Res Judicata and Judicial Precedent

Taken from: Res Judicata and Constructive Res Judicata

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Res Judicata When Attracted

Res Judicata applies when the ‘matter is decided’.

Core Ingredients:
•➧ The matter in issue has been an issue in a former suit.

Other Requirements
•➧ (i) Matter in issue directly and substantially same; Same Parties, (ii) Heard and finally decided, and (iii) Decision by a competent court.
•➧ Sufficient pleading should have been raised

Other Settled Positions
•➧ The issue should have been necessary to be decided; an incidental finding will not constitute res judicata.
•➧ No res judicata if the ultimate decision – suit was not maintainable.
•➧ No res judicata on adverse finding against whom the suit is ultimately decided.
•➧ Former decision was too perverse.  

Other Concluded Points
•➧ Findings on several grounds. In the appeal, only one ground was considered. Res judicata on that one ground alone.
•➧ Different causes of action, as in an injunction suit or in an eviction suit.

Precedents – only if they decide a question of law

              •➧ A Case is only an Authority for what it Actually Decides.
              •➧ Decision Applicable Only to Facts Cannot be a Binding Precedent.
              •➧ Binding Precedent Helps in Promoting Certainty and Consistency.
              •➧ A decision is available as a precedent only if it decides a question of law.
              •➧ An order made merely to dispose of the case cannot have the value or effect of a binding precedent.
              •➧ The precedential value is attached only to orders which are preceded by a detailed judgment.

Ratio Decidendi alone is Binding Precedent 

               •➧ Ratio decidendi alone is the Binding Precedent.
               •➧ Ratio decidendi is a statement of principles of law.
               •➧ Ratio decidendi is the vital element in the decision.
               •➧ Ratio decidendi literally means “reason for deciding”.
               •➧ Ratio decidendi is the essence, and not every observation.
               •➧Ratio decidendi is a declaration of law in a speaking order.
              •➧ Ratio decidendi is the Legal Principle Guiding the Decision.
               •➧ Ratio decidendi alone binds under Article 141 of the Constitution. 
              •➧ What is binding is discernible Ratio and the Principle, not the Conclusion.
             •➧ A case is only an authority for what it decides, and not for what logically follows from it.
              •➧ No Binding Precedent if a decision is without taking into account the statutory provision or if it is wrong in law.
              •➧ Ratio decidendi Is Binding Precedent: Mere Casual Expressions – Not of Much Avail

             •➧ It is important to read and analyse the Entire Judgment, and the ratio decidendi is to be isolated.
              •➧ Words in a Judgment are Not to be Interpreted as a Statute; Words in it are Not to be Taken Literally.
              •➧ The abstract ratio decidendi (ascertained on a consideration of the judgment)  alone has the force of law.
             •➧ For the Legal Principles Guiding the Decision constitute ‘Ratio Decidendi’, it is always necessary to see what the facts were.

Introduction.

  • ‘Res’, in Latin, means a thing or matter; and
  •  ‘Judicata’ means decided or judged.

Thus, Res Judicata applies when the ‘matter is decided’. It is based on the public policy of finality and conclusiveness of judicial decisions; that is, one should not be tried twice for the same cause or a matter that has been directly and substantially in issue in an earlier suit.

  • Sec. 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, elucidates this principle.

Sec. 11, Civil Procedure Code, 1908, reads as under:

“Res Judicata No court shall try any suit or issue in which the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially in issue in a former suit between the same parties, or between parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, in a Court competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised, and has been heard and finally decided by such Court.” … (Explanations I to VIII)

Binding Judicial Precedent and Res Judicata – a Couplet

Binding Judicial Precedent refers to a judicial rule or principle established in an earlier binding decision that must be followed in subsequent similar cases.

  • Res Judicata applies to findings of both law and fact. It bars the same parties from re-litigating issues that have already been finally decided.
  • Binding Precedent pertains strictly to legal principles and technically binds courts, not parties.

No ‘Binding Precedent’ if earlier decision was –

  • without taking into account the statutory provision or factual situation
  • wrong in law.

Binding Precedent- In Nutshell

No Binding Precedent if relevant STATUTORY PROVISION was Not considered. [Union of India v. Maniklal Banerjee, AIR 2006 SC 2844] 

Where no consideration was given to the question, the decision cannot be said to be binding; and precedents SUB SILENTIO – Without Arguments – are of NO MOMENT. [A-One Granites v. State of U.P., 2001-3 SCC 537] 
 
A decision is available as a precedent only if it DECIDES a QUESTION OF LAW. [State of Punjab v. Surinder Kumar, AIR 1992 SC 1593: 1992-1 SCC 489]. Not facts. [Prakash Chandra Pathak v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 1960 SC 195] 

RATIO DECIDENDI is Binding Precedent: Mere Casual Expressions – Not of Much Avail.[ Girnar Traders v. State of Maharashtra, (2007) 7 SCC 555; State of Maharashtra v. Bhakti Vedanta Book Trust, AIR 2013 SC 1667; 2013-4 SCC 676; Shrirampur Municipal Council v. Satyabhamabai Bhimaji Dawkher, AIR 2013 SC 3757; 2013 5 SCC 627; Arun Kumar Aggarwal v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 2011 SC 3056; 2014-13 SCC 707). 

For Binding Precedent, finding must be ‘RATIO DECIDENDI (necessary to the decision), and  Not obiter dicta. [Allen in ‘Law in the Making’; Quoted in: Chandrapal Singh v. State of U. P. (All), 2023-11 ADJ 543; Chandrapal Singh v. State of U. P. (All), 2023-11 ADJ 543)]

Court’s order is binding on the parties under res judicata; the RATIO DECIDENDI is binding on other Courts as binding precedent. [The Modern English Legal System (4th Edition) by Smith, Bailey and Gunn (Sweet & Maxwell, 2002), pages 518-519] 
 
What is of the essence in a decision is its ratio and not every observation found therein. [State of Orissa v. Sudhansu Sekhar Misra, AIR 1968 SC 647; Union of India v. Dhanwanti Devi, 1996-6 SCC 44; Secunderabad Club v. CIT, 2023 SCC OnLine SC 1004, 2023-457 ITR 263 (SC) 

The doctrine of precedent mandates that an exposition of law must be followed and applied. [State of U.P. v. Ajay Kumar Sharma, 2016-15 SCC 289]. 

Res judicata bars raising the same issue. Judicial precedent is not concerned with issues between parties. (Spencer Bower, Turner and Handley’s Commentary on the Doctrine of Res Judicata (Butterworths: London, Edinburgh, Dublin – 1996, pages 8 and 9)

Res judicata pertains to the parties;  precedent refers to a binding declaration of law that applies to courts or authorities. [Indian Broadcasting and Digital Foundation v. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India, 01 Nov 2024, 2024 KER 80988]. 

A decision on the ‘construction of that document’ can operates as a judicial precedent against one though he was not a party to that litigation (Sahu Madho Dass v. Mukand Ram, 1955 AIR SC 481).

Ratio Decidendi is the Binding Precedent; Not  Findings on Facts or Issues

In Jagdish Prasad v. State of MP, 2004(4) MPLJ 537, it was held by the Supreme Court as under:

  • “Any observation made or relief given by a Court, out of sympathy, compassion, sentiments and not based on any discernible principle of law or de hors the merits of the case, cannot be a binding precedent. A judgment of a Court contains three parts :
  • (i) finding of facts;
  • (ii) statement of principle of law applicable to the legal problem raised on the facts, based on which the case is decided; and
  • (iii) decision which is based on the finding of fact, applicable principles of law, and in some cases, discretion and the need to mould the relief in a particular manner.
  • Out of the three parts, it is only the second part, that is ratio decidendi or statement of law applied and acted upon by the Court, that is a binding precedentNeither the findings on facts nor the ultimate decision, that is, the relief given or the manner adopted to dispose of the case, is a precedent.” (Quoted in: Satpura Narmada Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Chhindwara v. A. K.  Chaturvedi, 2012-1 JLJ 78; 2012-1 MPLJ 282)

In A-One Granites v. State of U.P. [(2001)3 SCC 537], the Supreme Court observed that where no consideration was given to the question, the decision cannot be said to be binding and precedents sub silentio and without arguments are of no moment. (Referred to in: Satpura Narmada Kshetriya Gramin Bank, Chhindwara v. A. K.  Chaturvedi, 2012-1 JLJ 78; 2012-1 MPLJ 282)

Decision without Argument, Crucial words, Citation of Authority: Not binding

In Gerard vs. Worth of Paris Ltd. (K), (1936) 2 All ER 905 (CA), it was observed that a decision which is rendered without argument, without reference to the crucial words of the rule, and without any citation of authority is not binding and need not be followed. The Court further observed that precedents sub silentio and without argument are of no moment. (Referred to in: Bindu K.B. vs. State of Kerala, 2014 (4) KHC 772.)

Ratio Decidendi Is Binding Precedent: Casual Words, Not of Much Avail

In Girnar Traders v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2007 SC 3180; (2007) 7 SCC 555, pointing out – the “observations of the Court did not relate to any of the legal questions arising in the case and, accordingly, cannot be considered as part of the ratio decidendi”, it is laid down as under:

  • “Hence, in light of the aforementioned judicial pronouncements, which have well settled the proposition that only the ratio decidendi can act as the binding or authoritative precedent, it is clear that the reliance placed on mere general observations or casual expressions of the Court, is not of much avail to the respondents.”
  • (Quoted in: State of Maharashtra v. Bhakti Vedanta Book Trust, AIR 2013 SC 1667; 2013-4 SCC 676;
  • Shrirampur Municipal Council v. Satyabhamabai Bhimaji Dawkher, AIR 2013 SC 3757; 2013 5 SCC 627;
  • Arun Kumar Aggarwal v. State of Madhya Pradesh, AIR 2011 SC 3056; 2014-13 SCC 707)

Res Judicata Binds Parties; Ratio Decidendi (as Binding Precedent) Binds Courts

In The Modern English Legal System (4th Edition) by Smith, Bailey and Gunn (Sweet & Maxwell, 2002), pages 518-519, says as under:

  • “…. Thus the Court’s order is binding on the parties under the res judicata doctrine; the ratio decidendi is binding on other Courts in accordance with the principles outlined above under the doctrine of binding precedent. A startling illustration of the distinction was provided by the following series of cases. A testator, John Arkle Waring, left annuities to Mr. Howard and Mrs. Louie Burton-Butler ‘free of income tax’. In 1942 the Court of Appeal in Re warning, Westminster Bank Ltd. v. Awdry : (1942) Ch. 426 on an appeal in which Howard was a party, held that income tax had to be deducted. Louie was not a party as she was in an enemy occupied country. Leave to appeal to the House of Lords was refused. Four years later the House of Lords in Berke¬ley v. Berkeley : (1946) A.C. 555 overruled the Awdry case. Subsequently, Jenkins J. held that the Awdry case was res judica¬ta so far as Howard was concerned notwithstanding that its ratio had been overruled in Berkeley v. Berkeley and that Louie’s annuity would be dealt with in accordance with the later case. (See Re Warning, Westminster Bank v. Burton-Butler : (1948) Ch. 221).”
  • (Quoted in: Kalinga Mining Corporation v. Union of India (AK Ganguly, CJ, then) 2007-104 CLT 737, Ori)

Spencer Bower, Turner and Handley’s Commentary on the Doctrine of res judicata (Butterworths: London, Edinburgh, Dublin – 1996, pages 8 and 9), explains the concept of res judicata as under:

  • “There is an essential difference between res judicata estoppel and the doctrine of judicial precedent. Under the former a final decision in fact or law by any Court having jurisdiction precludes either party (except on appeal) from again raising the same issue against the other in any Court. The doctrine of judicial precedent, on the other hand, is not concerned with issues between parties. …
  • The difference is illustrated by the cases of Re Waring decided in 1942 and 1948. In the first Farwell J held that Section 25 of the Finance Act 1941 was not applicable (1942) Ch. 309 to an annuity; but the Court of Appeal reversed this decision. (1942) Ch. 426. The effect was two-fold; it decided as res judicata between the parties that Section 25 applied, and it bound Courts up to the Court of Appeal in other cases. In Berkeley v. Bekeley (1946) AC 555, the House of Lords overruled Re Waring. In 1948 the trustees sought a decision as between themselves and the annuitant who had not been joined in the first proceedings. (1948) Ch. 221. The other annuitant remained bound by the earlier decision, but the result (see Duke of Bedford v. Elliz : (1901) AC 1 at 8), was otherwise governed by Berkeley v. Berkeley: Gisborne Sheepfarmers’ Mercantile Co. Ltd. v. IRC : (1962) NZLR 810 at 814.” (Quoted in: Kalinga Mining Corporation v. Union of India (AK Ganguly, CJ, then) 2007-104 CLT 737, Ori)

In State of M.P. v. Mulam Chandi, AIR 1973 MP293, it has been held as under :

  • “As between a decision which operates a s res judicata and a decision which is binding as a precedent but not res judicata, the former must prevail.”

Interpretation of a Document can Be A Binding Judicial Precedent

In Sahu Madho Dass v. Mukand Ram, 1955 AIR SC 481, it was observed out as under:

  • “Mukand Ram was not a party to that litigation and the decision does not bind him but it operates as a judicial precedent about the construction of that document, a precedent with which we respectfully agree.” (Referred to in: Syed Hafiz Mir v. Abdul Nayeemkhan, AIR 1960  MP 50; Potluri Saraswathi v. Vallabhaneni Veerabhadra Rao, 2004-7 ALT 120; Harabati v. Jasodhara Debi, AIR 1977  Ori  143; Ramachandra Bhat v. Srideviamma, AIR 1976 Kar 217; Katragadda China Anjaneyulu v. Kattragadda China Ramayya, 1965  AIR AP 177)

In R. V. Bhupal Prasad v. Saleha Begum, 2002 Supp2 ALD 735; 2001-5 ALT 770, it is pointed out that in Anjaneyulu v. Ramaiah, 1965-1 ALT 149, a Full Bench of the Andhra High Court held that interpretation of a material document in a prior proceeding between the same parties even if does not operate as res judicata would be a binding judicial precedent in a subsequent proceeding between the parties based on that document.

Even an erroneous decision operates as Res Judicata

In Bindeswari v. Bageshwari, AIR 1936 PC 46, it was held as under:

  • “Where the decision of the Court in a previous suit determined that the section had never applied to a transaction, a Court in a new suit between the same parties with regard to the same transaction cannot try a new the issue as to its applicability in face of the express prohibition in Section 11 of the Code. “

In Mohanlal Goenka v. Benoy Kishna, AIR 1953 SC 65 it was laid down  as under:

  • “(23) There is ample authority for the proposition that even an erroneous decision on a question of law operates as res judicata between the parties to it. The correctness or otherwise of a judicial decision has no bearing upon the question whether or not it operates as res judicata. A decision in the previous execution case between the parties that the matter was not within the competence of the executing court even though erroneous is binding on the parties; see Abhoy Kanta Gohain v. Gopinath Deb Goswami AIR 1943 Cal. 460.”

No Binding Precedent if Relevant statutory provision was Not considered

A Full Bench of the Allahabad  HighmCourt, in  Indian Ceramic House, Langra-Ki-Chowki, Agra v. Sales Tax Officer, II Sector, Agra : 1970 SCC OnLine All 193, observed as under:

  • A Judgment is authoritative only as to that part of it which is considered to have been necessary to the decision of the case, and not that part which was not necessary to its decision. The first is called ‘ratio decidendi’. Which is binding as a precedent. The other called ‘obiter dicta’ cannot be treated as a binding precedent though the opinion so expressed is entitled to respect.” (Quoted in Chandrapal Singh v. State of U. P. (All), 2023-11 ADJ 543)

The Supreme Court in Jayant Verma v. Union of India, (2018) 4 SCC 743, quoted the dissenting judgement of A.P. Sen, J. in Dalbir Singh v. State of Punjab, (1979) 3 SCC 745, with approval :

  • “54. This question is answered by referring to authoritative works and judgments of this Court. In Precedent in English Law by Cross and Harris (4th edn.), ‘ratio decidendi’ is described as follows: “The ratio decidendi of a case is any rule of law expressly or impliedly treated by the judge as a necessary step in reaching his conclusion, having regard to the line of reasoning adopted by him, or a necessary part of his direction to the jury.”

Allen in ‘Law in the Making’ said as under:

  • “Any judgment of any Court is authoritative only as to that part of it, called the ‘ratio decidendi’, which is considered to have been necessary to the decision of the actual issue between the litigants. It is for the Court, of whatever degree, which is called upon to consider the precedent, to determine what the true ‘ratio decidendi’ was…………..Judicial opinions upon such matters, whether they be merely casual, or wholly gratuitous or (as is far more usual) of what may be called collateral relevance, are known as ‘obiter dicta or simply ‘dicta’, and it is extremely difficult to establish any standard of their relative weight.” (Quoted in : Chandrapal Singh v. State of U. P. (All), 2023-11 ADJ 543). (Quoted in : Chandrapal Singh v. State of U. P. (All), 2023-11 ADJ 543).

In State of Orissa v. Sudhansu Sekhar Misra, AIR 1968 SC 647, wherein after relying on British authorities it was held:

  • “13….A decision is only an authority for what it actually decides. What is of the essence in a decision is its ratio and not every observation found therein, nor what logically follows from the various observations made in it. On this topic, this is what Earl of Halsbury L.C. said in Quinn v. Leathem [[1901] AC 495]:
  • “Now before discussing the case of Allen v. Flood, [1898] AC 1 and what was decided therein, there are two observations of a general character which I wish to make, and one is to repeat what I have very often said before, that every judgment must be read as applicable to the particular facts proved, or assumed to be proved, since the generality of the expressions which may be found there are not intended to be expositions of the whole law, but governed and qualified by the particular facts of the case in which such expressions are to be found. The other is that a case is only an authority for what it actually decides. I entirely deny that it can be quoted for a proposition that may seem to follow logically from it. Such a mode of reasoning assumes that the law is necessarily a logical code, whereas every lawyer must acknowledge that the law is not always logical at all. It is not a profitable task to extract a sentence here and there from a judgment and to build upon it.”

The Supreme Court, in Krishena Kumar v. Union of India, 1990 (4) SCC 207, said as under::

  • “19. The doctrine of precedent, that is being bound by a previous decision, is limited to the decision itself and as to what is necessarily involved in it. It does not mean that this Court is bound by the various reasons given in support of it, especially when they contain “propositions wider than the case itself required”. This was what Lord Selborne said in Caledonian Railway Co. v. Walker’s Trustees [(1882) 7 App Cas 259 : 46 LT 826 (HL)] and Lord Halsbury in Quinn v. Leathem [1901 AC 495, 502 : 17 TLR 749 (HL)]. Sir Frederick Pollock has also said :
  • “Judicial authority belongs not to the exact words used in this or that judgment, nor even to all the reasons given, but only to the principles accepted and applied as necessary grounds of the decision.”

In Union of India v. Maniklal Banerjee, AIR 2006 SC 2844, the Apex Court has held as under:

  • “It is now well-settled that if a decision has been rendered without taking into account the statutory provision, the same cannot be considered to be a binding precedent. This Court, in Pritam Singh, while exercising its discretionary jurisdiction, might have refused to interfere with the decision. The same, therefore, did not constitute any binding precedent.” (Referred to in: Hameeda Begum v. Champa Bai Jain (Arun Misra, J.), ILR 2009 MP 2328; 2009-3 MPLJ 472)

Arun Misra, J., referred to the House of Lords’ decision in Hameeda Begum v. Champa Bai Jain, ILR 2009 MP 2328; 2009-3 MPLJ 472, and said as under:

  • “(35) Another decision relied upon is rendered by the House of Lords in Watt vs. Ahsan (2007) UKHL 51. In the aforesaid case, question arose on Section 12 of the Race Relations Act, 1976. The submission was made that they were party and that All vs. Mcdonagh (2002) ICR 1026 was wrongly decided. In any case, the interpretation given to Section 12 by the EAT in Sawyer v. Ahsan (2000) ICR 1 is res judicata between him and the Labour Party, not only for the purposes of his first complaint but for the other two as well. It was opined that the EAT was wrong in Sawyer vs. Ahsan (2000) ICR 1 to hold that the Labour Party was a qualifying body, but there was no appeal against the decision of EAT , it was held that decision was binding upon the parties though wrong in law. When the Tribunal was-having the jurisdiction to decide the question, it is binding upon the parties though erroneous.
  • There is no dispute with the aforesaid proposition, but here we are concerned with the fresh cause of action on which suit is based and previously relevant statutory provision of Section 111 (d) of TP Act was not taken into consideration, question of determination of tenancy was also not decided.”

If only finding is “Necessary”, then only it is “Directly and Substantially” in issue

In Sajjadanashin Sayed v. Musa Dadabhai Ummer, (2000) 3 SCC 350 the Supreme Court held that to attract res judicata on an earlier finding, the matter must have been directly and substantially in issue and that the finding on an issue came “collaterally or incidentally” would not ordinarily be res judicata. It was pointed out that if only the issue was “necessary” to be decided for adjudicating on the principal issue and had actually been decided, then only it would have to be treated as “directly and substantially” in issue; and that it is also necessary that the judgment was in fact based upon that decision. Referring to Sajjadanashin Sayed, it is observed in Nand Ram v. Jagdish Prasad: AIR  2020 SC 1884 that a material test to be applied is whether the court considered the adjudication of the issue material and essential for its decision.

  • (Sajjadanashin Sayed v. Musa Dadabhai Ummer, (2000) 3 SCC 350, is quoted and followed in: M.S. Ananthamurthy v. J. Manjula (Neutral Citation: 2025 INSC 273)

Referring Sajjadanashin Sayed it is observed in Union of India Vs. Vijay Krishna Uniyal, 2017-12 SCALE 704, that one has to examine the plaint, the written statement, the issues and the judgment to find out if the matter was directly and substantially in issue.

A deliberate decision after hearing on a question constitute a precedent

A three Judge Bench of our Apex Court, in Union of India v. Dhanawanti Devi, (1996) 6 SCC 44. held as under:

  • “9. It is not everything said by a Judge while giving judgment that constitutes a precedent. The only thing in a judge’s decision binding a party is the principle upon which the case is decided and for this reason it is important to analyse a decision and isolate from it the ratio decidendi. According to the well-settled theory of precedents, every decision contains three basic postulates
  • (i) findings of material facts, direct and inferential. An inferential finding of facts is the inference which the Judge draws from the direct, or perceptible facts;
  • (ii) statements of the principles of law applicable to the legal problems disclosed by the facts; and
  • (iii) judgment based on the combined effect of the above.
  • A decision is only an authority for what it actually decides. What is of the essence in a decision is its ratio and not every observation found therein nor what logically follows from the various observations made in the judgment. Every judgment must be read as applicable to the particular facts proved, or assumed to be proved, since the generality of the expressions which may be found there is not intended to be exposition of the whole law, but governed and qualified by the particular facts of the case in which such expressions are to be found. It would, therefore, be not profitable to extract a sentence here and there from the judgment and to build upon it because the essence of the decision is its ratio and not every observation found therein. The enunciation of the reason or principle on which a question before a court has been decided is alone binding as a precedent. The concrete decision alone is binding between the parties to it, but it is the abstract ratio decidendi, ascertained on a consideration of the judgment in relation to the subject matter of the decision, which alone has the force of law and which, when it is clear what it was, is binding. It is only the principle laid down in the judgment that is binding law under Article 141 of the Constitution. A deliberate judicial decision arrived at after hearing an argument on a question which arises in the case or is put in issue may constitute a precedent, no matter for what reason, and the precedent by long recognition may mature into rule of stare decisis. It is the rule deductible from the application of law to the facts and circumstances of the case which constitutes its ratio decidendi.
  • 10. Therefore, in order to understand and appreciate the binding force of a decision it is always necessary to see what were the facts in the case in which the decision was given and what was the point which had to be decided. No judgment can be read as if it is a statute. A word or a clause or a sentence in the judgment cannot be regarded as a full exposition of law. Law cannot afford to be static and therefore, Judges are to employ an intelligent technique in the use of precedents……” (Quoted in: Vishal N.  Kalsaria v. Bank of India, 2016-3 SCC 762)

‘PER INCURIAM’ and Decision of Co- equal Bench

Per Incuriam If Not Obeyed Provision In A Statute, Earlieer Judgment

 “Incuria” literally means “carelessness”. Per Incuriam gives the idea – ‘out of ignorance’.

Black’s Dictionary, explains per incuriam as under:

  • “A judgment per incuriam is one which has been rendered inadvertently.”

A Judgment rendered in total ignorance of law or earlier decision alone constitute the principles of per incurium; erroneous appreciation or misconstruction of a binding precedent is not a per incuriam decision. Total ignorance of earlier judgments of co-equal bench also renders a decision per incuriam. Such judgments will not be treated as precedent. [See: State of State of M.P. Vs. Narmada Bachao Andolan, (2011) 7 SCC 639, Punjab Land Development and Reclamation Corpn. Ltd. v. Presiding Officer, (1990) 3 SCC 682, Fuerst Day Lawson Ltd. v. Jindal Exports Ltd. (2001) 6 SCC 356, Subhash Chandra v. Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board, (2009) 15 SCC 458]

Sundeep Kumar Bafna v. State of Maharashtra [2014] 16 SCC 623, it is observed that the Latin expression “per incuriam” means through inadvertence. A decision can be said generally to be given per incuriam when the Court has acted in ignorance of a previous decision of its own or when it has acted in ignorance of a decision of the High Court or the Supreme Court. (Punjab Land Devl., & Reclamation Corpn. Ltd. v. Presiding Officer, Labour Court : (1990) 3 SCC 682; Commissioner of Income Tax v. B.R. Constructions, 1992 SCC OnLine AP 121).

Halsbury’s Laws of England, Fourth Edition, para 578 at page 297 states the rule of per incuriam as follows:—ignorance of the terms of a statute or rule having statutory force.”

Larger Strength Is Binding On Any Subsequent Bench Of Lesser Or Co-Equal Strength Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community and another vs. State of Maharashtra and another, (2005) 2 SCC 673), Referred in  P.A.Thomas v.Authority Under the Minimum Wages Act   2008 1 KHC 800 ;  2008 1 KLT 858 (S.Siri Jagan,J.)

Subsequent Bench Would Follow Earlier Co-Ordinate Bench
 Judicial Discipline-Binding Precedent-Except in compelling circumstances, such as where order of earlier Bench is per incuriam, subsequent Bench would follow earlier co-ordinate Bench. (Para 23) Jai Singh v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi 2010 9 SCC 385 (B.Sudershan Reddy and Surinder Singh Nijjar, JJ.)

Kerala High Court View: Two benches of equal strength of the APEX COURT: Later Decision will Prevail

The Full Bench of the Kerala High Court, in a reference, in Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman [2011 (4) KLT 458], had to decide – how to deal with conflicting views in the decisions of two benches of equal strength of the Apex Court. It was held that in case of conflicting decisions taken in the two Benches of equal strength of the Apex Court, the decision later in point of time, will prevail over the earlier one. It was pointed out that

  • a decision of the Apex Court on a declaration of law is binding on all High Courts and Subordinate courts under Article 141 of the Constitution of India and
  • it may not be proper for the High Courts or Subordinate Courts to criticise and characterise a decision of the Apex Court which has laid down a point of law as per incuriam.

Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman [2011 (4) KLT 458 (FB)] is followed in M/s. Norman Printing Bureau v. P.M. Mammu Haji, 2013 4 ILR(Ker) 84; 2013 3 KHC 798; 2013-4 KLT 606 (K.M. Joseph & A. Hariprasad, JJ.) observing as under:

  • “10. Question as to which of the decisions pronounced by Benches of the Supreme Court of co-equal strength is the binding precedent was considered by this Court on many occasions. In Joseph v. Special Tahsildar (2001 (1) KLT 958) Full Bench of this Court considered the above question in extenso. Law laid down therein is the following:
    •  “We may now refer to a few High Court decisions on the question where an apparent conflict between an earlier and a later decision of the Apex Court by Benches consisting of equal number of Judges is pointed out. In our view, in such a situation the later decision must prevail over the earlier decision.”
  •  11. Later, a Full Bench of this Court in Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman (2011 (4) KLT 458) answered a reference order relating to the binding nature of decisions, where conflicting views are expressed in the decisions of two Benches of co-equal strength of the Supreme CourtAfter an elaborate precedential survey, following propositions have been laid down:
  • “The legal position, which therefore emerges on a discussion and analysis of the principles stated in various decisions of the Apex Court and other High Courts including this Court, so as to act as guidance to the High Courts and Subordinate Courts, when faced with a conflicting decisions, are summarised below:-
    •  (i) In case of conflicting views taken in the decisions of two Benches of equal strength of the Apex Court, the decision later in point of time, will prevail over the earlier one;
    • (ii) What is binding is the ratio decidendi. A decision is only an authority for what it actually decides.
    •  (iii) A decision which is not expressed and is not found on reasons nor proceeds on consideration of issue cannot be deemed to be a law declared to have a binding effect as is contemplated by Art.141 of the Constitution. Similarly, any declaration made or conclusion arrived at without application of mind or preceded without a reason, cannot be a declaration of law, or authority as a binding precedent.
    •  (iv) It is well settled that what is the essence of a decision is the ratio and not every observation, nor what logically follows from various observations made in it.
    •  (v) The enunciation of the reason or principle on which a question before a court has been decided is alone binding as a precedent. The concrete decision alone is binding between the parties to it, but it is the abstract ratio decidendi, ascertained on a consideration of the judgment in relation to the subject-matter of the decision, which alone has the force of law and which, when it is clear what it was, is binding. It is only the principle laid down in the judgment that is binding law under Art.141 of the Constitution.
    •  (vi) A decision passes sub-silentio, in the technical sense that has come to be attached to that phrase, when the particular point of law involved in the decision is not perceived by the court or present to its mind (Salmond on Jurisprudence 12th Edn. p.153).
    •  (vii) A Division Bench, in case of conflict between the decision of a Division Bench of two Judges and the decision of a larger Bench and in particular, a Constitution Bench, would be bound by the latter decision.
    •  (viii) Per incuriam means a decision rendered by ignorance of a previous binding decision such as a decision of its own or of a court of coordinate or higher jurisdiction or in ignorance of the terms of a statute or of a rule having the force of law. A ruling making specific reference to an earlier binding precedent may. Or may not be correct, but cannot be said to be per incuriam”.
  • Hence, it is now indubitable that the decision rendered by the Apex Court later in point of time will prevail over the earlier one.”

Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman [2011 (4) KLT 458 (FB)] is also Referred to in:

  • Saiby v. Mary, 2025-5 KHC 482: 2025-4 KLT 933 (Easwaran S., J.);
  • M/s Asm Traxim Pvt Ltd v. Union Of India, 2025-11 ADJ 500 ; 2025-5 AllLJ 100
  • Munni Lal v. Mohd. Rafik Kidwai, 2023-7 ADJ 74 ; 2023-AHC 124434 ; 2023-160 AllLR 658 ; 2023-2 ARC 432 ; 2023-4 AWC 3629
  • XXXXXXXXXX – v. State of Kerala, 2022-5 KLT 636 (Kauser Edapagath, J.)
  • Daisy M.P. v. State of Kerala, 2020-3 KHC 115 ; 2020-2 KLT 639 (Sunil Thomas, J.)
  • Smitha v. V. Krishnan, 2017 AIR(Ker) 87; 2017-1 KHC 81; 2017-1 KLT 892 (K.T. Sankaran, P.D. Rajan and P. Ubaid, JJ.)
  • Narayanan Radhakrishna Menon v. Narayanan Sukumara Menon,  2018-1 KHC 412 ; 2018-2 KLT 553)
  • Papaiah Alias S.R. Papi Reddy v. P. Nagaraja Reddy, 2019 3 AIR(Kar)(R) 274
  • Rosamma Joseph v. State of Kerala,2014 1 KLT(SN) 70 ; 2014 KHC 154 (K. Ramakrishnan, J.)
  • St. Joseph’s Hospital Trust v. The Kerala University of Health Sciences, 2012-3 KHC(SN) 26 ; 2012-4 KLT 444 (K.M. Joseph & K. Harilal, JJ.)
  • Saramma Paulose v. Lilly, Decided On: 03-10-2011 (Thomas P. Joseph. J)

In Kumari Alias Mary Francis, v. Baby,  2022-6 KHC 270 ; 2022-5 KLT 614 (P. Somarajam, J.) referred Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman [2011 (4) KLT 458 (FB)], laid down the history of this decision as under:

  •  “2. Ext. B1 is a registered Will dated 2/11/1971 jointly executed by Paul and Sara. The suit was filed after the lapse of more than 30 years. ……The learned counsel for the appellant/plaintiff relied on the decision in Bharpur Singh & Ors. v. Shamsher Singh, 2009 (3) SCC 687, in support of his argument that there cannot be any application of Section 90 of the Evidence Act pertaining to a Will or testament irrespective of whether it is registered or not. But it is against the rationale (ratio) applied by the Apex Court in several decisions including the decision rendered by a Constitution Bench. Hence, it is necessary to ascertain the principle of binding precedent especially when contrary views were taken by a Full Bench and a Division Bench of this Court.
  • 3. The issue came up before the Privy Council as early as in the year 1947 in Munnalal v. Mt. Kashibai, AIR 1947 PC 15, wherein it was held that the execution and attestation of a Will of more than 30 years old, when produced from proper custody, can be presumed. Later on, a three Judge Bench of the Apex Court had affirmed the legal position in Kalidindi Venkata Subbaraju & Ors. v. Chintalapati Subbaraju & Ors., AIR 1968 SC 947. It was followed by this Court in Narayanan Radhakrishna Menon v. Narayanan Sukumara Menon, 2018 (2) KLT 553. Subsequently, it was settled by a Constitution Bench of the Apex Court in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community and Another v. and State of Maharashtra and Another, AIR 2005 SC 752, that a decision delivered by a larger Bench is binding on any subsequent Bench of lesser or co-equal strength. It is further laid down that a Bench of lesser strength cannot doubt the correctness of the view of the law taken by a Bench of larger strength and summed up as follows:-
    • “The law laid down by Supreme Court in a decision delivered by a Bench of larger strength is binding on any subsequent Bench of lesser or co-equal strength. A Bench of lessor quorum cannot doubt the correctness of the view of the law taken by a Bench of larger quorum. In case of doubt all that the Bench of lesser quorum can do is to invite the attention of the Chief Justice and request for the matter being placed for hearing before a Bench of larger quorum than the Bench whose decision has come up for consideration. It will be open only for a Bench of co-equal strength to express an opinion doubting the correctness of the view taken by the earlier Bench of co-equal strength, whereupon the matter may be placed for hearing before a Bench consisting of a quorum larger than the one which pronounced the decision laying down the law the correctness of which is doubted.”
  •  4. It has been further reiterated by a three Judge Bench of the Apex Court in New India Assurance Company Ltd. v. Hilli Multipurpose Cold Storage Pvt. Ltd., AIR 2016 SC 86, by holding that the judgment delivered earlier in point of time shall prevail over the judgment rendered by a co-equal Bench on a later point of time.
  •  5. The abovesaid principle is subject to the exception that when in a subsequent pronouncement, after taking into consideration the previous judgment, re-defines or explains the width of principles laid down in the previous judgment, the subsequent pronouncement has to be followed (M. Natarajan v. State (2008) 8 SCC 413). It must be understood that there is no scope to re-write or reconsider the legal position earlier laid down by a larger Bench or a co-equal Bench, except for the purpose of explaining the width and length of the principle laid down in the previous judgment. Very recently, another Constitution Bench of the Apex Court in Dr. Shah Faesal and Ors. v. Union of India and Another [(2020) 4 SCC 1] had reiterated the legal position by explaining the rule of per incuriam, relevancy and binding precedent of ratio decidendi laid down in an earlier judgment of co-equal Bench or a larger Bench. There will not be any binding precedent regarding obiter dicta. The Constitution Bench of the Apex Court had considered in this context, the doctrine of binding precedent with its utmost importance in the administration of judicial system by referring yet another five Judge Bench of the Apex Court in Chandra Prakash v. State of U.P., (2002) 4 SCC 234, and also the law laid down in National Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Pranay Sethi, (2017) 16 SCC 680: (2018) 3 SCC (Civ) 248 : (2018) 2 SCC (Cri) 205. The view that the subsequent decision shall be declared per incuriam only if there exists a conflict in the ratio decidendi of the earlier judgments has got approval by a five-Judge Bench of the Apex Court in Punjab Land Development & Reclamation Corpn. Ltd. v. Labour Court, (1990) 3 SCC 682.”

Is the Full Bench Decision “Per Incuriam”?Does it apply to ‘Co-equal Benches’?

Kumari Alias Mary Francis, v. Baby,  2022-6 KHC 270 ; 2022-5 KLT 614 (P. Somarajam, J.) distinguished (?) Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman [2011 (4) KLT 458 (FB)] observing as under:

  • “6. But, without noticing the law laid down by the Constitution Bench of the Apex Court in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community’s case (supra), a Division Bench of this Court in Sampath S. Pawar v. Ibrahim, 2013 (3) KLT 722, had laid down the law that when conflicting views are taken by Benches of co-equal strength, the decision later in point of time will prevail over the earlier one by referring to a Full Bench decision of this Court in Raman Gopi v. Kunju Raman Uthaman, 2011 (4) KLT 458 (FB).”
  • In fact, the abovesaid contrary view was taken by the Full Bench of this Court after referring the legal position laid down by the Constitution Bench in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community’s case (supra). But the reference was only for the purpose of binding precedents of the larger Benches over the Benches of lesser strength. It was not referred in relation to “ratio decidendi” settled with respect to conflicting decision rendered by co-equal Benches. A mere citing of a decision or a legal position settled in an earlier judgment, not for the purpose either to follow or dissent, cannot be said to have referred so as to exclude the same from the mischief of “per incuriam decis”. In order to avoid the mischief, the “ratio decidendi” settled on a particular legal issue by the earlier larger or co-equal Bench must be referred in relation to that particular “ratio decidendi”. Hence, the legal position laid down by the Full Bench without referring to the law laid down in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community’s case (supra) in relation to conflicting decision and the binding precedents of co-equal Benches would stand “per incuriam decis”. The decision rendered by the Division Bench in Sampath’s case (supra) by following the Full Bench decision in Raman Gopi’s case (supra) without noticing the decision of the Constitution Bench in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community’s case (supra) also would stand per incuriam decis. So also, the decision rendered by a Single Bench of this Court in Hameed v. State of Kerala, 2008 (1) KLT 534, by taking a contrary view, though referred the decision of the Constitution Bench of the Apex Court in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community’s case (supra) cannot be held good law.
  • 7. The observation made by the Apex Court in Official Liquidator v. Dayanand and Others [(2008) 10 SCC 1] assumes importance at this juncture. The relevant portion is extracted below for reference:
    • “There have been several instances of different Benches of the High Court not following the judgments/orders of coordinate and even larger Benches. In some cases, the High Courts have gone to the extent of ignoring the law laid down by this Court without any tangible reason. Likewise, there have been instances in which smaller Benches of this Court have either ignored or bypassed the ratio of the judgments of the larger Benches including the Constitution Benches. These cases are illustrative of non-adherence to the rule of judicial discipline which is sine qua non for sustaining the system.”
  •  8. Further, in view of the legal position settled by the Constitution Bench of the Apex Court in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community’s case (supra) and Dr. Shah Faesal’s case (supra), the earlier decision rendered by a Full Bench of this Court in Joseph v. Special Tahsildar (2001 (1) KLT 958 (FB)) holding that when two decisions of co-equal Benches of the Apex Court are conflicting, the decision later in time to be binding, cannot be held good law. The decision rendered by the Apex Court in Bharpur Singh’s case (supra) without noticing the earlier legal position settled by a larger Bench (three Judge Bench) of the Apex Court in Kalindindi Venkata Subbaraju’s case (supra), hence cannot be held to have binding precedent.”

The View: in Co-Equal Bench, Latest Judgment should Prevail – Fallacious?

It is held in Bindu v. State of Kerala, 2014 4 KHC 772 ; 2015 1 KLT(SN) 5 (Dama Seshadri Naidu, J.) that the school of thought — in case of conflict between co-equal benches, the latest judgment should prevail — is fallacious. Still, if the latter bench refers to the earlier one and distinguishes it, to that extent of distinction, the latter one binds. The court referred to the following decisions:

  • Andhra Pradesh S.K. Mahaboob Ali, Ex-CRPF Constable, Nandyal v. Director General of Police, Central Reserve Police Force, New Delhi and others, 2005 (1) ALT 412 (DB)
  • Jabalpur Bus Operators Association and others v. State of Madhya Pradesh and another, AIR 2003 MP 81

CONFLICTING DECISIONS OF CO-ORDINATE 2 Judge BENCHES – REFER THE MATTER TO A BENCH OF THREE HON’BLE JUDGES. Hardeep Singh v. State of Punjab 2009 AIR(SC) 483 ; 2009-16 SCC 785 (C.K. Thakker and D.K. Jain, JJ.)

Co-Ordinate Bench Decisions also Should be Referred to a Larger Bench If Difference

In Lala Shri Bhagwan v. Ram Chand, AIR 1965 SC 1767, it is held as under:

  • “8. .. It is hardly necessary to emphasise that considerations of judicial propriety and decorum require that if a learned single Judge hearing a matter is inclined to take the view that the earlier decisions of the High Court, whether of a Division Bench or of a single Judge, need to be reconsidered, he should not embark upon that enquiry sitting as a single Judge, but should refer the matter to a Division Bench or, in a proper case, place the relevant papers before the Chief Justice to enable him to constitute a larger Bench to examine the question. That is the proper and traditional way to deal with such matters and it is founded on healthy principles of judicial decorum and propriety. ….” (Quoted in: U.P. Power Corporation Ltd. v. Rajesh Kumar, AIR 2012 SC 2728 ; 2012-7 SCC 1.) 

In Sundarjas Kanyalal Bhathija v. The Collector, Thane, Maharashtra, AIR 1991 SC 1893, it is observed as under:

  • “One must remember that pursuit of the law, however, glamorous it is, has its own limitation on the Bench. In a multi-Judge Court, the Judges are bound by precedents and procedure. They could use their discretion only when there is no declared principle to be found, no rule and no authority. The judicial decorum and legal propriety demand that where a learned single Judge or a Division Bench does not agree with the decision of a Bench of co-ordinate jurisdiction, the matter shall be referred to a larger Bench. It is a subversion of judicial process not to follow this procedure.” (Quoted in: U.P. Power Corporation Ltd. v. Rajesh Kumar, AIR 2012 SC 2728 ; 2012-7 SCC 1.)

In State Through Central Bureau Of Investigation v. Hemendhra Reddy, 2023-16 SCC 779 (Surya Kant, J.B. Pardiwala, JJ.), it is said as under:

  • 81. We would like to extend a word of caution over here. While it is open to a learned Judge to differ with a view of a Co-ordinate Bench the sequitur is to make a reference to a larger Bench on papers being placed before the learned Chief Justice. The learned Judge cannot simply say “with due respect, I do not agree to the ratio…” or “the decision is per incuriam as a binding judgment of the Supreme Court has not been considered….” and proceed to take a contrary view as done in the impugned order. Such an approach would result in conflicting opinions of Co-ordinate Benches, resulting in judicial chaos and is, thus, improper. This is something atrocious and unacceptable.”

The Apex court referred Official Liquidator v. Dayanand and Others reported in (2008) 10 SCC 1

In Mahadeolal Kanodia v. Administrator General of W.B. [AIR 1960 SC 936 : (1960) 3 SCR 578] our Apex Court pointed out as unser:

  • “19. … If one thing is more necessary in law than any other thing, it is the quality of certainty. That quality would totally disappear if Judges of coordinate jurisdiction in a High Court start overruling one another’s decisions.

CONTRARY TO THE LAW DECLARED BY THE APEX COURT; Pareed Pillai v. Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd., 2019 AIR Ker 9 ; 2018 4 KLT 792 (Hrishikesh Roy, P.R.Ramachandra Menon, A.K.Jayasankaran Nambiar, Anil K.Narendran, Devan Ramachandran, JJ.)

HAD NOT TAKEN NOTE OF A BINDING CONSTITUTION BENCH DECISION; BUT FOLLOWED A LATER DECISION. Kottukal Konam Hindu Nadar Mahajana Sanm v. P.Kunjukrishnan Nadar AS 615/2000 Decided On : 09-04-2010

EXCEPT IN COMPELLING CIRCUMSTANCES EARLIER BENCH CAN BE SAID TO BE PER INCURIAM

Except in compelling circumstances, such as where the order of the earlier bench can be said to be per incuriam, in that it is passed in ignorance of an earlier binding precedent/ statutory or constitutional provision, the subsequent bench would follow the earlier  oordinate bench.

SALMOND: Lower Court Can Pick And Choose:  Salmond on Jurisprudence a lower court can pick and choose between two conflicting decisions of the same court on the same question of law. P.A. Thomas v. Authority Under the Minimum Wages Act   2008 1 KHC 800;  2008 1 KLT 858 (S. Siri Jagan, J.). Read as under:

“10. Salmond on Jurisprudence deals with the question of choosing between conflicting decisions of the same court by a subordinate court as follows:

  • “(4) Inconsistency with earlier decision of higher court. it is clear law that a precedent loses its binding force if the court that decided it overlooked an inconsistent decision of a higher court. If, for example, the Court of Appeal decides a case in ignorance of a decision of the House of Lords which went the other way, the decision of the Court of Appeal is per incuriam, and is not binding either on itself or on lower courts; on the contrary, it is the decision of the House of Lords that is binding. The same rule applies to precedents in other courts, such as the Divisional Court.
  • (5) Inconsistency between earlier decisions of the same rank. A court is not bound by its own previous decisions that are in conflict with one another. This rule has been laid down in the Court of Appeal, Court of Criminal Appeal and Divisional Court and it obviously applies also to the House of Lords. There may at first sight seem to be a difficulty here: how can a situation of conflict occur, if the court is bound by its own decisions? At least two answers may be given. First, the conflicting decisions may come from a time before the binding force of precedent was recognized. Secondly, and more commonly, the conflict may have arisen through inadvertence, because the earlier case was not cited in the later. Owing to the vast number of precedents, and the heterogeneous ways in which they are reported-or are not reported-it is only too easy for counsel to miss a relevant authority. Whenever a relevant prior decision is not cited before the court, or mentioned in the judgments, it must be assumed that the court acts in ignorance or forgetfulness of it. If the new decision is in conflict wit the old, it is given per incuriam and is not binding on a later court.
  • Although the later court is not bound by the decision so given per incuriam, this does not mean that it is bound by the first case. Perhaps in strict logic the first case should be binding, since it should never have been departed from, and was only departed from per incuriam. However, this is not the rule. The rule is that where there are previous inconsistent decisions of it own, the court is free to follow either. It can follow the earlier, but equally, if it thinks fit, it can follow the later. This rule has been laid down for the Court of Appeal, and it is submitted that it applies also to other courts. It will be seen, therefore, that this exception to the binding force of precedent belongs both to the category of abrogation by subsequent facts and to the category of what is here called inherent vice. The earlier case can be disregarded because of the subsequent inconsistent decision on the same level of authority, and the later case can be disregarded because of its inherent vice of ignoring the earlier case.
  • Where authorities of equal standing are irreconcilably in conflict, a lower court has the same freedom to pick and choose between them as the schizophrenic court itself. The lower court may refuse to follow the later decision on the ground that it was arrived at per incuriam, or it may follow such decision on the ground that it is the latest authority. Which of these two courses the court adopts depends, or should depend, upon its own view of what the law ought to be. However, it takes a somewhat bold judge to disregard a precedent handed down by a court of higher standing on the ground that the decision was per incuriam.”

Constructive Res-Judicata: For Not Making Whole Pleadings

Explanation IV of Sec. 11 CPC brings-forth the bar on ‘constructive res judicata’. It sounds that the parties to the litigation should bring their whole case before the court in a candid manner. To attract the contention as to bar on constructive res judicata it must be shown that the particular matter in issue or ground must have been a matter which ‘might and ought’ to have raised as a  point in the former suit.

The majority view authored by Justice Untwalia in a full bench decision in Baijnath Prasad Sah vs. Ramphal Sahni (AIR 1962 Pat 72) examined the scope of ‘might and ought’ in the Explanation IV of Sec. 11 CPC and explained as under:

  • “If a party takes an objection at a certain stage of a proceeding and does not make another objection which it might and ought to have taken at the same stage, it must be deemed the Court has adjudicated upon the other objection also and has held against it. This principle of constructive res judicata has been extended further. If a party has knowledge of a proceeding, and having had an opportunity when it might and ought to have raised an objection, it does not do so, it cannot be allowed to raise that objection subsequently, if the Court passes an order which it could not have passed in case that objection had succeeded, on the ground that it must be deemed to have been raised by the party and decided against it. Though a transaction is void if a certain provision of law applies, it is for the court to decide whether that provision is applicable. Once a competent court has given a decision, holding expressly or by implication, that provision of law is inapplicable and the transaction is not void, that decision operates as res judicata between the parties. So also if an order of the court is deemed to have decided the question, the order is binding upon the parties.” Quoted in: Bhanu Shankar Raikwar Vs. Vijay Shankar Raikwar: 2018-3 MPLJ 569

From the above, it is clear that constructive res judicata is invited in the following two situations:

  • Out of wilful act: If a party takes a particular objection on a specific matter or allegation at a certain stage of a proceeding and does not make another objection which it might and ought to have taken at that stage.
  • Out of tacit or implicit act: If a party has (i) knowledge of a proceeding, and (ii) having had an opportunity to raise a particular objection, omits to do so; that is, tacitly or implicitly omits when it might and ought to have done.

It is held in Shankara Co-op Housing Society Ltd. v. M. Prabhakar, AIR 2011 SC 2161; (2011) 5 SCC 607, as under:

  • “77. In the present case, it is admitted fact that when the contesting Respondents filed W.P. No. 1051 of 1966, the ground of non-compliance of statutory provision was very much available to them, but for the reasons best known to them, they did not raise it as one of the grounds while challenging the notification dated 11.12.1952 issued under the Evacuee Property Act. In the subsequent writ petition filed in the year 1990, initially, they had not questioned the legality of the notification, but raised it by filing an application, which is no doubt true, allowed by the High Court. In our view, the High Court was not justified in permitting the Petitioners therein to raise that ground and answer the same, since the same is hit by the principles analogous to constructive res judicata.”

No Res Judicata by Implied/ Incidental Finding

There should be a specific and express finding on a specific issue in the earlier suit, for invoking res judicata. Constructive res judicata is an exception to the general rule.  Explanation IV of S. 11, CPC, lays down that res judicata may be deemed ‘beyond findings’.

Though res judicata may arise on an implied finding, it does not dehors the proposition that pleadings are the decisive factor for res judicata. It is held in Nikunja Behari Das v. Jatindra Nath Kar, AIR 1956 Cal 613, as under :

  • “A decision by necessary implication is as much res judicata as an express decision. That this is so in the case where Explanation IV of S. 11, Civil Procedure Code, has to be considered, there can be no doubt, but even in other cases where a matter has been raised in the pleadings but there is no express decision but there is a decision by necessary implication, the Courts have always held that the principle of res judicata is applicable.” [Quoted in: Globe Publications Vs. Madan Gopal: AIR 1996 P&H 115]

Referring Greenhalgh v. Mallard (1576 ER 123) the Supreme Court explained in the State of UP v. Nawab Hussain (AIR 1969 SC 1256) that if a person is allowed to choose one cause of action from two or more causes of action from the same set of facts he would not be allowed to choose one at a time and to reserve the other for subsequent litigation. It amounts to abuse of process of the court.

In Forward Construction Co. v. Prabhat Mandal, Andheri (AIR 1986 SC 391) the Supreme Court observed the scope of Explanation IV to Section 11 of CPC as under:

  • “An adjudication is conclusive and final not only as to the actual matter determined but as to every other matter which the parties might and ought to have litigated and have had it decided as incidental to or essentially connected with the subject matter of the litigation and every matter coming within the legitimate purview of the original action both in respect of the matters of claim or defence. The principle underlying Explanation IV is that where the parties have had an opportunity of controverting a matter that should be taken to be the same thing as if the matter had been actually controverted and decided. It is true that where a matter has been constructively in issue it cannot be said to have been actually heard and decided. It could only be deemed to have been heard and decided.”

In Neelima Srivastava v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2021 SC 3884: (2021) 17 SCC 693, our Apex Court reiterated that it is not permissible for the parties to reopen the concluded judgments of the Court. The Court said as follows:

  • “30. It becomes absolutely clear from the above clarification that earlier decisions running counter to the principles settled in the decision of Umadevi (Secretary, State of Karnataka v. Umadevi, (2006) 4 SCC 1) will not be treated as precedents. It cannot mean that the judgment of a competent Court delivered prior to the decision in Umadevi (3) and which has attained finality and is binding inter se between the parties need not be implemented. Mere over-ruling of the principles, on which the earlier judgment was passed, by a subsequent judgment of higher forum will not have the effect of uprooting the final adjudication between the parties and set it at naught. There is a distinction between over-ruling a principle and reversal of the judgment. The judgment in question itself has to be assailed and got rid of in a manner known to or recognized by law. Mere over-ruling of the principles by a subsequent judgment will not dilute the binding effect of the decision on inter-parties.
  • 32. … It is a well settled principle of law that a Letters Patent Appeal which is in continuation of a Writ Petition cannot be filed collaterally to set aside the judgment of the same High Court rendered in an earlier round of litigation ignoring the principles of res-judicata and doctrine of finality.
  • 35. Thus, it is very well-settled that it is not permissible for the parties to reopen the concluded judgments of the court as the same may not only tantamount to an abuse of the process of the court but would have far-reaching adverse effect on the administration of justice.” (Quoted in: Reddy Enterprises, Vijayawada v. Appellate Authority & Additional Commissioner (ST) Vijayawada, 2024-5 ALD 452)

.Also read:  

             •➧ Ratio Decidendi (alone) Forms a Precedent; Not the Final Order or Conclusion.
             •➧ Relevancy of a Civil Case Judgment in Criminal Cases: Does a Civil Court Judgment Bind a Criminal Court?
             •➧ Prem Raj v.  Poonamma Menon (SC), April 2, 2024 – An Odd Decision on ‘Civil Court Judgment Does Not Bind Criminal Court’.
             •➧ Cheating and Breach of Contract: Distinction lies in Fraudulent Intention ‘at the time of Promise’.  No Criminal Case endures on a Dispute Essentially Civil in Nature.
             •➧ No Res judicata on Finding on Title in an Injunction Suit
             •➧ What are “Relevant Under Some Other Provisions of this Act” in Sec. 43?
             •➧ Judicial Precedent and Res Judicata – a Couplet
             •➧ Res Judicata and Constructive Res Judicata
             •➧ Alternative Pleadings on Title and Adverse Possession: Mutually Inconsistent or Mutually Destructive?

Res Judicata: The issue should have been necessary to be decided

In PMA Metripolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001, it is held as under:

  • “57. It is fairly settled that the finding on an issue in the earlier suit to operate as res judicate should not have been only directly and substantially in issue but it should have been necessary to be decided as well.”

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Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828 – ‘Victim’ Can File an Appeal in a Criminal Case

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract

In criminal cases, the ‘victim’ (injured person) can file an Appeal against the acquittal of the accused, even though the victim is not the complainant.

Appeal by a Victim in a Criminal Case

Relevant provisions in the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 relating to Appeals in Criminal Cases are the following:  

  • Section 2(wa). Definitionsvictim” –
  • Section 372. No appeal to lie unless otherwise provided
  • Note: Proviso to Sec. 372 says – ‘victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal’.
  • Section 374. Appeals from convictions
  • Section 378. Appeal in case of acquittal

Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, on 14 July 2025

The recent decision of the Supreme Court of India, Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828 (Prashant Kumar Mishra, Ahsanuddin Amanullah, JJ.) considered the relevant provisions relating to appeals in Criminal cases and delivered a noticeable decision. It affirmed the following three earlier decisions:

  • Mallikarjun Kodagali v State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752 (3-Judge Bench, by a majority),
  • Jagjeet Singh v Ashish Mishra alias Monu, (2022) 9 SCC 321,
  • Mahabir v State of Haryana, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 184.

Findings in Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, in Nutshell

The Apex Court held in Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, in a nutshell, that it is quite clear, based on the plain language of the law (Sec. 2(wa) read with proviso to 372 CrPC)–

  • a ‘victim’ would be entitled to file an appeal against any order acquitting the accused (or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation).

Impugned View of the High Court (Set Aside by the Apex Court)

The impugned view of the High Court (set aside by the Apex Court) was that the ‘complainant’ who actually filed the written complaint alone can maintain an appeal as a ‘victim’, and that the ‘complainant’ in a case instituted upon a police report could file appeal only after seeking the leave of the High Court invoking the provisions of Section 378(3) of the CrPC.

The High Court had held as under:

  • ‘This is a case instituted upon a police report and only in cases instituted upon private complaint, leave to appeal under Section 378(4) of Cr.P.C. is maintainable. Therefore, leave to appeal against order of acquittal in appeal is also not maintainable in the instant case.’

Jagjeet Singh v Ashish Mishra alias Monu, (2022) 9 SCC 321

In Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, the Supreme Court quoted and followed its earlier decision in Jagjeet Singh v Ashish Mishra alias Monu, (2022) 9 SCC 321. It reads as under:

  • ‘23. A “victim” within the meaning of CrPC cannot be asked to await the commencement of trial for asserting his/her right to participate in the proceedings. He/She has a legally vested right to he heard at every step post the occurrence of an offence. Such a “victim” has unbridled participatory rights from the stage of investigation till the culmination of the proceedings in an appeal or revision. We may hasten to clarify that “victim” and “complainant/informant” are two distinct connotations in criminal jurisprudence. It is not always necessary that the complainant/informant is also a “victim”, for even a stranger to the act of crime can be an “informant”, and similarly, a “victim” need not be the complainant or informant of a felony.’

Mallikarjun Kodagali v State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752,

In Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, the Supreme Court also followed Mallikarjun Kodagali v State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752. It has been held by a 3-Judge Bench, by a majority of 2:1, that a victim, as defined in Section 2(wa) of the CrPC, would be entitled to file an appeal before the Court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction. It is held as under:

  • “73. In our opinion, the proviso to Section 372 CrPC must also be given a meaning that is realistic, liberal, progressive and beneficial to the victim of an offence. There is a historical reason for this, beginning with the Declaration of Basic Principles of Justice for Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in the 96th Plenary Session on 29-11-1985. The Declaration is sometimes referred to as the Magna Carta of the rights of victims. One of the significant declarations made was in relation to access to justice for the victim of an offence through the justice delivery mechanisms, both formal and informal. In the Declaration it was stated as follows:
  • “4. Victims should be treated with compassion and respect for their dignity. They are entitled to access to the mechanisms of justice and to prompt redress, as provided for by national legislation, for the harm that they have suffered.
  • 5. Judicial and administrative mechanisms should be established and strengthened where necessary to enable victims to obtain redress through formal or informal procedures that are expeditious, fair, inexpensive and accessible. Victims should be informed of their rights in seeking redress through such mechanisms.
  • 6.The responsiveness of judicial and administrative processes to the needs of victims should be facilitated by:
  • Informing victims of their role and the scope, timing and progress of the proceedings and of the disposition of their cases, especially where serious crimes are involved and where they have requested such information;
  • Allowing the views and concerns of victims to be presented and considered at appropriate stages of the proceedings where their personal interests are affected, without prejudice to the accused and consistent with the relevant national criminal justice system;
  • Providing proper assistance to victims throughout the legal process;
  • Taking measures to minimise inconvenience to victims, protect their privacy, when necessary, and ensure their safety, as well as that of their families and witnesses on their behalf, from intimidation and retaliation;
  • Avoiding unnecessary delay in the disposition of cases and the execution of orders or decrees granting awards to victims.
  • 7. Informal mechanisms for the resolution of disputes, including mediation, arbitration and customary justice or indigenous practices, should be utilised, where appropriate, to facilitate conciliation and redress for victims.”
  • 76. As far as the question of the grant of special leave is concerned, once again, we need not be overwhelmed by submissions made at the Bar. The language of the proviso to Section 372 CrPC is quite clear, particularly when it is contrasted with the language of Section 378(4) CrPC. The text of this provision is quite clear and it is confined to an order of acquittal passed in a case instituted upon a complaint. The word “complaint” has been defined in Section 2(d) CrPC and refers to any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate. This has nothing to do with the lodging or the registration of an FIR, and therefore it is not at all necessary to consider the effect of a victim being the complainant as far as the proviso to Section 372 CrPC is concerned.”

Mahabir v State of Haryana, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 184

In Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, the Supreme Court quoted the following from  Mahabir v State of Haryana, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 184, where it isobserved as under:

  • “53. Therefore, by the aforesaid provision a right has been created in favour of the victim, which was not existing earlier in the Code, i.e., that a victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation. The plain reading of the statement of objects and reasons for introducing the proviso to Section 372 CrPC makes it clear that it wanted to confer certain rights on the victims. It has been noted therein that the victims are the worst sufferers in a crime, and they don’t have much role in the court proceedings. They need to be given certain “rights” and compensation, so that there is no distortion of the criminal justice system. This, by itself, is clear that the object of adding this proviso is to create a right in favour of the victim to prefer an appeal as a matter of right. It not only extends to challenge the order of acquittal, but such appeal can also be filed by the victim if the accused is convicted for a lessor offence or if the inadequate compensation has been imposed.
  • 54. Thus, it is clear as per the golden rule of interpretation, that the ‘proviso’ is a substantive enactment, and is not merely excepting something out of or qualifying what was excepting or goes before. Therefore, by adding the ‘proviso’ in Section 372 of CrPC by this amendment, a right has been created in favour of the victim.”

Foot Note:

Appeal by a Victim in a Criminal Cases

Relevant provisions relating to Appeal in Criminal Cases are Sections 2(wa), 372, 374, and 378 of the CrPC.  

Section 2(wa):

  • ‘2. Definitions.— In this Code, unless the context otherwise requires,—
  • … (wa) “victim” means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged and the expression “victim” includes his or her guardian or legal heir …

Section 372. No appeal to lie unless otherwise provided

  • No appeal shall lie from any judgment or order of a Criminal Court except as provided for by this Code or by any other law for the time being in force:
  • Provided that the victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the Court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation, and such appeal shall lie to the Court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction of such Court.

Section 374. Appeals from convictions

  • (1) Any person convicted on a trial held by a High Court in its extraordinary original criminal jurisdiction may appeal to the Supreme Court.
  • (2) Any person convicted on a trial held by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge or on a trial held by any other Court in which a sentence of imprisonment for more than seven years has been passed against him or against any other person convicted at the same trial, may appeal to the High Court.
  • (3) Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), any person—
    • (a) convicted on a trial held by a Metropolitan Magistrate or Assistant Sessions Judge or Magistrate of the first class, or of the second class, or(b) sentenced under Section 325, or
    • (c) in respect of whom an order has been made or a sentence has been passed under Section 360 by any Magistrate, may appeal to the Court of Session.
  • (4) When an appeal has been filed against a sentence passed under Section 376, Section 376-A, Section 376-AB, Section 376-B, Section 376-C, Section 376-D, Section 376- DA, Section 376-DB or Section 376-E of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), the appeal shall be disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. xxx

Section 378. Appeal in case of acquittal

  • Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), and subject to the provisions of sub-sections (3) and (5),—
    • (a) the District Magistrate may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the Court of Session from an order of acquittal passed by a Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence;
    • (b) the State Government may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the High Court from an original or appellate order of acquittal passed by any Court other than a High Court not being an order under clause (a)] or an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Session in revision.
  • (2) If such an order of acquittal is passed in any case in which the offence has been investigated by the Delhi Special Police Establishment constituted under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 (25 of 1946), or by any other agency empowered to make investigation into an offence under any Central Act other than this Code, the Central Government may, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3), also direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal—
    • (a) to the Court of Session, from an order of acquittal passed by a Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence;
    • (b) to the High Court from an original or appellate order of an acquittal passed by any Court other than a High Court not being an order under clause (a) or an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Session in revision.
  • (3) No appeal to the High Court under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) shall be entertained except with the leave of the High Court.
  • (4) If such an order of acquittal is passed in any case instituted upon complaint and the High Court, on an application made to it by the complainant in this behalf, grants special leave to appeal from the order of acquittal, the complainant may present such an appeal to the High Court.
  • (5) No application under sub-section (4) for the grant of special leave to appeal from an order of acquittal shall be entertained by the High Court after the expiry of six months, where the complainant is a public servant, and sixty days in every other case, computed from the date of that order of acquittal.
  • (6) If, in any case, the application under sub-section (4) for the grant of special leave to appeal from an order of acquittal is refused, no appeal from that order of acquittal shall lie under sub-section (1) or under sub-section (2).’

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When can (i) a ‘Victim’ File an Appeal in a Criminal Case and  (ii) an ‘Aggrieved Person’ File an Appeal in a Civil Case?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Part I –Appeal by a Victim in a Criminal Case

Relevant provisions relating to appeals in Criminal Cases are Sections 2(wa), 372, 374, and 378 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.  

Section 2(wa):

  • ‘2. Definitions.— In this Code, unless the context otherwise requires,—
  • … (wa) “victim” means a person who has suffered any loss or injury caused by reason of the act or omission for which the accused person has been charged and the expression “victim” includes his or her guardian or legal heir …

Section 372. No appeal to lie unless otherwise provided

  • No appeal shall lie from any judgment or order of a Criminal Court except as provided for by this Code or by any other law for the time being in force:
  • Provided that the victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the Court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation, and such appeal shall lie to the Court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction of such Court.

Section 374. Appeals from convictions

  • (1) Any person convicted on a trial held by a High Court in its extraordinary original criminal jurisdiction may appeal to the Supreme Court.
  • (2) Any person convicted on a trial held by a Sessions Judge or an Additional Sessions Judge or on a trial held by any other Court in which a sentence of imprisonment for more than seven years has been passed against him or against any other person convicted at the same trial, may appeal to the High Court.
  • (3) Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), any person—
    • (a) convicted on a trial held by a Metropolitan Magistrate or Assistant Sessions Judge or Magistrate of the first class, or of the second class, or(b) sentenced under Section 325, or
    • (c) in respect of whom an order has been made or a sentence has been passed under Section 360 by any Magistrate, may appeal to the Court of Session.
  • (4) When an appeal has been filed against a sentence passed under Section 376, Section 376-A, Section 376-AB, Section 376-B, Section 376-C, Section 376-D, Section 376- DA, Section 376-DB or Section 376-E of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860), the appeal shall be disposed of within a period of six months from the date of filing of such appeal. xxx

Section 378. Appeal in case of acquittal

  • Save as otherwise provided in sub-section (2), and subject to the provisions of sub-sections (3) and (5),—
    • (a) the District Magistrate may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the Court of Session from an order of acquittal passed by a Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence;
    • (b) the State Government may, in any case, direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal to the High Court from an original or appellate order of acquittal passed by any Court other than a High Court not being an order under clause (a)] or an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Session in revision.
  • (2) If such an order of acquittal is passed in any case in which the offence has been investigated by the Delhi Special Police Establishment constituted under the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 (25 of 1946), or by any other agency empowered to make investigation into an offence under any Central Act other than this Code, the Central Government may, subject to the provisions of sub-section (3), also direct the Public Prosecutor to present an appeal—
    • (a) to the Court of Session, from an order of acquittal passed by a Magistrate in respect of a cognizable and non-bailable offence;
    • (b) to the High Court from an original or appellate order of an acquittal passed by any Court other than a High Court not being an order under clause (a) or an order of acquittal passed by the Court of Session in revision.
  • (3) No appeal to the High Court under sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) shall be entertained except with the leave of the High Court.
  • (4) If such an order of acquittal is passed in any case instituted upon complaint and the High Court, on an application made to it by the complainant in this behalf, grants special leave to appeal from the order of acquittal, the complainant may present such an appeal to the High Court.
  • (5) No application under sub-section (4) for the grant of special leave to appeal from an order of acquittal shall be entertained by the High Court after the expiry of six months, where the complainant is a public servant, and sixty days in every other case, computed from the date of that order of acquittal.
  • (6) If, in any case, the application under sub-section (4) for the grant of special leave to appeal from an order of acquittal is refused, no appeal from that order of acquittal shall lie under sub-section (1) or under sub-section (2).’

Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, on 14 July 2025

The recent decision of the Supreme Court of India, Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828 (Prashant Kumar Mishra, Ahsanuddin Amanullah, JJ.) considered the relevant provisions relating to appeals in Criminal cases and delivered a noticeable decision. It affirmed the following three earlier decisions:

  • Jagjeet Singh v Ashish Mishra alias Monu, (2022) 9 SCC 321,
  • Mallikarjun Kodagali v State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752 (3-Judge Bench, by a majority),
  • Mahabir v State of Haryana, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 184.

Findings in Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, in Nutshell

The Apex Court held in Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, in a nutshell, that it is quite clear, based on the plain language of the law –

  • A victim, as defined in Section 2(wa) CrPC, would be entitled to file an appeal before the Court, to which an appeal ordinarily lies against any order acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation.

Impugned View of the High Court (Set Aside by the Apex Court)

The impugned view of the High Court (set aside by the Apex Court) was that the ‘complainant’ who actually filed the written complaint alone can maintain an appeal as a ‘victim’, and that the ‘complainant’ in a case instituted upon a police report could file appeal only after seeking the leave of the High Court invoking the provisions of Section 378(3) of the CrPC.

The High Court had held as under:

  • ‘This is a case instituted upon a police report and only in cases instituted upon private complaint, leave to appeal under Section 378(4) of Cr.P.C. is maintainable. Therefore, leave to appeal against order of acquittal in appeal is also not maintainable in the instant case.’

Jagjeet Singh v Ashish Mishra alias Monu, (2022) 9 SCC 321

In Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, the Supreme Court quoted and followed its earlier decision in Jagjeet Singh v Ashish Mishra alias Monu, (2022) 9 SCC 321. It reads as under:

  • ‘23. A “victim” within the meaning of CrPC cannot be asked to await the commencement of trial for asserting his/her right to participate in the proceedings. He/She has a legally vested right to he heard at every step post the occurrence of an offence. Such a “victim” has unbridled participatory rights from the stage of investigation till the culmination of the proceedings in an appeal or revision. We may hasten to clarify that “victim” and “complainant/informant” are two distinct connotations in criminal jurisprudence. It is not always necessary that the complainant/informant is also a “victim”, for even a stranger to the act of crime can be an “informant”, and similarly, a “victim” need not be the complainant or informant of a felony.’

Mallikarjun Kodagali v State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752,

In Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, the Supreme Court also followed Mallikarjun Kodagali v State of Karnataka, (2019) 2 SCC 752. It has been held by a 3-Judge Bench, by a majority of 2:1, that a victim, as defined in Section 2(wa) of the CrPC, would be entitled to file an appeal before the Court to which an appeal ordinarily lies against the order of conviction. It is held as under:

  • “73. In our opinion, the proviso to Section 372 CrPC must also be given a meaning that is realistic, liberal, progressive and beneficial to the victim of an offence. There is a historical reason for this, beginning with the Declaration of Basic Principles of Justice for Victims of Crime and Abuse of Power, adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in the 96th Plenary Session on 29-11-1985. The Declaration is sometimes referred to as the Magna Carta of the rights of victims. One of the significant declarations made was in relation to access to justice for the victim of an offence through the justice delivery mechanisms, both formal and informal. In the Declaration it was stated as follows:
  • “4. Victims should be treated with compassion and respect for their dignity. They are entitled to access to the mechanisms of justice and to prompt redress, as provided for by national legislation, for the harm that they have suffered.
  • 5. Judicial and administrative mechanisms should be established and strengthened where necessary to enable victims to obtain redress through formal or informal procedures that are expeditious, fair, inexpensive and accessible. Victims should be informed of their rights in seeking redress through such mechanisms.
  • 6.The responsiveness of judicial and administrative processes to the needs of victims should be facilitated by:
  • Informing victims of their role and the scope, timing and progress of the proceedings and of the disposition of their cases, especially where serious crimes are involved and where they have requested such information;
  • Allowing the views and concerns of victims to be presented and considered at appropriate stages of the proceedings where their personal interests are affected, without prejudice to the accused and consistent with the relevant national criminal justice system;
  • Providing proper assistance to victims throughout the legal process;
  • Taking measures to minimise inconvenience to victims, protect their privacy, when necessary, and ensure their safety, as well as that of their families and witnesses on their behalf, from intimidation and retaliation;
  • Avoiding unnecessary delay in the disposition of cases and the execution of orders or decrees granting awards to victims.
  • 7. Informal mechanisms for the resolution of disputes, including mediation, arbitration and customary justice or indigenous practices, should be utilised, where appropriate, to facilitate conciliation and redress for victims.”
  • 76. As far as the question of the grant of special leave is concerned, once again, we need not be overwhelmed by submissions made at the Bar. The language of the proviso to Section 372 CrPC is quite clear, particularly when it is contrasted with the language of Section 378(4) CrPC. The text of this provision is quite clear and it is confined to an order of acquittal passed in a case instituted upon a complaint. The word “complaint” has been defined in Section 2(d) CrPC and refers to any allegation made orally or in writing to a Magistrate. This has nothing to do with the lodging or the registration of an FIR, and therefore it is not at all necessary to consider the effect of a victim being the complainant as far as the proviso to Section 372 CrPC is concerned.”

Mahabir v State of Haryana, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 184

In Asian Paints Limited v. Ram Babu, 2025 INSC 828, the Supreme Court quoted the following from  Mahabir v State of Haryana, 2025 SCC OnLine SC 184, where it is observed as under:

  • “53. Therefore, by the aforesaid provision a right has been created in favour of the victim, which was not existing earlier in the Code, i.e., that a victim shall have a right to prefer an appeal against any order passed by the court acquitting the accused or convicting for a lesser offence or imposing inadequate compensation. The plain reading of the statement of objects and reasons for introducing the proviso to Section 372 CrPC makes it clear that it wanted to confer certain rights on the victims. It has been noted therein that the victims are the worst sufferers in a crime, and they don’t have much role in the court proceedings. They need to be given certain “rights” and compensation, so that there is no distortion of the criminal justice system. This, by itself, is clear that the object of adding this proviso is to create a right in favour of the victim to prefer an appeal as a matter of right. It not only extends to challenge the order of acquittal, but such appeal can also be filed by the victim if the accused is convicted for a lessor offence or if the inadequate compensation has been imposed.
  • 54. Thus, it is clear as per the golden rule of interpretation, that the ‘proviso’ is a substantive enactment, and is not merely excepting something out of or qualifying what was excepting or goes before. Therefore, by adding the ‘proviso’ in Section 372 of CrPC by this amendment, a right has been created in favour of the victim.”

Part II –Appeal by Aggrieved-Person in Civil Cases

CPC: Provisions on Grant of Leave To Appeal

The following are the relevant provisions, as regards appeal, in the Civil Procedure Code

  • Section 96 – Appeal from original decree.
  • Section 97 – Appeal from final decree where no appeal from preliminary decree
  • Section 98 – Decision where appeal heard by two or more Judges
  • Section 99 – No decree to be reversed or modified for error or irregularity not affecting merits or jurisdiction
  • Section 99A – No order under section 47 to be refused or modified unless decision of the case is prejudicially affected
  • Section 100 – Second appeal
  • Section 100A – No further appeal in certain cases
  • Section 101 – Second appeal on no other grounds
  • Section 102 – No second appeal in certain suits
  • Section 103 – Power of High Court to determine issues of fact
  • Section 104 – Orders from which appeal lies
  • Section 105 – Other orders
  • Section 106 – What Courts to hear appeals
  • Section 107 – Powers of Appellate Court
  • Section 108 – Procedure in appeals from appellate decrees and orders
  • Section 109 – When appeals lie to the Supreme Court

Appeal From Any Original Decree And From Second Appeal

Sections 96 and 100 respectively of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provide for preferring an appeal from any original decree or from a decree in appeal, respectively. They read as under:

Section 96 – Appeal from original decree:

  • (1) Save where otherwise expressly provided in the body of this Code or by any other law for the time being in force, an appeal shall lie from every decree passed by any Court exercising original jurisdiction the Court authorized to hear appeals from the decisions of such Court.
  • (2) An appeal may lie from an original decree passed ex parte.
  • (3) No appeal shall lie from a decree passed by the Court with the consent of parties.
  • (4) No appeal shall lie, except on a question of law, from a decree in any suit of the nature cognisable by Courts of Small Cause, when the amount or value of the subject-matter of the original suit does not exceed three thousand rupees.

Section 100 – Second appeal:

  • Save as otherwise expressly provided in the body of this Code or by any other law for the time being in force, an appeal shall lie to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any Court subordinate to the High Court, if the High Court is satisfied that the case involves a substantial question of law.
  • (1). An appeal may lie under this section from an appellate decree passed ex parte.
  • (2) In an appeal under this section, the memorandum of appeal shall precisely state the substantial question of law involved in the appeal.
  • (3) Where the High Court is satisfied that a substantial question of law is involved in any case, it shall formulate that question.
  • (4) The appeal shall be heard on the question so formulated and the respondent shall, at the hearing of the appeal, be allowed to argue that the case does not involve such question;
  • Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall be deemed to take away or abridge the power of the Court to hear, for reasons to be recorded, the appeal on any other substantial question of law, not formulated by it, if it is satisfied that the case involves such question.

H. Anjanappa v. A. Prabhakar, January 29, 2025
The Apex Court in H. Anjanappa v. A. Prabhakar, January 29, 2025 (J.B. Pardiwala,  R. Mahadevan, JJ.), pointed out that the aforesaid provisions do not enumerate the categories of persons who can file an appeal. The Court proceeded into the issue analysing the following two well-founded legal propositions –

  • stranger cannot be permitted to file an appeal in any proceedings unless he satisfies the court that he falls within the category of aggrieved persons.
  • It is only where a judgment and decree prejudicially affects a person who is not a party to the proceedings, he can prefer an appeal with the leave of the appellate court.

A Prejudicially Affected Person Can File Appeal

Supreme Court of India, in H. Anjanappa v. A. Prabhakar held  –

  • “Where a judgment and decree prejudicially affects a person who is not a party to the proceedings, he can prefer an appeal with the leave of the court”.

It is also pointed out that the injury complained of must not be “remote or indirect”.

The Apex Court pointed out two interesting propositions in this regard:

  • 1. The Applicant must be “bound by the decree or judgment in that proceeding and who would be precluded from attacking its correctness in other proceedings”.
  • 2. The applicant must be “a person who might properly have been a party”.

The Apex Court (H. Anjanappa v. A. Prabhakar) Concluded on ‘grant of leave to appeal’ in para 43 as under:

  • “43. The principles governing the grant of leave to appeal may be summarised as under:
  • i. Sections 96 and 100 of the CPC respectively provide for preferring an appeal from an original decree or decree in appeal respectively;
  •  ii. The said provisions do not enumerate the categories of persons who can file an appeal;
  • iii. However, it a settled legal proposition that a stranger cannot be permitted to file an appeal in any proceedings unless he satisfies the court that he falls within the category of an aggrieved person;
  • iv. It is only where a judgment and decree prejudicially affects a person who is not a party to the proceedings, he can prefer an appeal with the leave of the court;
  • v. A person aggrieved, to file an appeal, must be one whose right is affected by reason of the judgment and decree sought to be impugned;
  • vi. The expression “person aggrieved” does not include a person who suffers from a psychological or an imaginary injury;
  • vii. It would be improper to grant leave to appeal to every person who may in some remote or indirect way be prejudicially affected by a decree or judgment; and
  • viii. Ordinarily leave to appeal should be granted to persons who, though not parties to the proceedings, would be bound by the decree or judgment in that proceeding and who would be precluded from attacking its correctness in other proceedings.

No Definition of ‘Appeal

The  five-Judge Bench of the Privy Council in Nagendra Nath Dey v. Suresh Chandra Dey, AIR 1932 PC 165, speaking through Sir Dinshaw Mulla observed that there is no definition of appeal in the CPC, but there is no doubt that any application by a party to an appellate Court, asking it to set aside or revise a decision of a subordinate Court, is an appeal within the ordinary acceptation of the term, and that it is no less an appeal because it is irregular or incompetent.

Applicant must have been aggrieved by an order or causes him some prejudice

A person who is not a party to a litigation has no right to appeal merely because the judgment or order contains some adverse remarks against him

In Adi Pherozshah Gandhi v. H.M. Seervai, AIR 1971 SC 385, the Constitution Bench of the Apex Court held as under:

  • “46. Generally speaking, a person can be said to be aggrieved by an order which is to his detriment, pecuniary or otherwise or causes him some prejudice in some form or other. A person who is not a party to a litigation has no right to appeal merely because the judgment or order contains some adverse remarks against him. But it has been held in a number of cases that a person who is not a party to suit may prefer an appeal with the leave of the appellate court and such leave would not be refused where the judgment would be binding on him under Explanation 6 to section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure.”

Leave Should Be Granted If Applicant Would Be Prejudicially Affected

In Smt. Jatan Kumar Golcha vs. Golcha Properties Private Limited, (1970) 3 SCC 573 it was held as under:

  • “It is well settled that a person who is not a party to the suit may prefer an appeal with the leave of the Appellate Court and such leave should be granted if he would be prejudicially affected by the Judgment.”

Applicant must Be bound by the order or is aggrieved or is prejudicially affected

In State of Punjab v. Amar Singh, (1974) 2 SCC 70, while dealing with the maintainability of appeal by a person who is not party to a suit, has observed thus:

  • “Firstly, there is a catena of authorities which, following the dictum of Lindley, L.J., in re Securities Insurance Co., [(1894) 2 Ch 410] have laid down the rule that a person who is not a party to a decree or order may with the leave of the Court, prefer an appeal from such decree or order if he is either bound by the order or is aggrieved by it or is prejudicially affected by it.”

Person Aggrieved Must Be One Whose Right Is Affected By The Judgment

In Baldev Singh v. Surinder Mohan Sharma, (2003) 1 SCC 34, it is held that an appeal under Section 96 of the CPC would be maintainable only at the instance of a person aggrieved by and dissatisfied with the judgment and decree. While dealing with the concept of person aggrieved, it was observed in paragraph 15 as under:

  • “A person aggrieved to file an appeal must be one whose right is affected by reason of the judgment and decree sought to be impugned.”

Consider Nature And Extent Of Injuries Suffered

In A. Subash Babu v. State of A.P., (2011) 7 SCC 616, it is held as under:

  • “The expression ‘aggrieved person’ denotes an elastic and an elusive concept. It cannot be confined that the bounds of a rigid, exact and comprehensive definition. Its scope and meaning depends on diverse, variable factors such as the content and intent of the statute of which contravention is alleged, the specific circumstances of the case, the nature and extent of the complainant’s interest and the nature and extent of the prejudice or injuries suffered by him.”

Person aggrieved must have jeopardized; Not an imaginary injury

Referring Shanti Kumar R. Canji v. Home Insurance Co. of New York, (1974) 2 SCC 387 and State of Rajasthan v. Union of India, (1977) 3 SCC 592, it is observed that the expression ‘person aggrieved’ does not include a person who suffers from a psychological or an imaginary injury; but, it must, therefore, necessarily be one, whose right or interest has been adversely affected or jeopardized.

See also:

  • Sri V.N. Krishna Murthy v. Sri Ravikumar, (2020) 9 SCC 501
  • K. Ajit Babu v. Union of India, (1997) 6 SCC 473
  • Thammanna v. K. Veera Reddy, (1980) 4 SCC 62,
  • P.S.R. Sadhanantham v. Arunachalam, (1980) 3 SCC 141,

Test Whether Precluded From Attacking in Other Proceedings

Division Bench of the Madras High Court, in Srimathi K. Ponnalagu Ammani v. The State of Madras,  AIR 1953 Mad 485, laid down the test to find out whether it would be proper to grant leave to appeal as under:

  • “Now, what is the test to find out when it would be proper to grant leave to appeal to a person not a party to a proceeding against the decree or judgment in such proceedings? We think it would be improper to grant leave to appeal to every person who may in some remote or indirect way be prejudicially affected by a decree or judgment. We think that ordinarily leave to appeal should be granted to persons who, though not parties to the proceedings, would be bound by the decree or judgment in that proceeding and who would be precluded from attacking its correctness in other proceedings.”

Court Of Appeal In Its Discretion Allows Third Party Appeal

In Province of Bombay v. W.I. Automobile Association, AIR 1949 Bom 141 (Chagla C.J. and Bhagwati J.), held as under:

  • “The Civil Procedure Code does not in terms lay down as to who can be a party to an appeal. But it is clear and this fact arises from the very basis of appeals, that only a party against whom a decision is given has a right to prefer an appeal. Even in England the position is the same. But it is recognised that a person who is not a party to the suit may prefer an appeal if he is affected by the order of the trial Court, provided he obtains leave from the Court of appeal; therefore whereas in the case of a party to a suit he has a right of appeal, in the case of a person not a party to the suit who is affected by the order he has no right but the court of appeal may in its discretion allow him to prefer an appeal.”  (referred to: Indian Bank Limited, Madras v. Seth Bansiram Jashamal Firm through its Managing Partner, AIR 1934 Mad 360, In re Securities Insurance Company, (1894) 2 Ch D 410.)

The position is thus stated in the Annual Practice for 1951, at page 1244, as under:

  • “Persons not parties on the record may, by leave obtained on an ‘ex parte’ application to the Court of appeal, appeal from a judgment or order affecting their interests, as under the old practice.”

“A person who might properly have been a party

Halsbury’s Laws of England, Vol. 26, page 115, says as under:

  • “A person who is not a party and who has not been served with such notice (notice of the judgment or order) cannot appeal without leave, but a person who might properly have been a party may obtain leave to appeal.”

In ‘more or less similar terms, the rule and its limits are stated’ in Seton on Judgments and Orders, 7th Edn., Vol. 1, at p. 824:

  • “Where the appellant is not a party to the record he can only appeal by leave to be obtained on motion ‘ex parte’ from the Court of Appeal….. Leave to appeal will not be given to a person not a party unless his interest is such that he might have been made a party.”

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Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Principles and Procedure

PROPERTY LAW

Title, ownership and Possession

Adverse Possession

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Land Reform Laws

Power of attorney

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Law on Documents

Documents – Proof and Presumption

Interpretation

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Law on Damages

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Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

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Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Bar Under Section 116, Evidence Act: Does it Extend to Challenge – Landlord Lost Title After ‘Commencement of the Tenancy’  

Taken from: Recovery of Possession Based on Title and on Earlier Possession

Jojy George Koduvath.

Introduction

Section 116 of the Evidence Act

Section 116 of the Indian Evidence Act reads as under:

  • Estoppel of tenant; and of licensee of person in possession. No tenant of immovable property, or person claiming through such tenant, shall, during the continuance of the tenancy, be heard to deny that the landlord of such tenant had, at the beginning of the tenancy, a title to such immovable property.”

In Sri Ram Pasricha v. Jagannath, AIR 1976 SC 2335: 1976 4 SCC 838, it is held as under:

  • “The tenant in such a suit is estopped from questioning the title of the landlord under section 116 of the Evidence Act. The tenant cannot deny that the landlord had title to the premises at the commencement of the tenancy. Under the general law, in a suit between landlord and tenant, the question of title to the leased property is irrelevant”.

The principle behind the proposition, which asserts that the owner/landlord has the right to recover the property based on his title if the defendant-tenant raises claim of title, is founded upon the notion that a tenant is precluded from disputing the title of the landlord or owner, as laid down in Section 116 of the Evidence Act.

Bar u/S. 116: Not Extend To Challenge – Landlord Lost Title After ‘Commencement Of The Tenancy’  

D. Satyanarayana v. P. Jagadish (A.P. Sen, B.C. Ray, JJ.), AIR 1987 SC2192, 1987 (4) SCC 424, is a leading decision on this matter.

  • (However, ‘D. Satyanarayana v. P. Jagadish’ is said to be an exception to the general rule. See: Masonic Club v. Jamna Lodge, 2014-207 DLT 62; 2014-140 DRJ 396; L. Rs.  of Arjun Lal v. L. Rs.  of Kundan Lal, 2013 AIR(CC) 2193; 201260 RCR(Civ) 769 (Raj); M. L.  Dawar v. M. L.  Seth, 2011-125 DRJ 564 (Del); Manoharlal v. Baijnath Jalan, 2005-4 Jhk CR 58; 2005-3 Jhk LJR 474.)

The following are the facts (of D. Satyanarayana v. P. Jagadish) in a nutshell.

The owner had leased the demised premises to a tenant. The (original) tenant sub-leased it to the respondent. The head-lessor (owner) served a notice of eviction on the sub-tenant, alleging that there was unlawful subletting by the lessee.  The sub-tenant atoned in favour of the original lessor and started paying monthly rent directly to the superior landlord (owner).

In this decision, it is held that the estoppel or bar under Sec. 116 of the Evidence Act operates only –

  • (i)  during the continuance of the tenancy,
  • (ii) to the challenge of the title of the landlord at the beginning of the tenancy.

In this decision, it is held as under:

  • “3. …Section 116 of the Evidence Act provides that no tenant of immovable property shall, during the continuance of the tenancy, be permitted to deny that the landlord of such tenant had, at the beginning of the tenancy, a title to such immovable property. Possession and permission being established, estoppel would bind the tenant during the continuance of the tenancy and until he surrenders his possession. The words ‘during the continuance of the tenancy’ have been interpreted to mean during the continuance of the possession that was received under the tenancy in question, and the Courts have repeatedly laid down that estoppel operates even after the termination of the tenancy so that a tenant who had been let into possession, however, defective it may be, so long as he has not openly surrendered possession, cannot dispute the title of the landlord at the commencement of the tenancy…”
  • “4. The rule of estoppel embodied under Section 116 of the Evidence Act is that, a tenant who has been let into possession cannot deny his landlord’s title, however defective it may be, so long as he has not openly restored possession by surrender to his landlord…”

It was further held that since (or, after) the date of tenancy, the title of landlord came to an end; for, the head-lessor (owner) served a notice of eviction on the sub-tenant, alleging that there was unlawful subletting by the lessee, and the sub-tenant atoned in favour of the original lessor. It was pointed out –

  • A tenant is not estopped from contending that the title of the lessor has “since come to an end” (or the landlord lost title after the commencement of the tenancy).

The Apex Court (in D. Satyanarayana v. P. Jagadish) quoted from Mangat Ram & Anr. v. Sardar Meharban Singh, AIR 1987 SC 1656,  (1987) 4 SCC 319, (A.P. Sen, V. Balakrishnan Eradi, JJ.) saying:

  • “Quite recently, this Court in Mangat Ram v. Sardar Meharban Singh, [1987] 1 Scale 964, to which one of us was a party, observed:
  • “The estoppel contemplated by s. 116 is restricted to the denial of title at the commencement of the tenancy and by implication it follows that a tenant is not estopped from contending that the title of the lessor has since come to an end.”
  • See also: Fida Hussain v. Fazal Hussain & Ors., AIR (1963) MP 232,
  • K.S.M. Guruswamy Nadar v. N.G. Ranganathan, AIR (1954) Mad. 402, 
  • S.A.A. Annamalai Chettiar v. Molaiyan & Ors., AIR (1970) Mad. 396 and
  • Chidambara Vinayagar Devasthanam v. Duraiswamy, ILR (1967) 1 Mad. 624.”

D. Satyanarayanana v. P. Jagdish Distinguished

In E. Parashuraman v.  V. Doraiswamy,  AIR 2006 SC 376; 2006-1 SCC 658, it is stated as under:

  • “18. We have carefully examined the decisions of this Court in D. Satyanarayanana vs. P. Jagdish (supra) and A.V.G.P. Chettiar and Sons and others vs. T. Palanisamy Gounder : (2002) 5 SCC 337 and we are of the view that the principles laid down therein are not applicable to the facts of this case. The exception to the rule of estoppel embodied under Section 116 of the Evidence Act arises if it is shown that since the date of the tenancy of title of the landlord came to an end, or that he was evicted by a paramount title holder, or that even though there was no actual eviction or dispossession from the property, under a threat of eviction, the tenant had attorned to the paramount title holder and a new jural relationship of landlord and tenant had come into existence between them. Such a situation has not arisen in the instant case. In this case there is no finding that the title of the landlord has come to an end. The Corporation has not established its title in any proceeding in accordance with law. In these circumstances the exception to the rule of estoppel embodied in Section 116 of the Evidence Act cannot be pleaded by the appellants.”

Sec. 116 ceases to have applicability once the tenant has been evicted

In Vashu Deo v. Balkishan, 2002-1 SCR 171, it is held that Sec. 116 ceases to have applicability once the tenant has been evicted. (It stands incongruent to the view in D. Satyanarayana v. P. Jagadish where it was held – estoppel operates even after the termination.) It is said as under:

  • “6. …Section 116 of the Evidence Act, which codifies the common law rule of estoppel between landlord and tenant, provides that no tenant of immovable property or person claiming through such tenant, shall, during the continuance of the tenancy, be permitted to deny that the landlord of such tenant had at the beginning of the tenancy, a title to such immovable property. The rule of estoppel so enacted has three main features :
    • .(i) the tenant is estopped from disputing the title of his landlord over the tenancy premises at the beginning of the tenancy;
    • (ii) such estoppel continues to operate so long as the tenancy continues and unless the tenant has surrendered possession to the landlord; and
    • (iii) Section 116 of the Evidence Act is not the whole law of estoppel between the landlord and tenant.
  • The principles emerging from Section 116 can be extended in their application and also suitably adapted to suit the requirement of an individual case… the rule of estoppel ceases to have applicability once the tenant has been evicted. His obligation to restore possession to his landlord is fulfilled either by actually fulfilling the obligation or by proving his landlord’s title having been extinguished by a paramount titleholder…”

Forfeiture of tenancy under Clause (g) of Section 111 of the TP Act

In Sheela v. Firm Prahlad Rai Prem Prakash (Ruma Pal, R.C. Lahoti, JJ.), AIR 2002 SC 1264; 2002-3 SCC 375, it is held as under:

  • “In our opinion, the denial or disclaimer to be relevant for the purpose of Section 12(1)(c) should take colour from Section 116 of the Evidence Act and Section 111(g) of the Transfer of Property Act. Section 116 of the Evidence Act embodies therein a rule of estoppel. No tenant of immovable property, or person claiming through such tenant, shall, during the continuance of the tenancy, be permitted to deny that the landlord of such tenant had, at the beginning of the tenancy, a title to such immovable property. This estoppel, so long as it binds the tenant, excludes the tenant from raising a plea disputing the title of his landlord at the commencement of the tenancy. It flows as a corollary therefrom that the proof of landlord-tenant relationship tantamounts during the continuance of tenancy to proof of ownership of landlord over the tenancy premises at the beginning of the tenancy so far as the tenant is concerned. It is significant to note that on the phraseology of Section 116 of the Evidence Act the rule of estoppel applies so long as the tenancy is not terminated and the rule estops the tenant from laying challenge to the ownership of the landlord at the commencement of the tenancy. But the rule of estoppel as incorporated in Section 116 is not exhaustive and it may be extended or suitably modified in its application to other situations as well, retaining the basic feature of the rule.
  • “Clause (g) of Section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, insofar as relevant for our purpose, provides that a lease of immovable property determines by forfeiture in case the lessee renounces his character as such by setting up a title in a third person or by claiming title in himself. This provision contemplates two fact – situations which entail the lessee having renounced his character as such and they are: (i) when the lessee sets up a title in a third person, or (ii) when he claims title in himself.
  • “In either case, the tenant has disputed and denied the title of his landlord because a title in third person or title in himself cannot co-exist with the title in the landlord.
  • 13. The law as to tenancy being determined by forfeiture by denial of the lessor s title or disclaimer of the tenancy has been adopted in India from the Law of England where it originated as a principle in consonance with Justice, equity and good conscience. On enactment of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the same was incorporated into clause (g) of Section 111. So just is the rule that it has been held applicable even in the areas where the Transfer of Property Act does not apply (See – Raja Mohammad Amir Ahmad Khan vs. Municipal Board of Sitapur and Anr. – AIR 1965 SC 1923). The principle of determination of tenancy by forfeiture consequent upon denial of the lessor s title may not be applicable where rent control legislation intervenes and such legislation while extending protection to tenants from eviction does not recognize such denial or disclaimer as a ground for termination of tenancy and eviction of tenant. However, in various rent control legislations such a ground is recognized and incorporated as a ground for eviction of tenant either expressly or impliedly by bringing it within the net of an act injurious to the interest of the landlord on account of its mischievous content to prejudice adversely and substantially the interest of the landlord.
  • “14. Denial of landlord’s title or disclaimer of tenancy, is it an act injurious to interest of landlord? How does this rule operate and what makes it offensive Evans & Smith state in the Law of Landlord and Tenant (Fourth Edition, 1993, at p.89) that it is an implied condition of every lease, fixed-term or periodic and formal or informal, that the tenant is not expressly or deny the landlord s title or prejudice it by any acts which are inconsistent with the existence of a tenancy. Disclaimer of the landlord’s title is analogous to repudiation of a contract. The rule is of feudal origin; the courts are not anxious to extend it, and so any breach of this condition must be clear and unambiguous. Hill & Redman in Law of Landlord and Tenant (Seventeenth Edition, para 382, at page 445-446) dealing with “Acts which prejudice lessor s title” state that there is implied in every lease a condition that the lessee shall not do anything that may prejudice the title of the lessor; and that if this is done the lessor may re-enter for breach of this implied condition. Thus, it is a cause of forfeiture if the lessee denies the title of the lessor by alleging that the title of the landlord is in himself or another; or if he assists a stranger to set up an adverse title or delivers the premises to him in order to enable him to set up a title. It is a question of fact, however, what intention underlies the words or the actions of a tenant, whether in fact he is definitely asserting a title adverse to the landlord or, as the case may be, intending to enable someone else to set up such a title. Thus, it is not sufficient that the lessee does not at once acknowledge the title of the landlord and a general traverse in the defence to an action for possession does no more than put the landlord to proof and does not assert that the title is in another. The essential characteristic of disclaimer by tenant as stated in Foa s General Law of Landlord and Tenant (Eight Edition, para 934, at p.589) is that it must amount to a renunciation by the tenant of his character of tenant, either by setting up a title in another, or by claiming title in himself. A mere renunciation of tenancy without more, though it may operate as a surrender, cannot amount to a disclaimer. The denial, though it need not be express and can be implied, must nevertheless be a clear denial and it must be clearly proved.”

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Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Principles and Procedure

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Title, ownership and Possession

Adverse Possession

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Land Reform Laws

Power of attorney

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Law on Documents

Documents – Proof and Presumption

Interpretation

Contract Act

Law on Damages

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Divorce/Marriage

Negotiable Instruments Act

Criminal

Arbitration

Will

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Religious issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Does Filing a Suit Amount to Notice of Termination of Contract

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Introduction

Filing a suit may amount to notice of termination of a contract if:

  • The contract or governing law does not mandate notice.
  • The pleadings clearly declare that the contract is terminated.
  • And, it will be an added circumstance — if the defendant acts upon or acknowledges that intention, for example, by stopping performance, ceasing payment (such as rent or invoices), sending an email confirming cessation of services, or making admissions in pleadings.

In such cases, the filing of the suit may be treated as constructive notice of termination. If the defendant accepts and acts upon the termination, they may be estopped from later denying its validity.

In M/s Nopany Investiments (P) Ltd. Santokh Singh (HUF), AIR 2008 S C 673, 2008 (2) SCC 728, has laid down as under:-

  • “In any view of the matter, it is well settled that filing of an eviction suit under the general law itself is a notice to quit on the tenant. Therefore, we have no hesitation to hold that no notice to quit was necessary under Section 106 of the Transfer of Property Act in order to enable the respondent to get a decree of eviction against the appellant. This view has also been expressed in the decision of this Court in V. Dhanappal Chettiar v. Yesodai Ammal, 1979(2) RCR (Rent) 352; [AIR 1979 SC 1745]”

See also:

  • Brompton Lifestyle Brands Pvt. Ltd. v. Riveria Commercial Developers Ltd. , 2023-4 AD(Del) 591,
  • International Institute of Neuro Sciences & Oncology Ltd. , Chandigarh v. Sahibjit Singh Sandhu, 2017-3 PLR 51; 2017-3 RCR(Civ) 554 (P&H),
  • Neelam v. . Sanjay Pahwa, 2016(1) R.C.R (Rent) 696,
  • Bhagirath Verma v. Dada Dev Mandir Prabandhak Sabha (Barah Gaon) Palam, 2016-234 DLT 3
  • Hazari Vs. Vinod Kumar. 2015(4) R.C.R (Civil) 688,
  • Chanda v. Rajesh Saxena, 2015-224 DLT 480,
  • Jeevan Diesels & Electricals Ltd. Vs. Jasbir Singh Chadha (HUF) & Anr. 2011 (183) DLT 712
  • Harikesh Vs. Smt. Narain Devi, 2010 (1) R.C.R(Rent) 99
  • M/s Mandap International Pvt. Ltd. v.. M/s Ahuja Kashyap Pvt. Ltd., 2014(5) R.C.R (Civil) 797.

No Termination – If Contract Mandates Written Notice

However, where the contract or applicable statute requires a written notice in a particular form, merely filing a suit is not sufficient to constitute valid termination. In such cases, compliance with the prescribed notice process is mandatory.

No Notice, Damages Alone

The Supreme Court clarified this in Indian Oil Corporation Ltd. v. Amritsar Gas Service, (1991) 1 SCC 533, where it held:

  • The agreement being revocable by either party in accordance with clause 28 by giving thirty days’ notice, the only relief which could be granted was the award of compensation for the period of notice, that is, 30 days.

Issuance of notice may amount to sub-judice

Issuance of notice, when a suit is pending, even if it does not amount to sub-judice (Latin: “under judgment”), may be unnecessary, redundant, or even improper, as the issue is already seized by the court.

In such a situation the court can proceed – as if the suit or contention amounts to sufficient notice if-

  • The plaint itself discloses the grounds of termination or claim, and
  • The defendant suffers no prejudice, and
  • The suit is not premature.

Opponent’s Conduct Matters
If the opposite party acts based on the termination (e.g., ceases performance, accepts return of goods, or initiates exit procedures), that conduct may confirm mutual understanding of termination, which courts can take notice of.


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Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Principles and Procedure

PROPERTY LAW

Title, ownership and Possession

Adverse Possession

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Land Reform Laws

Power of attorney

Evidence Act – General

Sec. 65B

Admission, Relevancy and Proof

Law on Documents

Documents – Proof and Presumption

Interpretation

Contract Act

Law on Damages

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Divorce/Marriage

Negotiable Instruments Act

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Arbitration

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Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

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Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

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Hash Value Certificate – Mandatory or Directory

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

A Postscript at the Beginning
Hash Value Certification is Not Arbitrary or Unreasonable
Surya Kant, CJI, Joymalya Bagchi, Vipul M. Pancholi, JJ. ordered in Pune Bar Association v. Union of India on 22 May, 2026 as under:
“4. To achieve such objective, Section 63(4) of BSA improved upon the certificate envisaged under the old law by mandating the issuance of a standard-form certificate prescribed in the Schedule which inter alia requires the disclosure of hash value of the electronic/digital record along with a further certification by an expert. Hash value of an electronic data is synonymous with an electronic fingerprint and provides a sure way of identifying and verifying digital data. The necessity of incorporating the hash value of the electronic record in the certificate is thus to ensure its authenticity and integrity, and cannot be said to lack a rational nexus with the object of the Act. Similarly, certification by an expert in Part B provides an additional layer of authenticity to the secondary electronic evidence. For these reasons, we are of the considered view that the new provision has a clear and rational nexus with the object of the law and cannot be said to be either arbitrary or unreasonable so as to suffer from the vice of manifest arbitrariness.”

Introduction

This article examines whether the inclusion of a Hash Value Certificate in the Schedule to Section 63 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023, is mandatory or merely directory.

Section 63(4)(c), BSA

Section 63(4)(c), BSA reads as under:

  • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) and an expert shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.

A question may arise –

  • Because the term “hash value” is not explicitly used the main body of Section 63(4)(c) BSA, can it be argued – Hash Value Certificate is not mandatory but directory (or merely illustrative of the best practices)?

An argument is possible (“hash value” certificate is not mandatory) for two matters –

  • 1. The particulars in the Certificate stated in Section 63(4)(c) are specifically and categorically laid down in the sub-section (2) of Sec. 63. The “Part A” Certificate in the schedule contains all things in sub-section (2) of Sec. 63. So the “Part B” Hash Value Certificate is not mandatory as per the “Section”.
  • 2. The words “sufficient for a matter to be in the sub-section (4)(c) make it clear – the ‘verbatim adherence’ to the certificate format is not mandatory;*.* no doubt, the substance or contents thereof (particularly, the phraseology – “best of the knowledge and belief”) must have been placed in some (other) form. The particulars in the Certificate being the matters enumerated in the sub-section (2) of Sec 63 (and nothing is stated as regards Hash Value), the ‘Part B’ Hash Value Certificate cannot be a mandatory one.
    • *.*Note:
    • 1. See the difference between (i) reading Sec. 63(4)(c) without the words – sufficient for a matter to be and (ii) reading with these words. Relevant portion of Sec. 63(4)(c) is given below:
      • “(c) ….. for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be  sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief  of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.”
    • 2. The beginning portion of Sec. 63(4)(c) emphasises that it pertains to the matters enumerated in sub-section(2) alone, and not to hash-value. Sec. 63(4)(c) begins as under:
      • “(c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate…”
    • 3. It appears that the hash value(s) of the original record are expected to be stated, rather than those of the copy (or “computer output”) actually produced before the court. This raises several questions, including: how is the court to verify the authenticity of the copy, if only the original’s HASH is referenced?

Possible Counter Arguments (This author does not subscribe)

  • First: The “form A” itself requires Hash Value Certificate.
  • Second:  Section 63(4)(c) says, “…. and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) and an expert shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate… “
  • Third:  Section 63(4)(c) says, “a certificate specified in the Schedule”. The phrase “specified in the Schedule” explicitly ties the main section to the Schedule and makes it mandatory.
  • Fourth:  The Schedule provides a single, Certificate, divided into two parts – “Part A and “Part B”. It is not presented as two separate certificates, one mandatory and one optional.
  • Fifth: Legislative Intent (i.e., for ensuring the digital integrity of electronic records) reflects the mandatory nature.

Conclusion

The ‘Hash Value Certificate’ in the BSA is shrouded in several potential ambiguities. To dispel these uncertainties, a legislative amendment or a definitive ruling by an authoritative court that takes into account all pertinent arguments in this matter is imperative.

It is a fact that Section 65 of the old Act and Section 63 of the new Act were introduced as enabling provisions, designed to simplify the admissibility of electronic records.

  • However, due to poor and rigid drafting, they have paradoxically had the opposite effect.

In practice, it may be more feasible for many litigants to physically produce the original device—such as a computer, laptop, or mobile phone—before the court, rather than to obtain a certified hash value through a forensic expert.

Read Similar Articles

End Notes:

Section 63, Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

(Changes introduced in the New Adhiniyam – from the Evidence Act – are emphasised.)

  • 63. Admissibility of electronic records –
    (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Adhiniyam, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media or semiconductor memory which is produced by a computer or any communication device or otherwise stored, recorded or copied in any electronic form (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence or any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.
    (2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—
    (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer or communication device during the period over which the computer was used regularly to create, store or process information for the purposes of any activity regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer or communication device;
    (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
    (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer or communication device was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
    (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.
    (3) Where over any period, the function of creating, storing or processing information for the purposes of any activity regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by means of one or more computers or communication device, whether—
    (a) in standalone mode; or
    (b) on a computer system; or
    (c) on a computer network; or
    (d) on a computer resource enabling information-creation or providing information—processing and storage; or
    (e) through an intermediary
    all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.
    (4) In any proceeding where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things shall be submitted along with the electronic record at each instance where it is being submitted for admission, namely:—
    (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer or a communication device referred to in clauses (a) to (e) of sub-section (3);
     (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief  of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.
     (5) For the purposes of this section,—
    (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer or communication device if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
    (b) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer or communication device whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment or by other electronic means as referred to in clauses (a) to (e) of sub-section (3).

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Sakshya Adhiniyam Mandates Hashing the Original; Established Jurisprudence Requires Hashing the Copy Also.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam

A Postscript at the Beginning
Hash Value Certification is Not Arbitrary or Unreasonable
Surya Kant, CJI, Joymalya Bagchi, Vipul M. Pancholi, JJ. ordered in Pune Bar Association v. Union of India on 22 May, 2026 as under:
“4. To achieve such objective, Section 63(4) of BSA improved upon the certificate envisaged under the old law by mandating the issuance of a standard-form certificate prescribed in the Schedule which inter alia requires the disclosure of hash value of the electronic/digital record along with a further certification by an expert. Hash value of an electronic data is synonymous with an electronic fingerprint and provides a sure way of identifying and verifying digital data. The necessity of incorporating the hash value of the electronic record in the certificate is thus to ensure its authenticity and integrity, and cannot be said to lack a rational nexus with the object of the Act. Similarly, certification by an expert in Part B provides an additional layer of authenticity to the secondary electronic evidence. For these reasons, we are of the considered view that the new provision has a clear and rational nexus with the object of the law and cannot be said to be either arbitrary or unreasonable so as to suffer from the vice of manifest arbitrariness.”

Abstract

  • 1. Sec. 63 of the BSA mandates the hash certificate for the original electronic record alone.
    • However, to fulfill the intended purpose, the HASH value certificate for the copy (computer output) must also be provided.
  • 2. Sec. 63(4)(c) of the BSA does not specifically mandate that hashing must be done at the time of copying.
    • But the judicial precedents require recording the hash values at the time of ‘copying’.

Part I

Established Jurisprudence Varies from the Enacted Law

HASH Certificate Under Sec. 63 (BSA)

The (earlier) Indian Evidence Act, 1872, Sec.  65B mandated only a simple certificate, as provided under Sec. 65B(4), when ‘computer output’ (copy) was produced before a court. But, the new Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam,  2023, requires, in Sec.  63(4), the HASH value certificate, also.

Also Read: Sec. 65B (Electronic Records) and Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023

Section 63, Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

Section 63, Bhartiya Sakshya Act speaks as to copy (computer output)  as under:

  • 63. Admissibility of electronic records– (1) “… any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on paper….  or copied in any electronic form (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied …..”

Section 63(4)(c) of the Act reads as under:

  • “(c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate,
  • and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) and an expert shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.

HASH Value Certificate

The Certificate required in Sec. 63(4)(c) of the Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) must be “in the form specified in the Schedule”.

HASH Value Certificate: Form in the Schedule

The Form in the Schedule directs to state the following:

  • “I state that the HASH value/s of the electronic/digital record/s is …… ……… …… , obtained through the following algorithm –
  • SHA1:
  • SHA256:
  • MD5:
  • Other …….. …….. …….. (Legally acceptable standard)
  • (Hash report to be enclosed with the certificate)”

What is (Literally) required is the Certificate concerning the Original

From the above form, it is evident that what is required is a certificate as regards the original ‘electronic/digital record(s)’, not any copy thereof.

Besides clause (c) of sub-section (4), clauses (a) and (b) also refer to the ‘original’ and not to a ‘copy’. Clauses (a) and (b) read as under:

  • “(a) identifying the containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer or a communication device referred to in clauses (a) to (e) of sub-section (3).”

The expression “identifying the electronic record containing the statement” in clause (a) of sub-section (4) further emphasises that the “statement” should pertain to that found in the ‘computer,’ indicating the statement within the physical device itself.

This interpretation aligns with the evidentiary logic that authentication must relate or refer to the source.

Moreover, the words “where it is desired to give a statement in evidence” in Sec. 63(4) can be understood to refer to the “statement” as it exists in the electronic form in the (original) computer or in its digital storage (rather than the ‘copy’ or reproduction of that statement introduced later in court).

Relevant words in Sec. 63(4) reads as under:

  • “Where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate… shall accompany the electronic record…”

The term “electronic record,” as used in this context, appears incongruent because the statute seems to treat the original electronic source and the document produced from it (such as a printout or soft copy) under the same terminology. This conflation could lead to multiple confusions, including what exactly is being certified, the original data in the system, or the document derived from it.

Further Discordant Notes

1. The law compulsorily requires the HASH certificate. But, the requirement for the HASH certificate is unnecessary, especially in situations where there is no dispute regarding the computer output (copy or print-out).

2. It is not made clear in Sec. 63, BSA –

  • (i) What is the precise purpose of ascertaining the hash value of the (original) ‘electronic or digital record’ and not a copy (computer output) that is actually produced before the court?
  • (ii) This raises also another question: how is the court to verify the authenticity of the copy, if only the original’s hash is referenced?
  • (iii) Why does the requirement of including HASH value appear only in the Schedule (certificate format) and not in the main body of Sec. 63 itself?
  • (iv) The lack of explicit mention in the section text also creates uncertainty about whether hash values are mandatory or directory (merely illustrative of best practices).

Established Jurisprudence

Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020)3 SCC 216 (although it was delivered before the introduction new Adhiniyam of 2023), is regarded as the most authoritative decision on this matter.

Read: Certificate is Required Only for ‘Computer Output’; Not for ‘Electronic Records’: Arjun Panditrao Explored.

The enacted law (Sec. 63, BSA) requires the HASH value ‘certificate’ as regards the original ‘electronic or digital record(s)’, the prevailing consensus among the courts in India is the following –

  • The primary objective of the certificate being verification of the authenticity of the copy (CD, pen drive, etc.), the certificate must refer to the copy (computer output), as well as to the original (electronic record) from which the copy was derived.

As regards the HASH value in Sec. 63(4), BSA, the following matters requires consideration –

  • The main text of Section 63(4) does not use the term “hash value”.
  • The ‘HASH value/s of the electronic/digital record/s‘ is required to be given under the ‘Form’ scheduled.
  • Even though it is not specifically stated, the ‘HASH values’ of both the original and the copy of the record must be provided (otherwise, the intended purpose will not be served).

Part II

The Law Does Not Mandate Hashing at the Time of Copying

As shown above, the Court decisions refer to the HASH value of the copy (computer output) produced in court, and not the original (electronic or digital record).

It is also worth noting that the Section does not clarify when hashing must be done—whether during copying from the original or at the time of presentation before the court.

It is true that the hash value of the copy of the CCTV footage (or any other digital evidence) should ideally be generated at the time the copy is made, and not merely at the time when the pen drive or other storage device is produced in court.

Hash Value Is Insisted at Four Stages even under Evidence Act

Madras High Court, in Yuvaraj v. State, 2023-4 Mad LJ (Cri) 238, observed as under:

  • “206. To ensure that what is collected as an evidence in the source is exactly reflected or produced at the time of marking the electronic evidence before the Court, particularly when it comes to CCTV footages, a standard operating procedure must be followed. Such a practice will guarantee that nothing gets altered/deleted/added by the time the evidence is tendered before the Court. Hence, the concept of hash value is insisted at four stages and this value must be the same on all those four stages to ensure authenticity. When the CCTV footage gets stored in the hard disk, that is the first stage where the hash value must be noted down when it is received by the analyst from the Court on requisition made by the prosecution. Thereafter, the analyst creates a copy/mirror image of what is contained in the hard disk and this must also have the same hash value. As the next step, the forensic examination starts and ultimately, it is concluded and a report is given by the forensic analyst. In all those four stages, the hash value must be the same.”
  • 207. For convenience, after the examination is completed by the forensic analyst, the footage can be downloaded to a DVD/CD and the same hash value will be reflected without any change. Since the extraction from the hard disk to the DVD/CD makes such DVD/CD as a secondary evidence, it goes without saying that such a DVD/CD must be accompanied with Section 65-B certificate. Copies taken and given to the accused persons under Section 207 of CrPC. regarding the CCTV footages should also be accompanied with Section 65-B certificate.”

Hash Value Must Be Recorded – Guidelines of Govt. in Tax Matters

In the “Digital Evidence Investigation Manual, 2014, Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT), Department of Revenue Ministry of Finance Government of India, reads, in Para 6.8, as under:

  • “6.8 Forensic Imaging/Cloning: If on previewing, important data is found either in deleted or in active form, the storage medium is required to be cloned for evidence purpose. Otherwise a normal data backup can be taken. The following steps should be taken at the time of cloning:
  • • Preparation-
  • ….. In cases where very high capacity disks/ servers (Over 200 GB) are found at the search premises, separate Hardware imaging devices, which are up to ten times faster, would be needed. These hardware devices have in-built authentication engines. On completion of the imaging process, the device displays the hash value of the cloned hard disk. The image/clone has to have the same hash value as that of the target hard disk. The Hash value should be recorded in the Panchnama and the assessee can be given the option of seeking a copy of the imaged/cloned hard disk by paying the copying charges.”

Para 6.8 also requires the following under the heading ‘Report’:

  • • Report: Take printout of report generated by the imaging tool which contains the details of imaging attributes, details of Hard Disk Drives imaged, date and time and the most important thing the hash value of the Hard Disk Drive. Attach the report along with panchnama as an annexure to it.

In M/S. Saravana Selvarathnam Retails v. The Commissioner of Income Tax, 2024-463 ITR 523: 298 Taxman 319: 339 CTR 10 (Mad)(HC), the main grievance of the petitioner was that the digital data evidences were collected by the respondents from unknown locations without any valid search warrant and without following the guidelines issued by the CBDT vide Digital Evidence Investigation Manual. The Madras High Court addressed the contention in detail and held as under:

  • “The Digital Evidence Investigation Manual has been issued by the CBDT by virtue of powers available under Section 119 of the IT Act and hence, the Income Tax Authorities and all the other persons employed in the execution of this Act are bound to observe and follow such orders, instructions and directions issued by CBDT. ….. Hence, it is mandatory for  W.P. Nos. 9753, 9757, 9761 & 11176 of 2023 respondents to follow the Digital Evidence Investigation Manual issued by CBDT while conducting search and seizure and it is not optional.”

Directives of Maharashtra and Kerala Govts.

In Umesh v. State of Karnataka, 2023-2 KarLJ 397, it is pointed out –

  • “In fact, the Government of Maharashtra has already implemented the practice of collecting hash value of electronic evidences and collecting the memory component of the device it is recorded on at the first instance since 2016. A reference can also be made to the Standard Operating Procedures issued by the Government of Kerala for collection of digital evidence related to crimes against women and children, since 2021. In fact, guidelines on extraction of hash value are also given in Digital Evidence Investigation Manual Central Board of Direct Taxes Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India.”

Hash Values of the Original and Copy at the Time of Copying, Required

Though Sec. 63(4)(c) of the BSA does not specifically mandate

  • (i) that hashing must be done at the time of copying, and (ii) that the hash value must pertain to the copy (computer output), also,

established jurisprudence, through long-standing legal precedents, requires recording the hash values of both the original and the copy at the time of copying, to demonstrate that the data is protected against tampering.

Part III

Section 63(4)(c), BSA

Section 63(4)(c), BSA reads as under:

  • “(c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate,
  • and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) and an expert shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.

A question may arise –

  • Because the term “hash value” is not explicitly used the main body of Section 63(4)(c) BSA, can it be argued – Hash Value Certificate is not mandatory but directory (or merely illustrative of the best practices)?

An argument is possible (“hash value” certificate is not mandatory) for two matters –

  • 1. The particulars in the Certificate stated in Section 63(4)(c) are specifically and categorically laid down in the sub-section (2) of Sec. 63. The “Part A” Certificate in the schedule contains all things in sub-section (2) of Sec. 63. So the “Part B” Hash Value Certificate is not mandatory as per the “Section”.
  • 2. The words “sufficient for a matter to be in the sub-section (4)(c) make it clear – the ‘verbatim adherence’ to the certificate format is not mandatory;*.* no doubt, the substance or contents thereof (particularly, the phraseology – “best of the knowledge and belief”) must have been placed in some (other) form. The particulars in the Certificate being the matters enumerated in the sub-section (2) of Sec 63 (and nothing is stated as regards Hash Value), the ‘Part B’ Hash Value Certificate cannot be a mandatory one.
    • *.* Note: 1. See the difference between (i) reading Sec. 63(4)(c) without the words – sufficient for a matter to be and (ii) reading with these words. Relevant portion of Sec. 63(4)(c) is given below:
    • “(c) ….. for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief  of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.”
    • 2. The beginning portion of Sec. 63(4)(c) emphasises that it pertains to the matters enumerated in sub-section(2) alone, and not to hash-value. Sec. 63(4)(c) begins as under:
      • “(c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate…”
    • 3. It appears that the hash value(s) of the original record are expected to be stated, rather than those of the copy (or “computer output”) actually produced before the court. This raises several questions, including: how is the court to verify the authenticity of the copy, if only the original’s HASH is referenced?

Possible Counter Arguments

  • First: The “form A” itself requires Hash Value Certificate.
  • Second:  Section 63(4)(c) says, “…. and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) and an expert shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate… “
  • Third:  Section 63(4)(c) says, “a certificate specified in the Schedule”. The phrase “specified in the Schedule” explicitly ties the main section to the Schedule and makes it mandatory.
  • Fourth:  The Schedule provides a single, Certificate, divided into two parts – “Part A and “Part B”. It is not presented as two separate certificates, one mandatory and one optional.
  • Fifth: Legislative Intent (i.e., for ensuring the digital integrity of electronic records) reflects the mandatory nature.

Conclusion

The ‘Hash Value Certificate’ in the BSA is shrouded in several potential ambiguities. To dispel these uncertainties, a legislative amendment or a definitive ruling by an authoritative court that takes into account all pertinent arguments in this matter is imperative.

It is a fact that Section 65 of the old Act and Section 63 of the new Act were introduced as enabling provisions, designed to simplify the admissibility of electronic records.

  • However, due to poor and rigid drafting, they have paradoxically had the opposite effect.

In practice, it may be more feasible for many litigants to physically produce the original device—such as a computer, laptop, or mobile phone—before the court, rather than to obtain a certified hash value through a forensic expert.

Read Similar Articles

End Notes:

Section 63, Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam

(Changes introduced in the New Adhiniyam – from the Evidence Act – are emphasised.)

  • 63. Admissibility of electronic records –
    (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Adhiniyam, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media or semiconductor memory which is produced by a computer or any communication device or otherwise stored, recorded or copied in any electronic form (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence or any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.
    (2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—
    (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer or communication device during the period over which the computer was used regularly to create, store or process information for the purposes of any activity regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer or communication device;
    (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
    (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer or communication device was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
    (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.
    (3) Where over any period, the function of creating, storing or processing information for the purposes of any activity regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by means of one or more computers or communication device, whether—
    (a) in standalone mode; or
    (b) on a computer system; or
    (c) on a computer network; or
    (d) on a computer resource enabling information-creation or providing information—processing and storage; or
    (e) through an intermediary
    all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.
    (4) In any proceeding where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things shall be submitted along with the electronic record at each instance where it is being submitted for admission, namely:—
    (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer or a communication device referred to in clauses (a) to (e) of sub-section (3);
     (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person in charge of the computer or communication device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) and an expert shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate; and for the purposes of this sub-section it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief  of the person stating it in the certificate specified in the Schedule.
     (5) For the purposes of this section,—
    (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer or communication device if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
    (b) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer or communication device whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment or by other electronic means as referred to in clauses (a) to (e) of sub-section (3).

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Admission, Relevancy and Proof

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Implied Grant: A Valid Mode of Creation of Easement under Indian Law

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Abstract

  • Easement by ‘Implied Grant’ is a Well-Recognised Category of Easement.
  • Implied Grant is an Independent Right (Alternative Way will Not Defeat it).
  • Implied Grant can be Inferred from the Circumstances.
  • No Express Consideration is Required for the Creation of an Easement by Grant and Implied Grant.
  • Grant alone pleaded; Not, Implied Grant – The Supreme Court recognized and allowed the doctrine of Implied Grant (in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622).

Grant in Easements – Three Distinct Legal Connotations under Indian Law

  • 1. Theoretical Basis of Every Easementary Right is Grant. The foundation of all easementary rights under Indian law is the concept of grant by the servient owner. Such a grant may be express, as provided in Sections 8 to 12 of the Indian Easements Act, 1882; implied, based on the circumstances of transfer by severance, as contemplated in Section 13; or presumed, from long and continuous use, as recognised under Section 15.
  • 2. Implied Grant is a Judicially Recognized Easement. The common law in India recognizes implied grant—distinct from an easement of necessity—as a valid mode of acquiring an easement, even though it is not expressly codified under the Indian Easements Act. Such easements are inferred from the conduct of the parties or from the surrounding circumstances that indicate the intention to grant such a right. Indian courts have upheld this principle in several decisions, including Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, and L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR 1972 Mad 307.
  • 3. Grant is inferred from Usage and Custom in Customary Easements: The Indian Easements Act also recognises customary easements, which are expressly discerned in Sec. 18 of the Act. In such cases, the right is not assumed to be founded on an express or implied grant in the conventional sense, but it is presumed as imbeded in the long and continuous reasonable use by a particular class of people within a specific locality. That is, the underlying presumption is that a reasonable grant must have once taken place, which now gives way to a valid and acceptable custom. An example would be a village pathway used by local inhabitants over a long time to form a custom. This principle has been upheld in several decisions, including Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89; Harendra Nath Chakraborti v. Asim Sindhu Chakraborty, AIR 1981 Cal 325; and Yohannan v. Mathai, 1991 (1) Ker LJ 605, 1991 KHC 571.

Easement by Implied Grant is a Well-Recognised Category of Easement

A grant may be either express or implied. The latter arises from the circumstances or conduct of the parties involved. Indian common law recognizes implied grant as a legitimate and acceptable mode for the acquisition of easements.

Sree Swayam Prakash Case: Supreme Court only Reaffirmed Previous Legal Position

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, the Supreme Court used the term implied-grant to refer to an easement of grant ‘arising by implication’. It is seen that the Supreme Court has only reaffirmed the legal position previously upheld by several High Courts.

  • R. Sivanandan v. Rajammal, (1975) 1 Mad LJ 251,
  • L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR 1972 Mad 307,
  • Ratanchand Chordia v. Kasim Khaleel, AIR 1964 Mad 209,
  • Annapurna v. Santosh Kumar, AIR 1937 Cal. 661 (referred to in the decision),
  • Kuppakkal v. Mathan Chettiar, AIR 1924 Mad 834.

It was held in R. Sivanandan v. Rajammal, (1975) 1 Mad LJ 251, that the plaintiff could found his case on an implied grant of easement even if there was no express grant; and that the argument that the absence of an express grant would negative an implied grant was quite untenable.

In L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR 1972 Mad 307, the existence of a right of way was inferred from the words of the relevant documents. It was observed as under:

  • “8. From all these documents Thiru D. Ramaswami Iyengar stated, it is clear that there is an implied grant of easement over the 30-ft. road. He cited Ratanchand Chordia v. Kasim Khaleel, AIR 1964 Mad 209, wherein a Bench of this Court has laid down the principles on which an implied grant can be inferred. The question whether a grant can be implied or not would only arise in a case where there is no express grant. To say the least, the contention that the absence of an express grant would negative an implied grant is quite untenable. It is from attendant circumstances and other documentary evidence that an implied grant has to be inferred. It is pity that the lower appellate Court has not bestowed its attention before it disposed of the appeal, on the aspect of spelling out an implied grant, which is recognised by law.
  • 9. Annapurna v. Santosh Kumar, AIR 1937 Cal 661 also makes it clear that in law implied grant has to be inferred and lays down that grant can be presumed from the description of boundaries in the conveyance which mentions the same to be a common passage.”

In L. Govindarajulu Chettiar v. V. N. Srinivasalu Naidu, AIR  1972 Mad 307, the High Court also referred Kuppakkal v. Mathato n Chettiar, AIR 1924 Mad 834, where ‘a grant of an easement of way’ had been inferred from the words of a lease deed. 

Implied Grant‘ exists Independent of Sec. 13, Easement Act

R. Sivanandan v. Rajammal, (1975) 1 Mad LJ 251, addressed the issue with clarity holding as under:

  • “Merely because the juristic basis of the easement of necessity (Section 13) is said to be an implied grant, the converse will not follow. In other words, where an easement is acquired by grant, either expressly or by necessary implication, it will not amount to an easement of necessity.”

K.S. Venkataraman, J., in this decision followed Peacock on Easements which reads as under:

  • “An implied grant, in the sense here used, is a grant which arises by implication from the language of the particular instrument construable according to the ordinary rules of construction, one of which is that the circumstances existing at the date of the grant may be looked at in order to ascertain the intention of the parties.”

Easement by Implied Grant

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “An easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties and it may have its own consideration. (B.B. Katiyar’s Commentaries on Easements and Licenses, p. 762).  It may be either express or even by necessary implication. Though easement of necessity will come to an end with the termination of necessity, easement acquired by grant cannot be extinguished on that ground as per section 13(b) of the Indian Easements Act, 1882. Therefore, even assuming that the plaintiff had an alternative pathway as contended by the defendants, it does not extinguish the right of easement of grant in favour of the plaintiff. Therefore, the Trial Court was justified in granting a relief of declaration of right of easement of grant over the `B’ schedule pathway. However, the declaration granted on the ground of easement of necessity was not justified.”

The aforesaid Supreme Court decision (Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622) arose from the Kerala High Court decision, Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. N. Gopala Pillai on 9 May 2006. It was affirmed by the Supreme Court. The Kerala High Court held as under:

  • “Theoretically all easements have their origin in some sort of grant by the servient owner. The grant may be express or it may be implied from the surrounding attendant circumstances and conduct of the parties or it may even be presumed from long user. In the case of an express grant of easement the limit thereof depends on the words used.”

Upholding the view taken by the Kerala High Court, the Apex Court held as under:

  • “In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

Grant: No Express ‘Consideration’ Required; TP Act has no application

In B. Shyamkumar v. Francis George, 2009-4 CTC 750; 2009-7 MLJ 835, the Madras High Court held unequivocally as under:

  • “In case the easement was one acquired by grant, there was no question of consideration of the plea of easement of necessity.”

Gujarat High Court, in Hamir Ram v. Varisng Raimal, 1998 AIR Guj 165, has also held ‘grant’ can be gratuitous. It is said as under:

  • “Easement by grant may be created by oral agreement. It may be gratuitous. It may also be for consideration. If the grant was for consideration it hardly requires registration because mere creation of easement is not compulsorily registrable. …. Further, the …. parties never intended to transfer ownership in respect of the land which was set apart for the purpose of common passage. Hence, it cannot be held to be a sale deed of immovable property having value more than one hundred rupees. For this reason also the agreement does not require registration.”

The incorporeal right of Easement, by itself, cannot be a subject-matter of sale. Following two legal provisions are relevant in this matter –

  • 1. Sec. 6 of the Transfer of Property Act
  • 2. Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act.

Sec. 6 of the Transfer of Property Act

Easement cannot exist independently of the dominant tenement; hence always remains appurtenant to land (that is, attached to, and passes with, the ownership of the dominant tenement). Sec. 6 of the Transfer of Property Act reads as under:

  • “6. What may be transferred– Property of any kind may be transferred, except as provided by this Act or by any other law for the time-being in force;
  • a.… b….
  • c. An easement cannot be transferred apart from the dominant heritage.”

In Musunoori Satyanarayana Murti v. Chekka Lakshmayya, AIR 1929 Mad 79, it was held – ‘the creation of a right of easement by grant is not such a transfer of ownership as is contemplated by Section 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, and therefore, provisions of the Transfer of Property Act has no application to the creation of easement. Section 6(c) of the Transfer of Property Act contemplates that an existing easement cannot be transferred apart from the dominant heritage. Therefore, prima facie, the deed of easement is a creation of easement and not a transfer of an existing easement. [See also: Saraswatibai Bishwambarlal Charity Trust v. Gopal Traders Pvt.  Ltd., 2023 BHC (AS) 34908 (Bom)]

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act

Sec. 8 of the Indian Easements Act deals with express grant. It reads –

  • “8. Who may impose easements – An easement may be imposed by any one in the circumstances, and to the extent, in and to which he may transfer his interest in the heritage on which the liability is to be imposed.”

This section simply says that a person who has the legal right to transfer an interest (i.e. to sell, lease, or mortgage) in an immovable property (‘heritage’) is legally capable of creating (i.e., imposing or granting) an easement over that property.

It is also clear –

  • A life tenant (who has rights only for life) can grant an easement, but it ends with their interest.
  • A co-owner cannot impose an easement on the entire property without consent of the others.

Law does not bar ‘imposition’ of easement accepting consideration

Though the transfer of an easement is not recognized under the provisions of Sec. 54, TP Act, it is noteworthy – the law does not bar ‘imposition’ of easement accepting consideration as pointed out in Saraswatibai Bishwambarlal Charity Trust v. Gopal Traders Pvt.  Ltd., 2023 BHC (AS) 34908 (Bom).

It is also important – though the provisions of the Easements Act address the creation of easements by grant, it is without an explicit requirement for ‘consideration‘, though consideration is a necessary element of a valid agreement under the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

Sec. 13 further elaborates on easements of necessity and quasi-easements, indicating that such easements can arise from the transfer or bequest of immovable property, again without an express requirement for consideration.

In Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, the Supreme Court observed that an ‘easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties’ (and it may have its own consideration); and that ‘the grant may be either express or even by necessary implication’.

In State of Punjab v. Brig. Sukhjit Singh, 1993-3 SCR 944, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “Payment of licence fee is not an essential attribute for the subsistence of a licence.”

It is pointed out in Prabhudas Damodar Kotecha and Anr v. Smt. Manharbala Jeram Damodar, AIR 2013 SC 2959, 2013-15 SCC 358, as under:

  • “In Black’s Law Dictionary, Seventh Edition, the word “license” means “a revocable permission to commit some act that would otherwise be unlawful” and the word “licensee” means “one to whom a license is granted or one who has permission to enter or use another’s premises, but only for one’s own purposes and not for the occupier’s benefit.
  • Thus, it is seen that even in popular sense the word “license” is not understood to mean it should be on payment of license fee for subsistence of license. It also covers a “gratuitous licensee”, that is, a person who is permitted, although not invited, to enter another’s property and who provides no consideration in exchange for such permission.””

A Grant Deed with Consideration requires Stamp and Registration

In Subramanyam Chettiar v. Meyyammai Achi, AIR 1943 Mad 522, it was held that the consideration for the grant of the easement was a promise on the part of the grantee to do something of a like kind for the grantor; and the provisions of the Indian Registration Act were quite clear and it could not be doubted that such a deed required registration under Section 17 and so by virtue of Section 49 it could not be admitted as evidence of the creation of the easement.

Implied Grant is Independent Right ; Alternative Way will Not Defeat it

The existence of an alternative way will defeat easement of necessity and quasi-easement. But, it is pointed out in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Ammaalternative pathway ‘does not extinguish the right of easement of grant. It includes the claim of implied grant also. (See: John, S/o. Ulahannan v. P. Janaki, D/o. Late Vava, 2012, Kerala High Court.)

In Hero Vinoth (Minor) v. Seshammal, (2006) 5 SCC 545, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “28. … Many easements acquired by grant may be absolutely necessary for the enjoyment of the dominant tenement in the sense that it cannot be enjoyed at all without it. That may be the reason for the grant also. But easement of grant is a matter of contract between the parties. In the matter of grant the parties are governed by the terms of the grant and not by anything else. Easement of necessity and quasi-easement are dealt with in Section 13 of the Act. The grant may be express or even by necessary implication. In either case it will not amount to an easement of necessity under Section 13 of the Act even though it may also be an absolute necessity for the person in whose favour the grant is made.”

Easement by Implied grant and Quasi Easement can be pleaded Alternatively

Easement by (implied) grant and quasi easement can be pleaded alternatively, for they are not mutually destructive, and it is permissible to raise inconsistent pleas (but to confine either of the two at the time of evidence).

Implied Grant can be Inferred from the Circumstances

Grant alone Pleaded ; Not, Implied Grant – Apex Court, allowed Implied Grant

It is held in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, Easement of implied grant can be granted in a suit even though “Grant” alone was claimed (Alternatively to easement of necessity). Facts of the case, in a nutshell, are the following –

  • Plaintiff, owner of A-schedule property (dominant tenement), claimed “easement of necessity or of grant” in B-schedule property (servient tenement).
  • Implied grant” was not specifically pleaded (only ‘grant’ was pleaded).
  • Dominant tenement had been separated from the servient tenement.
  • Plaintiff has been using the way in B-schedule property for a long period (about 50 years).
  • The trial court observed that the plaintiff claiming easement by grant or easement of necessity has only a primary burden to prove the absence of any alternate pathway (these findings were accepted by the Apex Court).
  • Defendant alleged that two alternate pathways existed. But, No evidence of any other way to A-schedule property (dominant tenement).
  • The High Court found that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway.

The Supreme Court upheld the view of the High Court and the Trial Court and held as under:

  • “… the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that
    • (i) no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and
    • (ii) there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property …”

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “In Annapurna Dutta vs. Santosh Kumar Sett & Ors., AIR 1937 Cal.661, B.K. Mukherjee, as His Lordship then was observed:
    • “There could be no implied grant where the easements are not continuous and non-apparent. Now a right of way is neither continuous nor always an apparent easement, and hence would not ordinarily come under the rule. Exception is no doubt made in certain cases, where there is a ‘formed road’ existing over one part of the tenement for the apparent use of another portion or there is ‘some permanence in the adaptation of the tenement’ from which continuity may be inferred, but barring these exceptions, an ordinary right of way would not pass on severance unless language is used by the grantor to create a fresh easement.”
  • 26. In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

In this decision our Apex Court has also quoted the following from Katiyar on Law of Easements and Licences –

  • “… It is the intention of the grantor whether he can be presumed to have been intended to convey to the grantee a right of easement for the reasonable and convenient enjoyment of the property which has to be ascertained in all the circumstances of the case to find out whether a grant can be implied. A description in a conveyance may connote an intention to create a right of easement. An easement may arise by implication, if the intention to grant can properly be inferred either from the terms of the grant or the circumstances“.

Implied Grant and Quasi Easement

The question of implied grant arises only if the easement is apparent and continuous (that is, there should be a ‘formed road’)

  • Easement of Necessity: even if – no visible sign (not apparent); and even if – never used before (not continuous). E.g., a foot path to a landlocked plot.
    • But, there should have strict necessity.
  • Quasi Easement – must be visible (apparent) and must be functioning without repeated human action (continuous). E.g., water flowing through a pipe or a drainage system.
    • It is based on prior use before land division.
    • It requires only reasonable necessity, not strict necessity.

Implied Grant and Quasi-Easement

  • The question of implied grant (or quasi-easement) arises only if the alleged easement is:
    • Apparent (i.e., visible upon reasonable inspection), and
    • Continuous (i.e., functions without repeated human intervention)
  • E.g., Water flowing through a pipe, A drainage trench, Overhead electric cables.

Conclusion

  • It is the fundamental principle of easement law that every easement is, in theory, rooted in a grant.
  • Indian law clearly permits the acquisition of easements by implied grant. That is, an easement may arise by implication, and the intention to grant can be inferred either from the terms of the grant or from the surrounding circumstances.
  • Though easement by grant is (generally) said to have arisen from a ‘contract’, the provisions of law that deals with the matter do not specifically require ‘consideration’ in the creation of easements by grant.

End Notes 1

Customary Easements under S. 18 of the Easement Act

Section 18 of the Easement Act reads as under:

  • “18. Customary easements. An easement may be acquired in virtue of a local custom. Such easements are called customary easements.”

Both custom and easement are involved in customary easement. In other words, when customary easement is claimed, elements of both custom and prescriptive easement (long user) are to be proved. [Lachhi v. Ghansara Singh, AIR 1972 HP 89.]

Customary easement includes the right to take water and earth from a tank, use water for cattle from a tank,  graze cattle [Illustration (a) to sec. 18], to take earth for building and repairing their houses etc.[Jugal Kishore v. Umrao Singh, AIR 1949 All 272. ] These are rights of people of a locality; and not a public right.

End Notes 2

It is observed in Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam v. G. Anandavally Amma, AIR 2010 SC 622, as under:

  • “17. The High Court limited itself to the issue whether the decree of the first appellate court granting the original plaintiff (since deceased) right of easement over ‘B’ schedule property by way of grant concurring with the findings of the trial court was sustainable.
  • 18. Before the High Court, the defendants pleaded that there had been no appeal or cross objection filed by the original plaintiff (since deceased) against the order of the Appellate Court which disallowed the claim of easement of necessity and, therefore, the finding that there existed no easement of necessity in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased) over the ‘B’ schedule property stood confirmed. Further they contended that the alternative pathway on the western side of the ‘A’ schedule property was rendered inconvenient by the very act of the original plaintiff (since deceased) who sold that portion of the property to a third party who began digging that pathway resulting in the difference in level. The High Court, on consideration of these contentions, held that though the claim of right of easement by way of necessity over ‘B’ Schedule property may be affected by the subsequent sale of the said plot by the plaintiff in 1983, the claim of right of easement by way of grant over ‘B’ schedule property stood unaffected by the said conduct.
  • 21. The High Court relied on a number of observations in Katiyar’s Law of Easement and Licences (12th Edition) on law with respect to “implication of grant of an easement.” It may arise upon severance of a tenement by its owner into parts. The acquisition of easement by prescription may be classified under the head of implied grant for all prescription presupposes a grant. All that is necessary to create the easement is a manifestation or an unequivocal intention on the part of the servient owner to that effect.
  • 23. Applying these observations to the facts of the case, the High Court held that though the original grant was by Yogini Amma that grant could not perfect as an easement for the reason that Yogini Amma herself was the owner of both ‘A’ schedule and ‘B’ schedule properties and consequently there was no question of ‘B’ schedule property becoming the servient tenement and ‘A’ schedule property becoming the dominant tenement. However, it was the desire of Yogini Amma that was implemented by her disciples by virtue of the settlement deed. Therefore, the right of the plaintiff to have ‘B’ schedule property as a pathway could not have been taken away by the very same deed. In fact, there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway as can be inferred from the circumstances, namely,
    • i) no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property in the settlement deed and
    • ii) there was no objection to the use of ‘B’ schedule as pathway.
  • 25. We have heard Mr. T.L. Viswanatha Iyer, learned senior counsel for the appellants and Mr. Subramanium Prasad, learned senior counsel for the respondents. We have carefully examined the impugned judgment of the courts below and also the pleadings, evidence and the materials already on record. It is not in dispute that the trial court as well as the First Appellate Court concurrently found on a proper appreciation of the evidence adduced in the case that the ‘B’ Schedule Property of the plaint was being used by the original plaintiff (since deceased) and thereafter, by the respondents even after construction of the building in 1940 in ‘A’ Schedule property of the plaint. The appellants also did not dispute the case of the original plaintiff (since deceased) that he was in continuous occupation of the building even after its construction in the year 1940. It is also not in dispute that the appellants were not able to establish that the original plaintiff (since deceased) was using any other pathway for access to ‘A’ Schedule Property of the plaint and the building therein, which was in the occupation of the original plaintiff (since deceased). The case of the appellants that since there was no mention in the deed of settlement enabling the use of ‘B’ schedule pathway for access to ‘A’ schedule property and the building therein, cannot be the reason to hold that there was no grant as the grant could be by implication as well. It is not in dispute that the fact of the use of the ‘B’ schedule property as pathway even after execution of Exhibit A1, the settlement deed in the year 1982 by the original plaintiff (since deceased) would amply show that there was an implied grant in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased) relating to ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint for its use as pathway to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint in residential occupation of the original plaintiff (since deceased). In the absence of any evidence being adduced by the appellants to substantiate their contention that the original plaintiff (since deceased) had an alternative pathway for access to the ‘A’ schedule property, it is difficult to negative the contention of the respondent that since the original plaintiff (since deceased) has been continuously using the said pathway at least from the year 1940 the original plaintiff (since deceased) had acquired an easement right by way of an implied grant in respect of the ‘B’ Schedule property of the plaint. It is an admitted position that both ‘A’ schedule and ‘B’ schedule properties of the plaint belonged to Yogini Amma and her disciples and it was the desire of Yogini Amma that was really implemented by the disciples under the settlement deed executed in favour of the original plaintiff (since deceased). Therefore, the High Court was perfectly justified in holding that when it was the desire of Yogini Amma to Sree Swayam Prakash Ashramam & Anr vs G.Anandavally Amma & Ors grant easement right to the original plaintiff (since deceased) by way of an implied grant, the right of the original plaintiff (since deceased) to have ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as a pathway could not have been taken away.
  • In Annapurna Dutta vs. Santosh Kumar Sett & Ors. [AIR 1937 Cal.661], B.K. Mukherjee, as His Lordship then was observed:
    • “There could be no implied grant where the easements are not continuous and non-apparent. Now a right of way is neither continuous nor always an apparent easement, and hence would not ordinarily come under the rule. Exception is no doubt made in certain cases, where there is a ‘formed road’ existing over one part of the tenement for the apparent use of another portion or there is ‘some permanence in the adaptation of the tenement’ from which continuity may be inferred, but barring these exceptions, an ordinary right of way would not pass on severance unless language is used by the grantor to create a fresh easement.”
  • 26. In our view, therefore, the High Court was also fully justified in holding that there was implied grant of ‘B’ schedule property as pathway, which can be inferred from the circumstances for the reason that no other pathway was provided for access to ‘A’ schedule property of the plaint and there was no objection also to the use of ‘B’ schedule property of the plaint as pathway by the original plaintiff (since deceased) at least up to 1982, when alone the cause of action for the suit arose.”

In this decision our Apex Court has also quoted the following from Katiyar on Law of Easements and Licences –

  • “There are numerous cases in which an agreement to grant easement or some other rights has been inferred or more correctly has been imputed to the person who is in a position to make the grant, on account of some action or inaction on his part. These cases rest on the equitable doctrine of acquiescence, but they may be referred to, for the purpose of classification, as imputed or constructive grants. The party acquiescing is subsequently estopped from denying the existence of easement. It is as if such person had made an actual grant of the easement… … It is the intention of the grantor whether he can be presumed to have been intended to convey to the grantee a right of easement for the reasonable and convenient enjoyment of the property which has to be ascertained in all the circumstances of the case to find out whether a grant can be implied. A description in a conveyance may connote an intention to create a right of easement. An easement may arise by implication, if the intention to grant can properly be inferred either from the terms of the grant or the circumstances“.

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Can a Power of Attorney Holder file a Civil Suit? Is there any bar by virtue of Manisha Mahendra Gala v. Shalini Bhagwan Avatramani, 2024-6 SCC 130?

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam

In Manisha Mahendra Gala v. Shalini Bhagwan Avatramani, 2024-6 SCC 130 (Pankaj Mithal,  Prashant Kumar Mishra, JJ.) held –

  • it is settled in law that Power of Attorney holder can only depose about the facts within his personal knowledge.

It is observed in this case –

  1. The law as understood earlier was that
    • a General Power of Attorney holder can appear, plead and act on behalf of a party he represents; but
    • he cannot become a witness on behalf of the party represented by him as no one can delegate his power to appear in the witness box to another party.
  2. In A.C Narayan v. State of Maharashtra, (2014) 11 SCC 790  upheld the principle of law laid down in Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani (2005-2 SCC 217) and clarified that Power of Attorney holder can depose and verify on oath before the court but he must have witnessed the transaction as an agent and must have due knowledge about it.  

The Supreme Court said in Manisha Mahendra Gala v. Shalini Bhagwan Avatramani, 2024-6 SCC 130 as under:

  • “28. The law as understood earlier was that a General Power of Attorney holder though can appear, plead and act on behalf of a party he represents but he cannot become a witness on behalf of the party represented by him as no one can delegate his power to appear in the witness box to another party. However, subsequently in Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani vs. IndusInd Bank Ltd., (2005) 2 SCC 217, this Court held that the Power of Attorney holder can maintain a plaint on behalf of the person he represents provided he has personal knowledge of the transaction in question. It was opined that the Power of Attorney holder or the legal representative should have knowledge about the transaction in question so as to bring on record the truth in relation to the grievance or the offence. However, to resolve the controversy with regard to the powers of the General Power of Attorney holder to depose on behalf of the person he represents, this Court upon consideration of all previous relevant decisions on the aspect including that of Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani (supra) in A.C Narayan vs. State of Maharashtra, (2014) 11 SCC 790  concluded by upholding the principle of law laid down in Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani (supra) and clarified that Power of Attorney holder can depose and verify on oath before the court but he must have witnessed the transaction as an agent and must have due knowledge about it. The Power of Attorney holder who has no knowledge regarding the transaction cannot be examined as a witness. The functions of the General Power of Attorney holder cannot be delegated to any other person without there being a specific clause permitting such delegation in the Power of Attorney; meaning thereby ordinarily there cannot be any sub-delegation.
  • 29. It is, therefore, settled in law that Power of Attorney holder can only depose about the facts within his personal knowledge and not about those facts which are not within his knowledge or are within the personal knowledge of the person who he represents or about the facts that may have transpired much before he entered the scene. The aforesaid Power of Attorney holder PW-1 had clearly deposed that he is giving evidence on behalf of plaintiff Nos. 2 to 4 i.e. the Gala’s. He was not having any authority to act as the Power of Attorney of the Gala’s at the time his statement was recorded. He was granted Power of Attorney subsequently as submitted and accepted by the parties. Therefore, his evidence is completely meaningless to establish that Gala’s have acquired or perfected any easementary right over the disputed rasta in 1994 when the suit was instituted.”
  • In Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani v. IndusInd Bank Ltd., (2005) 2 SCC 217, it was held that the Power of Attorney holder can maintain a plaintprovided he has personal knowledge of the transaction in question.

It is observed (obvious, clerical-mistake) in Manisha Mahendra Gala v. Shalini Bhagwan Avatramani, 2024-6 SCC 130, as regards maintaining a plaint, as under:

  • “However, subsequently in Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani vs. IndusInd Bank Ltd., (2005) 2 SCC 217, this Court held that the Power of Attorney holder can maintain a plaint on behalf of the person he represents provided he has personal knowledge of the transaction in question.”

But, it is seen that Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani v. IndusInd Bank Ltd., (2005) 2 SCC 217, did not observe anything as to  ‘maintaining a plaint (as observed in Manisha Mahendra Gala v. Shalini Bhagwan Avatramani). Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani v. IndusInd Bank Ltd. referred to “complaint only“. It is said in Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani v. IndusInd Bank Ltd. as under:

  • “Order III, Rules 1 and 2 CPC, empowers the holder of power of attorney to “act” on behalf of the principal. In our view the word “acts” employed in Order III, Rules 1 and 2 CPC, confines only in respect of “acts” done by the power of attorney holder in exercise of power granted by the instrument. The term “acts” would not include deposing in place and instead of the principal. In other words, if the power of attorney holder has rendered some “acts” in pursuance to power of attorney, he may depose for the principal in respect of such acts, but he cannot depose for the principal for the acts done by the principal and not by him. Similarly, he cannot depose for the principal in respect of the matter which only the principal can have a personal knowledge and in respect of which the principal is entitled to be cross-examined.
  • On the question of power of attorney, the High Courts have divergent views. In the case of Shambhu Dutt Shastri Vs. State of Rajasthan, 1986 2WLL 713 it was held that a general power of attorney holder can appear, plead and act on behalf of the party but he cannot become a witness on behalf of the party. He can only appear in his own capacity. No one can delegate the power to appear in witness box on behalf of himself. To appear in a witness box is altogether a different act. A general power of attorney holder cannot be allowed to appear as a witness on behalf of the plaintiff in the capacity of the plaintiff.
  • The aforesaid judgment was quoted with the approval in the case of Ram Prasad Vs. Hari Narain & Ors. AIR 1998 Raj. 185. It was held that the word “acts” used in Rule 2 of Order III of the CPC does not include the act of power of attorney holder to appear as a witness on behalf of a party. Power of attorney holder of a party can appear only as a witness in his personal capacity and whatever knowledge he has about the case he can state on oath but be cannot appear as a witness on behalf of the party in the capacity of that party. If the plaintiff is unable to appear in the court, a commission for recording his evidence may be issued under the relevant provisions of the CPC.
  • In the case of Dr. Pradeep Mohanbay Vs. Minguel Carlos Dias reported in 2000 Vol.102 (1) Bom.L.R.908, the Goa Bench of the Bombay High Court held that a power of attorney can file a complaint under Section 138 but cannot depose on behalf of the complainant. He can only appear as a witness.
  • However, in the case of Humberto Luis & Anr. Vs. Floriano Armando Luis & Anr. reported in 2002 (2) Bom.C.R.754 on which the reliance has been placed by the Tribunal in the present case, the High Court took a dissenting view and held that the provisions contained in Order III Rule 2 of CPC cannot be construed to disentitle the power of attorney holder to depose on behalf of his principal. The High Court further held that the word “act” appearing in order III Rule 2 of CPC takes within its sweep “depose”. We are unable to agree with this view taken by the Bombay High Court in Floriano Armando (supra).
  • We hold that the view taken by the Rajasthan High Court in the case of Shambhu Dutt Shastri (supra) followed and reiterated in the case of Ram Prasad (supra) is the correct view. The view taken in the case of Floriano Armando Luis (supra) cannot be said to have laid down a correct law and is accordingly overruled.”

A.C Narayan v. State of Maharashtra, (2014) 11 SCC 790  

In view of difference of opinion amongst various High Courts as also the decisions of this Court in M.M.T.C.v. Medchl Chemicals & Pharma (P) Ltd., 2002 (1) SCC 234, and in Janki Vashdeo Bhojwani v. Indusind Bank Ltd., 2005 (2) SCC 217, the following question (main) question was referred to the three judge bench:

  • “If the Power of Attorney holder fails to assert explicitly his knowledge in the complaint then can the Power of Attorney holder verify the complaint on oath on such presumption of knowledge?”

In the light of Sec. 142 of the NI Act the three Judge Bench answered the reference in negative. Sec. 142 reads as under:

  • “142. Cognizance of offences. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974) –
  • no court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under section 138 except upon a complaint, in writing, made by the payee or, as the case may be, the holder in due course of the cheque;…”

The Bench answered the question as under:

  • “23) In the light of the discussion, we are of the view that the power of attorney holder may be allowed to file, appear and depose for the purpose of issue of process for the offence punishable under Section 138 of the N.I. Act. An exception to the above is when the power of attorney holder of the complainant does not have a personal knowledge about the transactions then he cannot be examined. However, where the attorney holder of the complainant is in charge of the business of the complainant-payee and the attorney holder alone is personally aware of the transactions, there is no reason why the attorney holder cannot depose as a witness. Nevertheless, an explicit assertion as to the knowledge of the Power of Attorney holder about the transaction in question must be specified in the complaint.”

From the above, it is clear –

  • A civil suit can be filed by the plaintiff through a power of attorney;
  • but, he can furnish evidence on the ‘transaction’ (if so necessitated) if only he has direct knowledge.
  • Power of Attorney holder can maintain a complaint under Sec. 138 NI Act on behalf of the person he represents provided he has personal knowledge of the transaction in question.

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Judicial Admissions in Pleadings: Admissible Proprio Vigore Against the Maker

Saji Koduvath Advocate, Kottayam.

Taken from the Blog: Modes of Proof of Documents

Judicial Admissions, Stand on a Higher Footing

Admissions in pleadings (in the same, not earlier, proceedings) are judicial admissions. They stand on a higher footing than evidentiary admissions.

  • They may give rise to ‘Foundation of Rights’.
  • They are fully binding on the party that makes them and constitute a waiver of proofs.
  • Evidentiary admissions  (including that in the previous pleadings or separate proceedings) are not conclusive by themselves and they can be shown to be wrong.

Judicial Admission Must Be in the very Same Litigation

In Umesh Agarwal v. Mahesh Agarwal (Sikkim), 06 Aug 2013, Indian Kanoon, Pius Kuriakose, CJ., held as under:

  • “42. A survey of the various decisions cited before me at the Bar, particularly, the judgment of the Supreme Court in 
    • Karan Kapahi v. Lalchand Public Charitable Trust, AIR 2010 SC 2077, 
    • Basant Singh v. Janki Singh, AIR 1967 SC 341, 
    • Nagindas Ramdas v. Dalpatram Ichharam, (1974) 1 SCC 242,
  • shows that the law contemplates two kinds of admissions – judicial admissions and evidentiary admissions. It is judicial admissions which are contemplated under Section 58 of the Indian Evidence Act. In order to that an admission is a judicial admission, the same has to be an admission through his pleadings or by other materials in writing produced in the very same litigation. All other admissions are evidentiary admissions. Judicial admissions stand on a higher pedestal than evidentiary admissions. Evidentiary admissions will have to be proved against the makers like any other relevant fact.” 

Admission Contained in Pleadings and that in Evidentiary Admissions

An admission made by a party to a suit in an earlier proceeding is admissible against him.

In Ammini Tharakan v. Lilly Jacob, Thottathil B.Radhakrishnan & SS Satheesachandran, JJ. (7 Oct 2013) the Kerala High Court held that admission contained in a plaint or written statement or in an affidavit or sworn deposition by a party in a previous litigation would be regarded as an admission in a subsequent action. It can be explained by the maker thereof, unless thereis no estoppel (Sec. 31, Evi. Act). Such an admission is a relevant fact. The courts can arrive at a decision on the basis of the admissions. See:

  • Thimmappa Rai v. Ramanna Rai, (2007) 14 SCC 63 .
  • Deb Prosanna v. Hari Kison, AIR 1937 Cal. 515 ,
  • Chendikamba v. Viswanathamayya, AIR 1939 Mad 446 ,
  • Lal Singh v. Guru Granth Sahib, AIR(38) 1951 Pep 101,  and
  • Mst. Ulfat v. Zubaida Khatoon, AIR 1955 All. 361.

In Ammini Tharakan v. Lilly Jacob (7 Oct 2013) it is observed that Section 17 of the Evidence Act says that a document or a statement which suggests any inference as to any fact in issue or relevant fact, is an admission. It was pointed out in this decisions as under:

  • Admissions in pleadings are governed under Section 58 Evidence Act.
  • Section 31 of the Evidence Act, says as to evidentiary admissions.
  • There is distinction between the two.
  • The evidentiary admissions are merely relevant and not conclusive unless they operate as estoppel.
  • An admission by a party in a previous suit is admissible in evidence in a subsequent suit.The burden is upon the party making it to show that it was wrong on the principle that what a party himself admits to be true may reasonably be presumed to be so, though the party making the admission may give evidence to rebut this presumption.
  • Unless and until that is satisfactorily done, the fact admitted must be taken to be established.
  • This is true notwithstanding the fact that the statement which amounts to an admission was not put to the party making it, when that person came into the witness box.

The High Court further held as under in Ammini Tharakan v. Lilly Jacob (7 Oct 2013) –

  • “Here, the plaintiff, who was a defendant in Lucy’s suit, had filed Ext.B10 written statement through her power of attorney holder and mother Martha. That written statement contained the clear stand that neither Lucy nor the plaintiff herein had any share in any of the assets forming the estate of late David Tharakan. This statement which amounts to an admission as to a particular state of affairs, has not been explained by the plaintiff either in the plaint or at any point of time in any manner worthy of being accepted as a rebuttal. While it is the law that admission does not confer title, what we treat as admissions here is demonstrative of the plaintiff’s animus in re inheritance to her father’s estate. We proceed to discuss that aspect further in the succeeding paragraph.”

Categorical Admission cannot be Resiled but, may be Explained or Clarified

In Gautam Sarup v. Leela Jetly, 2008-7 SCC 85, it is held, after considering various decisions including Panchdeo Narain Srivastava (1984-Supp. SCC 594) and Modi Spinning and Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. Ladha Ram & Co. (AIR 1977 SC 680; 1976-4 SCC 320), as under:

  • “28. What, therefore, emerges from the discussions made hereinbefore is that a categorical admission cannot be resiled from but, in a given case, it may be explained or clarified. Offering explanation in regard to an admission or explaining away the same, however, would depend upon the nature and character thereof. It may be that a defendant is entitled to take an alternative plea. Such alternative pleas, however, cannot be mutually destructive of each other.” (Quoted in: Ram Niranjan Kajaria v. Sheo Prakash Kajaria, 2015-10 SCC 203; S. R. Srinivasa v. S. Padmavathamma, 2010-5 SCC 274, )

Admissions in the pleadings are Admissible Proprio Vigore

Admissions in the pleadings are admissible proprio vigore against the maker thereof.

  • See: Sukhbiri Devi v. Union of India, AIR 2022 SC 5058;
  • National Insurance Co. Ltd. vs. Rattani, (2009) 2 SCC 75
  • Vimal Chand Ghevarchand Jain v. Ramakant Eknath Jadoo, 2009-5 SCC 713.
  • Steel Authority of India Ltd. v. State of West Bengal, AIR 2009 SC 120; 2008-14 SCC 589.
  • Ranganayakamma v. K.S. Prakash, 2008 15 SCC 673
  • State of Haryana v. M. P. Mohla (SB Sinha, J.), 2007-1 SCC 457
  • Steel Authority of India Ltd. v. Union of India, 2006 (12) SCC 233,

Admissions – Best Evidence. Evidentiary Admissions – Not Conclusive

In Narayan Bhagwantrao Gosavi Balajiwale v. Gopal Vinayak Gosavi (M. Hidayatullah, S.K. Das), AIR 1960 SC 100, it was held as under:

  • “In view of all these admissions and the revenue records, it was necessary for the appellant to prove that the admissions were erroneous, and did not bind him. An admission is the best evidence that an opposing party can rely upon, and though not conclusive, is decisive of the matter, unless successfully withdrawn or proved erroneous.”

In Nagindas Ramdas v. Dalpatram Icharam, AIR 1974 SC 471, 1974-1 SCC 242, held:

  • “Admissions, if true and clear, are by far the best proof of the facts admitted.
  • Admissions in pleadings or judicial admissions, admissible under s. 58 of the Evidence Act, made by the parties or their agents at or before the hearing of the case,
    • stand on a higher footing than evidentiary admissions.
  • The former class of admissions are
    • fully binding on the party that makes them and
    • constitute a waiver of proof.
  • They by themselves
    • can be made the foundation of the rights of the parties.
  • On the other hand evidentiary admissions which are receivable at the trial as evidence, are by themselves, not conclusive. They can be shown to be wrong.”

The propositions in Nagindas Ramdas v. Dalptram Iccharam, 1974-1 SCC 242 (admissions in pleadings stand on higher footing and are admissible as per Section 58 of the Evidence Act) is referred to in the following decisions:

  • Karan Kapoor v. Madhuri Kumar, 2022-10 SCC 496,
  • Alagu Pharmacy v. N. Magudeswari, AIR 2018 SC 3821; 2018-8 SCC 311,
  • Ram Niranjan Kajaria v. Sheo Prakash Kajaria, 2015-10 SCC 203,
  • D. N. Jeevaraju v. D. Sudhakar, AIR 2011 SC 1158; 2010-14 SCC 69,
  • S. R. Srinivasa v. S. Padmavathamma, 2010-5 SCC 274,
  • Sangramsinh P. Gaekwad v. Shantadevi P. Gaekwad (SB Sinha, J.), AIR 2005 SC 809; 2005-11 SCC 314,
  • Epoch Enterrepots v. M. V. Won Fu, AIR 2003 SC 24; 2003-1 SCC 305,
  • Hiralal Moolchand Doshi v. Barot Raman Lal Ranchhoddas, AIR 1993 SC 1449;
  • Arjun Khiamal Makhijani: Prithdayal Chetandas v. Jamnadas C. Tuliani, 1989-4 SCC 612,
  • Inder Mohan Lal v. Ramesh Khanna, AIR 1987 SC 1986; 1987-4 SCC 1.

Inconsistent  Pleadings Not Possible by Addl. or Subsequent Pleadings

In Mohammed Ali v. Khutejatul Kubra, ILR 2001 Kar 4580, 2002(1) KarLJ 596, the Karnataka High Court has held as under:

  • “6. A perusal of the aforesaid order makes it clear that if a party wants to plead a new ground of claim or a statement containing allegation of fact inconsistent with the previous pleadings of the party pleading the same shall be raised by way of amendment only. There is a total prohibition for pleading new claims and inconsistent statements by any other mode except by way of amendment to the existing pleadings. Though subsequent pleadings is permitted under Order 8, Rule 9 of CPC the same cannot be made use for raising pleas which are altogether new and inconsistent with the original pleadings in the written statement. Order 6, Rule 7 of the CPC deals with departure from the previous pleadings, Order 6, Rule 17 of the CPC deals with the amendment of pleadings and Order 8, Rule 9 of the CPC deals with subsequent pleadings. When they are read together distinction becomes apparent. Then it is clear by way of subsequent pleadings under Order 8, Rule 9 of the CPC new claims and inconsistent pleas cannot be raised and for raising such pleas one has to resort to Order 6, Rule 18 of the CPC only”.

Amendment of Written Statement to Prejudice Plaintiff – Not Allowed

The Three Judge Bench of the Apex Court held in Modi Spinning & Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. Ladha Ram & Co., (1977) 1 SCR 728: AIR 1977 SC 680: 1976-4 SCC 320 – cannot be allowed to withdraw an amendment if such withdrawal would amount to totally displacing the case of the plaintiff and which would cause him irretrievable prejudice. In Heeralal v. Kalyan Mal,1998 (1) SCC 278, the Supreme Court followed the decision, Modi Spinning & Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. Ladha Ram & Co., observing as under:

  • “Even that apart the said decision of two learned judges of this Court Akshaya Restaurant v. P. Anjanappa, 1995 Supp. (2) SCC 303), runs counter to a decision of a Bench of three learned judges of this court in the case of Modi Spinning & Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. & Anr. v. Ladha Ram & Co., (1977) 1 SCR 728. In that case Ray, CJ., Speaking for the Bench had to consider the question whether the defendant can be allowed to amend his written statement by taking an inconsistent plea as compared to the earlier plea which contained an admission in favour of the plaintiff. It was held that such an inconsistent plea which would displace the plaintiff complete from the admissions made by the defendants in the written statements cannot be allowed. If such amendments are allowed in the written statement plaintiff will be irretrievably prejudiced by being denied the opportunity of extracting the admission from the defendants. In that case a suit was filed by the plaintiff for claiming a decree for Rs. 1,30,000/- against the defendants. The defendants in their written statement admitted that by virtue of an agreement date 07th April 1967 the plaintiff worked as their stockist-cum-distributor. After three years the defendants by application under order VI Rule 17 sought amendment of written statement by substituting paragraphs 25 and 26 with a new paragraph in which they took the fresh plea that plaintiff was mercantile agent cum-purchaser, meaning thereby they sought to go behind their earlier admission that plaintiff was stockist- cum-distributor. Such amendment was rejected by the Trial Court and the said rejection was affirmed by the High Court in Revision. The said decision of the High Court was upheld by this Court by observing as aforesaid. This decision of a Bench of three learned judges of this the written statement contains an admission in favour of the plaintiff, by amendment such admission of the defendants cannot be allowed to be withdrawn if such withdrawal would amount to totally displacing the case of the plaintiff and which would cause him irretrievable prejudice. Unfortunately the aforesaid decision of three member Bench of this Court was not brought to the notice of the Bench of two learned judges that decided the case in Akshaya Restaurant (supra). In the latter case it was observed by the Bench of two learned judges that it was settled law that even the admission can be explained and even inconsistent pleas could be taken in the pleadings. The aforesaid observations in the decision in Akshaya Restaurant (supra) proceed on an assumption tat it was the settled law that even the admission can be explained and even inconsistent pleas could be taken in the pleadings. However the aforesaid decision of the three member Bench of this Court in Modi Spinning (supra) is to the effect that while granting such amendments to written statement no inconsistent or alternative plea can be allowed which would displace the plaintiff’s case the cause him irretrievable prejudice.
  • … We were then taken to another decision of this Court in the case of Panchdeo Narain Srivastava v. Km. Jyoti Sahay and another [ 1984 (Supp.) SCC 594]. In that case the plaintiff was held entitled to amend his plaint by submitting that though earlier he stated that the defendant was uterine brother, the plaintiff by amendment in his plaint could submit that the defendant was his brother and the word ‘uterine’ could be dropped. Even in that case the main case put forward by the plaintiff did not get changed as the plaintiff wanted submit that the defendant was his brother. whether the was uterine brother or real brother was a question of decree and depended on the nature of evidence that may be led before the Court. Therefore, the deletion of word ‘uterine’ was not found to be displacing the earlier case of the plaintiff. On the facts of the present case also, therefore, the aid decision cannot be of any assistance to the learned counsel for respondents.
  • In our view, therefore, on the facts of this case and as discussed earlier, no case was made out by the respondents, contesting defendants, for amending the written statement and thus attempting to go behind their admission regarding 5 out of 7 remaining items out of 10 listed properties in Schedule-A of the plaint. However, so far as Schedule-B properties are concerned from the very inception the defendants’ case qua those properties was that plaintiff had no interest therein. By proposed amendment they wanted to introduce an event with reference to those very properties by submitting that they had been in possession of trespassers. Such amendment could not be said to have in any way adversely or prejudicially affected the case of the plaintiff or displaced any admission on their part qua Schedule-B properties which might have resulted into any legal right in favour of the plaintiff. Therefore, so far as Schedule-B properties were concerned, the amendment could not be found fault with. Hence exercising the powers under Article 136 of the Constitution of India we would not be inclined to interfere with that part of the decision of the High Court allowing the amendment in the written statement, even though strictly speaking High Court could not have interfered with even this part of the order under Section 115, CPC.

Erroneous Admissions & Earlier Findings -Effect

In Narayan Bhagwantrao Gosavi Balajiwale v. Gopal Vinayak Gosavi, AIR 1960 SC 100, it was held further as under:

  • “In view of these admissions, the question of burden of proof, as we have already pointed out, is really academic, and if any burden lay upon any party, it was upon the appellant to displace by cogent and convincing evidence that these admissions were erroneous and need not be accepted in proof.”

S, 17, Evidence Act: No distinction – Admission in a pleading and other Admissions

In Basant Singh v. Janki Singh, AIR 1967 SC 341, 1967-1 SCR 1, it is observed as under:

  • “In Phipson on Evidence, 10th Edn, Art. 741, the English law is thus summarised:
    • “Pleadings, although admissible in other actions, to show the institution of the suit and the nature of the case put forward, are regarded merely as the suggestion of counsel, and are not receivable against a party as admissions, unless sworn, signed, or otherwise adopted by the party himself.”
  • Thus, even under the English law, a statement in a pleading sworn, signed or otherwise adopted by a party is admissible against him in other actions. In Marianski v. Cairns (1 Macq. 212 (H.L.).), the House of Lords decided that an admission in a pleading signed by a party was evidence against him in another suit not only with regard to a different subject-matter but also against a different opponent. Moreover, we are not concerned with the technicalities of the English law. Section 17 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 makes no distinction between an admission made by a party in a pleading and other admissions. Under the Indian law, an admission made by a party in a plaint signed and verified by him may be used as evidence against him in other suits. In other suits, this admission cannot be regarded as conclusive, and it is open to the party to show that it is not true.”

Admission is Not Conclusive as to the Truth of the matter

In Kishori Lal v. Mr. Chaltibai, AIR 1959 SC 504, it was held that admissions were not conclusive and that the maker of the admissions is at liberty to prove that the admissions were made mistakenly or that the admissions were untrue, unless such admissions otherwise operate as estoppel. The Supreme Court also noticed in that case that admissions are mere pieces of evidence and that if the truth relating to the matter admitted is known to the parties, the admissions would not be considered as admissions in the true sense. In Nagubai Ammal v. B. Shama Rao, AIR 1956 SC 593, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “An admission is not conclusive as to the truth of the matter stated therein. It is only a piece of evidence, the weight to be attached to which must depend on the circumstances under which it is made. It can be shown to be erroneous or untrue, so long as the person to whom it was made has not acted upon it to his detriment, when it might become conclusive by way of estoppel.”

Court’s Jurisdiction to Require to Prove an Admitted Document

In any case, besides the powers of the court under Sec. 165 of Evidence Act, the scheme of the Procedural Acts (Evidence Act, CPC and CrPC) shows that the court has jurisdiction to require the party concerned to prove that document. We can see it in Sec. 58 of Evidence Act, Order XII, Rule 2A Proviso of the CPC and Sec. 294 of the CrPC .

Section 294 of Code of Criminal Procedure reads as follows:

  • “294. No formal proof of certain documents. (1) Where any document is filed before any Court by the prosecution or the accused, the particulars of every such document shall be included in a list and the prosecution or the accused, as the case may be, or the pleader for the prosecution or the accused, if any, shall be called upon to admit or deny the genuineness of each such document.
  • (2) The list of documents shall be in such form as may be prescribed by the State Government.
  • (3) Where the genuineness of any document is not disputed, such document may be read in evidence in any inquiry, trial or other proceeding under this Code without proof of the signature of the person to whom it purports to be signed:
  • Provided that the Court may, in its discretion, require such signature to be proved.”

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Admission, Relevancy and Proof

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