ‘acquired’.

Easement by (implied) grant and quasi easement can be pleaded alternatively Easement by (implied) grant and quasi easement can be pleaded alternatively for it is permissible to raise inconsistent pleas (but  to confine either of the two at the time of evidence).

Easement of Necessity and Easement by Prescription are Antithetical (Easement of Necessity and of Implied-Grant (Grant that arise by Implication) are Analogous)

Easement by prescription is acquired by hostile and notorious acts; but user of it should be peaceable and open enjoyment, without interruption for twenty years. Therefore grant is presumed in easement by prescription.

Origin of Easements of necessity and Easement by prescription are different (Easements of necessity is based on implied grants. It is based on some sort of ‘consent, approval or permission’; but, Easement by Prescription is arisen from prescriptive or hostile acts). Hence, both these rights are antithetical to each other. In Natesa Gounder v. Raja Gounder, 2012-5 Mad LW 649, it is observed as under:

  • Implied grant and the concept easement by prescription are quite antithetical to each other. If a person is having an implied grant in his favour, then the question of prescription would not arise.” (Quoted in: Kalyan Spinning Mills v. M.  Chellappan, AIR  2023 Mad 8, P.  Sadayan v. Arumugam, 2020-1 Mad LW 535).
  • See also: Joy Joseph v. Jose Jacob, 2010 (4) KHC 167; Kochu Nadar v. Kunjan Nadar Gabriel,2011 SCC OnLine Ker 2674;  Kallen Devi v. Kizhakkekoroth Raghavan, 2012 (3) KLT 142; Kamala Devi Amma v. Rajan, 2017 (4) KLJ 700;  Lilly v. Wilson, 2018 (1) KLT 772.

Hero Vinoth v.  Seshammal, 2006-5 SCC 545, is the well accepted authority, as regards ‘easement of necessity’, for the following –

  • An easement of necessity is one which is not merely necessary for the reasonable enjoyment of the dominant tenement, but one where dominant tenement cannot be used at all without the easement.
  • The burden of the servient owner in such a case is not on the basis of any concession or grant made by him for consideration or otherwise, but it is by way of a legal obligation enabling the dominant owner to use his land.
  • It is limited to the barest necessity however inconvenient it is irrespective of the question whether a better access could be given by the servient owner or not. When an alternate access becomes available, the legal necessity of burdening the servient owner ceases and the easement of necessity by implication of law is legally withdrawn or extinguished as statutorily recognized in Sec. 41.
  • Such an easement will last only as long as the absolute necessity exists.

Hero Vinoth v.  Seshammal, 2006-5 SCC 545, is the well accepted authority, as regards ‘easement by grant’, for the following –

  • Easement of necessity will not amount to an easement of necessity under Sec. 13 of the Act eventhough it may also be an absolute necessity for the person in whose favour the grant is made.
  • Limit of the easement acquired by grant is controlled only by the terms of the contract. If the terms of the grant restrict its user subject to any condition the parties will be governed by those conditions. Any how the scope of the grant could be determined by the terms of the grant between the parties alone.
  • If it is a permanent arrangement uncontrolled by any condition, that permanency in user must be recognized and the servient tenement will be recognized and the servient tenement will be permanently burdened with that disability.
  • Such a right does not arise under the legal implication of Sec. 13.
  •  An easement by grant does not get extinguished under Sec. 41 of the Act which relates to an easement of necessity.
  • Where the parties clearly provided for a right of access to the backyard of the defendant’s house when the Partition deed was executed and shares were allotted to various sharers taking into account various factors, it is a matter of contractual arrangement between them.
  • In such a contract if a right of way is provided to a particular sharer, it cannot be extinguished merely because such sharer has other alternative way.

Will Easement of Necessity Ripen into a Prescriptive Easement?

In other words-

  • Can one claim ‘easement of necessity’ and ‘easement by prescription’ with respect to a (same) way?  
  • Does a way  that started with minimum width (say a foot-path) under the claim ‘easement of necessity’, and continued with a higher width (so that cars can be taken), in the course of time,  for more than 20 years, will yield or bring-in ‘easement by prescription’?

We find answer in negative form in Tanba Nusaji Mahajan v, Pandhari Mahajan, 2004 (6) BomCR 782, 2004 (4) MhLJ 109. It is held as under:

  • “10. However, a way of necessity is distinguished from the right of way acquired by prescription and cannot ripen into a prescriptive easement so long as the necessity continues. A way of necessity arises by virtue of conditions entirely different from easement of way created by prescription. The former arises by implication of law out of the necessities of the case and is based upon principle of law which negative the existence of a way by continuous adverse user. The acquisition of way by adverse user is based upon the theory of the hostility of the use to the title of the person over whose lands it is acquired, while a way of necessity is based upon an implication of an intended grant and the use of it is based entirely upon such implication or consent to its use.”

Hero Vinoth v.  Seshammal, 2006-5 SCC 545, is the well accepted authority, to differentiate ‘easement of necessity and grant’. It is laid down –

  • Easement of necessity is depended upon absolute necessity.  Easement by grant does not depend upon absolute necessity of it. (It is the nature of the acquisition that is relevant.)
  • Many easements acquired by grant may be absolutely necessary for the enjoyment of the dominant tenement in the sense that it cannot be enjoyed at all without it. That may be the reason for the grant also. Still, easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties, and the parties are governed by the terms of the grant and not anything else; whereas easement of necessity is controlled under the legal implications of Sec. 13 and it is extinguished by the statutory provision under Sec. 41 (which is not applicable to easement by grant).
  • Easement by grant will not amount to an easement of necessity under Sec. 13 even when grant is an absolute necessity for the person in whose favour it is made.

Can Easement of Necessity and (Implied) Grant be Claimed Alternatively?

It is held in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, Easement of Implied Grant can be granted in a suit even though “Grant” alone was Claimed (Alternatively to easement of necessity). Facts of the case, in a nutshell, are the following –

  • Plaintiff, owner of A-schedule property (dominant tenement), claimed “easement of necessity or of grant” in B-schedule property (servient tenement).
  • “Implied grant” was not specifically pleaded (only ‘grant’ was pleaded).
  • Dominant tenement had been separated from the servient tenement.
  • Plaintiff has been using the way in B-schedule property for a long period (about 50 years).
  • The trial court observed that the plaintiff claiming easement by grant or easement of necessity has only a primary burden to prove the absence of any alternate pathway (these findings were accepted by the Apex Court).
  • Defendant alleged that two alternate pathways existed. But, No evidence of any other way to A-schedule property (dominant tenement).
  • The High Court found that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway.
  • The Supreme Court upheld the view of the High Court and the Trial Court and held as under:
    • “… the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that
      • (i) no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and
      • (ii) there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property …”

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “17. The High Court limited itself to the issue whether the decree of the first appellate court granting the original plaintiff (since deceased) right of easement over ‘B’ schedule property by way of grant concurring with the findings of the trial court was sustainable.
  • 18. Before the High Court, the defendants pleaded that there had been no appeal or cross objection filed by the original plaintiff (since deceased) against the order of the Appellate Court which disallowed the claim of easement of necessity and, therefore, the finding that there existed no easement of necessity in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased) over the ‘B’ schedule property stood confirmed. Further they contended that the alternative pathway on the western side of the ‘A’ schedule property was rendered inconvenient by the very act of the original plaintiff (since deceased) who sold that portion of the property to a third party who began digging that pathway resulting in the difference in level. The High Court, on consideration of these contentions, held that though the claim of right of easement by way of necessity over ‘B’ Schedule property may be affected by the subsequent sale of the said plot by the plaintiff in 1983, the claim of right of easement by way of grant over ‘B’ schedule property stood unaffected by the said conduct.
  • 21. The High Court relied on a number of observations in Katiyar’s Law of Easement and Licences (12th Edition) on law with respect to “implication of grant of an easement.” It may arise upon severance of a tenement by its owner into parts. The acquisition of easement by prescription may be classified under the head of implied grant for all prescription presupposes a grant. All that is necessary to create the easement is a manifestation or an unequivocal intention on the part of the servient owner to that effect.
  • 23. Applying these observations to the facts of the case, the High Court held that though the original grant was by Yogini Amma that grant could not perfect as an easement for the reason that Yogini Amma herself was the owner of both ‘A’ schedule and ‘B’ schedule properties and consequently there was no question of ‘B’ schedule property becoming the servient tenement and ‘A’ schedule property becoming the dominant tenement. However, it was the desire of Yogini Amma that was implemented by her disciples by virtue of the settlement deed. Therefore, the right of the plaintiff to have ‘B’ schedule property as a pathway could not have been taken away by the very same deed. In fact, there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway as can be inferred from the circumstances, namely,
    • i) no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property in the settlement deed and
    • ii) there was no objection to the use of ‘B’ schedule as pathway.
  • 25. We have heard Mr. T.L. Viswanatha Iyer, learned senior counsel for the appellants and Mr. Subramanium Prasad, learned senior counsel for the respondents. We have carefully examined the impugned judgment of the courts below and also the pleadings, evidence and the materials already on record. It is not in dispute that the trial court as well as the First Appellate Court concurrently found on a proper appreciation of the evidence adduced in the case that the ‘B’ Schedule Property of the plaint was being used by the original plaintiff (since deceased) and thereafter, by the respondents even after construction of the building in 1940 in ‘A’ Schedule property of the plaint. The appellants also did not dispute the case of the original plaintiff (since deceased) that he was in continuous occupation of the building even after its construction in the year 1940. It is also not in dispute that the appellants were not able to establish that the original plaintiff (since deceased) was using any other pathway for access to ‘A’ Schedule Property of the plaint and the building therein, which was in the occupation of the original plaintiff (since deceased). The case of the appellants that since there was no mention in the deed of settlement enabling the use of ‘B’ schedule pathway for access to ‘A’ schedule property and the building therein, cannot be the reason to hold that there was no grant as the grant could be by implication as well. It is not in dispute that the fact of the use of the ‘B’ schedule property as pathway even after execution of Exhibit A1, the settlement deed in the year 1982 by the original plaintiff (since deceased) would amply show that there was an implied grant in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased) relating to ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint for its use as pathway to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint in residential occupation of the original plaintiff (since deceased). In the absence of any evidence being adduced by the appellants to substantiate their contention that the original plaintiff (since deceased) had an alternative pathway for access to the ‘A’ schedule property, it is difficult to negative the contention of the respondent that since the original plaintiff (since deceased) has been continuously using the said pathway at least from the year 1940 the original plaintiff (since deceased) had acquired an easement right by way of an implied grant in respect of the ‘B’ Schedule property of the plaint. It is an admitted position that both ‘A’ schedule and ‘B’ schedule properties of the plaint belonged to Yogini Amma and her disciples and it was the desire of Yogini Amma that was really implemented by the disciples under the settlement deed executed in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased). Therefore, the High Court was perfectly justified in holding that when it was the desire of Yogini Amma to Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam & Anr vs. G.Anandavally Amma & Ors grant easement right to the original plaintiff (since deceased) by way of an implied grant, the right of the original plaintiff (since deceased) to have ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as a pathway could not have been taken away.
  • In Annapurna Dutta vs. Santosh Kumar Sett & Ors. [AIR 1937 Cal.661], B.K. Mukherjee, as His Lordship then was observed:
    • There could be no implied grant where the easements are not continuous and non-apparent. Now a right of way is neither continuous nor always an apparent easement, and hence would not ordinarily come under the rule. Exception is no doubt made in certain cases, where there is a ‘formed road’ existing over one part of the tenement for the apparent use of another portion or there is ‘some permanence in the adaptation of the tenement’ from which continuity may be inferred, but barring these exceptions, an ordinary right of way would not pass on severance unless language is used by the grantor to create a fresh easement.”
  • 26. In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

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Polygraph, Narco Analysis and Brain Mapping Tests in Criminal Investigation

Saji Koduvath.

Introduction.

Polygraph (Lie Detector Test), Narco Analysis and Brain Mapping are tests used in Criminal Investigation. The investigation teams are not free to use it, as they think proper. It is so made clear in the Guidelines promulgated by the National Human Rights Commission, and in the Supreme Court decision in Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263.

Guidelines of National Human Rights Commission, in 2000

The National Human Rights Commission laid down the Guidelines in 2000, for using Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test) on the accused. It is made under Article 21 of the Constitution. Article 21 safeguards the rights of every person against cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment by any State-agency. These mandatory guiding principles read as under:

  • “(i) No Lie Detector Tests should be administered except on the basis of consent of the accused. An option should be given to the accused whether he wishes to avail such test.
  • (ii) If the accused volunteers for a Lie Detector Test, he should be given access to a lawyer and the physical, emotional and legal implication of such a test should be explained to him by the police and his lawyer.
  • (iii) The consent should be recorded before a Judicial Magistrate.
  • (iv) During the hearing before the Magistrate, the person alleged to have agreed should be duly represented by a lawyer.
  • (v) At the hearing, the person in question should also be told in clear terms that the statement that is made shall not be a ‘confessional’ statement to the Magistrate but will have the status of a statement made to the police.
  • (vi) The Magistrate shall consider all factors relating to the detention including the length of detention and the nature of the interrogation.
  • (vii) The actual recording of the Lie Detector Test shall be done by an independent agency (such as a hospital) and conducted in the presence of a lawyer.
  • (viii) A full medical and factual narration of the manner of the information received must be taken on record.”

Smt. Selvi  v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263

The Supreme Court has made it clear in Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263 that these guidelines issued by the National Human Rights Commission, in 2000, pertained to Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test), should be strictly adhered to. That is, if the accused objects such Tests, they cannot be forcibly administered. By virtue of the Supreme Court decision, similar safeguards should be adopted for conducting ‘Narco-Analysis Technique’ and the ‘Brain Electrical Activation Profile test’, also.

The Apex Court held that the forcible methods of carrying out Narco Analysis Test or Polygraph Test by the police are destructive of accused’s non-derogable rights against self-incrimination and personal liberty. It was held that this right against the self-incrimination was available even at the stage of investigation. In Smt. Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010) 7 SCC 263,  the Apex Court observed as under:

  • “263. We are also of the view that forcing an individual to undergo any of the impugned techniques violates the standard of “substantive due process” which is required for restraining personal liberty. Such a violation will occur irrespective of whether these techniques are forcibly administered during the course of an investigation or for any other purpose since the test results could also expose a person to adverse consequences of a non-penal nature. The impugned techniques cannot be read into the statutory provisions which enable medical examination during investigation in criminal cases i.e. the Explanation to Sections 53, 53-A and 54 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Such an expansive interpretation is not feasible in light of the rule of “ejusdem generis” and the considerations which govern the interpretation of statutes in relation to scientific advancements. We have also elaborated how the compulsory administration of any of these techniques is an unjustified intrusion into the mental privacy of an individual. It would also amount to “cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment” with regard to the language of evolving international human rights norms. Furthermore, placing reliance on the results gathered from these techniques comes into conflict with the “right to fair trial”. Invocations of a compelling public interest cannot justify the dilution of constitutional rights such as the “right against self-incrimination”.
  • 264. In light of these conclusions, we hold that no individual should be forcibly subjected to any of the techniques in question, whether in the context of investigation in criminal cases or otherwise. Doing so would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into personal liberty. However, we do leave room for the voluntary administration of the impugned techniques in the context of criminal justice provided that certain safeguards are in place. Even when the subject has given consent to undergo any of these tests, the test results by themselves cannot be admitted as evidence because the subject does not exercise conscious control over the responses during the administration of the test. However, any information or material that is subsequently discovered with the help of voluntary administered test results can be admitted in accordance with Section 27 of the Evidence Act, 1872.”

The Supreme Court summarised its decision as under:

VERY IMPORTANT POINTS

  • 1.            No individual should be forcibly subjected to any of the scientific techniques, Narcoanalysis, Polygraph Examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test whether in the context of investigation in criminal cases or otherwise. Doing so would amount to an unwarranted intrusion into personal liberty.
  • 2.            Scientific techniques such as narcoanalysis, polygraph examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test cannot be read into the statutory provisions which enable medical examination during investigation in criminal cases, i.e. the Explanation to Sections 53, 53-A and 54 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
  • 3.            Placing reliance on the results gathered from scientific techniques such as narcoanalysis, polygraph examination and Brain Electrical Activation Profile (BEAP) test comes into conflict with the ‘right to fair trial’.
  • 4.            It is a settled principle that a statement obtained through coercion, threat or inducement is involuntary and hence inadmissible as evidence during trial , in circumstances where it is shown that a person was indeed compelled to make statements while in custody, relying on such testimony as well as its derivative use will offend Article 20(3).
  • 5.            Results obtained through involuntary administration of any of the scientific tests namely narcoanalysis technique, polygraph examination and the BEAP test come within the scope of ‘testimonial compulsion’, thereby attracting the protective shield of Article 20(3).
  • 6.            Compulsory administration of any of the scientific tests namely narcoanalysis technique, polygraph examination and BEAP test constitutes ‘cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment’ in the context of Article 21.

(This judgment, Smt. Selvi v. State of Karnataka, is referred to in:

  • Ajit Mohan Vs. Legislative Assembly, NCT of Delhi, 2021-8 SCALE 8;
  • Tofan Singh Vs. State of Tamil Nadu, AIR 2020 SC 5592;
  • Ashish Jain Vs. Makrand Singh, 2019-1 JT 342;
  • Rajendra Pralhadrao Wasnik Vs. State of Maharashtra, 2018-12 JT 189  
  • K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, (2017) 10 SCC 1.)

The Supreme Court in Amlesh Kumar v. The State of Bihar on 9 June, 2025, 2025 INSC 810 (Sanjay Karol, Prasanna B. Varale), 9th June, 2025, held as under:

  • “21. In view of the above exposition in Selvi (Supra), the third question is answered in the following terms :
  • The accused has a right to voluntarily undergo a narco- analysis test at an appropriate stage. We deem it appropriate to add, that the appropriate stage for such a test to be conducted is when the accused is exercising his right to lead evidence in a trial. However, there is no indefeasible right with the accused to undergo a narco- analysis test, for upon receipt of such an application the concerned Court, must consider the totality of circumstances surrounding the matter, such as free consent, appropriate safeguards etc., authorizing a person to undergo a voluntary narco-analysis test. We deem it appropriate to reproduce and reiterate the guidelines issued in Selvi (Supra) in this regard as follows :
  • “265. The National Human Rights Commission had published Guidelines for the Administration of Polygraph Test (Lie Detector Test) on an Accused in 2000. These Guidelines should be strictly adhered to and similar safeguards should be adopted for conducting the “narcoanalysis technique” and the “Brain Electrical Activation Profile” test. The text of these Guidelines has been reproduced below:
  • (i). No lie detector tests should be administered except on the basis of consent of the accused. An option should be given to the accused whether he wishes to avail such test.
  • (ii). If the accused volunteers for a lie detector test, he should be given access to a lawyer and the physical, emotional and legal implication of such a test should be explained to him by the police and his lawyer.
  • (iii). The consent should be recorded before a Judicial Magistrate.
  • (iv). During the hearing before the Magistrate, the person alleged to have agreed should be duly represented by a lawyer.
  • (v). At the hearing, the person in question should also be told in clear terms that the statement that is made shall not be a “confessional” statement to the Magistrate but will have the status of a statement made to the police.
  • (vi). The Magistrate shall consider all factors relating to the detention including the length of detention and the nature of the interrogation.
  • (vii). The actual recording of the lie detector test shall be done by an independent agency (such as a hospital) and conducted in the presence of a lawyer.
  • (viii). A full medical and factual narration of the manner of the information received must be taken on record.”




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Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Who has to fix Damages in Tort and Contract?

Jojy George Koduvath.

Damages under Tort and Contract

Damages arise from ‘tortious liability’ and ‘breach of contract’. It is observed in Rajkot Municipal Corpn. v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum,(1997) 9 SCC 552, as under:

  • “In tort, liability is primarily fixed by law while in contract they are fixed by the parties themselves. In tort, the duty is towards the persons generally while in contract it is towards specific persons or persons. If the claim depends upon proof of proof of the contract, action does not lie in tort. If the claim arises, from the relationship between the parties, independent of the contract, an action would lie in tort at the election of the plaintiff, although the might alternatively have pleaded in contract.”

Tortious Liability

Blacks Law Dictionary defines ‘tort’ as violation of duty imposed by general law or otherwise upon all persons occupying the relation to each other involved in a given transaction. There must always be a violation of some duty owed to plaintiff and generally such a duty must arise by operation of law and not by mere agreement of the parties.

Essential Elements of Tortious Liability

The essential elements of tortious liability are –

  • (a) some wrong doing and (b) negligence or strict liability.

Actual Damage for Tort must be Established before a Court

For asserting tortious liability, as observed by our Apex Court, in Rajkot Municipal Corpn. v. Manjulben Jayantilal Nakum, it must be established before a court of law that:

  • (i) The defendant was under duty of care, primarily fixed by law, not to create physical danger to the person or property of third party;
  • (ii)  The defendant ought to have reasonably foreseen the physical danger likely to be affected;
  • (iii)  Violation of such duty fastened liability upon the defendant to pay damages; and
  • (iv) Actual physical damage must have been caused to the plaintiff or his property out of such breach of duty.

Foreseeability of Damages

In United India Insurance Co.  v. Thomas, 1999-1 KLT 165; 1999 1 RCR(Civ) 610. the Kerala High Court held as under:

  •  “In a suit for damages in a tort case, the court has power to award pecuniary compensation to the plaintiff for the injury or damage caused to him out of the wrongful act of the defendant. The test employed for determining whether the defendant is liable for damages is the test of directness, that is to say the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of the tortuous acts suffered by the plaintiff whether or not a reasonable man would have foreseen them. The Court of Appeal in Re Polemis and Furness, Withy & Co. Ltd. (1921) 3 K.B. 560) held that once the tortuous act is established the defendant is to be held liable for all the damages which ‘is in fact directly traceable to the negligent act, and not due to independent causes having no connection with the negligent act’.
  • Foreseeability of some damage is relevant to decide whether the act complained of was negligent or not. But the liability for damages is not restricted to foreseeable damage but extends to all the damage directly traceable to the negligent act. This view was adopted by the Privy Council in Overseas Tankship (U.K.) Ltd. v. Morts Dock & Engineering Co. Ltd. (1961) 1 All. E.R.404 (PC). In holding foresee ability to be the correct test, the judicial committee observed that Polemis” case (supra) should not be regarded as a good law. Lord Viscound Simonds observed:
    •        “For it does not seem consonant with current ideas of justice or morality that, for an act of negligence .however slight or venial, which results in some trivial foreseeable damage, the actor should be liable for all consequences, however, unforeseeable and however grave, so long as they can be said to be “direct”. It is a principle of civil liability subject only to qualifications which have no present relevance, that a man must be considered to be responsible for the probable consequences of his act.”
  • His Lordship further said:
    •        “But, with great respect to the full court, this is surely irrelevant, or, if it is relevant, only serves to show that the Polemis rule works in a very strange way. After the event even a fool is wise. Yet it is not the hindsight of a fool, but it is the foresight of the reasonable man which alone can determine responsibility. The Polemis rule, by substituting “direct” for “reasonably foreseeable” consequence, leads to a conclusion equally illogical and unjust.”
  •        The above test of foresee ability was affirmed in The Wagon Mound (No. 2) (1966) 2 All. E.R.709) and Hughes v. Lord Advocate (1963) 1 All. E.R.705). While adjudicating the claim for compensation by the Tribunal under S.165 of the Act the foresee ability test has no application. It is for the Civil Court to apply this test while assessing the damages in accordance with the facts and circumstances of each case.”

Law of Tort Offers Compensation for Injuries; But, Not to All Losses

In Rajkot Municipal Corpn. v. ManjulbenJayantilalNakum,(1997) 9 SCC 552, a celebrated decision on this subject, it is pointed out as under:

  • “The law of tort prevents hurting one another. All torts consist of violation of a right in the plaintiff.  Tort law, therefore, is primarily evolved to compensate the injured by compelling the wrong-doer to pay for the damage done. Since distributive losses are an inevitable by-product of modern living in allocating the risk, the law of tort makes less and less allowance to punishment, admonition and deterrence found in criminal law. The purpose of the law of tort is to adjust these losses and offer compensation for injuries by one person as a result of the conduct of another. The law could not attempt to compensate all losses.”

Damages Awarded After Adjudication

It is pointed out in State of UP  v.  Miss Nikhat Parveen, 2005-3 All WC 2733, that in case any person claims damage and compensation, he shall have to resort to the remedies provided to him in law and that the claim of damages requires adjudication and determination of facts. The Court observed further as under:

  •           “11.   A liability in tort arises from a breach of duty primarily fixed by law and this duty is towards person (s) generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages. In general, torts consist of some act done without just cause or excuse. Injury and damage are two basic ingredients of torts. These may be found either in contract or otherwise, the violation of which may result in tortuous liability as breach of duty primarily fixed by law or by parties in a contract. An action in tort is usually a claim for pecuniary compensation in respect of damages suffered as a result of invasion, of a legally protected interest. The action is founded and structured on morality, as no one has right to injure or harm others intentionally or even innocently. The liability in tort, in course of time has become known as strict liability, absolute liability or fault liability. The difference between strict liability and fault liability, arises from presence and absence of mental element. A breach of legal duty wilfully, or deliberately or even menacingly, is negligence emanating from fault liability, to injure and damage resulting without any intention, yet due to lack of foresight etc. is strict liability. The duty is the primary yardstick to determine the tortuous liability, and its ambit keeps on widening on the touchstone on fairness and practicability of the situation etc. These rules laid down in Rylands v. Fletcher, (1932) AC 562 were recognised by Indian Courts in Jai Laxmi Salt Works (P.) Ltd. v. State of Gujarat, (1994) 4 SCC 1.
  •           12.     Actionable negligence as a tort is to breach of a legal duty to take care which results in the State or an individual liable when the State is found reluctant in discharge of its duties or public responsibilities. It also amounts to negligence and is accountable in law of torts. According to Dias, liability in negligence, is technically prescribed ‘as arising out of damage caused by the breach of a duty to take care. The concept of duty, its reasonableness, the standard of care required however cannot be put into straitjacket formula or a rigid fixed formulae. The more advanced the society becomes, the more sensitive it grows to the violation of the duties by private or even public functionary. The negligence, in law of torts, is influenced by social, economic and political development. The distinction arising out of damages due to negligence and even when it, rather unintentionally and innocently is a firmly established branch of the law of torts. The negligence is only descriptive of those sum of activities which may result in injury and damage to the other side for voluntary discharging of duty both legal and due to lack of foresight and may comprise of more than one concept known and recognised in law intended or unintended.”

No Pecuniary Obligation or Debt for Breach of Contract (By Itself)

The Apex Court held in Union of India v. Raman Iron Foundry, (1974)2 SCC 231, that when there is a breach of contract, the party who commits the breach does not incur any pecuniary obligation nor does the party complaining of the breach become entitled to a debt due from the other party. In Kaikkara Kaikkara Construction Company v. State Of Kerala, (2022) 1 Ker HC 541, the Kerala High Court observed as under:

  • “Two principles are laid down by the Apex Court in Raman Iron Foundry’s case:
  • 1) The law is well settled that a claim for unliquidated damages does not give rise to debt until the liability is adjudicated and damages assessed by a decree or order of a court or other adjudicatory authority. When a party who commits the breach does not eo instanti incur any pecuniary obligation nor does the party complaining of the breach become entitled to a debt due from the other party. The only right that the party aggrieved by the breach of the contract will get is the right to sue for damages.
  • 2) A claim for damages for breach of contract is therefore not a claim for a sum presently due and payable and the purchaser is not entitled, in exercise of the right conferred upon it under Clause 18, to recover the amount for such claim by appropriating other sum due to the contractor.”

It is held in Raman Iron Foundry‘s case as under.

  • “11. Having discussed the proper interpretation of clause 18, we may now turn to consider what is the real nature of the claim for recovery of which the appellant is seeking to appropriate the sums due to the respondent under other contracts. The claim is admittedly one for damages for breach of the contract between the parties. Now, it is true that the damages which are claimed are liquidated damages under clause 14, but so far as the law in India is concerned, there is no qualitative difference in the nature of the claim whether it be for liquidated damages or for unliquidated damages. S.74 of the Indian Contract Act eliminates the somewhat elaborate refinements made under the English common law in distinguishing between stipulations providing for payment of liquidated damages and stipulations in the nature of penalty. Under the common law a genuine pre-estimate of damages by mutual agreement is regarded as a stipulation naming liquidated damages and binding between the parties; a stipulation in a contract in terrorem is a penalty and the Court refuses to enforce it, awarding to the aggrieved party only reasonable compensation. The Indian Legislature has sought to cut across the web of rules and presumptions under the English common law, by enacting a uniform principle applicable to all stipulations naming amounts to be paid in case of breach, and stipulations by way of penalty, and according to this principle, even if there is a stipulation by way of liquidated damages, a party complaining of breach of contract can recover only reasonable compensation for the injury sustained by him, the stipulated amount being merely the outside limit. It, therefore makes no difference in the present case that the claim of the appellant is for liquidated damages. It stands on the same footing as a claim for unliquidated damages. Now the law is well settled that a claim for unliquidated damages does not give rise to a debt until the liability is adjudicated and damages assessed by a decree or order of a Court or other adjudicatory authority. When there is a breach of contract, the party who commits the breach does not eo instanti incur any pecuniary obligation, nor does the party complaining of the breach become party. The only right which the party aggrieved by the breach of the contract has is the right to sue for damages. That is not an actionable claim and this position is made amply clear by the amendment in S.6(e) of the Transfer of Property Act, which provides that a mere right to sue for damages cannot be transferred. This has always been the law in England and as far back as 1858 we find it stated by Wightman, J., in Jones v. Thompson, (1858) 27 LJQB 234. “Ex parte Charles and several other cases decide that the amount of a verdict in an action for unliquidated damages is not a debt till judgment has been signed.” It was held in this case that a claim for damages does not become a debt even after the jury has returned a verdict in favour of the plaintiff till the judgment is actually delivered. So also in O’Driscoll v. Manchester Insurance Committee, 1915 (3) KB 499. Swinfen Eady, L., J., said in reference to cases where the claim was for unliquidated damages “……. in such cases there is no debt at all until the verdict of the jury is pronounced assessing the damages and judgment is given”. The same view has also been taken consistently by different High Court in India. We may mention only a few of the decisions, namely, Jabed Sheikh v. Taher Mallik, 45 Cal WN 519 : AIR 1941 Cal. 639; S. Milkha Singh v. M/s. N. K. Gopala Krishna Mudaliar, AIR 1956 Punj 174 Iron and Hardware (India) Co. v. Firm Shamlal and Bros, AIR 1954 Bom 423. Chagla, C. J., in the last mentioned case, stated the law in these terms:(at pp.425-26) “In my opinion it would not be true to say that a person who commits a breach of the contract incurs any pecuniary liability, nor would it be true to say that the other party to the contract who complains of the breach has any amount due to him from the other party.
  • As already stated, the only right which he has is the right to go to a Court of law and recover damages. Now, damages are the compensation which a Court of law gives to a party for the injury which he has sustained. But, and this is most important to note, he does not get damages or compensation by reason of any existing obligation on the part of the person who has committed the breach. He gets compensation as a result of the fiat of the Court. Therefore, no pecuniary liability arises till the Court has determined that the party complaining of the breach is entitled to damages. Therefore, when damages are assessed, it would not be true to say that what the Court is doing is ascertaining a pecuniary liability which already existed. The Court in the first place must decide that the defendant is liable and then it proceeds to assess what that liability is. But till that determination there is no liability at all upon the defendant.”
  • This statement in our view represents the correct legal position and has our full concurrence. A claim for damages for breach of contract is, therefore, not a claim for a sum presently due and payable and the purchaser is not entitled, in exercise of the right conferred upon it under clause 18, to recover the amount of such claim by appropriating other sums due to the contractor. On this view, it is not necessary for us to consider the other contention raised on behalf of the respondent, namely, that on a proper construction of clause 18, the purchaser is entitled to exercise the right conferred under that clause only where the claim for payment of a sum of money is either admitted by the contractor, or in case of dispute, adjudicated upon by a Court or other adjudicatory authority. We must, therefore, hold that the appellant had no right or authority under Clause 18 to appropriate the amounts of other pending bill of the respondent in or towards satisfaction of its claim for damages against the respondent and the learned Judge was justified in issuing an interim injunction restraining the appellant from doing so.”

The Supreme Court, in State of Karnataka v. Rameswara Rice Mill, (1987) 2 SCC 160, it is held as under:

  • “7 …. The terms of clause 12 do not afford scope for a liberal construction being made regarding the powers of the Deputy Commissioner to adjudicate upon a disputed question of breach as well as to assess the damages arising from the breach. The crucial words in Cl.12 are “and for any breach of conditions set forth herein before, the first party shall be liable to pay damages to the second party as may be assessed by the second party.”
  • On a plain reading of the words, it is clear that the right of the second party to assess damages would arise only if the breach of conditions is admitted or if no issue is made of it. It it was the intention of the parties that the officer acting on behalf of the State was also entitled to adjudicate upon a dispute regarding the breach of conditions the wording in clause 12 would have been entirely different. It cannot also be argued that a right to adjudicate upon an issue relating to a breach of conditions of the contract would flow from or is inhered in the right conferred to assess the damages arising from a breach of conditions. The power to assess damages, as pointed out by the Full Bench, is a subsidiary and consequential power and not the primary power. Even assuming for argument’s sake that the terms of clause 12 afford scope for being construed as empowering the officer of the Sate to decide upon the question of breach as well as assess the quantum of damages, we do not think that adjudication by the Officer regarding the breach of the contract can be sustained under law because a party to the agreement cannot be an arbiter in his own cause. Interests of justice and equity require that where a party to a contract disputes the committing of any breach of conditions, the adjudication should be independent person or body, and not by the other party to the contract.
  • The position will, however, be different where there is no dispute or there is consensus between the contracting parties regarding the breach of conditions. In such a case, the Officer of the State, even though a party to the contract, will be sell within his rights in assessing the damages occasioned by the breach in view of the specific terms of clause 12.
  • 8. We are, therefore, in agreement with the view of the Full Bench that the powers of the State under an agreement entered into by it with a private person providing for assessment of damages for breach of conditions and recovery of the damages will stand confined only to those cases where the breach of conditions is admitted or it is not disputed.”

In Abdul Rahiman v. Divisional Forest Officer, 1988 (2) KLT 290, the Kerala High Court observed as follows”

  • “When a contract is broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive from the party who has broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby. This principle of S.73 of the Contract Act equally applies where one of the contesting parties is the Government. It is the breach of the contract that gives rise to the cause for damages. The primary duty therefore is to fix the liability for the breach. Assessment of damages is only an incidental or subsidiary function. The liability to pay damages is thus fastened where there is breach of contract.
  • However, when a dispute arises as to whether the contract has been broken or not, that dispute cannot be settled by one of the parties to the contract, for, he cannot be an arbiter in his own cause. The dispute may have to be referred to an arbitrator or the matter has to be settled in a court of law. This principle applies to the Government also as a party to the contract.
  • Where the breach of the contract is admitted ie. where there is no dispute that the contract has been broken by one of the parties, the Government as the party entitled to claim compensation for the breach need not wait for a determination by any outside agency as to whether there was any breach of contract. In that event, the question of damages alone remains to be considered. A sum can be named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of breach, an amount in liquidation of the claim for compensation. The contract can thus provide for liquidated damages in the event of breach and the Government claiming that amount as compensation for the admitted breach committed by the other party to the contract, need not seek the aid of court or any outside agency for the fixation of the quantum of damages.
  • Similarly, if the contract itself provides that “that one party shall be liable to pay damages to the second party as may be assessed by the second party”, the assessment by the second party, in case the breach is admitted, is binding on the first party and there is no more any necessity for a further quantification of the damages by any outside agency. The party assessing the damage can straight away seek to recover the amount and if that party is the Government, it can have recourse to the remedy available under the Kerala Revenue Recovery Act.”

After quoting this decision it is held in Build Tech India Ltd. v. State of Kerala, 2000 (2) Ker LJ 142 as under:

  • “The cumulative effect of the aforesaid decisions is that when breach is not admitted, one of the contracting parties cannot arrogate to itself the power to claim compensation for the breach from the other party without there being any adjudication by an outside agency as to whether there was any breach of contract. In the case on hand, going by the pleadings as already noticed, it cannot be held that the petitioner has admitted the breach. Therefore the respondents have no jurisdiction to quantify the damage or loss alleged to have sustained by it on account of the alleged breach.”

(All the aforesaid cases are referred to in Kaikkara Kaikkara Construction Company v. State Of Kerala, (2022) 1 Ker HC 541.)

Sec. 73 and 74 deals with Compensation for Breach of Contract

  • 73. Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract.—When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive, from the party who has broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract, to be likely to result from the breach of it.
  • —When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive, from the party who has broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract, to be likely to result from the breach of it.
  • Such compensation is not to be given for any remote and indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach. Compensation for failure to discharge obligation resembling those created by contract.
  • —When an obligation resembling those created by contract has been incurred and has not been discharged, any person injured by the failure to discharge it is entitled to receive the same compensation from the party in default, as if such person had contracted to discharge it and had broken his contract.
  • —When an obligation resembling those created by contract has been incurred and has not been discharged, any person injured by the failure to discharge it is entitled to receive the same compensation from the party in default, as if such person had contracted to discharge it and had broken his contract.”
  • Explanation.—In estimating the loss or damage arising from a breach of contract, the means which existed of remedying the inconvenience caused by the non-performance of the contract must be taken into account. 
  • 74 Compensation for breach of contract where penalty stipulated for:- [When a contract has been broken, if a sum is named in the contract as the amount to be paid in case of such breach, or if the contract contains any other stipulation by way of penalty, the party complaining of the breach is entitled, whether or not actual damage or loss is proved to have been caused thereby, to receive from the party who has broken the contract reasonable compensation not exceeding the amount so named or, as the case may be, the penalty stipulated for.
  • Explanation.— A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default may be a stipulation by way of penalty.]
  • (Exception) — When any person enters into any bail-bond, recognizance or other instrument of the same nature or, under the provisions of any law, or under the orders of the [Central Government] or of any [State Government], gives any bond for the performance of any public duty or act in which the public are interested, he shall be liable, upon breach of the condition of any such instrument, to pay the whole sum mentioned therein.
  • Explanation.— A person who enters into a contract with Government does not necessarily thereby undertake any public duty, or promise to do an act in which the public are interested. 

Can a Party to Contract Adjudicate Upon Breach and Quantum?

The Supreme Court, in State of Karnataka v. Rameshwara Rice Mills, Thirthahalli, AIR 1987 SC 1359, observed that even when the State is one of the contracting parties and seek to recover damages for breach of contract, the State cannot be a Judge in its own cause and cannot be its own arbitrator to determine the liability and quantum of damages. The Apex Court held as under:

  • “The terms of Clause 12 do not afford scope for a liberal construction being made regarding the powers of the Deputy Commissioner to adjudicate upon a disputed question of breach as well as to assess the damages arising from the breach. The crucial words in Clause 12 are “and for any breach of conditions set forth hereinbefore, the first party shall be liable to pay damages to the second party as may be assessed by the second party. On a plain reading of the word, it is clear that the right of the second party to assess damages would arise only if the breach of conditions is admitted or if no issue is made of it. If it was the intention of the parties that the officer acting on behalf of the State was also entitled to adjudicate upon a dispute regarding the breach of conditions the wording in Clause 12 would have been entirely different. It cannot also be argued that right to adjudicate upon an issue relating to a breach of conditions of the contract would flow from or is inhered in the right conferred to assess the damages arising from a breach of conditions. The power to assess damages, as pointed out by the Full Bench, is subsidiary and consequential power and not the primary power. Even assuming for argument’s sake that the terms of Clause 12 afford scope for being construed as empowering the office of the State of decide upon the question of breach as well as assess the quantum of damages, we do not think that adjudication by the officer regarding the breach of the contract can be sustained under law because a party to the agreement cannot be an arbiter in his own cause. Interests of justice and equity require that where a party to a contract disputes the committing of any breach of conditions the adjudication should be by an independent person or body and not by the other party to the contract. The position will, however, be different where there is no dispute or there is consensus between the contracting parties regarding the breach of conditions. In such a case, the Officer of the State, even though a party to the contract will be well within his rights in assessing the damages occasioned by the breach in view of the specific terms of Clause 12. .. We are, therefore, in agreement with the view of the Full Bench that the powers of the State under an agreement entered into by it with a private person providing for assessment of damages for breach of conditions and recovery of the damages will stand confined only to those cases where the breach of conditions is admitted or it is not disputed.”

This principles, dispute about the liability for damages is a matter for the civil court, and a party to an agreement cannot be an arbiter in its own cause, are followed in the following cases:

  • Abdul Rahiman v. Divisional Forest Officer, AIR 1989 Ker 1;
  • Latheef v. Superintending Engineer, ILR 1993(2) Ker 426;
  • Rambal Co. v. Kerala State Science & Technology Museum, 2000 (3) Arb. LR 212;
  • Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd. v. Motorola India Pvt. Ltd., AIR 2009 SC 357: 2009 2 SCC 337;
  • Mohammed Kunhi v. Executive Engineer, 2001(3) KLT 733;
  • Union of India v. Tejinder Kumar Dua, 2013-200 DLT 60;
  • Tulsi Narayan Garg v. Madhya Pradesh Road Development Authority, Bhopal, 2019 SCC OnLine SC 1158.

It is held in the following cases that if breach alleged by a party to the contract is denied by the other a unilateral decision as to damages is not proper.

  • Union of India v. Raman Iron Foundry, AIR 1974 SC 1265: (1974) 2 SCC 231. (The principles in this decision is followed in the following cases.)
  • State of Karnataka v. Rameshwara Rice Mills, Thirthahalli, AIR 1987 SC 1359
  • JG Engineers Private Limited v. Union of India, AIR 2011 SC 2477: (2011) 5 SCC 758
  • State of Kerala and others v M.K.Jose, (2015) 9 SCC 433
  • M/s. Gangotri Enterprises Limited v Union of India, (2016) 11 SCC 720, AIR 2016 SC 2199.

It is pointed out in Perkins Eastman Architects DPC v. HSCC (India) Limited, AIR 2020 SC 59,   2019 SCC Online SC 1517, by our Apex Court that a Chief Managing Director of a Company by himself cannot appoint a sole arbitrator, as he himself cannot act as an arbitrator, emphasising the principle that ‘what cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly’. (See also: TRF Limited vs. Energo Projects Ltd., (2017) 8 SCC 377.)

Tender issuer cannot forfeit pre-bid payment as damages; He has to Prove it

In Sushil Kumar Thard v. National Jute Manufactures Corpn. Ltd., (2023) 2 HCC (Cal) 217, the successful bidder refused to sign the contract. It is held that the tender issuer cannot forfeit the earnest money or the pre-bid payment as damages. He has to prove the loss or damage by reason of such alleged breach; for, Sec. 73 of the Contract Act requires damages to be the reasonable compensation of breach suffered by the claimant and not remote. The High Court relied on the judgment of the Madras High Court in Rubina v. The Authorised Officer, M/s. Axis Bank Limited which held that the existence of a forfeiture clause does not imply that the entire amount deposited can be forfeited and that the right to forfeit must be balanced against the rule of unjust enrichment.

If Special Forum Provided, it must be Approached       

Supreme Court in the case of Western India Plywood Limited v. P Ashokan, AIR 1997 SC 3883, and BS Bharti v. IBP Co. Ltd, AIR 2004 SC 4355, it is laid down that where a special statute (Motor Vehicles Act, Workman’s Compensation Act, ESI Act, Industrial Disputes Act, etc.) bars jurisdiction of the civil court, and a special forum is provided, then the injured must seek his remedy before the special forum, and he cannot resort to remedy in a civil suit.

Pleadings and Future Damages

In Bhagwati Prasad v. Chandramaul, AIR 1966 SC 735; 1966-2 SCR 286, It was held as under:

  • “Once it is held that the plaintiff is entitled to eject the defendant, it follows that from the date of the decree granting the relief of ejectment to the plaintiff, the defendant who remains in possession of the property despite the decree, must pay mesne profits or damages for use and occupation of the said property until it is delivered to the plaintiff. A decree for ejectment in such a case must be accompanied by a direction for payment of the future mesne profits or damages. Then as to the rate at which future mesne profits can be awarded to the plaintiff, we see no reason to differ from the view taken by the trial Court that the reasonable amount in the present case would be Rs. 300/- per month.”


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