Kerala Land Reforms Act – Provisions on Plantation-Tenancy and Land-Tenancy in a Nutshell

Saji Koduvath.

Relevant provisions of KLR Act, in a Nutshell

KLR Act

Section Provisions in a Nutshell
Chap. II
Sec. 3
Exemptions – (i) Nothing in this Chapter shall apply to – (viii) Tenancies of plantations exceeding 30 acres.
“Provided that the provisions of this chapter, other than sections 53 to 72S, shall apply to tenancies in respect of agricultural lands which are treated as plantations under sub clause (c) of clause (44) of Section 2”.
7EPersons acquired lands (before 2005 amendment in KLR Act) for consideration below 1 Hec. 61 Are 87 Sq.m. (4 acre) will be deemed to be tenants .
13Fixity: “Every tenant, shall have fixity of tenure in respect of his holding.”
22Landlord desiring to resume any land shall apply to the Land Tribunal.
31Fair rent determined by Land Tribunal.
51A
51B
Landlord not to enter on land surrendered or abandoned by the tenant. 
Contravention is made punishable.
54(1)
55
57
57 (3)
57 (6)
61
54(1). A cultivating tenant (to purchase the right) has to apply Land Tribunal.
55. Purchase price is fixed by LT (on fair rent u/s. 31) to be paid u/s. 59
57. The LT after enquiries, pass orders determining purchase price.
(3). The Land Tribunal allows the purchase of the land it determines.
(6). The Land Tribunal forwards  orders to the Land Board.
61. Tenant to pay rent (under orders of LT) pending proceedings
59When Sec. 54 application is allowed (by the LT), the purchase price (determined u/s. 57 by the LT) shall be deposited with the Land Tribunal to the credit of the Land Board and issue of certificate – to cultivating tenant.
72
Sec. 72 provides for automatic vesting of lease-properties held by cultivating tenants in Govt.  ILR 2010(2) Ker. 845. 
72(1) says: Holdings upon which tenanat entilted fixity under sec. 13 vest in govt.
72BCultivating-tenant “shall be entitled to assignment” of land vested in Govt. under Sec. 72 –within ceiling area and get purchase certificate (through LT) (2 years from 1-1-1970). Effect of non-filing (See Balanoor Plantations case. 2018(3) KLT 283.)
72DThe cultivating tenant has to pay the purchase price to the Government on the assignment to him of the right, title and interest of the landowner. (If the extent of land is one hectare or below, he shall not be liable to pay.)
72ESuch a tenant is liable to pay rent to the Govt. for the unassigned land – under Purchase Certificate (E.g., exempted-plantation-land). The Land Tribunal fixes the rent under Sec. 72F(5)(h).
72CProvides for suo moto action by LT. (No time limit). Rule 5 of the Vesting & Assignment Rules provides – LT may suo moto – notwithstanding no application – assign to cultivating tenant. (See  S.72C also). 
72KLT shall issue purchase certificate.  It shall be conclusive proof of assignment.
74Prohibition of future tenancies.
Chp. III Sec. 81Exemption from ceiling and excess for Govt. lands, private forests, plantations, industrial or commercial undertakings, etc.
Note: 1. Section 81(1) exempts Government lands from the provisions of Chapter III. The Proviso says that the following Government lands will not stand exempted. 
1. Government-lease-lands
2. Lands that fall under Section 13 (Fixity) and
3. Lands that fall under Section 72 (Lease lands vest in Government).
4. Section 81(4)permits use of the land not exceeding 5% of the extent of such holding for floriculture, dairy farms, hotels, restaurants, etc.
82Ceiling area – 5/10 standard acres.
83No person can hold or possess excess of ceiling area. (Holding is by tenant.)  It is a total bar. (Note:  plantations, industrial area etc. are exempted.)
Apply to tenant also. 1980 KLT 259 (Gopalan Nair Vs. State), 1976 KLT 306  (Thomas Mariamma Vs. TLB); RaghunathLaxmanWani v. The State of Maharashtra (AIR 1971 SC 2137)
The policy of the Act – no person –“be permitted to hold any land in excess of the ceiling area.” Raghunath Laxman Wani v. State of Maharashtra, 1971-3 SCC 391, Bhikoba Shankar Dhumal v. Mohan Lal Punchand Tatbed, 1982-1 SCC 680, State of U.P v. Civil Judge, Nainital, AIR 1987 SC 16, State Vs. Puliyangattu, 2008(1) KLJ 571.
84Certain transfers – void.
85(1)Surrender excess.
85(2)Owners and Tenants (in excess of the ceiling area) should furnish ceiling return to Land Board before March 31, 1971, before the Land Board (including lands exempted under S. 81).
Effect of non-filing: See – Balanoor Plantations case – 2018(3) KLT 283.State of Kerala Vs. Varkey Mathew, AIR 1996 SC 1009.
 According to S. 3(1) (viii), “tenancies of plantations exceeding 30 acres” is exempted from Chapter II. Therefore, the landlord can recover such plantation lands after the period of tenancy. Such landlords also had to file a ceiling return within the time stipulated.
85(3)Excess shall be surrendered.
Note: Tenant must have approached the LT (with respect to each plantation, if he has more plantations) (He cannot declare himself a tenant) It is clear from the following provisions: 54(1) – A cultivating tenant has to apply to LT (or the purchase of right, title and interest.)
55 – Purchase price and fair rent fixed by LT
57 – LT after giving notice and enquiries, pass orders (on the application for the purchase of right, title and interest).
57(3) – LT allots the purchase land it determines.
57(6) – The Land Tribunal forwards a copy of orders to the Land Board. 61 – Cultivating tenant to pay rent (under orders of LT) 59 – The purchase price shall be deposited with the LT (to the credit of the Land Board) and issue of certificate – to cultivating tenant.
It is the principle applied in the Balanoor case. Note: (i) The sub-section (3) itself says as to the settlement of claims for resumption and purchase of the right, title, and interest of the landowner by the cultivating tenant, (ii) LT is the only authority to determine tenancy (Land Board cannot determine it), and (iii) it is clear that even if it is a plantation-exemption-land (beyond ceiling limit), the tenant has to file petition under Section 54 – for fixing Purchase price and fair rent fixed by LT and for allotting the land under section 57(3) and for effecting the payments of ‘rent’ and ‘purchase price’(to the credit of the Land Board)  under sec. 61 and 59.
85(3A)The person bound to file a statement under sub-section (2) (that is, Owners and Tenants – having land in excess of the ceiling area)  shall, within a period of three months from the date of final settlement or purchase, file a statement before the Land Board, and the provisions of the said Sub-section shall, as far as may he, apply in regard to the particulars to be contained in such statement, the calculation of the excess land and for the procedure for the surrender of the same.
85(5)On receipt of the statement under Sub-section (2) or Sub-section (3A), the Land Board shall transfer the statement to such Taluk Land Board and such Taluk LandBoard shall determine the extent and identity of the land to be surrendered.
85(7)Whereon a person fails to file statement under 85(2), LB shall intimate TLB  –  TLB shall determine land to be surrendered.
It is obvious – The LB can intimate TLB as to non-filing, on the basis of the records it obtained under Sec. 57(6) and 59. That is, those tenants who are not entitled to get a purchase certificate also have to file an application under Sec. 54(1) and 85(2) or (3A).
Effect of non-filing: See – Balanur Plantations case (With respect to Sec. 72B application) – 2018(3) KLT 283. Statute prescribes liability on the person who owes or hold the land in excess of the ceiling limit to file a statement:  State of Kerala Vs. Varkey Mathew, AIR 1996 SC 1009.
[TLB not to do, suomotu, without direction from LB. 1980 KLT 120, referred to in 2019(1) KLT 985.]
85AFile ceiling return within March  2, 1973 before Land Board..
86(1)On determination of the extent to be surrendered under S. 85- Excess vests in Govt. andTaluk Land Board shall issue an order accordingly.
86(3)Where any person fails to surrender as demanded, the TLB may order an officer to take possession
86(4)Where any land, vests in the Govt, under s. 86(1) (including that of cultivating tenant) the ownership of such land shall vest in the Govt.
86(6)Nothing appliesto property of Govt. under KLC Act.
87
Exp. II
If a person converts any portion of his exempted land to any other class, that converted extent will be added to his account in determining his ceiling limit. That is, the exemption will be lost for that portion. (Mathew K Jacob v. District Environmental Impact Assessment Authority, 2018-4 KLT 913)
Sec. 112 (5A)On acquisition, the cultivating tenants are entitled to compensation for improvements (only) for the land vested in the Government under Sec. 72.
Sec. 112 (5A)(a) says that the compensation for any building or other improvements belonging to the landowner shall be awarded to the Government; and clause (b) says that the balance remaining after deducting the compensation referred to in clause (a) and the value of the land occupied by the homestead or hut, if any, shall be apportioned between the cultivating tenant and the Government in proportion to the profits derivable by them from the land.


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Sec. 65B Evidence Act Simplified

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

PART I – Sec. 65B ON FIRST PRINCIPLES.

  • Note: Analysis of the author and the law rendered by the Supreme Court of India are given.

Point No. 1

What is brought about by Section 65B, Evidence Act?

  1. It enables a litigant to prove computer output (secondary evidence)
    • without further proof or production of electronic record’ (original), and
    • by producing a ‘certificate’ (as provided in this Section.
  2. Presumption is provided as to the correctness of the computer output (copy or print out) under Sec. 65B(5)(c).

Sec. 65B deals with ‘Computer Output’ (copy) and not ‘Electronic Record’ (original) as authoritatively pointed out by the Hon’ble Supreme Court.

  • Sec. 65B is invoked only when a ‘computer output’ (copy) is used in evidence; and it does not pertain to use of (original) ‘electronic record‘ as evidence in court.
  • Relevant portions of Sec. 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65B. Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) … any information contained in an electronic record which is PRINTED ….. or COPIED ….. (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be admissible ….. as evidence of any contents of the original ….”
  • Supreme Court (Anver PV v. PK Basheer, 2014-10 SCC 473) held as under:
  • “24. …… If an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65B of the Evidence Act.”
  • This observation is followed in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216)

Point No. 2A.

Non-obstante clause (‘Notwithstanding Anything’) in Sec. 65B – Not exclude Sec. 65. (Note – Contra view by Supreme Court)

  • What is enabled by the non-obstante clause is – a copy or printout of electronic evidence ‘shall be deemed to be also a document’.
  • Notwithstanding-clause’ in Sec. 65B keeps all other sections in the Evidence Act undisturbed; and it provides for an additional enabling provision – without disabling the force of existing provisions to prove the copy or printout of electronic evidence. Therefore, the copy or printout can be proved under Sec. 65 of the Evidence Act.
  • Relevant portions of Sec. 65A and Sec. 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
      • The contents of electronic records MAY BE proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information … which is printed …… or copied …….. shall be Deemed to be ALSO a Document
  • Supreme Court (Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao) held as under
  • “31. The non-obstante clause in sub-section (1) makes it clear that when it comes to information contained in an electronic record, admissibility and proof thereof must follow the drill of Section 65B, which is a special provision in this behalf – Sections 62 to 65 being irrelevant for this purpose. …...”
  • 34. …. in Anvar P.V. (supra) … this Court made it clear …… and also that a written certificate under Section 65B(4) is a sine qua non for admissibility of such evidence ……

Point No. 2B.

Sec. 65B deals with ‘Admissibility’ (alone) of a Computer Output/Copy. If ‘truth’ is in question, it must be proved according to other provisions of the Evidence Act. (Note – Contra view by Supreme Court)

  • Sec. 65B does not deal with ‘truth’ of the contents of the electronic record; it deals with ‘admissibility of copy’ alone.
  • The electronic record mentioned in Sec. 65B is – that which is ‘relevant‘; for, it must be one “of which direct evidence would be admissible”.
  • For, Sec. 65B deals with ‘admissibility of copy’ alone, if truth is in question, it must be proved according to other provisions of the evidence act; ie. by oral, documentary or presumptive evidence.

See Blog (Click): Admissibility of Visual and Audio Evidence (Including Photographs, Cassettes, Tape-recordings, Films, CCTV Footage, CDs, e-mails, Chips, Hard-discs, Pen-drives)

  • Relevant portions of 65A & 65B read as under:
    • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
      • The contents of electronic records MAY BE proved in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) … any information contained in an electronic record which is printed ….. or copied ….. shall be ADMISSIBLE in any proceedings ….. as evidence of any contents of the original … of which direct evidence would be admissible.”
  • Supreme Court (Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, held as under
  • “31. The non-obstante clause in sub-section (1) makes it clear that when it comes to information contained in an electronic record, admissibility and proof thereof must follow the drill of Section 65B, which is a special provision in this behalf – Sections 62 to 65 being irrelevant for this purpose. …...”
  • “34. …. in Anvar P.V. (supra) … this Court made it clear that the special provisions of Sections 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act are a complete Code in themselves ……

Point No. 2C.

Sec. 65B does NOT bar proving copy (by) invoking Sec. 65; Sec. 65B is an enabling provision that enables to prove copy otherwise than (by) laying the foundation or conditions laid down in Sec. 65 (such as loss of original). (Note – Contra view by Supreme Court)

  • Sec. 65B is an added and enabling provision to prove the copy or printout – otherwise than proving the conditions laid down in Sec. 65 (such as loss of original, original with other side).
  • By the deeming provision (fiction) in Sec. 65B, a ‘copy’ is raised to the states of a (original) document.
  • Relevant portion of Sec. 65B reads as under:
    • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of electronic records:
      • (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information … which is printed …… or copied …….. shall be Deemed to be ALSO a Document ….
  • Supreme Court (Arjun Panditrao), held as under
  • 35. …….. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P.V., (supra) and CANNOT be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

Point No. 3A.

STATEMENTS’ alone can be PROVED by ‘Certificate’ under S. 65B(4). (Note – Contra view by Supreme Court)

  • The ‘statements‘ (such as bank account statements) alone can be PROVED in evidence under S. 65B, through a ‘certificate’ provided under Sec. 65B(4). It is clear from a simple reading of 65B(4). 
  • Sec. 65B(2) conditions are to be satisfied for ADMISSIBILITY; and not proof. But, it appears that Sec. 65B(4) which takes care of ‘statements‘, deals with authenticity or proof of truth, also;
    • because, it is laid down
    • (i) that the certificate “shall be EVIDENCE (proof?) of any(?matter stated” therein, and
    • (ii) that, for the purposes of this sub-section, “it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.”

Sec. 65B(4) reads:

  • “(4) In any proceedings where it is DESIRED TO GIVESTATEMENT  in evidence, by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—
    • (a) identifying the electronic record CONTAINING the STATEMENT and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
    • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate) shall be EVIDENCE of any matter stated in the certificate;
  • and for the purposes of this sub-section
  • it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.”

See Blog: ‘STATEMENTS’ alone can be proved by ‘CERTIFICATE’ u/s. 65B

Supreme Court (Arjun Panditrao) held as under

  • 59. We may reiterate, therefore, that the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of evidence by way of ELECTRONIC RECORD…. . “

Point No. 3C.

Conditions in S. 65B(2) are to be satisfied through oral evidence or affidavit, (except for ‘Statements’). (Note – Contra view by Supreme Court)

  • The computer output (copy) containing the information, such as CCTV footage, photo or video in a CD, can be admitted in evidence under S. 65B if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2)  (such as: computer was used regularly, information was regularly fed in the ordinary course, computer was operating properly) are satisfied, through oral evidence or affidavit. Only exception is to “statements”.

Relevant portions of Sec. 65B read as under:

  • Sec. 65B: Admissibility of Electronic Records:
  • (1) …. (computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the CONDITIONS mentioned in this section are SATISFIED ….. without further proof or production of the original, as evidence of any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein (Isn’t “or of any fact stated therein” surpussage?) ……
  • (2) The conditions ….. shall be the following, namely:—
    • (a) …. the computer was used regularly to storeinformation for the purposes (?) of any activities regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer;
    • (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which ….. information …… was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities (Isn’t the words “during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which” a surplusage?);
    • (c) throughout the material part …. the computer was operating properly ……; and
    • (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities. (Isn’t the words “or is derived from such information fed into the computer” a surplusage – especially in view of the wordings of clause (b)?)
  • Supreme Court (Arjun Panditrao) held as under
  • “59. ….. Oral evidence in the place of such certificate CANNOT possibly suffice as Section 65B(4) is a mandatory requirement of the law. … Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act clearly states that secondary evidence is admissible only if lead in the manner stated and not otherwise. To hold otherwise would render Section 65B(4) otiose.”

Point No. 4

Photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc. cannot be used under Sec. 65B. (Note – Contra view by Supreme Court)

  • It is clear that the computer output (copy) is ‘deemed to be (also) a document’ if only the conditions mentioned in S. 65B(2) are fulfilled, that is:
    • S. 65B(2)(a) computer was USED REGULARLY to STORE or process information
      • of the activities REGULARLY CARRIED ON
      • BY THE PERSON having lawful control,
    • S. 65B(2)(b) information was REGULARLY FED
      • in the ORDINARY COURSE,
    • S. 65B(2)(d) the information is REPRODUCED in the
      • ORDINARY COURSE of the SAID ACTIVITIES.
    • (For example – Computer Account statements in a Bank.)
  • For all other computer outputs (copy of, photo or video captured in a mobile phone, ‘trap-video’, CCTV footage, etc.), one has to resort other provisions of the Evidence Act, by producing the original or by producing the copy after satisfying the circumstances under Sec. 65.
  • Therefore, it is beyond any doubt that the following computer output (copy) cannot be used under Sec. 65B:
    • CCTV footage
      • (i) not used to store or process information BY any PERSON [65B(2)(a)] and
      • (ii) not reproduced in the ordinary course [65B(2)(d)] .
    • CDs containing speech
    • Videograph of the scene of crime
    • trap-video
      • (i) not used REGULARLY to store or process information [65B(2)(a)],
      • (ii) not regularly fed in the ordinary course [65B(2)(b)] and
      • (iii) not reproduced in the ordinary course [65B(2)(d)].
  • But, the Supreme Court dealt with CCTV footage in the following landmark cases:
    • State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,
    • Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178),
  • CDs/VCDs in respect of video recording by the Election Commission
    • Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216
  • CDs containing election speeches and songs in:
    • Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473).
  • Call Detail Records – CDR – of mobile phones in:
    • Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570)
  • Tape recorded conversation on the landline phone
    • Vikram Singh v. State of Punjab, (2017-8 SCC 518
  • Propriety of videography of the scene of crime or scene of recovery during investigation, in:
    • Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ).

See Blog: How to Prove WhatsApp Chats, Facebook Messages and Website Information in Courts?

Point No. 5.

Should the ‘Correctness’ of Copy or Print-out Must be Proved?

No.

S. 65B(5)(c) lays down a presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer out-put; because,  S. 65B(5)(c) lays down-

  • ‘a computer out-put shall be taken to have been produced by a computer’. 

Sec. 65B(5)(c) reads:

  • S. 65B(5)(c) lays down a presumption as to correctness (not truth) of the computer out-put, inasmuch as S. 65B(5)(c) lays down that ‘a computer out-put shall be taken to have been produced by a computer’. 
  • Sec. 65B(5)(c) reads:
    • ‘a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment’.

Mere marking– not dispense with proof (of truth of contents): See Blog: EFFECT OF MARKING DOCUMENTS WITHOUT OBJECTION


PART II

Admissibility and Presumption as to correctness of Computer Output

Sec. 65B declares and expressly lays down that computer output (copy or print)

  • (i) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and
  • (ii) shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence
    • of any contents of the original or
    • of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.

If the conditions mentioned in this Section Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied, by necessary implication, it will bring a presumption under Sec. 114 with respect to regularity of the computer output . Because, admissibility of ‘any fact stated therein‘ ‘without further proof’ is nothing but ‘presumption’ of its regularity and correctness. The net result is that (if the conditions in Sec. 65B(2) are satisfied) the burden to prove otherwise is cast on the person who opposes it.

The requirement in Sec. 65B(2) as to ‘proof’ (through witnesses or certificate) for ‘regularity‘ of feeding information into the computer in the ‘ordinary course‘ eloquently support this proposition.

  • Note:
    • (i) ‘Statements’ alone can be proved by ‘certificate’ under Sec. 65B(4); other ‘information’ are to be proved by proper evidence.
    • (ii) Presumption of ‘regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act can be applied in Sec. 65B.
    • (iii) Presumption of a ‘fact or regularity’ under Sec. 114 Evd. Act is, essentially presumption of ‘Truth’ and ‘Correctness’.

Presumption of Fact Means Truth/Correctness of Fact

St. of West Bengal Vs. Mir Mohammad Omar (AIR 2000 SC 2988) it is held by our Apex Court as under:

  • “Presumption of fact is an inference as to the existence of one fact from the existence of some other facts, unless the truth of such inference is disproved. Presumption of fact is a rule in law of evidence that a fact otherwise doubtful may be inferred from certain other proved facts. When inferring the existence of a fact from other set of proved facts, the Court exercises a process of reasoning and reach a logical conclusion as the most probable position. The above principle has gained legislative recognition in India when Section 114 is incorporated in the Evidence Act. It empowers the Court to presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened. In that process Court shall have regard to the common course of natural events, human conduct etc. in relation to the facts of the case.”
  • (See: Blog: EFFECT OF MARKING DOCUMENTS WITHOUT OBJECTION)

Section 65B is a borrowed provision

Section 65B is brought to Indian law from Section 5 of the UK Civil Evidence Act, 1968. It remains a sheer fact that by the time we borrowed this provision (2000) from the UK law, they repealed (1995) it. (It is pointed out in Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020) 3 SCC 216.)

The present UK Act (Civil Evidence Act 1995) does not make any special provision for Electronic Evidence or Computerised Records. It deals this matter under the head ‘hearsay evidence’ and makes ‘safeguards’ with respect to the hearsay evidence.

Who can give Certificate under Sec. 65 B

Arjun Panditrao Khotkar v. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020)3 SCC 216 makes it clear-

  • The certificate can be given by anyone out of several persons who occupy a ‘responsible official position’ in relation to the operation of the relevant device.
  • The person who may otherwise be in the ‘management of relevant activities’ spoken of in Sub-section (4) of Section 65B. (It is provided to give the certificate to the “best of his knowledge and belief”.) See also – Smriti Madan Kansagra Vs. Perry Kansagra 2020-12 SCALE 450.

Can the Certificate u/s 65B be Given Long After the Electronic Record was Produced

  • In Arjun Panditrao Khotkar vs. Kailash Kushanrao Gorantyal, (2020)3 SCC 216 it was held that by virtue of Section 65B(4), the Certificate u/s 65B can be given long after the electronic record has actually been produced by the computer. (Note: the certificate to be given is to the “best of his knowledge and belief”.) See also – Smriti Madan Kansagra Vs. Perry Kansagra 2020-12 SCALE 450.

PART III – LANDMARK DECISIONS

  1. State (NCT of Delhi) v. Navjot Sandhu, (2005) 11 SCC 600,  two- judge bench decision (on CCTV footage). It is held:
    • “Irrespective of the compliance with the requirements of Section 65B, which is a provision dealing with admissibility of electronic records, there is no bar to adducing secondary evidence under the other provisions of the Evidence Act, namely, Sections 63 and 65. It may be that the certificate containing the details in sub-section (4) of Section 65-B is not filed in the instant case, but that does not mean that secondary evidence cannot be given even if the law permits such evidence to be given in the circumstances mentioned in the relevant provisions, namely, Sections 63 and 65.”
  2. Anvar PV v. PK Basheer, (2014-10 SCC 473), three- judge bench decision (on CDs containing election speeches). It is held:
    • “That (Sections 65A & 65B) is a complete code in itself. Being a special law, the general law under Sections 63 and 65 has to yield.”
    • But finally held: “It is clarified that notwithstanding what we have stated herein in the preceding paragraphs on the secondary evidence of electronic record with reference to Sections 59, 65A and 65B of the Evidence Act, if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62 of the Evidence Act, the same is admissible in evidence, without compliance with the conditions in Section 65B of the Evidence Act.”
  3. Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP, (2015-7 SCC 178), three-bench decision (on CCTV footage).
    • It is held, as to make CCTV footage admissible, as under:
    • Secondary evidence of contents of document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act”.
  4. Sonu v. State of Haryana (2017-8 SCC 570): two- judge bench decision (on Call Detail Records – CDRs – of mobile phones). It is held:
    • “The crucial test, as affirmed by this Court, is whether the defect could have been cured at the stage of marking the document. Applying this test to the present case, if an objection was taken to the CDRs being marked without a certificate, the court could have given the prosecution an opportunity to rectify the deficiency.”
  5. Shafhi Muhammed v. State of HP, (2018-2 SCC 801 ), two- judge bench decision (on videography of the scene of crime). Tomaso Bruno (2015) was followed in. It was held as under:
    • “(11) The applicability of procedural requirement under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act of furnishing certificate is to be applied only when such electronic evidence is produced by a person who is in a position to produce such certificate being in control of the said device and not of the opposite party. In a case where electronic evidence is produced by a party who is not in possession of a device, applicability of Sections 63 and 65 of the Evidence Act cannot be held to be excluded. In such case, procedure under the said Sections can certainly be invoked. If this is not so permitted, it will be denial of justice to the person who is in possession of authentic evidence/witness but on account of manner of proving, such document is kept out of consideration by the court in absence of certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act, which party producing cannot possibly secure. Thus, requirement of certificate under Section 65B(h) [sic-65B(4)] is not always mandatory.
    • (12) Accordingly, we clarify the legal position on the subject on the admissibility of the electronic evidence, especially by a party who is not in possession of device from which the document is produced. Such party cannot be required to produce certificate under Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act. The applicability of requirement of certificate being procedural can be relaxed by Court wherever interest of justice so justifies.”
  6. Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao, (2020)3 SCC 216, three-judge bench decision (on CCTV footage). It substantially followed PV Anwar (2014) with a ‘clarification’.
    • Because it is held in Anver PV v. PK Basheer that Section 62, 63 and 65 are not applied for electronic evidence – for Sec. 65A & B are ‘complete code’ – the further observation that ‘if an electronic record as such is used as primary evidence under Section 62’ stood incongruent and contradictory. Therefore, it is ‘clarified’ and directed to ‘read’ Anver “without the words – ‘under Section 62 of the Evidence Act’ “.
    • “59. We may reiterate, therefore, that the certificate required under Section 65B(4) is a condition precedent to the admissibility of evidence by way of electronic record, as correctly held in Anvar P.V. (supra), and incorrectly “clarified” in Shafhi Mohammed (supra). Oral evidence in the place of such certificate cannot possibly suffice as Section 65B(4) is a mandatory requirement of the law. … Section 65B(4) of the Evidence Act clearly states that secondary evidence is admissible only if lead in the manner stated and not otherwise. To hold otherwise would render Section 65B(4) otiose.”
    • In Arjun Panditrao v. Kailash Kushanrao it is found – Tomaso Bruno v. State of UP is per-incurium as under:
    • “What is clear from this judgment (Tomaso Bruno) is that the judgment of Anvar P. V. (supra) was not referred to at all. In fact, the judgment in State v. Navjot Sandhu (2005) 11 SCC 600 was adverted to, which was a judgment specifically overruled by Anvar P. V. (supra). It may also be stated that Section 65B(4) was also not at all adverted to by this judgment. Hence, the declaration of law in Tomaso Bruno (supra) following Navjot Sandhu (supra) that secondary evidence of the contents of a document can also be led under Section 65 of the Evidence Act to make CCTV footage admissible would be in the teeth of Anvar P. V., (supra) and cannot be said to be a correct statement of the law. The said view is accordingly overruled.”

PART IV

Presumptions Incorporated in Evidence Act While Introducing Sec. 65 A and 65 B

  • Sec. 81A. Presumption as to Gazettes in electronic forms
  • The Court shall presume the genuineness of every electronic record purporting to be the Official Gazette or purporting to be electronic record directed by any law to be kept by any person, if such electronic record is kept substantially in the form required by law and is produced from proper custody
  • 85A Presumption as to electronic agreements
  • The Court shall presume that every electronic record purporting to be an agreement containing the electronic signature of the parties was so concluded by affixing the electronic signature of the parties.
  • 85B Presumption as to electronic records and electronic signatures
  • (1) In any proceedings involving a secure electronic record, the Court shall presume unless contrary is proved, that the secure electronic record has not been altered since the specific point of time to which the secure status relates.
  • (2) In any proceedings, involving secure electronic signature, the Court shall presume unless the contrary is proved that—
  • (a) the secure electronic signature is affixed by subscriber with the intention of signing or approving the electronic record;
  • (b) except in the case of a secure electronic record or a secure electronic signature, nothing in this section shall create any presumption, relating to authenticity and integrity of the electronic record or any electronic signature.
  • 85C Presumption as to Electronic Signature Certificates
  • The Court shall presume, unless contrary is proved, that the information listed in a 86 Electronic Signature Certificate is correct, except for information specified as subscriber information which has not been verified, if the certificate was accepted by the subscriber.
  • 88A. Presumption as to electronic messages
  • The Court may presume that an electronic message, forwarded by the originator through an electronic mail server to the addressee to whom the message purports to be addressed corresponds with the message as fed into his computer for transmission; but the Court shall not make any presumption as to the person by whom such message was sent.
  • “Explanation: For the purposes of this section, the expressions “addressee” and “originator” shall have the same meanings respectively assigned to them in clauses (b) and (za) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of the Information Technology Act, 2000.


End Note:

Sec. 65A and Sec. 65B of the Evidence Act read:

  • Sec. 65A: Special provisions as to evidence relating to electronic record:
    • The CONTENTS of electronic records may be PROVED in accordance with the provisions of section 65B. 
  • Sec. 65B. Admissibility of electronic records:
  • (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in this Act, any information contained in an electronic record which is printed on a paper, stored, recorded or copied in optical or magnetic media produced by a computer (hereinafter referred to as the computer output) shall be deemed to be also a document, if the conditions mentioned in this section are satisfied in relation to the information and computer in question and shall be admissible in any proceedings, without further proof or production of the original, as evidence of any contents of the original or of any fact stated therein of which direct evidence would be admissible.
  • (2) The conditions referred to in sub-section (1) in respect of a computer output shall be the following, namely:—
    • (a) the computer output containing the information was produced by the computer during the period over which the computer was used regularly to store or process information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period by the person having lawful control over the use of the computer;
    • (b) during the said period, information of the kind contained in the electronic record or of the kind from which the information so contained is derived was regularly fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities;
    • (c) throughout the material part of the said period, the computer was operating properly or, if not, then in respect of any period in which it was not operating properly or was out of operation during that part of the period, was not such as to affect the electronic record or the accuracy of its contents; and
    • (d) the information contained in the electronic record reproduces or is derived from such information fed into the computer in the ordinary course of the said activities.
  • (3) Where over any period, the function of storing or processing information for the purposes of any activities regularly carried on over that period as mentioned in clause (a) of sub-section (2) was regularly performed by computers, whether—
    • (a) by a combination of computers operating over that period; or
    • (b) by different computers operating in succession over that period; or
    • (c) by different combinations of computers operating in succession over that period; or
    • (d) in any other manner involving the successive operation over that period, in whatever order, of one or more computers and one or more combinations of computers, all the computers used for that purpose during that period shall be treated for the purposes of this section as constituting a single computer; and references in this section to a computer shall be construed accordingly.
  • (4) In any proceedings where it is desired to give a statement in evidence by virtue of this section, a certificate doing any of the following things, that is to say,—
    • (a) identifying the electronic record containing the statement and describing the manner in which it was produced;
    • (b) giving such particulars of any device involved in the production of that electronic record as may be appropriate for the purpose of showing that the electronic record was produced by a computer;
    • (c) dealing with any of the matters to which the conditions mentioned in sub-section (2) relate, and purporting to be signed by a person occupying a responsible official position in relation to the operation of the relevant device or the management of the relevant activities (whichever is appropriate)
      • shall be evidence of any matter stated in the certificate;
    • and for the purposes of this sub-section
    • it shall be sufficient for a matter to be stated to the best of the knowledge and belief of the person stating it.
  • (5) For the purposes of this section,—
    • (a) information shall be taken to be supplied to a computer if it is supplied thereto in any appropriate form and whether it is so supplied directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment;
    • (b) whether in the course of activities carried on by any official information is supplied with a view to its being stored or processed for the purposes of those activities by a computer operated otherwise than in the course of those activities, that information, if duly supplied to that computer, shall be taken to be supplied to it in the course of those activities;
    • (c) a computer output shall be taken to have been produced by a computer whether it was produced by it directly or (with or without human intervention) by means of any appropriate equipment.
  • Explanation.—For the purposes of this section any reference to information being derived from other information shall be a reference to its being derived therefrom by calculation, comparison or any other process.


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Mullaperiyar Dam Issues: There Should Be No BAR of Law That MAR Life of People.

Mullaperiyar Disputes and Adjudication of Legal Issues.

Saji Koduvath, Advocate.

Foreword

Laws are made for better life and safety of men. Various rules as to bars and barriers are introduced in the legal system on this principle; whether it be Res Judicata, Constructive Res judicata, Order II rule 2 Bar, Estoppel or Judicial Precedent. Can such negative legal principles be allowed to successfully sound and strike-out in the SUPREME COURT, when the Life and Safety of a Large Number of Citizens of India are reasonably (apprehended to be) in peril, is one of the main questions that arise in Mullaperiyar Dam issue. Those legal doctrines, though interminable, cannot stand as a bar for the SUPREME COURT, especially when it reverberates devastating danger arising out of a structure made by the hands of man. The findings that are made in such a matter arose quarter a century back, should not be allowed to remain constant and untouched. Raising bar by law in this matter will be harsh and imprudent.

Brief History of Mullaperiyar.

Mullaperiyar is situated in Idukki District of the State of Kerala. The dam at Mullaperiyar was built between 1887 and 1895. During that time, this area was under the Kingdom of (erstwhile) Travancore. The purpose of making the dam was irrigation of the severely draught affected, otherwise fertile, land under the Madras Presidency, situated east of Travancore. The designer and builder of this masonry gravity-dam was a British engineer. Before constructing the dam, a lease agreement had been executed on October 29, 1886 between the Maharaja of Travancore and the Secretary of State for India in Council.

“I SIGN WITH BLOOD OF MY HEART”

The lease project under the agreement covered a long period of 999-years. It is said to be unconscionable inasmuch as it came into being out of the mighty clout of the British, and it was practically a unilateral agreement. Certain historians say that the Maharaja of Travancore had bewailed: “I SIGN THIS WITH THE BLOOD OF MY HEART”.

1970 Supplemental Agreements

After independence, two supplemental agreements were executed, in 1970, by the State of Tamil Nadu and State of Kerala. The first one increased the rent from Rs. 5 per acre to Rs. 30 and gave fishing rights in the Periyar lake to Kerala. And, it was recorded that all other
covenants in the 1886 lease deed would remain in force. The second supplemental agreement allowed Tamil Nadu to generate electricity and to pay a nominal consideration to Kerala.

Disputes triggered by the end of the 20th century

The disputes that triggered by the end of the 20th century, between the State of Kerala and the State of Tamil Nadu with respect to the maintenance of maximum height of water level of the dam, lead to the formation of an Expert Committee. The committee gave its final report on 16.03.2001. It suggested that the water level in the Mullaperiyar reservoir could be raised up to 142 ft.

Despite the recommendation of the Expert Committee, the Government of Kerala, pointing out safety hazards, continued its protest against the move to raise the water level in the reservoir beyond 136 ft.

Is Mullaperiyar Dam Really a Water-Bomb?

Mullaperiyar dam is constructed in Periyar river above the level of Idukki reservoir. Mullaperiyar is situated 36 kms away (south-east) from Idukki. Water from Mullaperiyar dam will reach the Idukki reservoir when the shutters of Mullaperiyar dam are opened.

On October 29, 2021, while the water-level of the Mullaperiyar dam surpassed limit prescribed by the Supreme Court, and the Tamil Nadu raised shutters, Kerala water resources minister urged people, through a press release, not to be panic, and he declared that there was nothing to be ‘concerned about’. It is seen pointed out by the minister that the storage capacity of Idukki is 70.5 Thousand Million Cubic feet (TMC) as compared to 12.758 TMC of Mullaperiyar; and therefore, the water ‘released’ from the latter would only raise the former’s level by a quarter of a foot (hindustantimes.com : Oct 29, 2021). 

But, those people who raise alarm on Mullaperiyar issue say that the dam is in an area where the seismic activity is high; and that the people there feel tremors, frequently. It is a sheer fact that the people of Kerala believe that Vallakadavu, Vandiperiyar, Chappathu and Upputhara towns, situated between Idukki and Mullaperiyar, will be engulfed in flood waters if Mullaperiyar dam is damaged. They further point out that the people of Kerala experienced, in the 2018-flood, that mere rain water (pored for a few days) was capable of immersing a good number of towns and villages; and they compare it with the incomparable water in Idukki reservoir!

Besides Idukki dam, the water in Idukki reservoir is held-back by the service of Cheruthoni and Kulamavu dams also. There are people who believe that the galloping rushy water (if) exploded from the Mullaperiyar dam would be capable of destroying various dams of Idukki reservoir. In case water in Idukki reservoir is burst-out, no doubt, the damage will be devastating. And, it is feared, in such an event, the water in the dam will reach the Arabian sea only after submerging Aluva, Eranakulam Town, Kcohi Airport etc. among many other townships and villages.

Is Idukki dam large enough to hold the entire water that is stopped by Mullaperiyar?

In rainy season both dams will be filled in. But the water level of both dams will be lower in summer. Therefore, the the answer to the question, depends upon the ‘season’. So far as rainy a season is concerned, the storage capacity of both dams itself (Idukki – 70.5 TMC; Mullaperiyar – 12.758 TMC) gives the answer.

History of Union Carbide Disaster

It appears that no effective study is conducted, or it is not published, as to what all villages or towns will be affected, if a mishap occurs; and what all places will give shelter to the the people who may be affected by flooding. The history of Union Carbide disaster at Bhopal should not be allowed to be repeated; in Bhopal, people rushed to the factory premises, seeking help, when the devastating gas outburst took place in the factory compound!

Validity of the century old agreement

After promulgation of the Constitution of India, or after independence, there is only ‘one country and one land’. It is seen argued that the agreement that was executed at a time where this land stood divided should not be allowed to be used as a weapon of oppression, especially since the agreement was an unconscionable one; and the provisions therein should not be pointed out against the reconstruction of the dam by the State of Kerala spending from its own pouch.

Mullaperiyar Litigation – In a Nutshell

  • First Case – 2006 – Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum v. Union of India
  • Second Case – 2014 – State of Tamil Nadu v. State of Kerala
  • Third Case – Originated in 2020 – Dr. Joe Joseph v. State of Tamil Nadu

First Mullaperiar Dam Case Before the Supreme Court

A writ petition was filed by Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum before the Supreme Court (Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum v. Union of India) raising disputes as to the water level to be maintained in the dam. The Apex Court gave its decision on 27.02.2006 (reported in (2006) 3 SCC 643). The Apex Court permitted to rise the water level in the Mullaperiyar dam up to 142 ft. The State of Kerala and its officers were restrained from causing any obstruction to the rising of level. It was also observed that, after the strengthening-work was completed to the satisfaction of CWC, independent experts would examine the matters ‘on safety angle before the water level is permitted to be raised up to 152 ft’.

Second Mullaperiar Dam Case Before the Supreme Court

State of Tamil Nadu v. State of Kerala, (2014) 12 SCC 696, is the second prominent Supreme Court decision on Mullaperiyar dam related issues. It is pronounced in the matter of validity of an enactment made by the State of Kerala; viz, The Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2006. The crux of the issue in that case was as regards the maximum water level to be maintained in the Mullaperiyar dam. The State of Tamil Nadu argued that the rights implored in this dispute had already been crystallised in the earlier Judgment on the (first) Mullaperiyar dam case, Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum v. Union of India, (2006) 3 SCC 643. Accepting the claim of Tamil Nadu, the Apex Court restrained the State of Kerala by a decree of permanent injunction from obstructing the State of Tamil Nadu from increasing the water level to 142 ft.

Third Mullaperiar Dam Case Before the Supreme Court

Urging that the matters involved in the Mullaperiyar dam issues require a reconsideration in the ‘safety and security’ angle, a third round of litigation (Dr. Joe Joseph v. State of Tamil Nadu) is originated in 2020 before the Supreme Court.

Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2006

Within less than three weeks of the decision in Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum v. Union of India, (2006) 3 SCC 643, the Kerala State Legislature amended Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation Act, 2003, by passing the Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2006. The Amendment Act, in its application to and effect on the Mullaperiyar dam (as found by the Supreme Court in State of Tamil Nadu v. State of Kerala, 2014-12 SCC 696), seeks to attain the following:

  • “(a) It substitutes Section 62 with a new provision whereby, notwithstanding the judgment of this Court and notwithstanding anything contained in any treaty, contract, 1886 Lease Agreement and 1970 supplemental agreements, the function of evaluation of safety of the Mullaperiyar dam and the power to issue directions to Tamil Nadu as custodian are conferred upon Dam Safety Authority;
  • (b) the Dam Safety Authority is empowered, inter alia, to restrict the functioning of Mullaperiyar dam and/or to conduct studies on the advisability of raising or lowering of the maximum water level or the full reservoir level;
  • (c) Mullaperiyar dam is considered by Kerala legislature to be endangered and by virtue of Section 62(A), it takes away the right of Tamil Nadu to increase, expand the FRL or in any manner increase the water level as set out in the Second Schedule except in accordance with the provisions of the Act;
  • (d) under Section 62A(4), Tamil Nadu as custodian has to submit an application to the Dam Safety Authority for its prior consent for the increase in the water level;
  • (e) it takes away all rights of Tamil Nadu including the right which has passed into judgment of this Court to increase the water level;
  • (f) the Dams Safety Authority has power to order de-commissioning of the Mullaperiyar dam.

Challenge by the State of Tamil Nadu

The Kerala (Amendment) Act, 2006 led the State of Tamil Nadu to challenge the Act contending, inter alia, the following:

  • Usurpation of judicial power
  • (a) The impugned legislation amounts to usurpation of judicial power inasmuch as Kerala State Legislature has arrogated to itself the role of a judicial body and has itself determined the questions regarding the dam safety and raising the water level when such questions fall exclusively within the province of the judiciary and have already been determined by this Court in its judgment dated 27.02.2006.
  • Violation of legislative competence
  • (b) 2006 Amendment Act is beyond the legislative competence of the State of Kerala insofar as it affects the Mullaperiyar dam in view of Section 108 of the SR Act which is a law made by Parliament under Articles 3 and 4 of the Constitution, which confer plenary power to traverse all legislative entries in all the three lists including Entry 17 List II.
  • Violation of rule of law and separation of power
  • (c) The impugned legislation, in its application to the Mullaperiyar dam, violates the rule of law and the federal structure and the separation of power under the Constitution. The Kerala State Legislature has taken the law in its own hands after the declaration of law by this Court. Kerala having participated in the adjudicatory process before the Apex  Court, it cannot become a Judge in its own cause and seek to reverse the decision of this Court because it has gone against it.
  • Disobeyance of Apex Court decision
  • (d) The impugned legislation not only fixes and limits the FRL to 136 ft. in direct contravention of the judgment of the Apex Court but also proceeded to authorise the Dam Safety Authority of Kerala – to disobey and disregard the decision of the Apex Court by various other provisions.
  • (Amendment) Act Overturned and nullified Apex Court verdict
  • (e) 2006 (Amendment) Act is not a validation act but a mere device to defy, obstruct and nullify the judgment of this Court and constitutionally interfere with, restrict or extinguish the legal rights of Tamil Nadu as upheld by this Court. A Legislature cannot by mere declaration and enactment overrule and nullify a judicial decision. The direct object and effect of the impugned legislation is to overturn the judgment of the Apex Court and to arrogate to Kerala the power to prevent Tamil Nadu from exercising its legal rights which have already been upheld by this Court.

Reliefs sought for

The State of Tamil Nadu had sought for two-fold relief:

  • (i) to declare the 2006 (Amendment) Act passed by the Kerala legislature as unconstitutional in its application to and effect on the Mullaperiyar dam and
  • (ii) to pass a decree of permanent injunction restraining the first defendant from applying and enforcing the impugned legislation interfering with or obstructing the plaintiff from increasing the water level to 142 ft. and from carrying out the repair works as per the judgment of this Court dated 27.02.2006 in W. P. (Civil) No. 386 of 2001 with connected matters.

Defence by State of Kerala

The State of Kerala resisted the suit raising, among others, the following contentions:

  • The suit itself is not maintainable.
  • Contract Unconscionable
  • 1886 Lease Agreement is an unconscionable contract because of its duration (999 years) as well as the fact that the lease conveys for a small rent a vital resource of Kerala. The lease was obtained by the Secretary of State for India in England obviously by holding threat of paramountcy over Maharaja of Travancore, who was his vassal.
  • The two supplemental agreements of 1970 have not been executed in terms of mandatory provisions of Article 299 of the Constitution and, therefore, they do not constitute contracts in the eye of law. In any event, these agreements do not bind the State legislature at all.
  • 999 years Agreement lapsed under Indian Independence Act
  • The 1886 Lease Agreement for 999 years stood lapsed under the provisions of Section 7(1)(b) of the Indian Independence Act, 1947.
  • From 1947 to 26.01.1950, the lease was continued as a temporary lease on annual basis. After 26.01.1950, even the temporary continuation of the lease came to an end. The possession of the land held and continued by the then Government of Madras and now Tamil Nadu, after 26.01.1950 has no juridical basis.
  • Kerala legislature competent to modify the terms in public interest
  • Entries 17 and 18 of List II (State List) and Entries 17, 17-A and 17-B of the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution justify the competency of Kerala legislature to enact the 2006 (Amendment) Act.
  • It is competent for the Kerala legislature to modify Kerala legislature to modify the terms the terms of the lease in public interest (if the lease has survived as contended by the Tamil Nadu), as the lease inherited under Article 295 of the Constitution does not bind the legislature of the state and that it is always open to the legislature to modify such conditions by law.
  • 2006 (Amendment) Act – dams fall within the territory of Kerala
  • Kerala legislature enacted the 2006 (Amendment) Act for regulating the storage levels of 22 dams listed in the Second Schedule read with Section 62A (1), as these dams fall entirely within the territory of Kerala and these dams are considered to be endangered on account of their age, degeneration, degradation, structural or other impediments. Such a law is perfectly valid.
  • Under Section 62A(3) of the 2006 (Amendment) Act, the FRL can be increased beyond 136 ft. after obtaining prior consent of the Dam Safety Authority headed by a retired Judge of the High Court.
  • If Tamil Nadu approaches under Section 62A(3), Kerala reserves its right to oppose such plea by demonstrating how such increase would lead to spread of backwater beyond the contour line of 155 ft. and how the flora and fauna including ecology would be destroyed.
  • 2006 (Amendment) Act creates a working mechanism to deal with a problem like displacement of those whose lands are likely to be affected by the backwater effect.
  • Safety of the dam
  • The impact of increased storages on the safety of the dam will also be demonstrated before the Dam Safety Authority. This was not the matter that was required to be considered by this Court in the previous case, since in that case, the focal issue was the implications of the increase in height upon the safety and integrity of the dam.
  • Structure of the Mullaperiyar dam
  • It is not constructed entirely with rubble masonry in lime mortar. The front and rear faces are constructed of uncoursed rubble masonry in lime mortar. The hearting (center core) is of lime surkhi concrete, therefore, dam cannot be considered as homogeneous masonry dam under any circumstances. In view of Kerala, a dam could never have been intended to remain for long years without decommissioning at some point of time. For this background, people in Kerala living in the downstream region of the Mullaperiyar dam have raised serious apprehensions against the safety of the structure.
  • Periyar is not an inter-state river
  • River Periyar is not an inter-state river. It has asserted that river Periyar is an intra-state river as it rises in Quilon District in Kerala and traverses only through the territory of Kerala before falling into the Arabian sea. The total catchment of Periyar basin is 5398 sq. km. of which only about 113 or 114 sq. km. lie within the territory of Tamil Nadu. Even this small catchment of 113 sq. km. lying in Tamil Nadu, is in the downstream region of the Mullaperiyar dam. Therefore, no water from this catchment is contributed to the kitty of Mullaperiyar dam.
  • Earlier judgment of the Court: No res judicata in public interest Matters
  • The judgment concluded the issue relating to safety of the people and degradation of the environment, apart from issue arising from Article 363 of the Constitution. The doctrine of res judicata or constructive res judicata has no relevance to the question of powers on the Kerala legislature to regulate the storage level of the Mullaperiyar dam in larger public interest by legislation. Kerala states that the impugned legislation removes the legal basis of the judgment, i.e., the right of Tamil Nadu to store water up to 142 ft. in Mullaperiyar reservoir. The legislature is competent to remove the basis of any judgment and, therefore, it is not permissible for Tamil Nadu to claim any right to store water at Mullaperiyar dam beyond 136 ft. Kerala has assailed the findings and conclusions in the earlier judgment dated 27.02.2006 on all possible grounds.
  • Suit Not Maintainable under Article 131 of the Constitution
  • The basis of claim made by Tamil Nadu lies in the 1886 Lease Agreement which is a contractual right leading to civil dispute, if any, but it is not in dispute in the constitutional context as required under Article 131 of the Constitution of India. Kerala’s further case is that 1886 Lease Agreement was executed between the Maharaja of Travancore and Secretary of State for India in England and as such the agreement is in the nature of treaty and act of state, the enforcement of which is barred by proviso to Article 131 of the Constitution. Tamil Nadu, therefore, cannot seek enforcement of 1886 lease deed before this Court.
  • Report of the Expert Committee for assessing the structural safety of the dam
  • This report was relied upon by the Court in its judgment on 27.02.2006. Both the interim report and final report submitted by the Expert Committee are riddled with inconsistencies and the views of the Committee do not constitute an authoritative opinion. Kerala has denied that storages at Mullaperiyar dam beyond 136 ft. will not pose any danger.
  • Water beyond 136 ft. would not be required
  • Storage at Mullaperiyar dam beyond 136 ft. would not be required to meet the irrigation requirement of 2,08,144 acres in 5 southern districts of Tamil Nadu, although the irrigation originally planned was not more than 1.5 lakh acres. The contention of Tamil Nadu that due to non-restoration of FRL from 136 ft., Tamil Nadu’s irrigation is getting suffered is not correctet. Tamil Nadu was able to irrigate more area with Mullaperiyar water, even after lowering the water level to 136 ft.

Nub of the Findings in the 2nd Mullaperiar Dam Case

The 2014 Judgment in the 2nd Mullaperiar dam case went against the stance of Kerala, mainly, on the following observations and findings of the Supreme Court:

  1. When dispute already adjudicated, one of the parties cannot overturn the final judgment. When the dispute between two States has already been adjudicated upon by the Supreme Court, any unilateral law enacted by one of the parties results in overturning the final judgment. A judicial decision can be reopened in the changed circumstances by the Court alone and no one else.
  2. A final judgment remains in force until altered by the court. A categorical finding has been recorded by the Court in the earlier judgment that the Mullaperiyar dam is safe and that judgment has become final and binding. A final judgment remains in force until it is altered by the court. Legislature cannot reopen or alter a judicial decision rendered on a finding of fact.
  3. Kerala Act infringes the doctrine of separation of powers and rule of law. The impugned 2006 (Amendment) Act is bad because it infringes the doctrine of separation of powers and rule of law. Legislature cannot indirectly control the Courts. The Amendment Act is a classic case of nullification of a judgment.
  4. Legislature has clearly usurped the judicial power. If the judgment of this Court and the 2006 (Amendment) Act are placed side by side, both cannot stand together. By such law, the legislature has clearly usurped the judicial power.
  5. If substantial changes the Court can be approached. If substantial changes in the circumstances occur and such circumstances are shown to the Court necessitating departure from the earlier finding on the issue of safety, the Court can be approached and in that event the Court itself may exercise its discretion to reopen the safety aspect having regard to the drastic change in circumstances or in emergent situation as to the safety of dam.

Issues, and Findings of the Supreme Court (in 2014 Judgment in the 2nd Mullaperiar dam case) in a Nutshell

Issue NosIssuesFindings in Nutshell
1.Whether the suit is maintainable under Article 131 of the Constitution of India.Maintainable.
5.Whether the suit based on a legal right claimed under the lease deed executed between the Government of the Maharaja of Travancore and the Secretary of State for India on 29.10.1886, is barred by the proviso to Article 131 of the Constitution of India?  Not barred.  
6.Whether the first defendant is estopped from raising the plea that the deed dated 29.10.1886 has lapsed, in view of subsequent conduct of the first defendant and execution of the supplemental agreements dated 29.05.1970 ratifying the various provisions of the original Deed dated 29.10.1886.The State of Kerala (first defendant) is estopped.  
7Whether the lease deed executed between the Government of the Maharaja of Travancore and Secretary of State for India on 29.10.1886 is valid, binding on first defendant and enforceable by plaintiff against the first defendant.The lease deed is valid and binding on the first defendant and it is enforceable by plaintiff.
2. (a)Whether the Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act 2006 is unconstitutional and ultra vires, in its application to and effect on the Mullai Periyar Dam?  Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2006 is unconstitutional and ultra vires.  
3.Whether the rights of the plaintiff, crystalised in the Judgment dated 27.02.2006 passed by this Court in WP(C) No. 386/2001 can be nullified by a legislation made by the Kerala State Legislature?(ii.) The rights crystallized in the Judgment cannot be nullified by a legislation.  
4. (a)Whether the judgment dated 27.2.2006 of this Court in WP(C) No. 386/2001 operated as res judicata, in respect of all or any of the defences set up by the first defendant in its written statement?  The earlier judgment operates as res judicata on the issue of the safety of Mullaperiyar dam for raising water level to 142 ft. and ultimately to 152 ft. after completion of further strengthening measures on the Mullaperiyar dam.
4(b)Whether the pleas relating to validity and binding nature of the deed dated 29.10.1886, the nature of Periyar River, structural safety of Mullai Periyar Dam etc. raised by the first defendant in its defence, are finally decided by the judgment of this Court dated 27.2.2006 in WP(C) No. 386/2001, and consequently first defendant is barred from raising or reagitating those issues and pleas in this suit, by the principle of res judicata and constructive res judicata?The plea raised by Kerala relating to the lease deed dated 29.10.1886 and structural safety of Mullaperiyar dam have been finally decided by the judgment of this Court dated 27.2.2006 and Kerala is estopped from raising or re-agitating these issues in the present suit.  
10Whether the first defendant can obstruct the plaintiff from increasing the water level of Mullai Periyar Dam to 142 ft. and from carrying out repair works as per the judgment dated 27.2.2006 of this Court in WP(C) No. 386/2001.Kerala cannot obstruct Tamil Nadu from increasing the water level of Mullaperiyar dam to 142 ft. and from carrying out repair works as per judgment dated 27.2.2006.
8Whether the first defendant is estopped from contending that Periyar River is not an inter-State river.Kerala cannot be permitted to contend that river Periyar is an intra-State river.
9Whether the offer of the first defendant, to construct a new dam across River Periyar in the downstream region of Mullai Periyar Dam would meet the ends of justice and requirements of plaintiff.For the construction of new dam, there has to be agreement of both the parties. The offer made by Kerala cannot be thrusted upon Tamil Nadu.
11  To what relief is the plaintiff entitled to?”  Tamil Nadu is entitled to the reliefs as prayed in para 40 (i) and (ii) of the suit. Consequently, it is declared that the Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2006 passed by the Kerala legislature is unconstitutional in its application to and effect on the Mullaperiyar dam.  
2(b)  Whether plaintiff is entitled to a permanent injunction restraining the first defendant from applying and enforcing the Kerala Irrigation and Water Conservation (Amendment) Act, 2006 with reference to Mullai Periyar Dam?  The 1st defendant – State of Kerala – is restrained by a decree of permanent injunction from applying and enforcing the impugned legislation or in any manner interfering with or obstructing the State of Tamil Nadu from increasing the water level to 142 ft. and from carrying out the repair works as per the judgment of this Court dated 27.2.2006 in W.P.(C) No. 386/2001 with connected matters.

Third Round of Litigation: Dr. Joe Joseph v. State of Tamil Nadu

Fresh spurt of arguments are surged in the Supreme Court on filing the Writ Petition, Dr. Joe Joseph v. State of Tamil Nadu, in 2020, beseeching a re-look on the issues on the premises of ‘safety and security’ . The Apex Court has already taken notice of the need to ‘ensure the safety of people’; and it directed the State of Tamil Nadu, on March 16, 2021, to furnish requisite information to the Supervisory Committee. The Court further directed that the Supervisory Committee should take necessary steps including issuance of appropriate directions to the concerned party-States as may be necessary and to submit an action taken report before the Court.

Now the matter is in the process of settlement of issues to be addressed in the case.



End Notes:

Important observations & findings in State of Tamil Nadu v. State of Kerala, (2014) 12 SCC 696:

  • Arguments of State of Kerala: “135. On the other hand, the argument of Mr. Harish N. Salve, learned senior counsel for Kerala, is that the legislature of every State has not just the power but the obligation to take appropriate legislative measures to ensure the safety and security of its residents. Where the legislature of a State is satisfied that there is a need to curtail the use or storage of a water reservoir to protect its citizenry and elects to enact legislation as a precautionary measure, the legislation cannot be said to be in excess of the legislative competence of the State if it relates to reservoir and dam within the legislating State. Kerala legislature has imposed precautionary measures by placing pro tem restrictions on the storage level of the dams mentioned in the Second Schedule read with Section 62A(2) of the 2006 (Amendment) Act and the said restrictions are based on the legislative wisdom of the Kerala legislature that these dams are endangered on account of their age, degeneration, degradation, structural or other impediments. While adjudicating upon the constitutional validity, Mr. Harish Salve argues that the Court must proceed on the premise that the legislature understands and correctly appreciates the needs of its own people and its laws are directed to the problems made manifest by its experience and are based on adequate grounds.
  • 136. Mr. Harish N. Salve, learned senior counsel for Kerala heavily relies upon ‘precautionary principle’ and ‘public trust doctrine’ and argues that Kerala legislature was competent to override the contracts and regulate safety of the Mullaperiyar dam situated within its territory across river Periyar. His submission is that the State as sovereign retains continuing supervisory control over navigable waters and underlying beds. It is his submission that the State has a duty of ‘continuing supervision’ even after such rights have been granted. In this regard strong reliance is placed by him on Pfizer Animal Health.”
  • Legislature cannot indirectly control the Courts: “141. It is true that the State’s sovereign interests provide the foundation of the public trust doctrine but the judicial function is also a very important sovereign function of the State and the foundation of the rule of law. The legislature cannot by invoking ‘public trust doctrine’ or ‘precautionary principle’ indirectly control the action of the Courts and directly or indirectly set aside the authoritative and binding finding of fact by the Court, particularly, in situations where the executive branch (Government of the State) was a party in the litigation and the final judgment was delivered after hearing them.”
  • Legislature cannot alter a judicial decision rendered on a Finding of Fact. “143. This Court in Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum, after hearing the State of Kerala, was not persuaded by Kerala’s argument that Mullaperiyar dam was unsafe or storage of water in that dam cannot be increased. Rather, it permitted Tamil Nadu to increase the present water level from 136 ft. to 142 ft. and restrained Kerala from interfering in Tamil Nadu’s right in increasing the water level in Mullaperiyar dam to 142 ft. Thus, a judgment has been given by this court in contest between the two States in respect of safety of Mullaperiyar dam for raising water level to 142 ft. The essential element of the judicial function is the decision of a dispute actually arising between the parties and brought before the court. Necessarily, such decision must be binding upon the parties and enforceable according to the decision. A plain and simple judicial decision on fact cannot be altered by a legislative decision by employing doctrines or principles such as ‘public trust doctrine’, ‘precautionary principle’ ‘larger safety principle’ and, ‘competence of the State legislature to override agreements between the two States’. The Constitutional principle that the legislature can render judicial decision ineffective by enacting validating law within its legislative field fundamentally altering or changing its character retrospectively has no application where a judicial decision has been rendered by recording a finding of fact. Under the pretence of power, the legislature, cannot neutralise the effect of the judgment given after ascertainment of fact by means of evidence/materials placed by the parties to the dispute.”
  • A final judgment remains in force until altered by the court: “A decision which disposes of the matter by giving findings upon the facts is not open to change by legislature. A final judgment, once rendered, operates and remains in force until altered by the court in appropriate proceedings.
  • 145. Section 62A declares the dam to be endangered. The Second Schedule appended to the Act fixes the height of the water level at 136 ft. though this Court in its judgment had declared Mullaperiyar dam safe and permitted the increase of the water level to 142 ft. Moreover, the 2006 (Amendment) Act authorises the Dam Safety Authority to adjudge its safety to allow raising of water level. The provision is in direct disregard of the judgment of this Court. Section 62A also freezes all work on the dam allowed by this Court in its judgment dated 27.2.2006. In our opinion, by 2006 (Amendment) Act, the Kerala legislature has overturned a final judgment in the interest of its own executive Government. The impugned law amounts to reversal of the judgment of this Court which determines directly the question of safety of Mullaperiyar dam for raising water level to 142 ft. and whereunder Tamil Nadu’s legal right has been determined.”
  • Judicial decision on a particular fact cannot be reopened by legislature: “146. On behalf of Kerala, it is strenuously argued by Mr. Harish Salve that right to safety of the people being a public right could not have passed into 2006 judgment of this court. In this regard, heavy reliance is placed on the majority decision of the Wheeling Bridge. Firstly, public right qualification in Wheeling Bridge has no application in the present case as there is a critical difference between the provisions impugned before us and the provisions which were impugned before US Supreme Court in Wheeling Bridge. The principle question before the US Supreme Court in Wheeling Bridge was whether or not the compact could operate as a restriction upon the power of courts under the Constitution to regulate commerce among several States. In response to the argument urged before it that the Congress cannot have the effect to annul the judgment of the court already rendered or the rights determined thereby was accepted as a general proposition but this proposition was held not applicable in the matters of adjudication upon the public rights. In our view, a legislation violating the separation of powers principle cannot be saved by carving out an exception that the legislature has regulated a public right. We think that the act of legislature designed to achieve a legitimate regulatory measure does not grant constitutional immunity to such law enacted in violation of separation of powers principle or in other words, rule of law. Once a judicial decision on ascertainment of a particular fact achieves finality, we are afraid the legislature cannot reopen such final judgment directly or indirectly. In such cases, the courts, if brought before them, may reopen such cases in exercise of their own discretion.
  • 147. In our view, Wheeling Bridge qualification by the majority decision of U.S. Supreme Court cannot be read to permit the actual revision of the final judgment by the legislature. If Wheeling Bridge lays down the proposition that a judgment declaring a public right may be annulled by subsequent legislation as contended by Mr. Harish Salve, then we say, as we must, that we are not persuaded to accept such proposition of majority judgment in Wheeling Bridge29. The two separate opinions in Wheeling Bridge one by McLean J. and the other by Wayne J. – though in minority- also did not accept such proposition.
  • 148. The above discussion must also answer the argument of Mr. Harish Salve that rules of inter partes litigation do not determine the obligation of the State for safety of its people. We do not think it is necessary to consider the opinion of Weeramantry, J. in Gobcikovo-Nagymaros Project (ICJ) in detail. The stress laid by Weeramantry, J. is that where issue of serious or catastrophic environmental danger arises, the Court must look beyond inter partes adversarial procedures.”
  • It is open to approach court for re-assessing safety aspect: “149. It is true that safety of dam is an aspect which can change from time to time in different circumstances but then the circumstances have to be shown based on which it becomes necessary to make departure from the earlier finding. It is always open to any of the parties to approach the court and apply for re-assessing the safety aspect but absent change in circumstances, factual determination in the earlier proceedings even on the questions such as safety of dam binds the parties. If the circumstances have changed which necessitates a re-look on the aspect of safety, the Court itself may exercise its discretion to reopen such case but legislative abrogation of judgment for even the very best of reasons and genuine concern for public safety does not clothe the legislature to rescind the judgment of the court by a legislation.”
  • Mullaperiyar dam was found safe and that finding was not imaginary: “150. The contention of Mr. Harish Salve that by declaring dam unsafe, the legislature has not rendered any finding of fact; it deems dam unsafe and sets up an Authority to regulate it, is noted to be rejected. What has been found as a fact by judicial determination cannot be declared otherwise by applying legal fiction. We are, however, persuaded to accept the submission of Mr. Vinod Bobde, learned senior counsel for Tamil Nadu that the fact that the Mullaperiyar dam is safe was found by this Court and that finding of fact can never be deemed to be imaginary by a legal fiction which then proceeds to deem the opposite to be real, viz., that the dam is endangered. This is not a matter of legislative policy as it is being made out to be, rather in our opinion, it is incursion in the judicial process and functions of judicial organ. The declaration in Section 62A read with item No. 1 of the Second Schedule leaves no manner of doubt that the enactment is intended to reach the question decided by the Court.
  • The impugned law is a classic case of nullification of a judgment: “151. The question whether or not the legislature has usurped the judicial power or enacted a law in breach of separation of powers principle would depend on facts of each case after considering the real effect of law on a judgment or a judicial proceeding. One of the tests for determining whether a judgment is nullified is to see whether the law and the judgment are inconsistent and irreconcilable so that both cannot stand together. In what we have already discussed above, it is abundantly clear that on the one hand there is a finding of fact determined by this Court on hearing the parties on the basis of the evidence/materials placed on record in the judgment of this Court in Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum and on the other in 2006 (Amendment) Act, the Kerala legislature has declared the dam being an endangered one and fixed the water level in the dam at 136 ft. If the judgment of this Court in Mullaperiyar Environmental Protection Forum1 and the 2006 (Amendment) Act are placed side by side insofar as safety of the Mullaperiyar dam for raising the water level from 136 ft. to 142 ft. is concerned, it is obvious that the judgment of this Court and the law enacted by Kerala State legislature cannot stand together and they are irreconcilable and inconsistent. The impugned law is a classic case of nullification of a judgment simpliciter, as in the judgment of this Court the question of safety of dam was determined on the basis of materials placed before it and not on the interpretation of any existing law and there was no occasion for the legislature to amend the law by altering the basis on which the judgment was founded. When the impugned law is not a validation law, there is no question of the legislature removing the defect, as the Court has not found any vice in the existing law and declared such law to be bad.
  • 152. There is yet another facet that in federal disputes, the legislature (Parliament and State legislatures) cannot be judge in their own cause in the case of any dispute with another State. The rule of law which is basic feature of our Constitution forbids the Union and the States from deciding, by law, a dispute between two States or between the Union and one or more States. If this was permitted under the Constitution, the Union and the States which have any dispute between them inter se would enact law establishing its claim or right against the other and that would lead to contradictory and irreconcilable laws. The Constitution makers in order to obviate any likelihood of contradictory and irreconcilable laws being enacted has provided for independent adjudication of federal disputes. Article 131 of the Constitution confers original jurisdiction upon this Court in relation to the disputes between the Government of India and one or more States or between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other or between two or more States insofar as dispute involves any question on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends. The proviso appended to Article 131 carves out an exception to the jurisdiction of this Court to a dispute arising out of treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instrument which have been entered into or executed before the commencement of the Constitution and continues in operation after such commencement, which are political in nature. In relation to dispute relating to waters of inter-State river or river valleys, Article 262 provides for creation of tribunal or forum for their adjudication. In federal disputes, Parliament or State legislatures by law, if seek to decide a dispute between the two States or between the Union and one or more States directly or indirectly, the adjudicatory mechanism provided in Articles 131 and 262 of the Constitution would be rendered nugatory and, therefore, such legislation cannot be constitutionally countenanced being violative of separation of powers doctrine.
  • 153. Mr. Harish Salve, learned senior counsel is right in his submission that a legislation can never be challenged on the principles of res judicata and that it binds a party and not the legislature. The question here is not that the 2006 (Amendment) Act is unconstitutional on the ground of res judicata but the question is, when a categorical finding has been recorded by this Court in the earlier judgment that the dam is safe for raising the water level to 142 ft. and permitted the water lever of the dam being raised to 142 ft. and that judgment has become final and binding between the parties, has the Kerala legislature infringed the separation of powers doctrine in enacting such law? In what has already been discussed above, the answer to the question has to be in the affirmative and we hold so.
  • 154. Where a dispute between two States has already been adjudicated upon by this Court, which it is empowered to deal with, any unilateral law enacted by one of the parties that results in overturning the final judgment is bad not because it is affected by the principles of res judicata but because it infringes the doctrine of separation of powers and rule of law, as by such law, the legislature has clearly usurped the judicial power.”
  • Court can be approached if emergent situation as to safety of dam.: “165. Shri Harish Salve, learned senior counsel for Kerala, placed reliance upon the decision of this Court in N.D. Jayal . In N.D. Jayal, Dharmadhikari, J. made general observations on the dam safety aspect that plea like res judicata on the earlier decisions passed by the Supreme Court cannot be allowed to be raised. The observations made by Dharmadhikari, J. in N.D. Jayal have to be read as an exception to the res judicata rule in the matters where, by their very nature, the factual situation has drastically changed in course of time. If substantial changes in the circumstances occur and such circumstances are shown to the Court necessitating departure from the earlier finding on the issue of safety, the Court can be approached and in that event the Court itself may exercise its discretion to reopen the safety aspect having regard to the drastic change in circumstances or in emergent situation as to the safety of dam. In our view, a judicial decision, having achieved finality, becomes the last word and can be reopened in the changed circumstances by that Court alone and no one else.
  • 166. On behalf of Kerala, it is contended that the jurisdiction of this Court under Article 32 of the Constitution for enforcement of the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution is ousted or excluded in respect of disputes between two or more States: since such disputes fall within the ambit of the original jurisdiction of this Court under Article 131 of the Constitution or jurisdiction of a tribunal constituted under the provisions of Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956 read with the provisions of Article 262 of the Constitution. Thus, it was submitted that the 2006 judgment is not binding and that the rule of res judicata can hardly be attracted in this situation.
  • 167. We are unable to accept the submission of the learned senior counsel for Kerala. The label of jurisdiction exercised by this Court is not material for applicability of principles of res judicata if the matter in issue in the subsequent suit has already been concluded by the earlier decision of this Court between the same parties. The 2006 judgment was the result of judicial investigation, founded upon facts ascertained in the course of hearing. The plea of lack of jurisdiction of this Court was taken in the earlier proceedings on both the grounds, viz., (1) whether the jurisdiction of this Court is barred in view of Article 262 read with Section 11 of the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, and (2) whether Article 363 of the Constitution bars the jurisdiction of this Court. On both these questions the findings were recorded against Kerala. It is too much for Kerala to say that the 2006 judgment is without jurisdiction and not binding.”
  • Safety of Mullaperiyar dam – Evidence and EC Report
  • 195. Having done elaborate and detailed appraisal and analysis of the voluminous tests and reports of experts and having regard to the concerns expressed by Kerala about the safety of the Mullaperiyar dam, EC has summarized its conclusions on the three aspects, viz.,
    • (a) hydrologic safety;
    • (b) structural safety; and
    • (c) seismic safety as follows:
  • “A) Hydrologic Safety
  • 23. The MPD is found hydrologically safe. The Probable Maximum Flood (PMF), with a peak flow of 2.12 lakh cusecs (6003 cumecs) is accepted by EC. It can be routed over the reservoir FRL 142 ft (43.28
  • m) to safely pass over the MPD spillway with 13 gates operative, resulting into a peak out flow of 1,43,143 cusecs (4053 cumecs), raising the Maximum Water Level (MWL) to elevation 153.47 ft (46.78 m) transiently. Even for the Test Case of one gate remaining inoperative, the MWL raises to elevation 154.10 ft (46.97 m) when PMF impinges the reservoir at FRL 142 ft (42.28 m).
  • B) Structural Safety
  • 24. Both the main and Baby Dam (gravity and earth), are structurally safe. FRL can be restored to the pre-1979 position. Following maintenance and repair measures, should however be carried out in a time-bound manner: i) treatment of upstream surface, ii) reaming of drainage holes, iii) instrumentation, iv) periodical monitoring, analysis and leading away the seepage from toe of the dam towards downstream, v) geodetic re-affirmation, etc., vi) the dam body should be grouted with a properly designed grout mix of fine cement / suitable chemical / epoxy / polymer according to expert advice so that its safety continues to remain present.”
  • C) Seismic Safety
  • 25. MPD is found to be seismically safe for FRL 152 ft (46.33 m) / MWL 155 ft (47.24 m) for the identified seismic design parameters with acceleration time histories under 2-D FEM Analysis. The strength and other properties of dam material presently available, indicate ample reserve against the likely stresses / impacts assessed under this analysis. In addition, reserve strength of cable anchors makes the dam further safe. The suspicion about existence of a geological fault in the Baby Dam foundation is ruled out. The recent earthquake activity in the dam area is considered of no consequence to the seismic safety. Also, it has caused no distress to MPD / Idukki dams.”
  • CC investigations carried out with representatives of both the States: “196. Kerala has vehemently challenged the EC report and its conclusions. Mr. Harish Salve, learned senior counsel for Kerala, argues that the ITS reports contained in 50 CDs and 4 DVDs are not admissible and should not be considered as part of material on record before this Court. He submits that EC suo motu decided to conduct investigations, tests and studies on various aspects related to the case through the apex organizations, the Coordination Committee was formed, headed by Dr. C.D. Thatte, member of the EC, and consisting of representatives of Kerala and Tamil Nadu and though the representatives of States were made part of the Coordination Committee, but their role was limited to more of being an observer and unilateral decisions regarding the studies, etc., were taken by Dr. C.D. Thatte, which were prejudicial to the interest of Kerala. Kerala’s grievance is that the EC on 5.12.2011 declined to disclose and supply the copies of results and ITS reports without dealing with the question of prejudice. Subsequently, EC submitted its report before this Court and the Court directed the Registry on 4.5.2012 to supply copy of the report of the EC to party States and, accordingly, the Registry of this Court made available a photocopy of the report. The report supplied by the Registry to Kerala did not include the results and reports of the ITS listed in Annexure 6.1 of the report but later on pursuant to the order of this Court dated 31.8.2012, all 50 CDs and 4 DVDs were supplied to the counsel for Kerala. It is submitted on behalf of Kerala that the fair procedure and rules of natural justice demanded that the EC should have disclosed the results and reports of ITS relied upon by it and given an opportunity to Kerala on the acceptability of the ITS reports. It is strenuously urged by learned senior counsel for Kerala that the ITS reports are the opinions of experts and, therefore, the EC could not have relied upon such results and reports without giving an opportunity to it to meet the adverse contents and Kerala has the right to cross-examine the authors and also to lead evidence of experts, if any, challenging the adverse results and reports of the ITS. In this regard, Kerala referred to the application made before EC on 21.11.2011. Kerala also relied upon the decision of Queens Bench in Regina.
  • 197. We are not persuaded by the submissions of Mr. Harish Salve. It is true that 50 CDs and 4 DVDs containing ITS reports were supplied to Kerala pursuant to the order of this Court dated 31.8.2012 after the report had been submitted by the EC but the fact of the matter is that the EC decided to conduct the investigations, tests and studies on various aspects relating to the safety of the Mullaperiyar dam through the apex organizations pursuant to the task given to it by this Court. The EC in its proceedings dated 17.2.2011 formed a Coordination Committee which comprised the representatives of both the States. It is very difficult to accept that the role of the representatives of the States in the Coordination Committee was limited to that of being an observer. The ITS reports have been given by the organizations and bodies which are expert on the job. We have no hesitation in holding that the investigations, tests and technical studies were directed to be carried out by the EC in association with representatives of both the States.”


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Oral Evidence on Contents of Document, Irrelevant

Also Read: Contents of a Document are to be Proved in Court by Producing Original or Secondary Evidence

Jojy George Koduvath.

Abstract.

  • Oral evidence on contents of documents (unless secondary evidence is permitted, and unless fall under the exceptions in Sec. 92 Evidence Act) will be of no use, as it will be ‘irrelevant’.

Part I

Best-Evidence Rule.

Indian Evidence Act lays down the following principles of ‘Rule of Best-Evidence’:

No.PropositionsSec. in Evd. Act
1Best available evidence must be produced.
If not, adverse presumption may be taken.
114 (g)
2Oral evidence must be direct. Hearsay evidence is accepted in rare instances (that falls under Sec. 6 of the Evid. Act).60
3Documents must be proved by Primary Evidence.
Contents of documents and electronic records are not allowed to be proved by oral evidence; nevertheless, secondary evidence is allowed when it is so permitted.
64 & 65; 59;
22, 22A & 144.
4To prove the terms of a contract, or of a grant, or of any other disposition of property, have been reduced to the form of a document, and in all cases in which any matter is required by law to be reduced to the form of a document, document itself, or secondary evidence, must be produced.91
5No evidence of any oral agreement or statement shall be admitted, as between the parties to any such instrument or their representatives in interest, for the purpose of contradicting, varying, adding to, or subtracting from, its terms.92
6Sec. 93 and 94 speaks as to exclusion of evidence. 93 & 94
7Sec. 94 to 99 lays down the circumstances in which evidence can be given with respect to documents.94 to 99
8Circumstantial and Presumptive evidence can be resorted to in proper cases.114
9Substantive evidence that requires corroboration must be corroborated.157
10When secondary evidence is permitted (under Sec. 65), Oral Evidence is a kind of secondary evidence.63(5)

See Blog: Best Evidence Rule in Indian Law

Documents must be Proved by Primary Evidence

Contents of documents are to be proved by producing the document itself, or its copy; oral evidence is permitted only in rare occasions.

Best evidence rule insists production of original (i.e., primary evidence) when it exists. ‘Oral evidence as to the contents of a document is admissible only in rare occasions’. It is the purposive layout and scheme of the Evidence Act – as emanated from Sections 59, 61, 62, 64, 65 and 144.

Sec. 59 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “59. Proof of facts by oral evidence:  All facts, except the contents of documents or electronic records, may be proved by oral evidence.”

Sec. 61 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 61. Proof of contents of documents.—The contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence.

Sec. 62 defines primary evidence to mean ‘the document itself’ produced for the inspection of the Court.

Sec. 64 of the Act requires that that the documents are to be proved primarily by ‘primary evidence’, except in cases where secondary evidence is provided under Sec. 65.  

Sec. 65 clause (a) to (g) delineates the cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given.

Sec. 144 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 144. Evidence as to matters in writing.—Any witness may be asked, whilst under examination, whether any contract, grant or other disposition of property, as to which he is giving evidence, was not contained in a document, and if he says that it was, or if he is about to make any statement as to the contents of any document, which, in the opinion of the Court, ought to be produced, the adverse party may object to such evidence being given until such document is produced, or until facts have been proved which entitle the party who called the witness to give secondary evidence of it.
  • Explanation.—A witness may give oral evidence of statements made by other persons about the contents of documents if such statements are in themselves relevant facts.
  • Illustration. The question is, whether A assaulted B. C deposes that he heard A say to D—”B wrote a letter accusing me of theft, and I will be revenged on him”. This statement is relevant as showing A’s motive for the assault, and evidence may be given of it, though no other evidence is given about the letter.

Sec. 22 says that oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant if the party proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of such document.

Sec. 22A says as to oral admissions as to contents of electronic records as under:

  • When oral admissions as to contents of electronic records are relevant
  • Oral admissions as to the contents of electronic records are not relevant, unless the genuineness of the electronic record produced is in question.”

‘Rule of Best Evidence’ Sections 22, 59, 61, 62, 64 and 144 of the Evidence Act

These Sections of the Evidence Act project the ‘rule of best evidence’ and it directs that the contents of the document are to be proved by the original document itself, unless secondary evidence is provided under Sec. 65. (See: Bimla Rohal v. Usha, 2002-2 HLJ 745; 2002-2 Shim LC 341)

Sec. 91 and 92 provides that when terms of a contract, or of a grant, or of any other disposition of property, have been reduced to the form of a document, and in all cases in which any matter is required by law to be reduced to the form of a document, their terms alone are taken to be the sources of what the parties wished to state; and oral evidence to the contrary, are excluded.

The word ‘disposition’ is not a ‘term of law’ as observed in Pushpalatha N V v. V Padma, AIR 2010 Kant 124.  It is said as under:

  • “The term ‘disposition’ has been defined in Stroud’s Judicial Dictionary as a devise ‘intended to comprehend a mode by which property can pass, whether by act of parties or by an act of the law’ and ‘includes transfer and change of property. The word ‘disposition’ means giving away or giving up by a person of something which was his own. It is not a term of law. In has no precise meaning. Its meaning has to be gathered from the context in which it is used. The word ‘disposition’ in relation to property means disposition made by deed or will and also disposition made by or under a decree of a court. The word ‘disposition’ would ordinarily be used in reference to a written document and not to the effect of that document. The removal of a thing from one’s self is involved in a disposal. The disposition is the provision creating the interest, not the interest itself. Therefore, disposition means a plan or arrangement for the disposal, distribution of something; definite settlement with regard to some matter.”

Both Sec. 91 and 92 are based on “best evidence rule”. (Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thadani AIR 2003 SC. 2418: 2003-6  SCC 595; S. Saktivel v. M. Venugopal Pillai 2007-7  SCC 104; Mumbai International Airport v. Golden Chariot Airport, (2012) 10 SCC 422; Tulsi v. Chandrika Prasad, AIR 2006 SC 3359).

The Supreme Court held in Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani: AIR 2003 SC 2418, as under:

  • “The grounds of exclusion of extrinsic evidence are (i) to admit inferior evidence when law requires superior would amount to nullifying the law, (ii) when parties have deliberately put their agreement into writing, it is conclusively presumed, between themselves and their privies, that they intended the writing to form a full and final statement of their intentions, and one which should be placed beyond the reach of future controversy, bad faith and treacherous memory.” (Quoted in Placido Francisco Pinto v. Jose Francisco Pinto, 2021-10 SCR 676; V Anantha Raju v. T M Narasimhan, AIR 2021 SC 5342)

In Bhima Tima Dhotre v. The Pioneer Chemical Co. (1968) 70 Bom LR 683,  it is observed as under:

  • Documentary evidence becomes meaningless if the writer has to be called in every case to give oral evidence of its contents. If that were the position, it would mean that, in the ultimate analysis, all evidence must be oral and that oral evidence would virtually be the only kind of evidence recognised by law. That, however, is not the position under the Evidence Act. … Section 59 of the said Act enacts that all facts, except the “contents” of documents, may be proved by oral evidence. This provision would clearly indicate that to prove the contents of a document by means of oral evidence would be a violation of that section.”

However, oral evidence can be given on a matter (adoption) which is not required by law to be in writing and it is not barred for the mere reason it was contained in a document (Taburi Sahai v. Jhunjhunwala, AIR 1967 SC 106).

Sec. 22 of the Evidence Act – Only a Declaratory Provision

Sec. 22 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 22. When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant.—Oral admissions as to the contents of a document are not relevant, unless and until the party proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of such document under the rules hereinafter contained, or unless the genuineness of a document produced is in question.

Sec. 22 emphasises one thing positively – excepting the circumstances exempted (when entitled to give secondary evidence, and the genuineness of a document is in question) oral admissions on contents of the document are not relevant. That is even if such an evidence is tendered it will be discarded.

Is the principle, ‘Oral admissions as to the contents of a document are not relevant’, (originally) emerged from Sec. 22?

The answer is, ‘No’.

Because:

  • Sec. 22 primarily refers to ‘admission’; and it does not deal with the ‘entitlement’ to produce a Secondary Evidence as ‘Proof’.
  • Sec. 22 is included in the sections that pertains to ‘Admissions’ (comes in Part I), in Chapter II, which speaks on ‘Relevancy of Facts’, and not in Part II that deals with ‘Proof’.
  • As the marginal note (or heading) denotes, it is meant for setting forth – ‘When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant’. Two circumstances are laid down in Sec. 22. They are:
    • (i) When the party proposing to prove the contents of a document is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of such document under the rules “hereinafter contained“, and
    • (ii) When the genuineness of a document produced is in question.
  • Therefore, it is clear that we have to resort to other provisions of the Evidence Act (Sections 59, 61, 62, 64, 65 and 144) to see the ‘entitlement’ (as to) – ‘When a party to the litigation can give secondary evidence of the contents of such document’.

Sec. 22 – Variance from English Law on Admission of Contents of Document

In Perumal Chettiar v. Kamakshi Ammal, (1938) 2 MLJ 189, it is observed, with reference to Sec, 22 Evid. Act, as under:

  • 23. Tyte v. Jones (referred to in the foot-note to Farr v. Price (1800) 1 East. 55 : 102 E.R. 22) seems to rest on another principle of the English law which the Indian Legislature had deliberately departed from, in enacting Section 22 of the Evidence Act. The proof that was permitted in Tyte v. Jones was to the effect that when the money for which the unstamped promissory note had been given was demanded of the defendant, he acknowledged the debt. This is explicable in the light of the rule supported by some authority in England that admissions by a party, even when proved by parol evidence, constitute an exception to the ‘best evidence’ rule (see Singleton v. Barrett (1832) 2 C. & J. 368 : 149 E.R. 157). This view has been criticised even in England (see Taylor on Evidence, Sections 410 to 412), and Section 22 of the Indian Evidence Act adopted the stricter view and relegated ‘oral’ admissions as to the contents of a document to the category of “secondary evidence”.

“Better Evidence” Rule in English Law Despite Admission of Contents of Document

Bimla Rohal v. Usha, 2002-2 HLJ 745; 2002-2 ShimLC 341, referred English decisions on insistence of “better evidence”, as under:

  • “Greenleaf in his evidence at page 82 explained and stated the rule thus:
    • ‘.. A fourth rule which governs the production of evidence that which requires the best evidence of which the case, in its nature, is susceptible. This rule does not demand the greatest amount of evidence which can possibly be given of any fact but its design to prevent the introduction of any, which from the nature of the case, supposes that better evidence is in the possession of the party. It is adopted for the prevention of fraud; for when it is apparent, that the better evidence is withheld, it is fair to presume that the party has some sinister motive for not producing and that if offered, his design would be frustrated….’
  • In Earl of Suffolk v. Greenwill, Ch. Rep. 89 (92), the Court ruled that it was dangerous to admit the contents and sufficiencies of deeds to be proved by the testimony of witnesses, the construction of deeds being the office of the Court. Tinterden, L.C.J. in Vincent v. Cole, M & M. 257, observed:
    • ‘I have always (perhaps more so than other Judges), acted most strictly on the rule that what is in writing shall be proved by the writing itself. My experience has taught me the extreme danger or relying on the recollection of the witnesses, however, honest, as the contents of the written instruments; they may be so easily mistaken that I think the purposes of justice require the strict enforcement of the rule’.”

Rule of ‘Next Best Evidence’

Under the Rule of Best Evidence the law requires, production of the next best evidence if it is not possible to produce the best evidence. See the following:

  • Balkar Singh v. State of Punjab, 2005 (1) RCR (Criminal) 576 : 2005 Cri LJ (NOC) 180 (the school record is the  next best evidence in the absence of any entry in the office of Registrar of Births and Deaths.)
  • Jagdamba Tea Factory Vs. Parshotam Kishan, 2008-3 PunLR 388, 2008-3 RCR(CIVIL) 17,
  • 2008-1 RCR (RENT) 507 (Where there is no lease deed nor any receipt, the rate of rent could well be determined on the basis of house-tax register, which was the  next best evidence available. Gurinder Singh v. Kundan Lal, 2005(1) RCR(Rent) 332 : 2005(2) CCC 128 was relied on where entries in the municipal house tax register was considered.)
  • Chiman Lal v. Datar Singh, 1998 CriLJ 267, 1997 (1) WLN 396.
  • M/s. MAVR Nataraja Nadar v. State Bank of India, 1993(1) LW 456

In C. Assiamma v. State Bank of Mysore, 1992 -74 Com Cas 139, it is pointed out that the copy of a deed of transfer is not ordinarily a document of title for the purposes of an equitable mortgage, and that there may be cases where the original document is lost and there are no chances of that document being made use of for any purpose; and in such a circumstance the  next best evidence of the owner’s title to the property would be a certified copy of that document.

Best Evidence Rule insists evidence of High Probative Value

Though various kinds of secondary evidences are provided under Sec. 63, the probative value of one kind (say, a photograph of an original, as stated in Illustration (a) of Sec. 63) will definitely be higher when compared with another (say, oral account). The best evidence rule insists evidence bearing high probative value.

Part II

When Document Available, Oral Evidence NOT admitted; Even if Admitted, NO use

Oral Admission of Witnesses on document is Bad and Barred in Indian Law as that of ‘hearsay evidence’.

Will Erroneous or Misguided Oral Evidence on Contents of a Document Harm its Author? No. Because, such evidence is ‘irrelevant’.

It is beyond doubt that ‘it is settled principle of law that where documentary evidence is available, no amount of oral evidence against the admitted document is admissible nor can be considered by the Court’ (Shiba Sankar Nanda v. Padmini Naik ILR 2011-1 Cut (Ori) 792).

When Document Available, Oral EVIDENCE as to its Contents Discarded. Oral evidence as to the contents of a document is admissible only in rare occasions. As observed in Shiba Sankar Nanda v. Padmini Naik, ILR 2011-1 Cut (Ori) 792, ‘it is settled principle of law that where documentary evidence is available, no amount of oral evidence against the admitted document is admissible nor can be considered by the Court’. Sections 22, 59, 61, 6264, 65 and 144 of the Evidence Act support this view.

Sec. 22 – If Document Available, Oral ADMISSIONS of its Author Ignored. Sec. 22 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 22. When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant.—Oral admissions as to the contents of a document are not relevant, unless and until the party proposing to prove them shows that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of such document under the rules hereinafter contained, or unless the genuineness of a document produced is in question.

Sec. 22 emphasises one thing positively – excepting the two circumstances exempted (when entitled to give secondary evidence and the genuineness of a document is in question) oral admissions on contents of a document (i.e. admission by its author or a person under him) are not relevant. In other words, even if such an evidence is tendered it will not be looked into by the court.

Sec. 22 primarily pertains to ‘admission’; and it does not deal with the ‘entitlement’ to produce a Secondary Evidence as ‘Proof’. Because, Sec. 22 is included in the sections that deal with ‘Admissions’; and it comes in Part I, Chapter II, which speaks on ‘Relevancy of Facts’; and not in Part that relates to ‘Proof’, that is Part II. It is further clear from the marginal note (or heading) of Sec. 22 (‘When oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant’).

At the same time it must be seen that Section 22 marches in Chapter II, which speaks on ‘Relevancy of Facts’. Sec. 5 raises a total bar to irrelevant ‘evidence’. Sec. 5 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “Section 5: Evidence may be given of facts in issue and relevant facts:
  • Evidence may be given in any suit or proceeding of the existence or non-existence of every fact in issue and of such other facts as are hereinafter declared to be relevant, and of no others.”

Therefore, Sec. 22 bars the author and persons under him from giving oral evidence as to contents of the document, if the document is available.

Bulk of Evidence Waste Time and Space of the Courts

It is very important to note that the oral statements of witnesses as regards the contents in an admitted document is irrelevant and therefore liable to be eschewed. Therefore, such statements could not harm or benefit the party to the suit or the maker thereof. Still, it is a sheer fact that bulk of such evidence is adduced in court wasting the time and space of the courts.

Statements of Witnesses as Explanation of Admitted Document is also Excluded. As already shown, the oral statements of witnesses as regards the contents in an admitted document is irrelevant; and therefore they are liable to be eschewed. Further, Sec. 93 and 94 speak as to exclusion of evidence (i) that intend to ‘explain or amend ambiguous document’ and (ii) that stands ‘against application of the document to existing facts’.

  • Sec. 93 and 94 speaks as to exclusion of evidence.
  • Sec. 94 to 99 lays down the circumstances in which evidence can be given with respect to documents.

Interpretation of Documents (Except Wills)Provisions under Evidence Act

Produce Document itself (Sec. 91); and No oral evidence can be given

  • (i) for varying, adding to, etc. its terms (S. 92).
  • (ii) to explain a document, on its face, ambiguous (S. 93).
  • (iii) to show a plain document not meant to apply such facts (S. 94).

Evidence can be given –

  • (i) to show language of a plain – (but)  unmeaning to facts –  document is used in a peculiar sense (S. 95).
  • (ii) to show language used – (though) applies to several persons – in a document apply to one only  (S. 96).
  • (iii) to show language used – (though) applies partly to one set facts and partly to another set – in a document apply to which of the two sets  (S. 97).
  • (iv) to show language used – (though) applies partly to one set facts and partly to another set – in a document apply to which of the two sets  (S. 97).
  • (v) to show the meaning of illegible characters of technical expressions of words used in a peculiar sense (S. 98).

Interpretation of Wills

  • .(i) Sec. 91 to 99 of the Evidence Act do not affect construction of wills (S. 100).
  • (ii) Sec. 74 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925, contains the armchair rule. It conveys – intention of the testator is important.

Sec. 93 to 100 Evidence Act read as under:

  • 93. Exclusion of evidence to explain or amend ambiguous document. –– When the language used in a document is, on its face, ambiguous or defective, evidence may not be given of facts which would show its meaning or supply its defects.
  • 94. Exclusion of evidence against application of document to existing facts. –– When language used in a document is plain in itself, and when it applies accurately to existing facts, evidence may not be given to show that it was not meant to apply to such facts.
  • 95. Evidence as to document unmeaning in reference to existing facts. –– When language used in a document is plain in itself, but is unmeaning in reference to existing facts, evidence may be given to show that it was used in a peculiar sense.
  • 96. Evidence as to application of language which can apply to one only of several persons. –– When the facts are such that the language used might have been meant to apply to any one, and could not have been meant to apply to more than one, of several persons or things, evidence may be given of facts which show which of those persons or things it was intended to apply to.
  • 97. Evidence as to application of language to one of two sets of facts, to neither of which the whole correctly applies. –– When the language used applies partly to one set of existing facts, and partly to another set of existing facts, but the whole of it does not apply correctly to either, evidence may be given to show to which of the two it was meant to apply.
  • 98. Evidence as to meaning of illegible characters, etc. –– Evidence may be given to show the meaning of illegible or not commonly intelligible characters, of foreign, obsolete, technical, local and provincial expressions, of abbreviations and of words used in a peculiar sense.
  • 99. Who may give evidence of agreement varying terms of document. –– Persons who are not parties to a document, or their representatives in interest, may give evidence of any facts tending to show a contemporaneous agreement varying the terms of the document.
  • 100. Saving of provisions of Indian Succession Act relating to wills.––Nothing in this Chapter contained shall be taken to affect any of the provisions of the Indian Succession Act, 1865 (10 of 1865) as to the construction of wills

Part III

EXCEPTIONS to the Rule of Irrelevancy of Oral Evidence on Documents

Sec. 92 Evidence Act reads as under:

  • 92. Exclusion of evidence of oral agreement—When the terms of any such contract, grant or other disposition of property, or any matter required by law to be reduced to the form of a document, have been proved according to the last section, no evidence of any oral agreement or statement shall be admitted, as between the parties to any such instrument or their representatives in interest, for the purpose of contradicting, varying, adding to, or subtracting from, its terms

Following are the exceptions in Sec. 92 Evidence Act to the general rule as to bar of oral evidence on contents of documents:

  • Provisos to Sec. 92:
    • Proviso (1). –– Any fact may be proved which would invalidate any document, or which would entitle any person to any decree or order relating thereto; such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution, want of capacity in any contracting party, want or failure] of consideration, or mistake in fact or law.
    • Proviso (2). ––The existence of any separate oral agreement as to any matter on which a document is silent, and which is not inconsistent with its terms, may be proved. In considering whether or not this proviso applies, the Court shall have regard to the degree of formality of the document.
    • Proviso (3). ––The existence of any separate oral agreement, constituting a condition precedent to the attaching of any obligation under any such contract, grant or disposition of property, may be proved.
    • Proviso (4). ––The existence of any distinct subsequent oral agreement to rescind or modify any such contract, grant or disposition of property, may be proved, except in cases in which such contract, grant or disposition of property is by law required to be in writing, or has been registered according to the law in force for the time being as to the registration of documents.
    • Proviso (5). –– Any usage or custom by which incidents not expressly mentioned in any contract are usually annexed to contracts of that description, may be proved:Provided that the annexing of such incident would not be repugnant to, or inconsistent with, the express terms of the contract.
    • Proviso (6). –– Any fact may be proved which shows in what manner the language of a document is related to existing facts.

Admission of Contents of Document in Pleadings

In Perumal Chettiar v. Kamakshi Ammal, (1938) 2 MLJ 189, it is observed, as to pleadings, as under:

  • “The result, in India, is that if by reason of the document being unstamped, no evidence of its contents whether primary or secondary is admissible, evidence of admissions by the defendant is equally inadmissible. The position may be different where admissions are made in the pleadings themselves (cf. Huddleston v, Briscoe (1805) 11 Ves. 583 (596) : 32 E.R. 1215 (1220) and Thynne v. Protheroe (1814) 2 M. & S. 553 : 105 E.R. 488), because by reason of Section 58 of the Evidence Act, it may not be necessary to prove admitted facts and the objection under Section 91 will not arise unless the plaintiff is called upon to go into evidence. (Mallappa v. Mat an Naga Chetty (1918) 35 M.L.J. 555 : I.L.R. 42 Mad. 41 (F.B.)) This was the position in Pramatha Nath Sandal v. Dwarka Nath Dey (1896) I.L.R. 23 Cal. 851; cf. however Chenbasappa v. Lakshman Ramchandra (1893) I.L.R. 18 Bom. 369, where it was suggested that in a suit on an unstamped promissory note, even an admission in the written statement may not avail the plaintiff, as the Court when giving a decree on such admission may be “acting on” the document within the meaning of Section 35 of the Stamp Act; see also Ankur Chunder Roy Chowdhry v. Madhub Chunder Gkose (1873) 21 W.R. 1.”

Secondary evidence allowed only when permitted under Sec. 65

Sec. 61 of the Evidence Act directs that the contents of documents may be proved either by primary or by secondary evidence. Sec. 62 says that Primary evidence means the document itself produced for the inspection of the Court.

Sec. 63 lays down the mode of secondary evidence permitted by the Act.  It reads as under:

  • “63. Secondary evidence means and includes—
    • (1) Certified copies given under the provisions hereinafter contained;
    • (2) Copies made from the original by mechanical processes which in themselves insure the accuracy of the copy, and copies compared with such copies;
    • (3) Copies made from or compared with the original;
    • (4) Counterparts of documents as against the parties who did not execute them;
    • (5) Oral accounts of the contents of a document given by some person who has himself seen it.”

As pointed out earlier, Sec. 64 stipulates that documents must be proved by primary evidence except in the cases mentioned in Sec.65. Clauses (a) to (g) of Sec. 65 delineate the cases in which secondary evidence relating to documents may be given. They read as under:

  • (a) when the original is shown or appears to be in the possession or power –– of the person against whom the document is sought to be proved, of any person out of reach of, or not subject to, the process of the Court, or of any person legally bound to produce it, and when, after the notice mentioned in section 66, such person does not produce it;
  • (b) when the existence, condition or contents of the original have been proved to be admitted in writing by the person against whom it is proved or by his representative in interest;
  • (c) when the original has been destroyed or lost, or when the party offering evidence of its contents cannot, for any other reason not arising from his own default or neglect, produce it in reasonable time;
  • (d) when the original is of such a nature as not to be easily movable;
  • (e) when the original is a public document within the meaning of section 74;
  • (f) when the original is a document of which a certified copy is permitted by this Act, or by any other law in force in 1 [India] to be given in evidence;
  • (g) when the originals consist of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot conveniently be examined in Court and the fact to be proved is the general result of the whole collection.

Oral Evidence on ‘Sham’ Document

Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 directs exclusion of evidence or oral agreement as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso to Section 92 any fact that may invalidate any document, such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution can be led into evidence. It permits the plaintiff to assert that the document was never intended to be acted upon and the document is a sham.

Read Blog: Void, Voidable, Ab Initio Void, and Sham Transactions

The question as to ‘sham’ nature arises only when one party asserts that there has been a different transaction altogether than what is recorded in the document. Oral evidence is admissible in law for that purpose. [See: Placido Francisco Pinto v. Jose Francisco Pinto, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 842. Referred: Smt. Gangabai v. Smt. Chhabubai (1982) 1 SCC 4, and Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani, (2003) 6 SCC 595].

In Roop Kumar it is held as follows:

  • “22. This Court in Gangabai v. Chhabubai [(1982) 1 SCC 4 : AIR 1982 SC 20] and Ishwar Dass Jain v. Sohan Lal [(2000) 1 SCC 434 : AIR 2000 SC 426] with reference to Section 92(1) held that it is permissible to a party to a deed to contend that the deed was not intended to be acted upon, but was only a sham document. The bar arises only when the document is relied upon and its terms are sought to be varied and contradicted. Oral evidence is admissible to show that document executed was never intended to operate as an agreement but that some other agreement altogether, not recorded in the document, was entered into between the parties.”

Construction of a Document Raises a Question of Law

In Sir Chunilal V. Mehta v. The Century Spinning and Manufacturing Co. Ltd., AIR 1962 SC 1314, it is observed as under:

  • “Indeed it is well settled that the construction of a document of title or of a document which is the foundation of the rights of parties necessarily raises a question of law.”

In Hero Vinoth Minor v. Seshammal, AIR 2006 SC 2234, it is observed as under:

  • “It is now well settled that an inference of fact from a document is a question of fact. But the legal effect of the terms or a term of a document is a question of law. Construction of a document involving the application of a principle of law, is a question of law. Therefore, when there is a misconstruction of a document or wrong application of a principle of law while interpreting a document, it is open to interference under Section 100 CPC. If a document creating an easement by grant is construed as an ‘easement of necessity’ thereby materially affecting the decision in the case, certainly it gives rise to a substantial question of law.”

Part IV

Words in the Instruments Matters; Not to the Presumed Intention

Brett L.J. in Re Meredith, ex parte Chick, (1879) 11 Ch D 731, observed as under:

  • “I am disposed to follow the rule of construction which was laid down by Lord Denman and Baron Parke ……. They said that in construing instruments you must have regard not to the presumed intention of the parties, but to the meaning of the words which they have used.” (Quoted in: VS Talwar v. Prem Chandra Sharma, AIR 1984 SC 664; Damodaram Pillai v. Dhanalakshmi Ammal, (1981) 1 MLJ 171; Thomas v. AA Henry, 2008(2) KLT 63.)

Oral Evidence must be Direct; Hearsay  Evidence, Inadmissible

As per the Evidence Act (Sec. 3), ‘evidence’ means and includes oral evidence and documentary evidence. As stated earlier, Sec. 59 of the Evidence Act says that all facts, except the contents of documents or electronic records may be proved by oral evidence. Sec. 60 directs that the oral evidence must be direct.

Best available evidence must be produced; If Not, Adverse Presumption will be Taken

Generally, it is the duty of the party to lead the best evidence in his possession even though onus of proof do not lie on him, and he is not called upon to produce the said evidence; and the Court will draw adverse inference under Section 114(g) of the Evidence Act if such evidence is withheld.

But this rule cannot be applied blindly. Mere non-production of documents would not result in adverse inference, invariably (as shown below). Courts take into consideration the pleadings and decide whether the document/evidence withheld has any relevance. The court also cannot lose sight of the fact that burden of proof is on the party which makes a factual averment. The conduct and diligence of the other party is also important. Existence of some other circumstances may justify non-production (Union of India v. Ibrahim Uddin, (2012) 8 SCC 148).

The rule that best available evidence must be produced is taken in the following cases: Murugesam Pillai v. Gnana Sambandha Pandara Sannadhi, AIR 1917 PC 6; Hiralal v. Badkulal, AIR 1953 SC 225; A. Raghavamma v. A. Chenchamma, AIR 1964 SC 136; The Union of India v. Mahadeolal Prabhu Dayal, AIR 1965 SC 1755; Gopal Krishnaji Ketkar v. Mohamed Haji Latif, AIR 1968 SC 1413; M/s. Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd. v. State of U.P.,  AIR 2003 SC 3024; Khatri Hotels Pvt. Ltd. v. Union of India, (2011) 9 SCC 126.

In Mohan Lal Shamlal Soni v. Union of India, AIR 1991 SC 1346, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “It is a cardinal rule in the law of evidence that the best available evidence should be brought before the Court to prove a fact or the points in issue. But it is left either for the prosecution or for the defence to establish its respective case by adducing the best available evidence and the Court is not empowered under the provisions of the Code to compel either the prosecution or the defence to examine any particular witness or witnesses on their sides. Nonetheless if either of the parties withholds any evidence which could be produced and which, if produced, be unfavorable to the party withholding such evidence, the court can draw a presumption under illustration (g) to Section 114 of the Evidence Act.”

Invoking best evidence rule it is observed by the Supreme Court in Musauddin Ahmed v. State of Assam, (2009) 14 SCC 541, as under:

  • “13. It is the duty of the party to lead the best evidence in its possession which could throw light on the issue in controversy and in case such a material evidence is withheld, the Court may draw adverse inference under Section 114 illustration (g) of the Evidence Act notwithstanding that the onus of proof did not lie on such party and it was not called upon to produce the said evidence (vide Gopal Krishnaji Ketkar vs. Mohamed Haji Latif & Ors., AIR 1968 SC 1413).”

In Jitendra v. State of M.P (2003) our Apex Court observed that charas and ganja seized from the accused was the best evidence in that case and the non-production of the same in court was seriously taken note of by the court and observed that that mere oral evidence as to the same was insufficient. (See also: Mohd. Aman, Babu Khan v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 1997 SC 2960.)

In Tomaso Bruno v. State of U.P, (2015) 7 SCC 178, it is observed as under:

  • “22. To invoke Section 106 of the Evidence Act, the main point to be established by the prosecution is that the accused persons were present in the hotel room at the relevant time. PW-1 Ram Singh-Hotel Manager stated that CCTV cameras are installed in the boundaries, near the reception, in the kitchen, in the restaurant and all three floors. Since CCTV cameras were installed in the prominent places, CCTV footage would have been best evidence to prove whether the accused remained inside the room and whether or not they have gone out. CCTV footage is a strong piece of evidence which would have indicated whether the accused remained inside the hotel and whether they were responsible for the commission of a crime. It would have also shown whether or not the accused had gone out of the hotel. CCTV footage being a crucial piece of evidence, it is for the prosecution to have produced the best evidence which is missing. Omission to produce CCTV footage, in our view, which is the best evidence, raises serious doubts about the prosecution case.”

With regard to adverse presumption the Apex Court held in Tomaso Bruno as under:

  • “28. As per Section 114 (g) of the Evidence Act, if a party in possession of best evidence which will throw light in controversy withholds it, the court can draw an adverse inference against him notwithstanding that the onus of proving does not lie on him. The presumption under Section 114 (g) of the Evidence Act is only a permissible inference and not a necessary inference. Unlike presumption under Section 139 of Negotiable Instruments Act, where the court has no option but to draw statutory presumption under Section 114 of the Evidence Act.”

Non examination of the best person as a witness was also taken seriously by our Apex Court in Jagga Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1995 SC 135, observing that ‘the best evidence having not been brought on record’ the it would not be justified, ‘to hold that it was the appellant who had done the mischief’.

In Digamber Vaishnav v. State of Chhattisgarh, (2019) 4 SCC 522 also the Apex Court found fault for making no attempt to examine material witnesses and observed that the best evidence which would have been thrown light on the controversy in question was withheld.

Need for placing best evidence in cases of circumstantial evidence is emphasised in Rajendra Pralhadrao Wasnik v. The State of Maharashtra, AIR 2019 SC 1 also.

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Why No Reservation to Muslim and Christian SCs/STs (Dalits)? What are the Counter Arguments?

Saji Koduvath.

It is a fact that certain weaker sections of the citizens of India suffer from their caste identity. The policy of reservation of employment in government-jobs, and fixing quotas/seats in educational institutions, legislatures etc.,  are ensured to these people by the Constitution of India itself.  It is with the view to uplift this weaker section, who faced with the ‘historical injustice’ and the ‘age-old sufferings’.

Why No Reservation to Backward Muslims and Christians (SCs/STs/Dalits)?

As observed in Indra Sawhney v. Union of India, 1992 Suppl. (3) SCC 217, the Christianity does not acknowledge caste system. The same is the case of Muslims also. Therefore, it is strongly argued that it cannot be said that the members of these religions suffer from any social indifference, disadvantage or apathy.

It is also seen pointed out that the denial is out of fear that:

  • (i) the extension would adversely affect the existing ‘reservation-quotas‘ for Hindu, Sikh and Buddhist SCs/STs;
  • (ii) the Christians and Muslims would benefit from both ‘SC/ST-advantages’ and ‘minority-rights‘; and
  • (iii) it would lead to sudden ‘mass conversion‘ from Hinduism, Sikhism and Buddhism to Christianity and Islam.

LEGAL AND CONSTITUTIONAL BARRIER

The Legal and Constitutional barrier to extending Reservation to Muslim and Christian SCs/STs (Dalits) is The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950.

The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950

In exercise of the powers conferred by clause (1) of article 341 of the Constitution of India, the President, after consultation with the Governors and Rajpramukhs of the States concerned, made the Order.­ Para 2 and 3 of the Order reads as under:

  • “2. Subject to the provisions of this Order, the castes, races or tribes or parts of, or groups within, castes or tribes specified in [Parts to [XXII], {XXIII}, XXIV of the Schedule to this Order shall, in relation to the States to which those Parts respectively relate, be deemed to be Scheduled Castes so far as regards member thereof resident in the localities specified in relation to them in those Parts of that Schedule.
  • [3. Notwithstanding anything contained in paragraph 2, no person who professes a religion different from the Hindu [, the Sikh or the Buddhist] religion shall be deemed to be a member of a Scheduled Caste.] ”

COUNTER ARGUMENTS

1. The Constitution of India

The Presidential Order, 1950 was promulgated disregarding the binding edicts in the Constitution, such as the Preamble, Articles 14, 15, 25, etc..

The Constitution of India, in its Preamble itself secure to all its citizens “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity”.

Article 14 of the Constitution eloquently guarantees “Equality Before Law” as the most valuable Fundamental Right as under:

  • “14. Equality before law: The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.”

Article 15 Prohibits  discrimination as under:

  • “15. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth: (1) The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.”

Clause 4 of the Article 15 reads as under:

  • “(4) Nothing in this article or in clause ( 2 ) of Article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.”

Article 25 declares the fundamental Rightto profess, practise and propagate religion as under:

  • “25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion:
  • (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion
  • (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law
  • (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
  • (b) …..”

2. International Declarations, Covenants and Recommendations

The Presidential Order, 1950 stands against Universal Declaration of Human Rights, International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights, Report of the Committee on the Elimination of Racial Discrimination etc..

Article 2 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights reads as under:

  • “Freedom from discrimination: Everyone is entitled to all the rights and freedoms set forth in this Declaration, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status.”

Article 2 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights Adopted on 23 March 1976,reads as under:

  1. Each State Party to the present Covenant undertakes to respect and to ensure to all individuals within its territory and subject to its jurisdiction the rights recognized in the present Covenant, without distinction of any kind, such as race, colour, sex, language, religion, political or other opinion, national or social origin, property, birth or other status.
  2. Where not already provided for by existing legislative or other measures, each State Party to the present Covenant undertakes to take the necessary steps, in accordance with its constitutional processes and with the provisions of the present Covenant, to adopt such laws or other measures as may be necessary to give effect to the rights recognized in the present Covenant.
  3. Each State Party to the present Covenant undertakes:
    • (a) To ensure that any person whose rights or freedoms as herein recognized are violated shall have an effective remedy, notwithstanding that the violation has been committed by persons acting in an official capacity;
    • (b) To ensure that any person claiming such a remedy shall have his right thereto determined by competent judicial, administrative or legislative authorities, or by any other competent authority provided for by the legal system of the State, and to develop the possibilities of judicial remedy;
    • (c) To ensure that the competent authorities shall enforce such remedies when granted.”

The United Nations’, ‘Report of the Committee on the Elimination of Racial Discrimination’, Seventieth session, 19 February -to- 9 March 2007, reads as under:

  • “179. The Committee notes with concern that Dalits who convert to Islam or to Christianity to escape caste discrimination reportedly lose their entitlement under affirmative action programmes, unlike converts who become Buddhists or Sikhs (arts. 5 (d) (vii) and 2 (2)).
  • The Committee recommends that the State party restore the eligibility for affirmative action benefits of all members of scheduled castes and scheduled tribes having converted to another religion.”

3. Reports of Various Commissions and Committees Appointed by the Government of India

The Government of India appointed several commissions and committees to make recommendations on the situation of the SCs and STs. The following important commissions considered the ‘discriminatory exclusion’ of eligible groups from the list of ‘scheduled casts/tribes’:

  1. Report of Backward Class Commission headed by Kaka Kalelkar, , 1955
  2. Parliamentary Committee on Untouchability, Economic and Educational Advancement of the Scheduled Castes (L. ElayaPerumal Commission Report) 1969
  3. Report on Minorities  by High Power Panel on Minorities, SCs and STs & Other Weaker Sections, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India, New Delhi, 1983
  4. Mandal Commission Report of the Backward Classes Commission, 1980.
  5. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC)(Justice MN Venkatachaliah Commission), 2002
  6. National Commission for Religious and Linguistic Minorities – NCRLM: (Ranganath Misra Commission), 2007
  7. The National Commissions for Scheduled Castes, 2004 (chairperson: Suraj Bhan), 2007 (chairperson: Buta Singh); 2010 (chairperson: P. L. Punia); 2013 (chairperson: P. L. Punia).

Justice Ranganath Misra Commission, 2007 recommended, inter alia, as under:

  • Para 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950:
  • 16.3.4: We recommend that Para 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950 – which originally restricted the Scheduled Caste net to the Hindus and later opened it to Sikhs and Buddhists, thus still excluding from its purview the Muslims, Christians, Jains and Parsis, etc. – should be wholly deleted by appropriate action so as to completely delink Scheduled Caste status from religion and make the Scheduled Castes net fully religion-neutral like that of the Scheduled Tribes.”

The National Commission for Scheduled Castes, on 22nd April 2010, had endorsed the recommendation of the NCRLM concerning the deletion of Paragraph 3 of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes ) Order 1950 for extending the Scheduled Castes status to Christians and Muslims of Scheduled Castes Origin.

National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), 2002,   stated as under:

  • “In view of the fact that in some parts of the country particularly in the south converts to Christianity from specific SCs are subjected to crimes and atrocities as their exact Hindu counterparts are (difference of religion making no difference in this regard) and the fact that trials in such cases get bogged down on the issue whether this is an atrocity since they are not SC on account of conversion. Clause (c) of section 2 of the Act should be amended by adding the following words at the end of it and converts to Christianity from Scheduled Castes.”

L. ElayaPerumal Commission Report (“All Scheduled Castes who convert to religions other than Hinduism should be given all concessions available to Scheduled Castes”), Kaka Kalelkar Report, and Mandal Commission Report, emphatically recommended that the Dalit Muslims and Dalit Christians should be included as the Scheduled Caste.

4. Supreme Court DecisionsOne continues to be SC even after conversion

1. In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India, 1992 Suppl. (3) SCC 217,  it was observed as under:

  • “Though Christianity does not acknowledge caste system, the evils of caste system in some States are as prevalent as in Hindu society especially among the converts. In Andhra Pradesh, there are Harijan Christians, Reddy Christians, Kamma Christians etc. Similarly, in Tamil Nadu, there are Pillai Christians, Marvar Christians, Nadar Christians and Harijan Christians etc. That is to say all the converts to Christianity have not divested or set off themselves from their caste labels and crossed the caste barrier but carry with them the banners of their caste labels. Like Hindus, they interact and have their familial relationship and marital alliances only within the converted caste groups.” (Referred to in: The State of Punjab vs Davinder Singh, 27 August, 2020: Arun Mishra)

2. In Puneet Rai v. Dinesh Chaudhary, (2003) 8 SCC 204, S.B. Sinha, J. pointed out as under:

  • “30. In Caste and the Law in India by Justice S.B. Wad at p. 30 under the heading “Sociological Implications”, it is stated:
    • “Traditionally, a person belongs to a caste in which he is born. The caste of the parents determines his caste but in case of reconversion a person has the liberty to renounce his casteless status and voluntarily accept his original caste. His caste status at birth is not immutable. Change of religion does not necessarily mean loss of caste. If the original caste does not positively disapprove, the acceptance of the caste can be presumed. Such acceptance can also be presumed if he is elected by a majority to a reserved seat. Although it appears that some dent is made in the classical concept of caste, it may be noticed that the principle that caste is created by birth is not dethroned. There is also a judicial recognition of caste autonomy including the right to outcaste a person.”
  • 31. If he is considered to be a member of the Scheduled Caste, he has to be accepted by the community. (See C.M. Arumugam v. S. Rajagopal, [1976] 1 SCC 863 and Principal, Guntur Medical College v. Y. Mohan Rao, [1976] 3 SCC 411).
  • 32. A Christian by birth when converted to Hinduism and married a member of the Scheduled Caste was held to be belonging to her husband’s caste on the evidence that she had not only been accepted but also welcomed by the important members, including the President and Vice-President of the community (See Kailash Sonkar v. Maya Devi, [1984] 2 SCC 91).”

3. State of Kerala v. Chandra-mohanan, (2004) 3 SCC 429, AIR 2004 SC 1672, in a matter arose under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, it is held as under:

  • “We, therefore, are of the opinion that although as a broad proposition of law it cannot be accepted that merely by change of religion person ceases to be a member of scheduled tribe, but the question as to whether he ceases to be a member thereof or not must be determined by the appropriate court as such a question would depend upon the fact of each case. In such a situation, it has to be established that a person who has embraced another religion is still suffering from social disability and also following the customs and tradition of the community, which he earlier belonged to. Under such circumstances, we set aside the order under appeal and remit the same to the Sessions Court, Palakkad, to proceed in accordance with law.”

4. In E.V. Chinnaiah vs State of Andhra Pradesh, (2005) 1 SCC 394, it is observed that the Scheduled Caste consists of not only the people who belong to some backward caste but also race or tribe or part of or groups within castes, races or tribes (State can also make sub­classification); they are not merely backward but the backwardmost; and that a person even does not cease to be a Scheduled Caste automatically even on his conversion to another religion.  [This decision is now stood referred to 9 judge bench (on the question: whether State can also make sub­classification) by virtue of the 5 judge bench decision in The State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh, 2020-8 SCC 1.]

5. In The State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh, 2020-8 SCC 1, also it is accepted that a person does not cease to be a member of the Scheduled Caste, automatically, on his conversion to another religion. (The bench relied on Punit Raj v. Dinesh Dhaudhary and State of Kerala v. Chandra-mohanan).

6. National Council of Dalit Christians v. Union of India is the latest case (2019), that is admitted in the Supreme Court, challenging the The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order, 1950. It is pending, with the Order: “Tag with Writ Petition (Civil) No. 180 of 2004, Diary No.832 of 2020, and connected matters, if any”.

5. SC/ST Election Cases – Christian is one who ‘Profess’ Christianity

M Chandra Vs. M Thangamuthu, AIR 2011 SC 146

The Supreme Court held in this case that ‘the burden of proof lay squarely on the Election petitioner to show that the appellant indeed practiced and professed Christianity’ and that ‘the Election petitioner has not been able to prove conclusively that the appellant professes Christianity’. With respect to the meaning of ‘profess‘ in Clause (3) of the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order , 1950 the Court referred the following decisions:

  •  Karwade v. Shambhakar, AIR 1958 Bom 296, to enter publicly into a religious state and that for this purpose a mere declaration by person that he has ceased to belong to a particular religion and embraced another religion would not be sufficient.
  • Punjabrao v. D.P. Meshram, [(1965) 1 SCR 849], followed Karwade v. Shambhakar, above.
  • Perumal Nadar Vs. Ponnuswamy, (1970) 1 SCC 605: A bona fide intention to be converted to the Hindu faith, accompanied by conduct unequivocally expressing that intention may be sufficient evidence of conversion. No formal ceremony of purification or expiation is necessary to effectuate conversion.
  • Ganpat v. Returning Officer, (1975) 1 SCC 589: Hinduism through the ages has absorbed or accommodated many different practices, religious as well as secular, and also different faiths. Hinduism is so tolerant and Hindu religious practices so varied and clectic that one would find it difficult to say whether one is practising or professing Hindu religion or not.
  • Kothapalli Narasayya vs. Jammana Jogi AIR 1976 SC 937: C.M. Arumugam vs. S. Rajgopal, (1976) 1 SCC 863: Consistent view taken in this country from the time Administrator-General of Madras v. Anandachari was decided, that is, since 1886, has been that on reconversion to Hinduism, a person can once again become a member of the caste in which he was born and to which he belonged before conversion to another religion, if the members of the caste accept him as a member.
  • S. Anbalagan vs. B. Devarajan, AIR 1984 SC  411: (1984) 2 SCC 112: No particular ceremony is prescribed for reconversion to Hinduism of a person who had earlier embraced another religion. He regains his caste unless the community does not accept him. He never lost his caste in the first instance when he embraced another religion. The mark of caste does not seem to really disappear even after some generations after conversion.
  • Kailash Sonkar vs. Smt. Maya Devi,(1984) 2 SCC 91 : A member of the scheduled caste, is converted to Christianity and marries a Christian girl and a daughter is born to him who, according to the tenets of Christian religion, is baptised and educated. After she has attained the age of discretion she decides of her own volition to re-embrace Hinduism. In such a case, revival of the caste is not depended on the views of the members of the community of the caste concerned, although the views of the members of the community would be an important factor. It would automatically revive on her reconversion. If too much stress is laid on the views of the members of the  community the same may lead to dangerous exploitation. Christian parents had baptised her at a time when she was still a minor and knew nothing about the religion. This is indeed not an infrequent phenomenon in South India where, in some of the castes, even after conversion to Christianity, a person is regarded as continuing to belong to the caste.

Kodikunnil Suresh @ J. Monian vs N.S. Saji Kumar, (2011) 6 SCC 430

The Supreme Court found that the High Court was right in coming to the conclusion that the appellant was born to Christian parents has not been seriously disputed by the appellant. But, it was held that the appellant had been elected four times from the Adoor Parliamentary Constituency reserved for the Scheduled Caste was a very strong circumstance to establish that he had been accepted by the members of his caste after his reconversion to  Hinduism. On this finding it was held that his nomination was validly accepted by the Returning Officer. The Court referred, among other, the following decisions:

  • Kailash Sonkar v. Smt. Maya Devi, [(1984) 2 SCC 91]: A member of the Scheduled Caste, who is converted into Christianity and after she attains the age of discretion, can decide of her own volition to re-embrace Hinduism.
  • S. Anbalagan v. B. Devarajan, AIR 1984 SC  411: [(1984) 2 SCC 112] The precedents, particularly those from South India, clearly establish that no particular ceremony is prescribed for re-conversion to Hinduism of a person who had earlier embraced another religion and unless the practice of the caste makes it necessary, no expiatory rites need be performed.
  • Perumal Nadar v. Ponnuswami, [1970 (1) SCC 605]: A mere theoretical allegiance to the Hindu faith by a person born in another faith does not convert him into a Hindu, nor is a bare declaration that he is a Hindu sufficient to convert him to Hinduism but a bona fide intention to be converted to the Hindu faith, accompanied by conduct unequivocally expressing that intention may be sufficient evidence of conversion and no formal ceremony of purification or expiation is necessary to  effectuate conversion.
  • Chatturbhuj Vithaldas Jasani v. Moreshwar Parashram, (1954 SCR 817): Vivian Bose, J. : What is to be determined is the social and political consequences of such conversions and that,  we feel, must be decided in a common sense practical way rather than on theoretical and theocratic grounds.
  • S. Rajagopal v. C.M. Armugam, [1969 (1) SCR 254]: The law relating to acceptance of a person by members of caste to which the appellant originally belonged after his reconversion to Hinduism has been laid down.


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‘Sound-mind’ and ‘Unsound-Mind’ in Indian Contract Act and other Civil Laws

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Section 11 and 12 of the Contract Act

Under Section 11 of Indian Contract Act, 1872, for executing a valid contract, the parties to the same should be of sound mind.  Section 11 and 12 of the Contract Act reads as under:

  •  “Sec. 11. Who are competent to contract:-Every person is competent to contract who is of the age of majority according to the law to which he is subject, and who is of sound mind and is not disqualified from contracting by any law to which he is subject.
  • Sec. 12. What is a sound mind for the purposes of contracting.—A person is said to be of sound mind for the purposes of making a contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interest.
  • A person who is usually of unsound mind, but occasionally of sound mind, may make a contract when he is of sound mind.”

Contract by a person of Unsound Mind is Void as that of a Minor’s contract

In RD Somasundaram Pillai, by next friend S. Bhuaneswar v. S. Janaki Ammal, 1955-1 MLJ 310, it was observed that a contract by a person of unsound mind is void as that of a minor’s contract. Both are void ab initio and there is no need therefore in any suit or proceeding where such persons seek relief to have the cancellation of such a document. They might ignore the existence of such a document as being void and of no effect and proceed to establish their right to other reliefs consequent on the transaction being void. (Also see: J. Kasthuri v. Seth Ghanshamdas Vonsimal Deva Bank, 1979-2 MLJ 11; Muhammad Khalilur Rahman Khan v. Mohammad Muzammilullah Khan, AIR 1933 All. 468)

Onus to Prove Unsound Mind

In a matrimonial case alleging schizophrenia, in Ram Narain Gupta v. Rameshwari Gupta, AIR 1988 SC 2260, it was observed that the burden of proof of the existence of the requisite degree of mental disorder is on the spouse basing the claim on that state of facts.

In Sudama Vs Rakshpal Singh, 2013-6 ADJ 714: 2013-99 All LR 351, pointed out that the onus to prove that a person is of unsound mind would be upon the party who alleges it.

In Subrah-manya Sastry v. Lakshmi-narasamma, AIR 1958 AP 22, held as under:

  • “A lunatic is not a person who is continuously in a state of unsoundness of mind and once it has been established that a person is a lunatic, the burden of proof is on the party who alleges that a document he relies on as having been executed by the alleged lunatic was executed by him during a lucid interval“.

Sound-mind: Criterion is Capability to understand, rationally

In R. Kameswara Rao v. B. Suryaprakasa Rao, AIR 1962 AP 178, it was observed, in the context of Section 59 of Succession Act, 1925, that the words ‘sound mind’ does not mean that the testator should have his mental faculties in their fullest vigour, but he should have the capacity to understand nature of his property, the memory to remember the relations and persons normally having claims on his bounty and also a judgment of his own in making the dispositions. In Sudama Vs Rakshpal Singh, 2013-6 ADJ 714; 2013-99 All LR 351, it was opined that this proposition can be applied to a case of contract also with appropriate modification.

In Mahomed Yakub v. Abdul Quddus, AIR 1923 Pat 187 it was laid down as under:

  • “….. the test of soundness of mind is that he is capable of understanding the business and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interest, . There being a presumption in favour of sanity, the person who relies on the unsoundness of mind must prove it sufficiently to satisfy this test …..Mere weakness of mind is not sufficient…..” (Quoted in: Indar Singh v. Parmeshwar-dhari Singh, AIR 1957 Pat 491.)

In Amina Bibi v. Saiyid Yusuf, AIR 1922 All 449, It is held as under:

  • “Not being in a position to understand or to determine rationally whether it was likely to operate to his benefit by reassn of his mental condition, the lease must be held to be void and unenforceable.” (Quoted in: Indar Singh v. Parmeshwar-dhari Singh, AIR 1957 Pat 491.)

In Indar Singh v. Parmeshwar-dhari Singh, AIR 1957 Pat 491, it was observed that the party contracting must have the capacity to arrive at a reasoned judgment as to the consequences of the contract he is entering into; and it was pointed out that it did not necessarily, mean that a man must be suffering from lunacy to disable him from entering into a contract. It held further as under:

  • “A person may to all appearances, behave in a normal fashion, but, at the same time, he may be incapable of forming a judgment of his own, as to whether the act he is about to do is to his interest or not, and to the contracts of such a person the law gives protection.”

Capability to understand rationally, whether a transaction undergoing is likely to operate to his benefit or otherwise is the criterion to determine the ‘soundness’ of his mind.

  • See: Amina Bibi v. Saiyid Yusuf, AIR 1922 All 449.
  • Ramesh Chandra Das v. Lakhan Chandra Das, AIR 1961 Cal. 518,
  • Gordhandas Nathalal v. Bai Suraj, AIR 1921 Bom 193,
  • Rajkumar Sen Chowdhury v. Ram Sundar Shaha, AIR 1931 PC 69.

Not mean – incumbent must be of a very intelligent mind set

In AEG Carapiet v. AY Derderian, AIR 1961 Cal 359, PB Mukharji, J., observed that, sound mind did not mean that incumbent must be of a very intelligent mind set; that the test of a sound mind could not be stretched to an absurdity; and it was not the test of a perfectly healthy and perfect mind. It was pointed out that the test of a sound disposing mind was, in law, a workable test, which meant, in plain language, an appreciation of fact that the man was making a will, an appreciation of the contents of that will and an appreciation of the nature of disposition that he was making having regard to the claim of affection and family relationship and claims of the society or community to which he belonged to. It was held that it was neither a hypothetical nor an impracticable test, as it was not the test of a psychologist or a psycho-analyst or a psychiatrist who in the modern age is prone to consider all human mind to be inherently unsound by nature and abnormal; nor was it the too Scientific test which would satisfy the highest technical medical examinations.

Limitation

In view of Section 12 of the Indian Contract Act, the act of disposition or contract will be void for want of competency to contract, due to the un-soundness of mind, from its very inception. In Musammat Amina Bibi v. Saiyid Yusuf .70 Ind Cas 968: ILR (1922) 44 All 748, it was held that no question of limitation arises in such a matter because it was void from its very inception.

Presumption in favour of Sanity

In Mahomed Yakub v. Abdul Quddus, AIR 1923 Pat 187, it was held as under:

  • “….. The test of soundness of mind is that he is capable of understanding the business and of forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interest. There being a presumption in favour of sanity, the person who relies on the unsoundness of mind must prove it sufficiently to satisfy this test …..Mere weakness of mind is not sufficient…..” (This decision is followed in Indar Singh v. Parmeshwardhari Singh, AIR 1957 Pat 491.)

‘Schizophrenia’, and Unsound mind

In Sudama v. Rakshpal Singh, 2013-6 ADJ 714; 2013-99 All LR 351, it was observed that even if it was assumed that a person suffered ‘schizophrenia’, that itself would not justify an inference that he was a person of ‘unsound mind’ so as to render him incapable of understanding the things as are perceived by a person of ordinary prudence and understanding. The High Court relied on Ram Narain Gupta v. Rameshwari Gupta, AIR 1988 SC 226. The Apex Court decision was followed in BN Panduranga Shet v. SN  Vijayalaxmi, AIR 2003 Kant 357, Vinita Saxena v. Pankaj Pandit, AIR 2005 Delhi 243.

In Clara Auroro de Brangenca v. Sylvia Angela Alvares, AIR 1985 Bom 372, it was observed that the acts done by a person who was suffering ‘schizophrenia’ of violent nature to the extent that he was admitted in Mental Hospital and was released on Parole, it could not be said that act, his transaction would be valid under Section 12 of the Contract Act, 1872.

Presumption on a Registered Document

As per Section 114 of the Evidence Act the Court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of natural events, human conduct and public and private business, in their relation to facts of the particular case. According to Section 114 (e) there is a presumption that the judicial acts and official acts have been regularly performed.

Section 32 of the Registration Act states as to who shall present a document for registration. Section 34(3) states that the Registering Officer shall thereupon:

  •  “(a) enquire whether or not such document was executed by the persons by whom it purports to have been executed;
  •  (b) satisfy himself as to the identity of the persons appearing before him and alleging that he has executed the document.”

Section 35 provides that if the person executing the document appears personally before the registering officer and personally known to him, or if he be otherwise satisfied that he is the person, admits the execution of the document the registering officer shall register the document in accordance with sub-rule (2). The Registering officer may, in order to satisfy himself that the person appearing before him is the person he represent himself to be, or for any other purpose contemplated by this Act, “examine the person present before him in his office.” The Act further lays down that if any such person appears to the registering officer to be a minor, an idiot or a lunatic, the registering officer shall refuse to register the document. Section 36 confers the registering officer the power to enforce the appearance of executant and the powers of the civil court in that regard.  The endorsement under Section 58 is made by the Registrar after satisfying with the statutory requirements.

Registered DocumentsPresumption – Genuineness

In Vimal Chand Ghevarchand Jain v. Ramakant Eknath Jajoo, (2009) 5 SCC 713, it is held as under:

  • “The deed of sale dated 29.6.1978 was a registered one. It, therefore, carries a presumption that the transaction was a genuine one.”

Registration of a document does not dispense with the need of proving the execution and attestation of a document which is required by law to be proved in the manner as provided in Sec. 68 of the Evidence Act. Under Sec. 58 of the Registration Act the Registrar shall endorse the following particulars on every document admitted to registration:

  1. the date, hour and place of presentation of the document for registration :
  2. the signature and addition of every person admitting the execution of the document, and, if such execution has been admitted by the representative, assign or agent of any person, the signature and addition of such representative, assign or agent;
  3. the signature and addition of every person examined in reference to such document under any or the provisions of this Act, and
  4. any payment of money or delivery of goods made in the presence of the registering officer in reference to the execution of the document, and any admission of receipt of consideration, in whole or in part, made in his presence in reference to such execution.

Such particulars as are referred to in Sections 52 and 58 of the Registration Act are required to be endorsed by Registrar along with his signature and date on document under Sec. 59 and then certified under Section 60. A presumption by reference to Section 114 [Illustration (e)] of the Evidence Act shall arise to the effect that the events contained in the endorsement of registration, were regularly and duly performed and are correctly recorded. … [See: Kunwar Surendra Bahadur Singh v. Thakur Behari Singh, AIR 1989 PC 117].

In Sulender Singh v. Pritam, 2013-3 HLR 1443, it is held by the Himachal Pradesh High Court that there was a presumption of correctness to the endorsement/ certificate issued by the Sub-Registrar at the time or registration of gift deed (Rewat Ram Sharma versus Munshi Ram, Latest HLJ 2002 (HP) 165) and that the onus to rebut the presumption on a registered deed was heavily on the plaintiff.

Is there Presumption as to Truth on Registered Will

On account of registration of a document, including a will or codicil, a presumption as to correctness or regularity of attestation cannot be drawn. Where in the facts and circumstances of a given case the Registrar of Deeds satisfies the requirement of an attesting witness, he must be called in the witness box to depose to the attestation. His evidence would be liable to be appreciated and evaluated like the testimony of any other attesting witness.

The Apex Court observed in Bhagat Ram v. Suresh, AIR 2004 SC 43 as under:

  • “The certificate of registration under Section 60 of the Registration Act, 1908 raises a presumption under Section 114 illustration (e) of the Evidence Act that he had regularly performed his duty and therefore the facts spelled out by the endorsements made under Sections 58 and 59 of the Registration Act may be presumed to be correct without formal proof thereof. The duties discharged by the registering officer do not include attestation or verification of attestation of will as required by the rules enacted by Section 63 of the Succession Act. An endorsement by registering officer is not by itself a proof of the will having been duly executed and attested. ……. …

The Kerala High Court held in Mariyadas v. Benjamin, ILR 2014-4 Ker 471, as under:

  • “If a Will has been registered, that is a circumstance which may, having regard to the circumstances, prove its genuineness. But the mere fact that a Will is registered Will it will not by itself be sufficient to dispel all suspicion regarding it where suspicion exists, without submitting the evidence of registration to a close examination. The bald fact of registration is insufficient, when there are other circumstances creating suspicion on the execution of the document.”

Registered deed: Presumption – Validly Executed

It is held in Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608, as under:

  • “52. It is well-settled law that there is a presumption of a registered document being validly executed. A registered document would, therefore, prima facie, be valid in law. The onus of proof, thus, would be on a person who questions the same.”

In Bellachi v. Pakeeran, AIR 2009 SC 3293, also it is a observed that a registered document carries with it a presumption that it was executed in accordance with law. The Apex Court observed in Jamila Begum v. Shami Mohd., AIR 2019 SC 72, as under: 

  • “A registered document carries with it a presumption that it was validly executed. It is for the party challenging the genuineness of the transaction to show that the transaction is not valid in law. In Prem Singh and others v. Birbel and others (2006) 5 SCC 353, it was held as under:
    • “27. There is a presumption that a registered document is validly executed. A registered document, therefore, prima facie would be valid in law. The onus of proof, thus, would be on a person who leads evidence to rebut the presumption. In the instant case, Respondent 1 has not been able to rebut the said presumption.” “

Registration Certificate is a mode of proof under Section 67 Evidence Act

In Kunhamina Umma v. Special Tahsildar, AIR 1977 Ker 41, the Kerala High Court observed that the facts required to be proved under Section 67 could be proved by any kind of evidence, and there was nothing in the section to indicate that the evidence furnished by the registration certificate by virtue of Sub-section (2) of Section 60 of the Registration Act and by the presumption in Illustration (e) of Section 114 of the Evidence Act, was to be excluded. It is held as under:

  • “The Privy Council said in Gangamoy Debi v. Troilukhya Nath  (1906) 33 Ind App 60 = ILR 33 Cal 537 (PC) – ‘The registration is a solemn act, to be performed in the presence of a competent official appointed to act as registrar, whose duty it is to attend the parties during the registration and see that the proper persons are present and are competent to act, and are identified to his satisfaction; and all things done before him in his official capacity and verified by his signature will be presumed to be duly and in order‘.
  • 15. On the strength of this observation of the Privy Council and on a consideration of Section 60 of the Registration Act, the Lahore High Court held in Piara v. Fatnu (AIR 1929 Lah 711) that the certificate endorsed on a registered deed by the registering officer is a relevant piece of evidence for proving its execution. … …..
  • 19. The question has been considered in depth by Justice Raman Nair (as he then was) in Sumathi Amma v. Kunjuleskhmi Amma (1964 Ker LT 945). The learned Judge observed (at pages 946 and 947) : “…  It (Section 67 Evidence Act) only says that facts have to be proved, and, unlike Section 68, does not prescribe any particular mode of proof. The facts required to be proved under Section 67 can be proved by any kind of evidence, and there is nothing in the section to indicate that the evidence furnished by the registration certificate by virtue of Sub-section (2) of Section 60 of the Registration Act and by the presumption in Illustration (e) of Section 114 of the Evidence Act, is to be excluded.’
  • We have no hesitation in endorsing the view of the learned Judge as laying down the correct law on the question if we may say so with respect.”

In Thithumma v. Rukhiya Umma, 2012-2 KLT(SN) 111  it is observed that normally a person is presumed to be sane and capable of understanding the things and the acts he does and to judge its consequences; such a normal man will not sign or execute a document unless he understands the effect and impact of that document upon his interest and the consequences thereof; and that this is the common course of human conduct or common course of public or private business. So, ‘if a person wants to abrogate this natural course of public or private business or conduct on the basis of any unusual or extra ordinary circumstance’, he must allege and prove that circumstance. It is further pointed out in this decision that in view of Section 114(e) of the Indian Evidence Act and Sections 32 to 36 of the Registration Act if a document is registered, it could be legally presumed that the registering officer had registered the document after  satisfying that the executant was not a lunatic ie. the executant, was capable of understanding the document and forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interest; unless the above presumption is rebutted or abrogated by cogent and convincing evidence so as to hold otherwise.

Non-Examination of Registrar

No doubt, there is a presumption on registration. Therefore, the best evidence rule requires examination of Registrar when one seeks to rebut or displace the presumption. In Muruga Udayar v. Thirumalai Enterpreses, 2011 3 LW 513, the Madras High Court took it seriously that despite the the party who raised dispute as to the execution of the agreement did not chose to examine the Sub-Registrar for proving his case that he did not appear before the Sub-Registrar and put his signature towards registration.

No Detailed Enquiry under Order XXXII Rule 15 CPC

Judicial enquiry in court is sine qua non to determine, whether the alleged person of unsound mind is incapable of protecting his interest, by reason of any mental infirmity, before the return of the plaint filed against a person of unsound mind, under Order XXXII Rule 15 of the Code of Civil Procedure. The court shall examine the person, allegedly of unsound mind, by asking questions and an opportunity can be given to the party, who applies for appointing guardian also to put questions, if the party wants to do so, to test whether he is incapable to protect his interest when suing or being sued. The court has no power to return the plaint or interlocutory application seeking appointment of guardian, without numbering it, for want of  medical records to prove the unsoundness of mind (Sijo Varghese Vs. Dona B. Daisy, 2019-4 Ker HC 806).

Following Marci Celine D-Souza v. Renie Fernandez, 1998-1 Ker LT 888, and referring to Pankajaksha Kurup v. Fathima, 1998-1 Ker LT 668, it is observed in Krishnankutty v. Veena MG, AIR 2012 Ker 166, that there is no necessity for conducting a detailed enquiry under Order XXXII Rule 15. It is pointed out that the position is not the same if such a person figures as the defendant in a suit and a decree is obtained against him without a guardian appointed for him; and that it is well settled that a decree against a lunatic without a guardian being appointed to represent such lunatic, is a nullity and it is not even necessary to set aside such decree and a prayer for declaration that such decree is null and void will be sufficient.

  • See also: Koshalya v. Rama Devi, 2011 1 Him. LR 227;
  • Lakshmi v. Ajay Kumar, 2006  AIR P&H  77
  • Harjinder Singh v. Nachhattar Kaur, 1991 PLJ 565.
  • Syed Hassan Baffakki Thangal v. Kalliath Thazha Chirutha, AIR 1988 Ker 160;
  • Godawari Devi v. Smt. Radha Pyari Devi, AIR 1985 Pat 366;
  • Samalla Krishnamurthy v. Samala Sasila, AIR 1983 AP 174;
  • Asha Rani v. Amrat Lal, AIR 1977 P&H 28;
  • Ram Chandra v. Man Singh, AIR 1968 SC 954,
  • S. Chattanatha Karayalar v. Vaikuntarama Karayalar, AIR 1968 Mad 346;
  • Nanak Chand v. Banarsi Das, AIR 1930 Lah 425.

Validity of Mental Condition – when one enters into the contract

When the validity of a contract arises for consideration, the crucial thing is whether at the relevant time the delinquent was capable of understanding it and forming a rational view as to its effects upon his interest. From Section 12, as held in Nilima Ghosh v. Harjeet Kaur, AIR 2011 Del 104, the soundness of mind of a person has to be seen at the time when he enters into a contract and it matters not if such a person is usually of unsound mind but occasionally of sound mind or, is usually of sound mind but occasionally of unsound mind.

Unsound mind’ in Marriage Laws

In Lakshmi v. Dr. Ajay Kumar, AIR 2006 P & H 77, it is observed that merely on proof that a person long ago at one stage of his life suffered from schizophrenia would not result into an inference that he was a person of unsound mind. Rajinder Kaur V/s. Mangal Singh, 1987 (1) PLR 444, was referred to in this decision wherein it was observed that even if a man was suffering from schizophrenia, in the absence of a positive statement made by a doctor that he was treating a person of unsound mind, it cannot be treated that such a person was lunatic. It is pointed out in this decision that in the Ram Narain Gupta’s case (AIR 1988 SC 2260) it was held that unsoundness of mind as used in Section 13(1)(iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, require the assessment of the degree of the mental disorder and all mental abnormalities are not recognized as ground for grant of a decree of divorce, and that the Supreme Court also shared the concern of the medical word against too readily reducing a human being into a functional non-entity and as a negative unit in family or society by observing that it is the concern of law as well which has been recognized by section 13(1)(iii).

Sec. 5(ii) of the Hindu Marriage Act lays down the conditions for a Hindu Marriage. One of the same is that neither party must be incapable of giving valid consent in consequence of unsoundness of mind or has been suffering from mental disorder.

Sec. 13(1), clause (iii) and Explanations (a) and (b) read as follows:

  • “S.13, Divorce:– (1) Any marriage solemnised, whether before or after the commencement of this Act, may, on a petition presented by either the husband or the wife, be dissolved by a decree of divorce on the ground that the other party …….
  •        (iii) has been incurably of unsound mind, or has been suffering continuously or intermittently from mental disorder or such a kind and to such an extent that the petitioner cannot reasonably be expected to live with the respondent.
  •        Explanation.- In this clause,
  •        (a) the expression ‘mental disorder’ means mental illness, arrested or incomplete development of mind, psychopathic disorder or any other disorder or disability of mind and includes schizophrenia;
  •        (b) the expression ‘psychopathic disorder’ means a persistent disorder or disability of mind (whether or not including subnormality of intelligence) which results in abnormally aggressive or seriously irresponsible conduct on the part of the other party, and whether or not it requires or is susceptible to medical treatment; or …”      

Assessment of the degree of the ‘mental-disorder’

The Supreme Court, in Ram Narain Gupta v. Rameshwari Gupta, AIR 1988 SC 2260, held that the wife, who was suffering from Schizophrenia, could not be held to be lunatic. It was observed that the petitioner was reasonably expected to live with the respondent.  after quoting Sec. 13 Hindu Marriage Act, it is held in Ram Narain Gupta v. Smt. Rameshwari Gupta, AIR 1988 SC 2260, as under:

  • “10. The context in which the ideas of unsoundness of ‘mind’ and ‘mental-disorder’ occur in the section as grounds for dissolution of a marriage, require the assessment of the degree of the ‘mental-dis-order. Its degree must be such as that the spouse seeking relief cannot reasonably be expected to live with the other. All mental abnormalities are not recognised as grounds for grant of Decree. If the mere existence of any degree of mental abnormality could justify dissolution of a marriage few marriages would, indeed, survive in law.”

The court laid down further as under:

  • “25. Schizophrenia , it is true, is said to be difficult mental affliction. It is said to be insidious in its onset and has hereditary predisposing factor. It is characterised by the shallowness of emotions and is marked by a detachment from reality. In paranoid states, the victim responds even to fleeting expressions of disapproval from others by disproportionate reactions generated by hallucinations of persecution. Even well meant acts of kindness and of expression of sympathy appear to the victim as insidious traps. In its worst manifestation, this illness produces a crude wrench from reality and brings about a lowering of the higher mental functions.
  • 26. Schizophrenia is described thus : A severe mental disorder (or group of disorders) characterized by a disintegration of the process of thinking, of contact with reality, and of emotional responsiveness. Delusions and hallucinations (especially of voices) are usual features, and the patient usually feels that his thoughts, sensations, and actions are controlled by, or shared with, others. He becomes socially withdrawn and loses energy and initiative. The main types of schizophrenia are simple, in which increasing social withdrawal and personal ineffectiveness are the major changes; hebephrenic, which starts in adolescence or young adulthood (see hebephrenia); paranoid, characterised by prominent delusion; and catatonic, with marked motor disturbances (see catatonia). Schizophrenia commonly – but not inevitably – runs a progressive course. The prognosis has been improved in recent years with drugs such as phenothiazines and by vigorous psychological and social management and rehabilitation. There are strong genetic factors in the causation, and environmental stress can precipitate illness.
  • 27. But the point to note and emphasise is that the personality disintegration that characterises this illness may be of varying degrees. Not all schizophrenics are characterised by the same intensity of the disease. F.C. Redlich and Daniel X. Freedman in “The Theory and Practice of Psychiatry” (1966 edn.) say : Some schizophrenic reactions, which we call psychoses, may be relatively mild and transient, others may not interfere too seriously with many aspects of everyday living….. (p. 252) Are the characteristic remissions and relapses expressions of endogenous processes, or are they responses to psychosocial variables, or both ? Some patients recover, apparently completely, when such recovery occurs without treatment we speak of spontaneous remission. The term need not imply an independent endogenous process; it is just as likely that the spontaneous remission is a response to non-deliberate but nonetheless favourable psychosocial stimuli other than specific therapeutic activity…..” (Quoted in Lakshmi v. Dr. Ajay Kumar, AIR 2006 P & H 77).

In Lissy v. Jaison, ILR 2000-2 Ker 37, it is observed as under:     

  • “Term ‘unsound mind‘ is more comprehensive. Idiocy and lunacy are species of unsoundness of mind. Mental defectiveness falls chiefly under three grades known as idiocy, imbecility and feeble mindedness. Any state of mind which falls short of lunacy or idiocy cannot be a ground for annulment of marriage. Persons differ from one another in the degree of intelligence possessed by them; it would be a dire calamity if it could be said as a matter of law that a marriage entered into by a person who is neither a lunatic nor an idiot in a serious stage, because he or she lacks intelligence, although otherwise capable of understanding the nature of the bonds of matrimony into which he or she is entering or has entered. ‘Unsound mind’ or insane memories, which all persons must understand to be a depravity of reason, or want of it. (Per Hardwicke in C. Barnsley’s case: 2 Eq. Co. Ab 580).
  • ‘There is an important difference between, ‘unsoundness of mind’ and ‘dullness of intellect’. Unsoundness of mind may arise from perversion of the mental power and may exhibit itself by means of delusion or strong antipathies, which is called ‘Mania’, or it may arise from what may termed a defect of mind, as where the mind was originally incapable of directing itself to anything requiring judgment, which is ‘idiocy’ or where a mind, originally strong, has become weakened by illness or age though producing no such insanity as to amount to mania. ‘Idiocy’ in general is very easily proved. It is manifested in a variety of ways by impropriety or indecency of conduct, dirtiness in the habits or by vacancy of aspect, though this last test can only be appreciated by those who have seen the party. Another testis by means of numbers, ie., by showing that the party cannot understand the commonest rules of arithmetic.’ (Per Wood V.C. in Harrod v. Harrow, 23 LTOS 243).”
  •        9. … In order to appreciate meaning of the expression ‘incurably of unsound mind‘ and the test applicable in any such case, it has to be noticed that the state of mind envisaged is a degree of unsoundness, or incapacity of mind properly called insanity. The question is to be determined not upon wiredrawn speculations but upon tangible and established facts. It is important to notice that to bring a case within the ambit of clause (iii) of sub-s.(1) of S.13, mental disorder should be of such a kind and to such an extent that the applicant cannot reasonably be expected to live with the respondent.”

Medical evidence

In Kanhaiyalal v. Harsing Laxman Wanjari, AIR 1944 Nag 232, it was held as under:

  • “For the purposes of Section 12, Contract Act, the test of unsoundness of mind is whether the person is incapable of understanding the business concerned and its implications, and mere weakness of mind is not sufficient. In the absence of any medical evidence, it seems to me doubtful whether it can be held that Mahipati was by reason of unsoundness of mind incapable of entering into a contract on 27th July 1937.”

Court to form its own judgment; Medical testimony, only assistance and guidance

It is further held in Lissy v. Jaison, ILR 2000-2 Ker 37, as under:

  • “The gravity and importance of the issue requires that the Court ought to form its own independent judgment on the point. Medical testimony can be of considerably assistance and even guidance but the question is one for the Court and not for the experts and evidence of experts does not relieve the Court from the obligation of satisfying itself on the point beyond reasonable doubt. There should be strict enquiry into the matter. Court’s duty in this regard is very sensitive. The institution of marriage is of vital importance to society.”


End Notes

Appreciation of Evidence

Hospital Certificate and Circumstance (land sold at low price)

In Chacko v. Mahadevan, AIR 2007 SC 2967, the incumbent was found to be a person of unsound mind on the basis of a certificate of Mental Hospital, Trichur where he had been under treatment. There the land involved was sold for a very lower price by him. The Court took note of this circumstance, applied the maxim ‘res ipsa loquitur’ (the matter speaks for itself) and observed that this sale at a lower price itself showed that no person of sound mind and in his senses would have acted in such a manner.

Absence of continuous medical records

In a departmental action of dismissal of a constable, it is held in M. Dhanachandra Singh Vs. Union of India, 2020-2 Gau LT(MN) 65, the High Court at Manipur hesitated to act upon a medical certificate observing as under:

  • “Further, nothing has been produced to show that he was treated as inpatient in the said hospital. The absence of continuous medical records for the aforesaid period except for the certificate issued by the Doctor does not inspire confidence of the Court to accept the plea of the petitioner that he was indeed suffering from mental disorder during the aforesaid period.”

Declaration of unsound mind – requires a higher standard of proof

In Lalta Prasad (Deceased) v. Bhagwan Deen, 2020-1 All LJ 82, the High Court held that the issue regarding the declaration of a person as of unsound mind is a serious issue which required a higher standard of proof. The court evaluated the certificate issued by a doctor (a lecturer in Psychology in a Medical University) wherein it had been certified that the delinquent was suffering from Moderate Grade of Mental Retardation (Idiot) and that he could neither give nor recognise coins and upon the performance of tests of his mental age and intelligence quotient (IQ) was in the range of 42-45. It had been certified that he was incapable of managing his property. It had also been certified that the mental retardation could not have been cured by medicines. In cross-examination he indicated the following:

  • (i) That in order to ascertain the mental condition of the patient, an X-ray was taken. However, he could not recall whether he had advised to get an X-ray done or not.
  • (ii) He further stated that when delinquent was brought before him no other medical record was brought. He could not remember when he examined the delinquent and at that time how many other patients were available.
  • (iii) He tried to differentirate between a person being insane and being an idiot. He stated that he had given the certificate to the effect that the delinquent was an idiot and not insane.
  • (iv) He further submitted that there was a proforma for giving a certificate. However, the certificate issued was not on its usual proforma.
  • (v) He admitted that along with his certificate there were other prescriptions and tests which were conducted which were part of it. However, those documents upon and upon the basis of which he came to the conclusion that the delinquent was an idiot have not been filed on the record by the plaintiff-respondents.
  • (vi) He further stated that if he is given time he can bring the documents by which he had conducted the tests and had come to his conclusion. Though he was granted time but later he refused that he did not have those documents and, therefore, he could not bring the same on record.
  • (vii) He further stated that he himself had given advise to the brother of the delinquent that since the delinquent was an idiot, his property should be protected and keeping the same in mind he had incorporated this advise in the certificate.
  • (viii) He also clarified that in view of the tests so conducted, it was apparent that the delinquent was not able to count the coins nor he could recognise the coins and, therefore, this prompted the doctor to incorporate in his statement that he had the mental capacity of a 7 years old boy.
  • (ix) In his cross-examination, he admitted that the delinquent was also examined by a clinical Psychologist and he had also given his report, but he further noted that the report of the Psychologist was also not available on the record nor the certificate nor the details or the conclusions given by Psychologist were either filed nor such details were noted in the certificate issued.

Thereafter the High Court observed the following:

  • If the delinquent was a person of unsound mind by birth and that his brother had been taking care of him right from his younger age then something which strike at the face of it is that there is not a single medical prescription relating to him which indicates that he has been suffering from any mental ailment or that he had suffered from mental retardation from his childhood.
  • There is no explanation as to, while he was growing up and if he was not responding as a normal child then whether any medical advice was sought or he was treated and that during his childhood who was the doctor who had advised the sibling that his brother was mentally retarded.
  • There has been no evidence on record to the effect that he had been treated for any ancillary complication which required treatment.
  • The certificate is the sole document which has been brought on record and it will be relevant to point out that this certificate has been obtained from the said doctor after the institution of the suit.
  • Thus before instituting the suit, there was no material available which could be brought on record to indicate the illness or the ailment.
  • At the time of the institution of the suit, no material was brought on record to indicate that he was of unsound mind but the suit has been instituted casually without first seeking the permission of the Court to institute the suit, through the next friend.
  • The doctor could not explain why he had advised and incorporated in the certificate that it was being issued only for the purposes of protection of the property of the delinquent, that too after the institution of the suit.
  • Though there is a mention in the plaint that during the consolidation proceedings, he was declared as a person of unsound mind. There is no evidence on record.
  • Once the delinquent was present in the Court and the defendants deliberately sought an adjournment and the case was adjourned; the Court had made these observations which also corroborates the fact that the delinquent was not a person of sound mind as he was not able to answer or rather did not answer any question posed by the Court.
  • The fact remains that despite the same, no effort was made by either of the parties to produce the delinquent in Court on the subsequent dates.
  • Merely because the delinquent did not answer any question in Court does not reflect his mental condition to be determinative of the fact that the person was of unsound mind.
  • There can be various textures and shades of mental ailments but all of them are not to that extent which can hold a person to be of unsound mind so as to make him absolutely incapable of taking care of his own property and person.
  • If the sibling would have been taking care of the delinquent from his childhood as a person of an unsound mind, then from time to time there would have been prescriptions by doctors specialising in mental ailment.
  • Though it may be true that his mental retardation could not be cured by medicines, but the fact remains that medication is given to persons of such mental retardation in order to keep them calm and in control so that a person does not become aggressive and offensive towards others. There is no evidence to the effect that any such medication was given.
  • However, it is an admitted fact that the delinquent was not aggressive and not offensive to others.
  • It has also not been explained that if the delinquent was of that category who could not recognise the coins/currency nor could he be able to understand his good or bad then how did he explain that the defendants had abducted him and kept him in isolation and took his thumb impressions on stamp paper and plain paper to get the sale-deed executed.
  • The statement given in the plaint that the defendants misguided the delinquent on the pretext that they wanted to get his name incorporated in the property records and it is with the aforesaid allurement that they had abducted him also appears to be false. Since the name of the delinquent was already incorporated in the khatauni this allurement for such a person is absolutely farcical.
  • It would have been another things to say that a person whose mental age/capacity is that of 6-7 years and the defendants had tried to allure him with certain materialistic allurements such sweets, food, toys, clothes etc., perhaps it could have appealed more, but to specifically state in the plaint that the purpose of allurement was to get the name of the delinquent recorded in the property , for a person whose mental capacity is of 7 years and that such a person could not recognise the currency nor could count coins gives and makes a statement that he was abducted on the aforesaid pretext and that his thumb impressions were taken on stamp paper and plaint paper becomes difficult to believe.
  • Moreover, the plaintiffs had also stated that they had reported the abduction of the delinquent to the police and that it was also published in certain sections of the press also becomes doubtful. Since the copies of the newspaper reports which have been brought on record reports that one youth has been missing from last 15 days and it is apprehended that he has been abducted and might have been murdered. It further reports that the elder brother had reported the matter to the police wherein it was indicated that his ‘mental condition is not alright’. This terminology used apparently does not suggest that the delinquent was a person of unsound mind.
  • Even in the application which is the first reaction of the brother of the delinquent, it only indicates that the report has been made that the land of the delinquent is sought to be taken by the defendants but in the entire report made to the police there is not a whisper of the fact that the delinquent is a person of unsound mind and that his land is being sought to be usurped by the persons named.
  • On record, there is a Khasara which is also in the name of the delinquent. However, there is no mention of the fact that he is a person of unsound mind.
  • The record indicates that except for that one particular Khatauni which makes a mention that there is some orders of the consolidation officer by which the name of Vasudev was scored of and the name of the delinquent and his brother was incorporated and it was further mentioned that the delinquent is under the guardianship of his brother and he is a person of unsound mind, is the one solitary document.
  • There are other documents indicating the revenue entries in his name. In none of those revenue entries, there is any whisper regarding his mental incapacity. Similarly Khatauni is also in the name of the delinquent and in all the Khatauni entry, the name of the delinquent have been shown but it has not been mentioned that he is a person of unsound mind.
  • It is in this backdrop, if it is seen that one Khatauni wherein there is a mention of the fact that the delinquent is a person of unsound mind, then in all the subsequent Khataunies, the aforesaid endorsement in the entry should have been incorporated. This continuity which ought to have been present and natural, is missing. It is not corroborated by similar entry in the subsequent years.
  • However, in order to buttress the same, the plaintiff could not bring on record the order itself by which it was stated that the delinquent was declared as a person of unsound mind.
  • If the plaintiff got himself declared as the guardian of the delinquent in the consolidation proceedings, then that order at best could have been ordered declaring guardian ad litum. There is no other document which could indicate that one was ever declared as the next friend of the delinquent by a competent court as provided under the Indian Lunacy Act.
  • Since the delinquent had inherited the rights of his father in his personal capacity having a separate and identifiable share, and under the revenue laws his brother otherwise is not the natural guardian but the fact remains that in order to deal with the property of a person of unsound mind the brother ought to have sought his declaration in terms of the Indian Lunacy Act as it was prevalent at the relevant time when the litigation started in the year 1989 for which the district court has been granted power to make an acquisition in respect of a person alleged to be a lunatic for which Chapter-V and more particularly Sections 62, 63 and 65 of the Indian Lunacy Act are relevant.
  • From the record, it would indicate that the trial court while entertaining the plaint in the first instance did not look into the fact that the suit which was being instituted though next friend. There was no evidence worth its name at the time when the plaint was instituted to substantiate that the delinquent was a person of unsound mind.
  • The submission of the learned counsel for the respondent that since it examined the witnesses including the medical expert, this itself discharges the burden of the plaintiff and the entire onus rested with the respondent does not impress the court for the reason that where both parties had led evidence the burden of proof pales into insignificance. In the present case, this issue regarding burden of proof was not in controversy before either the trial court or the first appellate court. Both the courts had made independent assessment of the evidence and have come to different conclusion.
  • As already indicated above, the evidence led by the plaintiff who was primarily responsible to actually prove that the delinquent was a person of unsound mind has not been able to discharge its burden by bringing on record cogent evidence to establish the fact.
  • As already discussed above the report of the medical expert is mired with certain inherent lacuna which does not inspire confidence.
  • The report of the doctor certified the delinquent to be an idiot. In the plaint, the plaintiff had used different word (vernacular) and have also used the word insane. All these terminologies indicate different facets has an altogether different connotation.

Appreciation of Medical Evidence (in a case where Medical Record was discarded)

In Thithumma v. Rukhiya Umma, 2012-2 Ker LT(SN) 111, the Kerala High Court refrained from acting upon the O.P. register marked as Ext.X1 citing, inter alia, the following:

  • PW4, the doctor said that the entries in Ext.X1 were usually made by members of staff and he had no personal knowledge.
  • He was unable to identify the handwriting.
  • He did not know the doctor, who treated or admitted the patient .
  • The patient was seen admitted on 29.5.1980 at 5 p.m and discharged on the next day.
  • No document was available in the hospital except Ext.X1.
  • The case sheet, the most important document, was not available in the hospital.
  • PW4 had never seen the case sheet.
  • Though the signature or thumb impression of the patient could have been affixed in the record, it does not find a place.
  • Though the case history and date of discharge are recorded in report book, it was not produced.
  • In Ext.X1, the name of the delinquent alone was shown without his age or address.
  • PW4 had not seen the doctor nor did he make any personal enquiry.
  • He had not seen delinquent while he was allegedly in the hospital.
  • At the most, what can be inferred from Ext.X1 was that one Abdutty whose details are not known was admitted in Mental Hospital, Trichur on 29.5.1980 and discharged on 30.5.1980.
  • Ext.X1 was not at all sufficient to prove that delinquent was treated for unsoundness of mind at that time or that he was non compos mentis on the date on which Ext.B1 gift deed was executed.


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Sabarimala Review Petitions & Reference to 9-Judge Bench

Saji Koduvath, Advocate.

Sabarimala Disputes

The time immemorial custom prevailing at Sabarimala Temple prohibits women, between the age group of 10 to 50 years, to enter this temple. The Kerala High Court, in 1991, upholding the prevailing custom, ruled in S. Mahendran Vs. The Secretary, Travancore Devaswom Board (AIR 1993 Ker 42) that the exclusion of women in their ‘menstruating years’, from Sabarimala Temple, was not violative of Art. 15, 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India.

Sabarimala Case & Constitutional Morality

On September 28, 2018, the Constitution Bench, headed by the Chief Justice allowed, in 4:1 majority (Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. Union of India: 2019-1 SCC 1), the petition filed under Article 32 of the Constitution, holding that the exclusion of women from Sabarimala Temple violated the fundamental rights and that the custom of exclusion of women was unconstitutional. The Court struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry) Rules, 1965 [framed in exercise of the powers conferred by Section 4 of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry) Act, 1965].

Rule 3 of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry) Rules permits ‘religious denomination’ to ban entry of women between the age of 10 to 50 years. It was argued that this provision would play foul of Articles 14 and 15(3) of the Constitution by restricting entry of women on the ground of sex.

The Supreme Court held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a separate religious denomination; and therefore they cannot claim the benefit of Article 26 of the Constitution of India.

The CJI, speaking also on behalf of Khanwilkar, J., allowed the Writ Petition and observed, inter alia,  as under:

  • (i) Devotees, not constitute ‘denomination’. In view of the law laid down by the Supreme Court, in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt [1954 SCR 1005: AIR 1954 SC 282] and SP Mittal Vs. Union of India [AIR 1983 SC 1] the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a separate religious denomination and, therefore, they cannot claim the benefits of Article 26 of the Constitution of India.;
  • (ii) Physiological factors of women cannot be raised. The right guaranteed under Article 25(1) of the Constitution has nothing to do with gender. For that matter, physiological factors specifically attributable to women cannot be raised;
  • (iii) Violation of fundamental rights. Rule 3(b) of the 1965 Rules, framed under the 1965 Act, that stipulates exclusion of entry of women of the age group of 10 to 50 years, was a clear violation of the right of Hindu women to practise their religious beliefs which, in consequence, makes their fundamental right of religion under Article 25(1) a dead letter;
  • (iv) Morality in Art. 25(1) is Constitutional Morality. the term ‘morality’ occurring in Article 25(1) of the Constitution has to be understood as being synonymous with constitutional morality; and
  • (v) Not be an essential religious practice. The exclusion of women between ages 10-50 by the Sabarimala Temple could not be an essential religious practice.

Justice Rohinton Nariman concurred the views of CJI, in his separate judgment. He further observed that the exclusion of women from the temple would render their rights under Article 25 meaningless. He stated that there was no deficiency of evidence to conclude that the exclusion of women from Sabarimala violated Article 25(1) of the Constitution.

Justice DY Chandrachud also concurred the views of CJI. He also pointed out that the exclusionary practices of women between age of 10-50 years from the Sabarimala Temple were contrary to constitutional morality.  Even if a claim for the exclusion of women from religious worship could be founded in religious texts, it would be subordinate to the constitutional values of liberty, dignity and equality. In any event, the practice of excluding women from the temple at Sabarimala is not an essential religious practice. The Court must decline to grant constitutional legitimacy to practices which derogate from the dignity of women and to their entitlement to an equal citizenship.  The social exclusion of women, based on menstrual status, is a form of untouchability which is an anathema to constitutional values. Notions of “purity and pollution”, which stigmatize individuals, have no place in a constitutional order.

Justice Indu Malhotra handed down a dissenting Judgment holding, inter alia, the following:

  • (i) Article 14 would not override Article 25.The equality doctrine enshrined under Article 14 would not override the Fundamental Right guaranteed by Article 25 to every individual to freely profess, practise and propagate their faith, in accordance with the tenets of their religion.
  • (ii) The Constitutional Morality implies harmonisation. The Constitutional Morality in a secular polity in a pluralistic society would imply the harmonisation of the Fundamental Rights, which include the right of every individual, religious denomination, or sect, to practise their faith and belief in accordance with the tenets of their religion, irrespective of whether the practise is rational or logical.
  • (iii) The Ayyappans constitute a religious denomination. The Ayyappans or worshippers of the Sabarimala Temple satisfy the requirements of being a religious denomination, or sect thereof, which is entitled to the protection provided by Article 26 by which it can manage its internal affairs and is not subject to the social reform mandate under Article 25(2)(b), which applies only to Hindu denominations. The court must respect such rights.
  • (iv) A working formula to be adopted to decide religious denomination. In the matters as to religious denomination there is no straight jacket formula; but a working formula to be adopted to decide if it is a religious denomination.
  • (v) Notions of Court should not be the criterion. It is not for the court to see if such are rational or irrational.
  • (vi) Supreme Court must be a balancing wheel. Supreme Court is not just a guardian of fundamental rights but also a balancing wheel between rights and social control.
  • (vii) Article 25(2)(b) contemplates a State made law. What is permitted by Article 25(2)(b) is a State made law and not judicial Intervention.
  • (viii) The proper forum is civil court. This is a mixed question of fact and law which ought to be decided before a competent court of civil jurisdiction. The proper forum to ascertain whether a sect constitutes a religious denomination or not would be more appropriately be decided by a civil court through leading evidences.
  • (ix) Rules are not ultra vires of its parent Act. Rule 3(b) of the 1965 Rules would not be ultra vires Section 3 of its parent Act, the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Act, 1965, since the proviso carves out an exception in the case of public worship in a temple for the benefit of any religious denomination or sect thereof, to manage their affairs in matters of religion.
  • (x) Not fall within the purview of Article 17. The limited restriction on the entry of women during the notified age group would not fall within the purview of Article 17 of the Constitution. It was pointed out that Article 17 pertains to untouchability, refers to caste; and it does not extend to discrimination on the basis of gender.

Justice Indu Malhotra, in light of the discussions and analysis in her judgment, directed that the Writ Petition could not be entertained.

SABARIMALA REVIEW

More than 50 review petitions were filed challenging the ‘Sbarimala verdict’. On November 13, 2018, the Constitution Bench headed by Chief Justice began hearing the review petitions (Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers’ Association) in open court. It was argued that several questions including the scope of the freedom of religion guaranteed under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution were yet to be resolved by a larger bench of not less than seven Judges.  According to them, the determination of the questions of law referred to a larger bench would have a bearing on the pending writ petitions relating to entry of Muslim women in durgahs/mosques, the entry of Parsi women married to non-Parsis into the holy fire place of Agyari and the challenge to the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra Community.

Also Read Blog: SABARIMALA REVIEW and Conflict in Findings between Shirur Mutt Case & Durgah Committee Case

Review Petitions – Reference to 9-Judge Bench

The matters involved in this case now stand referred to a higher bench of nine judges. According to the reference, the conflict of opinion between the Seven-judge-decision in Commissioner Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Thritha Swaminar of Sri Shirur Mutt [1954 SCR 1005: AIR 1954 SC 282] and Five-judge-decision in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali [1962-1 SCR 383: AIR 1961 SC 1402] pertaining to the scope and extent of judicial review with regard to a religious practice, had also to be resolved.

Seven issues were framed for consideration by the larger Bench. It is tagged to the matters relating to entry of Muslim women in durgahs/mosques, the entry of Parsi women married to non-Parsis into the holy fire place of Agyari and the challenge to the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra Community.

Important Constitutional Questions Yet to be ResolvedHence Review

There are differences of opinion, between the following two important decisions of the Supreme Court of India, as to the extent of protection ensured under Articles 25 and 26, and as to the restrictions.

  • The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (AIR 1954 SC 282); and
  • Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali (AIR 196 1SC 1402).

The difference is whether the following words in Article 25 and 26 confer ‘wider’ rights?

(i) Subject to public order, morality and health all persons are entitled to the right freely to practise religion (Article 25).

(ii) Subject to public order, morality and health every religious denomination or any section thereof have the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. (Article 26).

The divergences are on the following:

Whether protection is limited to practices that are ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion (and no other)?Do Article 25 and 26 that give right ‘to manage its own affairs in matters of religion’ and freedom to ‘practice of religion’ protect ‘Acts Done in pursuance of a religion?
Who determines – what constitutes the essential part of a religion? Is it the COURT?Is it left to be determined by the Denomination or Section and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters?
Whether the Protection is limited to ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of RELIGION’ in a strict sense (and no other)?Whether it Extends to Religious practices of Denomination/Section, ‘Organization’, ‘Sect, Sub-sect‘, etc.?
Whether freedom of religion is guaranteed to all practicesexcept that which run counter to public order, health and morality?
A Religion or any section thereof hold the fundamental right to manage its own affairs‘ (which no legislature can take away) and enjoy complete autonomy (so that no outside authority has any jurisdiction).

In the Sabarimala reference (to higher Bench) Judgment [on review petition in Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala: 2018] it is observed that there is conflict between the Shirur Mutt Case and Durgah Committee Case as to the following:

  1. Whether the determination on essential religious practices was a matter left to the denomination?
  2. Whether the court has jurisdiction to determine it applying its own conscience?

The scope or extent of judicial review on ‘religious practice’ is the Crux of the review-matter.

  • In the Review Judgment it is shown-
    • Shirur Mutt case [1954 SCR 1005: AIR 1954 SC 282 – Seven judges] held that the essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself.
    • But Durgah Committee [1962-1 SCR 383: AIR 1961 SC 1402 – Five judges] carved out a role for the court in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs.
  • Another difference is also seen. It is, as to the extent-of-protection of religious practices given under these decisions.
    • The Shirur Mutt case had stated that the extent of protection of essential religious practices extends to essential ‘religious practices’
    • But, the Durgah Committee decision said that the protection must be confined to such ‘religious’ practices as ‘are essential and integral part’ of the ‘RELIGION (rather than a sect or faction).

In the Review Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers’ Association, the court said as under:

  • “7. In this context, the decision of the Seven Judges bench of this Court in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras vs. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt) holding that what are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself and the subsequent view of a Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer vs. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors. carving out a role for the court in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs seem to be in apparent conflict requiring consideration by a larger Bench.”

The findings in these cases, on Article 25 and 26, can be summarised as under:

Durgah Committee (1961) Five Judge Bench. (Author: Gajendragadkar, J.)Shirur Mutt (1954) Seven Judge Bench. (Author: BK Mukherjea, J.)
1. Limited to ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion and no other.
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”
(Wider application of religious practices is not recognised.)
The right ‘to manage its own affairs in matters of religion’ and the freedom to ‘practice of religion’protect Acts Done in pursuance of a religion.
“The contention in broad terms that all secular activities (which may be associated with religion) which do not really constitute an essential part of it, are amenable to State regulation cannot be supported.”
“Our Constitution not only protects the freedom of religious opinion but it protects also acts done in pursuance of a religion and this is made clear by the use of the expression “practice of religion”.
2. COURT determines
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION
their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised;
in other words,
the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”
(That is court determines and ‘carefully scrutinises’. That is, there is scope for the court to apply its own conscience.)
Right of a Religion to ‘manage its own affairsis a fundamental right which no legislature can take away.
Denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy. No outside authority has any jurisdiction.
“What constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.”
“A religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”
“The ‘right to manage its own affairs in matters’ of religion “is a fundamental right which no legislature can take away“.
3. Religious practices of ‘RELIGION in a strict sense.
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised. In other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it (RELIGION) and no other.
“If these practises were found to be purely secular practices or mere practices sprung from ‘superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and UNESSENTIAL accretions to RELIGION the State was free to enact laws on such matters.
Extends to religious denomination or a section thereof, and includes ‘Organization‘, ‘Sects, Sub-sects‘, etc.
“After Sankara, … religious teachers … founded the different sects and sub-sects …. Each one of such sects or sub-sects can certainly be called a religious denomination …”  
“The word ‘’denomination’ … mean … a religious sect or body ….” 
“If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food … be regarded as parts of religion.
“A religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy …”
“There could be other affairs of .. denomination or a section thereof .. not matters of religion … guarantee given ….”
4. Not refer to public order, health and morality
Unless such practices are found to constitute an ESSENTIAL and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised.”

(That is,
emphasis is given to
(i) ESSENTIAL and integral part of a RELIGION
and
(ii) assig
ns serious role of the COURT.)
Freedom of religion is guaranteed to practices except when they run counter to public order, health and morality
“What article 25(2)(a) contemplates is not regulation by the State of religious practices as such, the freedom of which is guaranteed by the Constitution except when they run counter to public order, health and morality, but regulation of activities which are economic, commercial or political in their character though they are associated with religious practices.” 
“There could be other affairs of a religious denomination or a section thereof which are not matters of religion and to which the guarantee given by this clause would not apply.”
Observations in Sabarimala reference (to higher Bench) Judgment as to Durgah Committee Decision 
Courts determine – what religious practices are protected and what religious practices are to be excluded as “secular practices or superstitious beliefs”
Observations in Sabarimala reference (to higher Bench) Judgment as to Shirur Mutt Decision 
“What are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself

Commissioner of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta,   (2004) 12 SCC 770.

It is the second Ananda Margi case. In the first Ananda Margi case (Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta v. Commr. of Police, 1983-4 SCC 522), the Supreme Court held that the Tandava dance in public (with knife, live snake, trident, skull, etc.) was not an essential rite of the Ananda Margi faith. In this second Ananda Margi case the majority rendered the decision following Durgah Committee, Ajmer vs. Syed Hussain Ali where it is held that the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and integral part of it and no other.

In the minority view rendered by AR Lakshmanan, J. it is laid down as under:

  • “This observation of this Court, in our view, runs counter to the observation of Mukherjee, J. in The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowment, Madras vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (supra). In this context, it is useful to reproduce a passage from the above judgment which explains the definition of religion in paragraphs 14 and 19 of the judgment which are –
    • “We now come to Art. 25 which, as its language indicates, secures to every person, subject to public order, health and morality, a freedom not only to entertain such religious belief, as may be approved of by his judgment and conscience, but also to exhibit his belief in such outward acts as he thinks proper and to propagate or disseminate his ideas for the edification of others….
    • ….If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or oblations to the sacred fire all these would be regarded as parts of religion…”
  • In a subsequent decision, namely, His Holiness Srimad Perarulala Ethiraja Ramanuja Jeeyar Swamietc. vs. The State of Tamil Nadu [AIR 1972 SC 1586], this Court has held that –
    • ‘Worshippers lay great store by the rituals and whatever other people, not of the faith may think about these rituals and ceremonies, they are a part of the Hindu Religious faith and cannot be dismissed as either irrational or superstitious.’
  • The contention that the word ‘religion’ under Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India does not include sect of religion of Ananda Marga being declared as religious denomination does not qualify for the same protection as religion in our view is not tenable. The learned Judges of the Calcutta High Court in their judgment impugned in this appeal has categorically dealt with the question following the decision exactly on the same point in the case of Shirur Mutt (supra) and the National Anthem case (Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala) reported in [AIR 1987 SC 748] and Sri Venkataramana Devaru & Ors. Vs. State of Mysore & Ors., [AIR 1958 SC 255] held that a religious denomination or organisation enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rights and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and outside authority has no jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”

The Nine-judge Bench Re-framed the Issues

The nine-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice has been constituted to hear the Reference. The Bench re-framed the issues referred, as under:

  • 1.  What is the scope and ambit of right to freedom of religion under Article 25 of the Constitution of India?
  • 2.  What is the inter-play between the rights of persons under Article 25 of the Constitution of India and rights of religious denomination under Article 26 of the Constitution of India?
  • 3.  Whether the rights of a religious denomination under Article 26 of the Constitution of India are subject to other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India apart from public order, morality and health?
  • 4.  What is the scope and extent of the word ‘morality’ under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India and whether it is meant to include Constitutional morality?
  • 5.  What is the scope and extent of judicial review with regard to a religious practice as referred to in Article 25 of the Constitution of India?
  • 6.  What is the meaning of expression ‘Sections of Hindus’ occurring in Article 25 (2) (b) of the Constitution of India?
  • 7.  Whether a person not belonging to a religious denomination or religious group can question a practice of that religious denomination or religious group by filing a PIL?

Analysis and Conclusion

Besides the (i) right of entry of women in Sabarimala, the nine-judge-bench considers (ii) right of entry of Muslim women in durgahs/mosques, (iii) right of entry of Parsi women, married to non-Parsis, into the holy fire place of Agyari and  (v) the challenge to the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra Community.

The result of the combined inquisitive analysis of all the aforesaid cases and all the issues involved therein, in the constitutional ethos, by the nine-judge-bench may be in supportive of the so called ‘progressive view in favour of women’. If the effect of answers of each segregated case and each separated issue is anatomically explored and blended together, the outcome may be diametrically opposite. The nine-judge-bench will have to analyse the matter, both ways.


END NOTES

Article 25 and 26of the Constitution of India

Article 25 reads as under:

  • 25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
  • (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
  • (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law –
    •        (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
    •        (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
  •        Explanation I – The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.
  •        Explanation II – In sub clause (b) of clause reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.

Article 26 reads:

  • 26. Freedom to manage religious affairs – Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
    •        (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
    •        (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
    •        (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
    •        (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.


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Secularism and Art. 25 & 26 of the Indian Constitution

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

PART – I

Introduction

It is the unique characteristic of Indian Constitution that the Government in India protects all religions and the religious practices. Unlike other secular countries like United States, which follow the principle of ‘non-interference in the matters of religion’, the secular Government in India is destined to deal with all religions equally and in a neutral manner. Yet, the Government in India will never be openly or virtually religious.

The framers of the Constitution of India positioned the heart and soul of the religious rights and freedom in Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India.

Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India

Article 25 reads as under:

  • “25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
  • (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
  • (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law –
    • (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
    • (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
  •        Explanation I – The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.
  •        Explanation II – In sub clause (b) of clause reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.”       

Article 26 reads:

  • 26. Freedom to manage religious affairs – Subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right
    • (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
    • (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
    • (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
    • (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.”      

Art. 25 and 26 Allows Enactment of Laws Relating to ‘Secular’ Matters

 Article 25 speaks about making law on ‘secular activity which may be associated with religious practice‘. Article 26 says as to ‘administer such property in accordance with law‘.

Article 26 proclaims, inter alia, about freedom to manage religious affairs. The principles underlying these provisions come for consideration when legislature makes law as regards the property that has been acquired, possessed or owned by religious bodies.

Doctrine of Essential Religious Practice

It is clear from the words in clause (d) of Article 26 (‘administer such property in accordance with law’) that the legislature is empowered to enact laws relating to secular’ matters related to the administration of property owned by religious denominations. Laws made as above had been questioned in Shirur Mutt case and Durgah Committee case as detailed below. The doctrine of Essential Religious Practice is emerged from the analysis and synthesis of the Articles 26 and 26.

Shirur Mutt and Durgah CommitteeTwo important Decisions on Art. 25 and 26

Several enactments passed in India, pertaining to the administration of property owned by predominant religious bodies, were challenged in courts alleging that they violated the fundamental rights guaranteed in Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution.

Following are the two important decisions of our Apex Court that articulated and verbalized the law on Article 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India:

  • (i) The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (AIR 1954 SC 282) – Seven Judge Bench – MC Mahajan, CJ, BK Mukherjea, , SR Das, Vivian Bose, Ghulam Hasan, NH Bhagwati, TL Venkatarama Aiyyar.
  • (ii) Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali (AIR 1961 SC 1402). Five Judge Bench – Gajendragadkar, CJ., Sarkar, Das Gupta, Rajagopala Ayyangar, KN Wanchoo.

Shirur Mutt Case

In The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (1954) the Constitutional validity of the Madras Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Act, 1951 passed by the Madras Legislature was challenged. It was alleged that the Act interfered  with the management of the Math and its affairs by the Mathadhipati, and it conflicted with the provisions fundamental rights guaranteed under the Constitution in matters of religion and religious institutions belonging to particular religious denominations. It was held by our Apex Court, inter alia, as under

  • (1) Protection under Article 25(1) of the Constitution extends to (all) religious ‘acts’.
  • (2) Organizations’, ‘Sects, Sub-sects‘, etc. have the “right to manage its own affairs ” under Article 25(2).
  • (3)(a) “What constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.” (Therefore the provisions of the concerned legislation was held to be bad.)
  • (3)(b) It is also held: Under Article 26(b), “a religious DENOMINATION or organization enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what RITES and CEREMONIES are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters”. (Therefore the provisions of the concerned legislation was held to be bad.)

Edict of the Shirur Mutt Case

Thus, Shirur Mutt brings-to-bear that when it is necessary to make a pronouncement as to what constitutes the ESSENTIAL PART OF A RELIGION or what RITES and CEREMONIES are essential according to the tenets of the religion, the same has to be ascertained

  • (i) with reference to the Doctrines of that religion itself
  • AND
  • (ii) what the DENOMINATION HELD as essential, as to the RITES and CEREMONIES, according to the Tenets of their religion.

Shirur Mutt – Not a Case from Dispute Within the Community

It is noteworthy that in this case it was not required to record a finding – what would be the stand of the court when a dispute came within the community or denomination as to the rites and ceremonies.

Durgah Committee Case

The tomb Khwaja Moinuddin Chisti at Ajmeer, known as Durgah Khwaja Saheb, gained high reputation. In 1955 the Parliament of India enacted the Durgah Khwaja Saheb Act, 1955, with regard to the administration of the tomb. Alleging violation of the fundamental rights, a Writ Petition under Art. 226 of the Constitution was filed. In Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali (1961) it was held by the Apex Court, inter alia, as under

  1. The ‘essential practices‘ of RELIGION alone is considered.
  2. The religious practices ‘that may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs’ and ‘unessential accretions to religion‘ may have to be carefully scrutinised by the COURT.

Edict of the Durgah Committee Decision

Durgah Committee brought forward application of consciousness of the Court in ‘essential religious practice’ of the RELIGION (without regard to what had been HELD by the DENOMINATION/COMMUNITY).

Durgah Committee paved a broad way, that gave wide discretion to court, when it propounded-

  • the court has to ‘scrutinise‘ whether religious practices are ‘sprung from merely superstitious beliefs’ or it is an ‘unessential accretions to religion’.

As indicated in Sabarimala case (stated below), the result of Durgah Committee decision is that the courts determine what are the secular practices or superstitious beliefs.

Seervai Tells –Observation in Dargah Committee Case, only an Obiter

From Dargah Committee decision, it may appear that the matters discussed in the decision – such as, what were the secular practices or what were superstitious beliefs – dwell within the domain of Courts. (That is, the yardstick would be the consciousness of Court.)

The observation in Dargah Committee case as to “…practices though religious may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself” is criticised by Seervai in his treatise ‘Constitutional Law of India’ and observed that it was only an obiter as it was “wholly unnecessary to do so”. Seervai also pointed out that ‘the above obiter runs directly counter to the judgment of Mukherjea, J. in the Shirur Mutt Case and substitutes the view of the court for the view of the denomination on what is essentially a matter of religion’.

  • “The reference to superstitious practises is singularly unfortunate, for what is ‘superstition’ to one section of the public may be a matter of fundamental religious belief to another. Thus, for nearly 300 years bequests for masses for the soul of a testator were held void as being for superstitious uses, till that view was overruled by the House of Lords in Bourne v. Keane. It is submitted that in dealing with the practise of religion protected by provisions like those contained in s. 116, Commonwealth of Australia Act or in Article 26(b) of our Constitution, it is necessary to bear in mind the observations of Latham C.J. quoted earlier, namely, that those provisions must be regarded as operating in relation to all aspects of religion, irrespective of varying opinions in the community as to the truth of a particular religious doctrine or the goodness of conduct prescribed by a particular religion or as to the propriety of any particular religious observance. The obiter of Gajendragadkar J. in the Durgah Committee case is also inconsistent with the observations of Mukherjea J. in Ratilal Gandhi Case,** that the decision in Jamshedji v. Soonabai afforded an indication of the measure of protection given by Article 26(b).” (quoted in Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala, 2019-1 SCC 1-Indu Malhotra, J.)
  • ** Ratilal Panachand Gandhi v. The State of Bombay, AIR 1954 SC 388.

It is noteworthy that in this case also, as in Shirur Mutt case, disputes that arose for consideration were not that arose within the community or denomination as regards the ‘rites and ceremonies’. It was a case that challenged an enactment passed by the Parliament of India.

All five Judges in Durgah Committee Changed their Views

All the five Judges in Durgah Committee (1961) changed their views, by two subsequent decisions, as to the ‘role of the court‘ in determining the essential religious practice; and observed that what was REGARDED by the COMMUNITY on essential religious practice was important.

  • In Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb v. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, it was held by a Constitution Bench (Sinha, C. J. dissenting) of five Judges (consisted of three Judges in Dargah Committee Case – A.K. Sarkar, K.C. Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, JJ.)
    • that the protection is extend to acts done in pursuance of religion and it contains a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion; and
    • that what constitutes an essential part of a religion or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are REGARDED by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion.
  • In the Constitution Bench decision in Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj v. St. of Rajasthan, 1963 AIR SC 1638, Justice Gajendragadkar himself (who authored Dargah Committee Case) and two other Judges in Dargah Committee Case, K.N. Wanchoo and K.C. Das Gupta, JJ. explained, as to the enquiry on integral part of religion held as under:
    • In Shri Venkataramana Devara v. The State of Mysore, Venkatarama Aiyar, J., observed ‘that the matter of religion in Art. 26 (b) include even practices which are regarded by the community as parts of its religion’. It would thus be clear that religious practice to which Art. 25 (1) refers and affairs in matters of religion to which Art. 26 (b) refers, include practices which are an integral part of the religion itself and the protection guaranteed by Art. 25(1) and Art. 26(b) extends to such practices. In deciding the question as to whether a given religious practice is an integral part of the religion or not, the test always would be whether it is regarded as such by the community following the religion or not. This formula may in some cases present difficulties in its operation. Take the case of a practice in relation to food or dress. If in a given proceeding, one section of the community claims that while performing certain rites while dress is an integral part of the religion itself, whereas another section contends that yellow dress and not the white dress is the essential part of the religion, how is the Court going to decide the question? Similar disputes may arise in regard to food. In cases where conflicting evidence is produced in respect of rival contentions as to competing religious practices the Court may not be able to resolve the dispute by a blind application of the formula that the community decides which practice is an integral part of its religion, because the community may speak with more than one voice and the formula would, therefore, break down. This question will always have to be decided by the Court and in doing so, the Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion, and the finding of the Court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the conscience of the community and the tenets of its religion. It is in the light of this possible complication which may arise in some cases that this Court struck a note of caution in the case of the Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali, and observed that in order that the practices in question should be treated as a part of religion they ‘must be -regarded by the said religion as its essential and integral part ; otherwise even purely secular practices which are not an essential or an integral part of religion are apt to be clothed with a religious form and may make a claim for being treated as religious practices within the meaning of Art. 25 (1).”  

Reflections of Justice Gajendragadkar in his Autobiography

It is interesting to note what was the reflection of Justice Gajendragadkar in his Autobiography, “To the Best of My Memory” as to the ‘role of the court‘ in determining the essential religious practice.

Justice Gajendragadkar pointed out that the finding was needed when disputes came as to religious practices and other matters, and said that ‘the finding of the court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the conscience of the community and the tenets of its religion’.

Justice Gajendragadkar speaks as under:

  • “Similarly under Article 26, one of the questions which agitated public opinion was in respect of the meaning of the expression “matters of religion” under Article 26 (b) and “religious practices” under Article 25(2)(a). 
  • The earlier trend of the Supreme Court judgments was that religious practices and matters of religion have to be decided in the light of the opinion of the community and not by the court.
  • This view meant that, in case a controversy arose between the parties in regard to the meaning of these two expressions, in deciding “whether a given religious practice is an integral part of the religion or not, the test always would be whether it is regarded as such by the community following the religion or not”. 
  • This view however was dissented from by the court in two decisions** in both of which I spoke for the unanimous court.  We held that where a dispute arises as to what is the religious practice or what are matters of religion, the question will always have to be decided by the court.  In doing so, the court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and, if it is, can it be regarded as an integral and essential part of the religion?
  • The finding of the court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the conscience of the community and the tenets of its religion.”
    • ** (i) Durga Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussein Ali, (1962) SCR 353.
    • (ii) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj v, The State of Rajasthan, (1964) SCR 561,620,623.

Seervai criticised Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj v. State of Rajasthan also as under:

  • “In Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji v. Rajasthan Gajendragadkar J. again adverted to the rights under Arts. 25(1) and 26(b) and stated that if a matter was obviously secular and not religious, a Court would be justified in rejecting its claim to be a religious practise, as based on irrational considerations. It is submitted that the real question is whether the religious denomination looks upon it as an essential part of its religion, and however irrational it may appear to persons who do not share that religious belief, the view of the denomination must prevail, for, it is not open to a court to describe as irrational that which is a part of a denomination’s religion. The actual decision in the case, that the right to manage the property was a secular matter, is correct, but that is because, as pointed out by Mukherjea J., Art. 26(b) when contrasted with Art. 26(c) and (d) shows that matters of religious belief and practises are distinct and separate from the management of property of a religious denomination. The distinction between religious belief and practises which cannot be controlled, and the management of the property of a religious denomination which can be controlled to a limited extent, is recognised by the Article itself and must be enforced. But this distinction is not relevant to the question whether a religious practise is itself irrational or secular.” (quoted in Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala, 2019-1 SCC 1-Indu Malhotra, J.)

Sabarimala Case Pointed out – Apparent Conflict is on Role of the Court

In the Sabarimala review-reference (to higher Bench) Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers Association, 2020-2 SCC 1, it is pointed out that there is apparent conflict between the Shirur Mutt Case and Durgah Committee Case, on the ‘Role of the Court’.

  • It is observed –
    • Seven Judges bench of the Apex Court, in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt), held that what were essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself.
    • The subsequent Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali carved out a role for the court in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs.
    • Both these decisions ‘seem to be in apparent conflict‘.
    • It requires consideration by a larger Bench.

PART – II

What is Secularism in Indian Perceptive?

  • It is separation of the State from religious institutions.
  • It does not mean separation of religion from State.
  • It does not mean State either anti-god or pro-god.
  • It just ensures that no one is differentiated on religion.
  • It provides equal status to all religions.
  • It does not favour or discriminate any one on religion.

Secularism is the policy of separation of the State from religious institutions.

Though the word ‘secular’ was added to the preamble of the Constitution of India only in 1976 by the 42nd Constitutional amendment, the independent Indian Republic has been secular, from its inception; and religion has been open to one and all as an unquestionable matter of personal choice.

In Indian panorama, secularism does not mean separation of religion from State.

Instead, the Constitution offers, as fundamental rights, freedom of conscience and free profession; practice and propagation of religion; and freedom to religion and ‘religious practices’. But, these rights are subject to the restrictions, which the Constitution itself has laid down.

While dealing with ‘secularism’, in Ahmedabad St. Xavier’s College v. State of Gujarat (1974)[1] it was observed by our Apex Court that ‘secularism’ didn’t mean either anti-god or pro-god; it just ensured that no one is differentiated on the basis of religion. 

In S R Bommai v. Union of India(1994)[2] the Supreme Court explained that, under the Constitution of India, secularism did not mean that India was an atheist society, but it was a heterogeneous society providing equal status to all religions without favouring or discriminating against any one.

PART – III

Essential Religious Practice

Restrictions by the State upon free exercise of religion are permitted both under articles 25 and 26 on grounds of public order, morality and health. Under Article 25(2)(a) State can regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political and other secular activities. ‘Other secular activities’ does not affect essential religious practice or activities.

Though the legislature is empowered to enact laws relating to ‘secular’ matters by virtue of clause (d) of Article 26, those secular activities that are ‘essentially’ associated with religion are not amenable to State regulations.

In certain cases a question may arise whether the State regulation is bad for it is ‘essentially associated with religion’. In such cases it becomes the duty of the court to decide whether a practice is an essential practice or not.

Under Article 26(b), a religious denomination or organisation enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.

What constitutes ‘essential’ part of religion has to be ascertained by the courts looking into the doctrines of that religion.[3] It is always depended upon the tenets of the religion, its historical background, change in evolved process, the evidence placed before the courts as to the conscience of the community, etc.[4] Essential practice means the practice that is fundamental to the religion and its belief; without which the religion will be no religion.[5]  In other words it is the practice connected to the core beliefs upon which the religion is founded.

In AS Narayana Deekshitulu   Vs. State of AP[6] it is held by our Apex Court as under:

  • What are essential parts of religion or religious belief or matters of religion and religious practice is essentially a question of fact to be considered in the context in which the question has arisen and the evidence — factual or legislative or historic — presented in that context is required to be considered and a decision reached.”[7]

Possible Restrictions  that can be Imposed by State

From the Shirur Mutt Judgment it can be found that the following would be the Possible Restrictions that could be imposed by State under Articles 25 and 26:

  1. Restrictions by the State are permitted upon free exercise of religion, both under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution on grounds of public order, morality and health.
  2. The State has a right to interfere when the freedom guaranteed by Article 25 and 26 run counter to public order, health and morality. (But it does not contemplate regulation of religious practices, as such, by the State.)
  3. Guarantee given to ‘religious denomination’ or ‘a section thereof’ is to administer its property is ‘in accordance with law’ (Clause [d] of Article 26); and thereby the State can ‘regulate it by laws’. (But the right to manage affairs of religion itself is a Fundamental Right which no legislature can take away.)
  4. Clause (2)(a) of Article 25 reserves the right of the State to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political and other secular activities which may be associated with religious practice.
  5. Though the scale of expenses to be incurred in connection with religious observances would be a matter of administration of property belonging to the religious denomination, it can be controlled by secular authorities in accordance with any law laid down by a competent legislature; for it could not be the intention, of any religion to destroy its institution and its endowments by incurring wasteful expenditure on rites and ceremonies; and nobody can make a grievance if he is directed to obey orders issued in pursuance of valid legal authority.
  6. A further right is given to the State by Clause (2)(b) of Article 25 under which the State can legislate providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus even though by so doing it might interfere with religious practices.

PART – IV

Nature of Protecting ‘Religious Practices’ in India

As pointed out above, unlike other secular countries the Constitution of India protects all religions, and the religious practices. It is held by our Apex Court in Shirur Mutt case (AIR 1954 SC 282), that our Constitution (Article 25) protects those practices which are ‘integral parts’ of a religion, and that no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.

  • “… Freedom of religion in our Constitution is not confined to religious beliefs only; it extends to religious practices as well subject to the restrictions, which the Constitution itself has laid down. Under Article 26(b), therefore, a religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”

Essential Religious Practice Recognised by Courts

Various decisions lad down by our Courts show that following religious practices are ‘essential’ part of religion:

  • Worshipping of an image or idol in Hinduism. [8]
  • Offering prayers at a public mosque.[9]

Following religious practices were held not ‘essential’ part of religion:

  • Capturing and worshipping live cobras.[10]
  • Sacrifice of cows in the Muslim religion.[11]
  • Right to elect members to a committee for the administration of a Gurudwara property amongst Sikhs.[12]
  • Mosque is not an essential practice of Islam and a Muslim can offer namaz (prayer) anywhere even in the open.[13]
  • Hijab (headscarf) is not an ‘essential religious practice’ in Islamic faith: Karnataka High Court (March 15, 2022) in Resham v. State of Karnataka.

Following decisions are also important in these matters.

  • A Hindu male marrying a second wife after conversion while first spouse living is illegal.[14]
  • Taking of photographs of a woman, for electoral purposes, cannot be prohibited.[15]

Hijab (Headscarf) & Essential Religious Practice

Karnataka High Court recently (March 15, 2022), in Resham v. State of Karnataka, held that Hijab (headscarf) is not an ‘essential religious practice’ in Islamic faith. The decision has come in a case in which the Govt. Order that banned Hijab in classrooms was challenged. It is held that the Govt. Order is not unconstitutional. The High Court began is judgment as under:

  • “This judgment, we desire to begin with what Sara Slininger from Centralia, Illinois concluded her well researched article ‘VEILED WOMEN: HIJAB, RELIGION, AND CULTURAL PRACTICE-2013’:
  • ‘The hijab’s history…is a complex one, influenced by the intersection of religion and culture over time. While some women no doubt veil themselves because of pressure put on them by society, others do so by choice for many reasons. The veil appears on the surface to be a simple thing. That simplicity is deceiving, as the hijab represents the beliefs and practices of those who wear it or choose not to, and the understandings and misunderstandings of those who observe it being worn. Its complexity lies behind the veil.’ “

The material point is answered by the three-judge-bench as under:

  • “…. we are of the considered opinion that wearing of hijab by Muslim women does not form a part of essential religious practice in Islamic faith.”

HijabSplit Verdict in Supreme Court

Divergent views were expressed by the Two Judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India (Hemant Gupta and Sudhanshu Dhulia, JJ.) when this case was placed before them (Aishat Shifa v. State of Karnataka, 2023-2 SCC 1). Therefore, this matter has been placed before the Chief Justice of India for constitution of an ‘appropriate Bench’.

Justice Hemant Gupta dismissed the appeals holding as under:

  • “However, it is to be noted that none of the fundamental rights is absolute. The curtailment of the right is permissible by following due procedure which can withstand the test of reasonableness. The intent and object of the Government Order is only to maintain uniformity amongst the students by adherence to the prescribed uniform. It is reasonable as the same has the effect of regulation of the right guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a). Thus, the right of freedom of expression under Article 19(1)(a) and of privacy under Article 21 are complementary to each other and not mutually exclusive and does meet the injunction of reasonableness for the purposes of Article 21 and Article 14.”
  • “Secularism is applicable to all citizens, therefore, permitting one religious community to wear their religious symbols would be antithesis to secularism. Thus, the Government Order cannot be said to be against the ethic of secularism or to the objective of the Karnataka Education Act, 1983.”

It was observed that the Government Order only ensured that the uniform prescribed was adhered to by the students and it could not be said that State was restricting the access to education to the girl students through such an Order and that the Government Order could not be said to be contrary to the State goal of promoting literacy and education as mandated under the Constitution.

But, Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia allowed the appeals directing that ‘there shall be no restriction on the wearing of hijab anywhere in schools and colleges in Karnataka’. Justice Dhulia observed as under:

  • “All the Petitioners want is to wear a hijab! Is it too much to ask in a democracy? How is it against public order, morality or health? Or even decency or against any other provision of Part III of the Constitution. These questions have not been sufficiently answered in the Karnataka High Court Judgement. The State has not given any plausible reasons either in the Government Order dated 5 February 2022, or in the counter affidavit before the High Court. It does not appeal to my logic or reason as to how a girl child who is wearing a hijab in a classroom is a public order problem or even a law-and-order problem. To the contrary reasonable accommodation in this case would be a sign of a mature society which has learnt to live and adjust with its differences.”

Justice Dhulia pointed out that fraternity, which was our Constitutional value, would therefore require us to be tolerant. Under our Constitutional scheme, wearing a hijab should be simply a matter of Choice. It may or may not be a matter of essential religious practice, but it still is, a matter of conscience, belief, and expression. If she wants to wear hijab, even inside her class room, she cannot be stopped, if it is worn as a matter of her choice, as it may be the only way her conservative family will permit her to go to school, and in those cases, her hijab is her ticket to education. By asking the girls to take off their hijab before they enter the school gates, is first an invasion on their privacy, then it is an attack on their dignity, and then ultimately it is a denial to them of secular education. These are clearly violative of Article 19(1)(a), Article 21 and Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India.

PART – V

Religious Denomination in Article 26

Article 26 confers ‘every religious denomination or any section thereof’ the freedom to manage religious affairs. Our Apex Court, in Commr., Hindu Religious Endowments Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt[16] held as follows:

  • “…The word ‘denomination’ has been defined in the Oxford Dictionary to mean ‘a collection of individuals classed together under the same name: a religious sect or body having a common faith and organisation and designated by a distinctive name’. …After Sankara, came a galaxy of religious teachers and philosophers who founded the different sects and sub-sects of the Hindu religion that we find in India at the present day. Each one of such sects or sub-sects can certainly be called a religious denomination, as it is designated by a distinctive name – in many cases it is the name of the founder – and has a common faith and common Spiritual organisation. The followers of Ramanuja, who are known by the name of Shri Vaishnabas, undoubtedly constitute a religious, denomination; and so do the followers of Madhwacharya and other religious teachers. … As Art. 26 contemplates not merely a religious denomination but also a section thereof, the Math or the spiritual fraternity represented by it can legitimately come within the purview of this Article.”

The Constitution of India does not define religious denomination. In SP Mittal v. Union of India[17], our Apex Court laid down three conditions (pointed out in Shirur Mutt case) to qualify ‘religious denomination’. They are:

  • 1. Collection of individuals having a common faith.
  • 2. A common organization.
  • 3. Designation by a distinctive name.

There may be no scope for disputing ever so may established religious denominations. But challenges may arise with respect to several sects or subsects.  Following sects or collections of individuals are held to be ‘religious denomination’:

  1. Spiritual fraternity represented by a math: (Sri Shirur Mutt case[18])
  2. Vaishnava sect (Hindus): (Sri Shirur Mutt case[19])
  3. Ananda Marg: (Acharya Jagdishwaranand v. Commissioner of Police, Calcutta[20])
  4. Jehovah’s Witnesses (Christians): (Bijoe Emmanuel Vs. State of Kerala[21])
  5. Ramakrishna Math or Ramakrishna Mission (Hindus): (Bholanath Mukherjee Vs. R.K. Mission V. Centenary College[22])
  6. Shia, Hanafi and Chishti (Muslims).
  7. Knanaya Samudayam: a Christian community that had zealous concern throughout to maintain and retain their separate ethnic identity and beliefs. (Most. Rev. PMA Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma Mathews, AIR 1995 SC 2001).

Following collection of individuals is held to be not ‘religious denomination’:

  • 1. Aurobindo Society (Hindus): (SP Mittal Vs. Union of India[23]).
  • 2. Followers of Ayyappa (Hindus): (Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. Union of India[24]).

In Most. Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma Mathews, AIR 1995 SC 2001, it is held as under:

  • “The modification is called for for the reason that when a particular people say that they believe in the spiritual superiority of the Patriarch and that it is an article of faith with them, the Court cannot say ‘no; your spiritual superior is the Catholicos’.” 

Restrictions to Freedom under Article 25 and 26

The fundamental right to ‘freedom of religion’ is guaranteed under Article 25 and ‘freedom to manage religious affairs’ is guaranteed under Article 26 of the Constitution. Both Article 25 and 26 are subject to public order, morality and health. They are also subject to the restrictions that are laid down in Article 25(2) and Article 26(d). Article 25(2) permits the State to make any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice. Article 26(d) empowers the State to enact laws relating to the field of administration of property of religious denominations. In the matters of religious trusts, argument often raised is that the court has no jurisdiction to interfere in the administration of such trusts or institutions inasmuch as the people connected to those trusts have a right to follow their own faith under Article 25 of the Constitution of India read with the Preamble to the Constitution of India that guarantees the liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.

Rights conferred under both Articles 25 and 26 are circumscribed in itself by ‘public order, morality and health’. Articles 25 refers to individual right. Articles 25 refers to collective right. Conflict between religious rights of individuals (Art. 25) and that of religious denominations are (Art. 26) surfaced in several cases, such as Sabarimala Case,[25]Entry of Muslim Women in Mosque Case,[26] Parsi Women’s Case,[27] Dawoodi Bohra Community case[28]etc.

Apart from the measures, ‘public order, morality and health’,our Courts have applied various general theories, doctrines and principles to solve the issues that arise from ‘interplay’ of these rights.  They include the following:

  • 1.  India is a secular and democratic country. It beholds and respect pluralistic cultures of various denominations.
  • 2.  If conflicts in various fundamental rights, they are to be solved by harmonisation of various Rights.
  • 3. The court and government must respect the faith and belief exercised in accordance with the tenets of the religion, irrespective of whether the practise is rational or logical.
  • 4. The court and government must respect essential religious practices and secular activities which are related to an ‘essential part of religion’.
  • 5. The ‘Morality’ to be applied by the Courts and government should be the Constitutional-Morality in a secular polity advantageous to a pluralistic society.

Law Which Takes Away Right of Administration is Unconstitutional

It has been held in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (1954)[29]  that a law which took away the right of administration from the religious denomination and vested it in any other secular authority[30] would be violative of the right under Article 26(d).

State Actions must be for the Benefit of the Trust

Taking over of the management of trusts by the State[31] cannot be for the purpose of burying the objects of the trust.[32] It can only be for promoting them.

The case, A. Poornachandrarao Vs. Government of AP,[33]  before the AP High Court, was arisen out of the management disputes between the trustees of ‘Tapovanam’. A departmental Executive Officer had been appointed under the AP Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1966 to manage the properties of the trust. The Endowment authorities proposed to hand over a portion of the building of the Tapovanam to the Government Ayurvedic College.

The High Court held that the Tapovanam being a charitable institution, the proposal to hand over the buildings of Tapovanam for the purpose of their being used by the Government Ayurvedic College, could not be sustained as that would amount to using the trust property for purposes other than those which were mentioned in the trust deed. The taking over of a charitable trust by the State would not enable the State to subvert the purposes of the founder of the trust. The bringing in of a charitable institution under the provisions of the aforesaid Act was not and could not be for the purpose of destroying the very object of the trust. It was held that taking over of the management of the trust by the State could not be for the purpose of burying the objects of the trust, it could only be for promoting them.

Competency of Legislature to Enact Law as to a Religious Institution

Bombay High Court, in Jamsheed Kanga Vs. Parsi Panchayat Funds and Property (2011),[34] while dealing with Towers of Silence, the last resting place of the Parsis, it is held that though the performance of religious service, according to the tenets of the faith is an integral part of religious faith and belief, the service of the Priest is a secular act; and that the administration of a religious institution or an endowment made for religious purposes is a secular activity. Hence, it has been held that the Legislature was competent to enact a law regulating the administration and governance of a religious or charitable institution or endowment.[35]

PART – VI

The Law Handed Down by the Supreme Court of India, on Article 25 and 26

The law handed down by the Supreme Court of India, on Article 25 and 26 in two important rulings are divergent in material parts. They are: the Commr. Hindu Religious Endowments Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (1954);[36] and Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali (1961)[37]. The difference can be summarised as under:

The law handed down by the Supreme Court in these two rulings are divergent, mainly, in three material parts. They are:

1. Whether protection is limited to practices that are ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion (as held in Durgah)?Do Article 25 and 26 that give right ‘to manage its own affairs in matters of religion’ and freedom to ‘practice of religion’ protect (all) ‘Acts Done in pursuance of a religion (as held in Shirur Mutt)?
2. When it is necessary to make a pronouncement as to what constitutes the essential part of a RELIGION, can it be scrutinised by the COURT so as to eschew what are sprung from merely superstitious beliefs’ or ‘unessential accretions to religion’ (as held in Durgah)? Is it to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.
If it is necessary to to make a pronouncement as to what RITES and CEREMONIES are essential to a DENOMINATION, is it to be left to be determined with reference to the decisions (and practices) of that denomination itself (as held in Shirur Mutt)?
3. Whether the Protection is limited to ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of RELIGION’ in a strict sense (as held in Durgah)?Whether it Extends to Religious practices of Denomination/Section, ‘Organization’, ‘Sect, Sub-sect‘, etc. (as held in Shirur Mutt)?
Whether freedom of religion is guaranteed to all practices, except that which run counter to public order, health and morality?
A Religion or any section thereof hold the fundamental right to ‘manage its own affairs’ (which no legislature can take away) and enjoy complete autonomy (so that no outside authority has any jurisdiction).

Service of the Priest in a Religious Institution is a Secular Part

Following the finding in Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali[38] that the protection under Article 26 as to ‘religious affairs’ and ‘religious purposes’ was limited to the performance of religious practices, and that too, which were essential and integral part of the religion concerned, it is observed in AS Narayana Deekshitulu   Vs. State of AP[39] that the service of the priest in a religious institution is a secular part.

‘SHIRUR MUTT CASE’ (BK Mukherjea, J)

The constitutional principles embraced in Article 26 of the Constitution of India are deeply explored and explained in the Seven-Judge-Bench Decision in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (1954),[40]  the trailblazing decision in this subject. This decision specifically dealt with the extent of freedom granted to the ‘religious denomination or section thereof’ under Article 26 of the Constitution of India.  It is observed that a religious denomination enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of their religion and that what constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.

Shirur Matt is one of the eight Maths founded by Shri Madhwacharya, the well-known exponent of dualistic theism in Hinduism.It is situated at Udipi in the district of South Kanara, Tamil Nadu.

The petitioner, the Mathadhipati of the Shirur Mutt, claimed in the Writ Petition filed before the High Court of Madras that the Madras Hindu Religion Endowments Act (Act II of 1927) interfered with his right to manage the religious affairs of the monastery(a spiritual community), and therefore violated Article 26(b) of the Constitution. While the petitions were pending, the Madras Hindu Religious and Charitable Endowments Act, 1951 was passed by the Madras Legislature. In view of the Earlier Act being replaced by the new one, leave was given to the petitioners to amend their petitions and challenge the validity of the new Act as well.

The Act practically made to vest administration of religious and charitable institutions in a department of the Government, the head of which was the Commissioner. The Act gave vast powers to the Commissioner. They included the power to enter the places of worship and to deal with the surplus funds and to call upon the trustee to appoint a manager for the administration of the secular affairs of the institution and in default, to make the appointment by himself. Provisions were also made to take over the administration of the religious institutions. The Act empowered the statutory Commissioner also to frame a scheme if there had been reason to believe that the religious institution was mismanaging funds. Section 76 of the Act directed all religious institutions to pay annually to the Government 5 per cent of their income on account of the services rendered to them by the Government. 

The High Court[41] held that the Matt was really an institution belonging to Sivalli Brahmins, who were a section of the followers of Madhwacharya and hence constituted a religious denomination within the meaning of article 26 of the Constitution. The High Court further held as under:

  • “Every religious sect therefore under the Article has the right to establish and to maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes and to manage its affairs in the matter of religion. It is also permissible for such a sect to own and acquire movable and immovable property and to administer such property in accordance with law.”
  • “The notification seriously interferes with their right to manage the affairs in matters of religion to own and acquire movable and immoveable property, and even to administer such property in accordance with law. A law which substantially deprives the religious denomination of its right to administer the property of the denomination leaving only a scintilla of the right in the denomination cannot be justified and upheld as an exercise of the power to regulate the administration of the institution. Nor is it reasonable restriction within the meaning of the Article 19(5) of the Constitution.”

Several provisions of the Act were held to be invalid by the High Court on grounds of their being in conflict with the fundamental rights guaranteed under articles 19(1) (f), 25, 26 and 27.

The Commissioner has filed appeal before the Supreme Court on the strength of the certificate granted by the High Court under Article 132(1) of the Constitution. Seven judge Bench of our Apex Court considered in this case.

In Shirur Mutt case it was held that Section 76 which provided for the payment of annual contribution amounted to a ‘tax’ and so it was beyond the legislative competence of the Madras State Legislature. The Apex Court declared several Sections of the HR&CE unconstitutional.

Rights Declared in Shirur Matt Case – in Nutshell

Justice BK Mukherjea, writing for the Seven-Judge Bench, held the following, in a nutshell:

  1. Spiritual community represented by the math falls under Art. 26(b) which contemplates ‘religious denomination’ or ‘a section thereof’.
  2. Right to manage the affairs of religion is a fundamental right under Art. 26. It cannot be taken away by legislature.
  3. Under Article 26(d), it is the fundamental right of a religious denomination or its representative to acquire and administer properties ‘in accordance with law’.
  4. Freedom of religion in our Constitution is not confined to religious beliefs only; it extends to religious practices as well (subject to such restrictions which the Constitution itself has laid down). This is made clear by the use of the expression “practice of religion” in Article 25.
  5. Under Article 26(b), a religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy in deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.
  6. What constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.
  7. The right and guarantee given to administer property being ‘in accordance with law’, the law ‘must leave the right of administration (of property) to the religious denomination itself’ subject to such restrictions and regulations imposed by laws by legislature.
  8. A law which takes away the right of administration from the hands of a religious denomination and vests it in any other authority would amount to a violation of the right guaranteed under clause (d) of Article 26.

SHIRUR MUTT Case: Findings

(i) SECTS and SECTIONS : Art. 26(b) contemplated Religious Denomination – i.e. sects or subsects. Because, Sec. 26 included not merely a religious denomination but also “a section thereof”.

It was observed as under:

  • “A Mahant’s duty is not simply to manage the temporalities of a Math. He is the head and superior of spiritual fraternity and the purpose of Math is to encourage and foster spiritual training by maintenance of a competent line of teachers who could impart religious instructions to the disciples and followers of the Math and try to strengthen the doctrines of the particular school or order, of which they profess to be adherents.”
  • “As regards Art. 26, the first question is, what is the precise meaning or connotation of the expression ‘religious denomination’ and whether a Math could come within this expression. The word ‘denomination’ has been defined in the Oxford Dictionary to mean ‘a collection of individuals classed together under the same name: a religious sect or body having a common faith and organization and designated by a distinctive name’.
  • It is well known that the practice of setting up Maths as centres of theological teaching was started by Shri Sankaracharya and was followed by various teachers since then. After Sankara, came a galaxy of religious teachers and philosophers who founded the different sects and sub-sects of the Hindu religion that we find in India as at present. Each one of such sects or sub-sects can certainly be called a religious denomination, as it is designated by a distinctive name– in many cases it is the name of the founder- and has a common faith and common spiritual organisation. The followers of Ramanuja, who are known by the name of Shri Vaishnavas, undoubtedly constitute a religious denomination’ and so do the followers of Madhwacharya and other religious teacher. It is a fact well established by tradition that the Udipi Maths were founded by Madhwacharya himself and the trustees and the beneficiaries of these Maths profess to be followers of that teacher. The High Court has found that the Math in question is in charge of the Sivalli Brahmins who constitute a section of the follower of Madhwacharya. As Art. 26 contemplates not merely a religious denomination but also a section thereof, the Math or the spiritual fraternity represented by it can legitimately come within the purview of this Article.”

This proposition is considered in following cases:

  • Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala (2018):[42]
  • Subramanian Swamy Vs. State of Tamil Nadu (2015);[43]
  • Bramchari Sidheswar Shai Vs. State of WB (1995);[44]
  • SP Mittal Vs. Union of India (1983).[45]

(ii) MANAGEMENT: Art. 26(b) – Right of Religious Denominations to manage its own affairs in matters of religion is placed on a different footing from administration of properties. No Legislature can take away this right. But, State can Regulate Administration of Properties by Laws.[46]

  • “It will be seen that besides the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, which is given by clause (b), the next two clauses of Article 26 guarantee to a religious denomination the right to acquire and own property and to administer such property in accordance with law. The administration of its property by a religious denomination has thus been placed on a different footing from the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. The latter is a fundamental right which no legislature can take away, whereas the former can be regulated by laws which the legislature can validly impose. It is clear, therefore, that questions merely relating to administration of properties belonging to a religious group or institution are not matters of religion to which clause (b) of the article applies.” 

This proposition is considered in following cases:

  • Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala (2018);[47]
  • KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Church (2017);[48]
  • Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam Vs. Govt of TN (2016);[49]
  • SP Mittal Vs. Union of India (1983);[50]
  • State of Rajasthan Vs. Sajjanlal Panjawat (1975);[51]
  • Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji MaharajVs. St. of Rajasthan (1963).[52]
  • Sardar Sarup Singh Vs. State of Punjab (1959).[53]

(iii) PRACTICE: A religion may not only lay down a code of ethical rules for its followers to accept, it might prescribe rituals and observances. Our Constitution protects practice of religion in article 25.

  • “A religion may not only lay down a code of ethical rules for its followers to accept, it might prescribe rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are regarded as integral parts of religion, and these forms and observances might extend even to matters of food and dress.
  • “The guarantee under our Constitution not only protects the freedom of religious opinion but it protects also acts done in pursuance of a religion and this is made clear by the use of the expression “practice of religion” in article 25. Latham C. J. of the High Court of Australia while dealing with the provision of section 116 of the Australian Constitution which inter alia forbids the Commonwealth to prohibit the “free exercise of any religion” made the following weighty observations:
  • “It is sometimes suggested in discussions on the subject of freedom of religion that, though the civil Government should not interfere with religious opinion, it nevertheless may deal as it pleases with any acts which are done in pursuance of religious belief without infringing the principle of freedom of religion. It appears to me to be difficult to maintain this distinction as relevant to the interpretation of section 116. The section refers in express terms to the exercise of religion, and therefore it is intended to protect from the operation of any Commonwealth laws acts which are done in the exercise of religion. Thus the section goes far beyond protecting liberty of opinion. It protects also acts done in pursuance of religious belief as part of religion.”
  • These observations apply fully to the protection of religion as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution.” 

This proposition is considered in following cases:

  • M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) (2020);[54]
  • Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala (2018).[55]
  • S P Mittal Vs. Union of India (1983)[56]
  • Sardar Syedna Tahar Saheb Vs. The St. of Bombay (1962);[57]

(iv) RESTRICTIONS – PRINCIPLES

(a) Restrictions by the State upon free exercise of religion are permitted both under articles 25 and 26 on grounds of public order, morality and health.

(b) Under Article 25(2)(a) State can regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political and other secular activities. TheOTHER secular activities’ does not affect ESSENTIAL religious practice or activities.

(c) What constitutes the essential part is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.

  • “These observations apply fully to the protection of religion as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. Restrictions by the State upon free exercise of religion are permitted both under articles 25 and 26 on grounds of public order, morality and health.
  • Clause (2)(a) of article 25 reserves the right of the State to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political and other secular activities which may be associated with religious practice and there is a further right given to the State by sub-clause (b) under which the State can legislate for social welfare and reform even though by so doing it might interfere with religious practices. The learned Attorney-General lays stress upon clause (2)(a) of the article and his contention is that all secular activities, which may be associated with religion but do not really constitute an essential part of it, are amenable to State regulation.
  • The contention formulated in such broad terms cannot, we think, be supported. In the first place, what constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.

This propositions are considered in following cases:

  • M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) (2020);[58]
  • Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala (2018).[59]
  • Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (2017)[60]
  • N Adithayan v. Travancore Devaswom Board (2002).[61]
  • Adi Visheshwara,Kashi Vishwanath Temple Vs. State of UP (1997).[62]
  • AS Narayana Deekshitulu Vs.State of AP (1996).[63]
  • Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta Vs. Commrof Police (1984)[64]
  • Shri Venkataramana DevaruVs. State of Mysore (1958)[65]

(v) REGULATIONS: What article 25(2)(a) contemplates is not regulation, by the State, of religious practices as such; but, only economic, commercial or political.

  • If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or ablations to the sacred fire, all these would be regarded as parts of religion and the mere fact that they involve expenditure of money or employment of priests and servants or the use of marketable commodities would not make them secular activities partaking of a commercial or economic character; all of them are religious  practices and should be regarded as matters of religion within the meaning of article 26(b). What article 25(2)(a) contemplates is not regulation by the State of religious practices as such, the freedom of which is guaranteed by the Constitution except when they run counter to public order, health and morality, but regulation of activities which are economic, commercial or political in their character though they are associated with religious practices.”

This proposition is considered in following cases:

  • M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) (2020);[66]
  • Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala (2018).[67]
  • Shayara Bano Vs. Union of India (2017)[68]
  • Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta Vs. Commrof Police (1984)[69]
  • Shri Venkataramana DevaruVs. State of Mysore (1958)[70]

(vi) Freedom in our Constitution is not confined to religious beliefs only; it extends to religious practices as well.

  • “Our Constitution-makers, however, have embodied the limitations which have been evolved by judicial pronouncements in America or Australia in the Constitution itself and the language of articles 25 and 26 is sufficiently clear to enable us to determine without the aid of foreign authorities as to what matters come within the purview of religion and what do not. As we have already indicated, freedom of religion in our Constitution is not confined to religious beliefs only; it extends to religious practices as well subject to the restrictions which the Constitution itself has laid down.”

This proposition is considered in following cases:

  • Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala (2018);[71]
  • S P Mittal Vs. Union of India (1983)[72]
  • Sardar Syedna Tahar Saheb Vs. The St. of Bombay (1962);[73]
  • Sardar Sarup Singh Vs. State of Punjab (1959).[74]
  • Mahant Moti Das Mahant Shia Ram Das Vs. S P Sahi (1959)[75]

(vii) RELIGIOUS PRACTICES: Religious Denomination has Autonomy in Deciding Rites and Ceremonies; no outside authority has any jurisdiction.

  • “Under article 26(b), therefore, a religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters. Of course, the scale of expenses to be incurred in connection with these religious observances would be a matter of administration of property belonging to the religious denomination and can be controlled by secular authorities in accordance with any law laid down by a competent legislature; for it could not be the injunction, of any religion to destroy the institution and its endowments by incurring wasteful expenditure on rites and ceremonies. It should be noticed, however, that under article 26(d), it is the fundamental right of a religious denomination or its representative to administer its properties in accordance with law; and the law, therefore, must leave the right of administration to the religious denomination itself subject to such restrictions and regulations as it might choose to impose. A law which takes away the right of administration from the hands of a religious denomination altogether and vests it in any other authority would amount to a violation of the right guaranteed under clause (d) of article 26. Having thus disposed of the general contentions that were raised in this appeal, we will proceed now to examine the specific grounds that have been urged by the parties before us in regard to the decision of the High Court so far as it declared several sections of the new Act to be ultra vires the Constitution by reason of their conflicting with the fundamental rights of the respondent. 

The proposition as to complete autonomy to religious denomination or organization in the matter of deciding rites etc. is considered in following cases:

  • M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) (2019);[76]
  • Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala (2018);[77]
  • KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Church (2017);[78]
  • Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal NalaSangam Vs.Govt of TN (2016);[79]
  • Subramanian SwamyVs. State of Tamil Nadu (2015);[80]
  • A. Ramaswamy Dikshitulu Vs. Govt. of AP (2004);[81]
  • Sardar Syedna Tahar Saheb Vs. The St. of Bombay (1962);[82]
  • Sardar Sarup Singh Vs. State of Punjab (1959).[83]

The proposition – Law cannot vest administration of properties in another authority- is considered in following cases:

  • Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala (2018);[84]
  • KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian  Church (2017);[85]
  • SP Mittal Vs. Union of India (1983);[86]
  • Digyadarsan Rajendra Ramdassjivaru Vs. State of AP (1970).[87]

The proposition that the law must leave the right of administration (of property) to the religious denomination itself is considered in following cases:

  • Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala (2018);[88]
  • KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Church (2017).[89]
  • Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam Vs.Govt of TN; (2016)[90]
  • Pannalal Bansilal Patil  Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (1996);[91]
  • Kanyaka Parameswari Anna Satram Vs. Commr HR & CE (1962)[92]
  • SP Mittal Vs. Union of India (1983);[93]
  • Digyadarsan Rajendra Ramdassjivaru Vs.State of AP (1970).[94]

DURGAH COMMITTEE Case, 1961 (Gajendragadkar, J.)

The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held (Gajendragadkar, J.) in Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali (1961)[95]that the protection guaranteed under Art. 26 was confined to “essential religious practices” and not to any other “secular matter”.

This case arose upon the challenge on the Durgah Khwaja Saheb Act, 1955. A writ petition was filed before the High Court of Rajasthan under Art. 226 of the Constitution. The Act provided for the constitution of a Committee to manage a Muslim Durgah – the tomb of Khwaja Moinud-din Chishti of Ajmer. The Petitioners (Respondents in the Supreme Court) contended that the Act barred them from managing the Durgah and receiving offerings from pilgrims, and hence infringed upon their rights under Article 26. 

Challenges were made on two grounds. Firstly, that certain provisions of the impugned Act were inconsistent with Article 26(b), (c) and (d) of the Constitution. Secondly, certain other provisions were ultra vires Article 19(1)(f) and (g). The petitioners substantially succeeded in the High Court it being made a declaration that the impugned provisions of the Act were ultra vires.

In appeal the Supreme Court found that the right to administer the property never vested in the respondents; but, the administration had been made through the Mutawallis who were appointed from time to time by the State. The Supreme Court made two significant observations.

First:

  • “Whilst we are dealing with this point it may not be out of place incidentally to strike a note of caution and observe that in order that the practices in question should be treated as a part of religion they must be regarded by the said religion as its essential and integral part; otherwise even purely secular practices which are not an essential or an integral part of religion are apt to be clothed with a religious form and may make a claim for being treated as religious practices within the meaning of Art. 26.”

Second:

  • Similarly even practices though religious may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself.  Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a religion their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinized; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”

In the first part importance is given to the ‘the practices treated as a part of RELIGION. In the second part importance is given to the scrutiny of the COURT as to ‘the essential and integral religious practices’.

The principle on ‘practices‘ ‘regarded by the said religion as its essential and integral part’ is considered in: 

  • M Siddiq Vs. Mahanth Suresh Das (Ayodhya Case) (2020);[96]
  • Commr. of Police Vs. AcharyaJ agadishwar Avadhuta (2004).[97]
  • Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala (2018).[98]
  • Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. State of Bombay[99](1962)
  • Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji MaharajVs. St. of Rajasthan (1963).[100]
  • Shri Venkataramana Devaru Vs. State of Mysore[101]

‘For the protection under Art. 26, the court may have to carefully scrutinize’ what constitutes an ‘essential and integral part of a religious practice’ and no other is considered in:

  • Commr. of Police Vs. Acharya Jagadishwar Avadhuta(2004)[102]
  • Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala (2018).[103]
  • Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam Vs. Govt. of TN (2016):[104]
  • N Adithayan v. TravancoreDevaswom Board (2002).[105]
  • Adi Visheshwara, Kashi Vishwanath Temple Vs. State of UP (1997).[106]
  • Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs.State of Bombay[107](1962)
  • Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan (1963).[108]
  • AS Narayana Deekshitulu Vs. State of AP (1996).[109]

PART – VII

CONFLICT between SHIRUR MUTT CASE and DURGAH CASE

It is held in Dargah Committee case (Justice Gajendragadkar) as under:

  • “Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION, their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised. In other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it (RELIGION) and no other.
  • “If these practises were found to be purely secular practices or mere practices sprung from ‘superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and UNESSENTIAL accretions to RELIGION the State was free to enact laws on such matters.

As noted above, the observation as to “…practices though religious may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself” is criticised by Seervai in his treatise ‘Constitutional Law of India’ and observed that it was only an obiter.[110]

The Crux of Sabarimala-Review-matter

In the Sabarimala reference (to higher Bench) Judgment [on review petition in Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala: 2018][111] it is observed that there is conflict between the Shirur Mutt Case and Durgah Committee Case as to the following:

  1. Whether the determination on essential religious practices was a matter left to the denomination?
  2. Whether the court has jurisdiction to determine it applying its own conscience?

The scope or extent of judicial review on ‘religious practice’ is the Crux of the review-matteer.

  • In the Review Judgment it is shown-
    • Shirur Mutt case [1954 SCR 1005: AIR 1954 SC 282 – Seven judges] held that the essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself.
    • But Durgah Committee [1962-1 SCR 383: AIR 1961 SC 1402 – Five judges] carved out a role for the court in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs.
  • Another difference is also seen. It is, as to the extent-of-protection of religious practices given under these decisions.
    • The Shirur Mutt case had stated that the extent of protection of essential religious practices extends to essential ‘religious practices’
    • But, the Durgah Committee decision said that the protection must be confined to such ‘religious’ practices as ‘are essential and integral part’ of the ‘RELIGION (rather than a sect or faction).

In the Review Judgment, Kantaru Rajeevaru v. Indian Young Lawyers’ Association, the court said as under:

  • “7. In this context, the decision of the Seven Judges bench of this Court in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt) holding that what are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the DENOMINATION ITSELF and the subsequent view of a Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors. carving out a ROLE FOR THE COURT in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs seem to be in apparent conflict requiring consideration by a larger Bench.”

Shirur Mutt & Durgah Committee Cases

The law handed down by the Supreme Court in these two rulings are divergent in certain material particulars.

They are:

  1. Whether ‘religious Denomination or any section thereofextends to religious ‘Organization’, ‘Sect, Sub-sect’, etc.? (Shirur)
    • Or, whether protections in Article 25 and 26 are limited to practices that are essential and integral part of RELIGION and, no other? (Durgah)
  2. Who determines – what constitutes the essential part of a religion? Is it left to be determined by the Denomination or Section; and whether a religion or any section thereof holds the fundamental right to manage its own affairs‘ (which no legislature can take away) and enjoys complete autonomy (so that no outside authority has any jurisdiction); and whether it is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself? (Shirur)
    • Is it by the COURT, and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters? (Durgah)
  3. Whether the freedom to ‘practice religion’, protect ‘(all) acts done in pursuance of a religion; and whether freedom of religion is guaranteed to all religious practices, except that which run counter to public order, health and morality. (Shirur)
    • Or, whether protections in Article 25 and 26 are limited to practices that are ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of RELIGION and, no other? (Durgah)

The findings of the Apex Court, in these cases, on Article 25 and 26, are as follows:

Durgah Committee (1961) Five Judge Bench. (Author: Gajendragadkar, J.)Shirur Mutt (1954) Seven Judge Bench. (Author: BK Mukherjea, J.)
1. The rights protected are limited to practices of ‘RELIGION in a strict sense.
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised. In other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it (RELIGION) and no other.
“If these practises were found to be purely secular practices or mere practices sprung from ‘superstitious beliefs and may in that sense is extraneous and UNESSENTIAL accretions to RELIGION the State was free to enact laws on such matters.


Extends to religious DENOMINATION or a SECTION THEREOF, and includes ‘Organization‘, ‘Sects, Sub-sects‘, etc.
“After Sankara, … religious teachers … founded the different sects and sub-sects …. Each one of such sects or sub-sects can certainly be called a religious denomination …”  
“The word ‘’denomination’ … mean … a religious sect or body ….” 
“If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food … be regarded as parts of religion.
“A religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy …”
“There could be other affairs of .. denomination or a section thereof .. not matters of religion … guarantee given ….”
[In Sardar Syedna Taher Saiffuddin Saheb Vs. State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, “Community” is considered.]
2. COURT determines
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION
their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised;
in other words,
the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”
(That is, court determines and ‘carefully scrutinises’. That is, there is scope for the court to apply its own conscience.)
Note: This proposition is not followed in
(i) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan, 1963AIR SC 1638, authored by Gajendragadkar, J himself;
(ii) Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, Authored by BP Sinha.
It is found in this decision: “What are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself” (So observed in Sabarimala Reference decision).
What rites and ceremonies are essential –No outside authority has any jurisdiction.
“What constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself.”
“A religious denomination or organization enjoys COMPLETE AUTONOMY in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”
“The ‘right to manage its own affairs in matters’ of religion “is a fundamental right which no legislature can take away“.
3. The rights protected are limited to such RELIGIOUS PRACTICES as are ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of religion and no other.
“Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other.”

Note: This proposition is not followed in
(i) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan, 1963 AIR SC 1638 [Held: The Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion];

(ii) Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853 [Held: Include practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion].
The rights protected are extended to (ALL) ACTS DONE IN PURSUANCE OF A RELIGION.
“Our Constitution not only protects the freedom of religious opinion but it protects also acts done in pursuance of a religion and this is made clear by the use of the expressionpractice of religion‘.
“The contention in broad terms that all secular activities (which may be associated with religion) which do not really constitute an essential part of it, are amenable to State regulation cannot be supported.”
“If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or ablations to the sacred fire, all these would be regarded as parts of religion and the mere fact that they involve expenditure of money or employment of priests and servants or the use of marketable commodities would not make them secular activities partaking of a commercial or economic character; all of them are religious  practices and should be regarded as matters of religion within the meaning of article 26(b).”
4. Not refer to public order, health and morality
Unless such practices are found to constitute an ESSENTIAL and INTEGRAL part of a RELIGION their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised.”

(That is,
emphasis is given to
(i) ESSENTIAL and integral part of a RELIGION
and
(ii) assig
ns serious ROLE FOR THE COURT.)
Extends to (ALL) PRACTICES except when they do not run counter to public order, health and morality
“What article 25(2)(a) contemplates is not regulation by the State of religious practices as such, the freedom of which is guaranteed by the Constitution except when they run counter to public order, health and morality, but regulation of activities which are economic, commercial or political in their character though they are associated with religious practices.” 
“There could be other affairs of a religious denomination or a section thereof which are not matters of religion and to which the guarantee given by this clause would not apply.”

Did Gajendragadkar J. himself Changed his Views in Tilkayat

Justice Gajendragadkar himself (who authored Dargah Committee Case) explained, in a subsequent decision, as to enquiry on integral part of religion in the Constitution Bench decision, in Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan (1963)[112] as under:

  • “In cases where conflicting evidence is produced in respect of rival contentions as to competing religious practices the Court may not be able to resolve the dispute by a blind application of the formula that the community decides which practice is an integral part of its religion, because the community may speak with more than one voice and the formula would, therefore, break down. This question will always have to be decided by the Court and in doing so, the Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion, and the finding of the Court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the conscience of the community and the tenets of its religion.”

Practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY or DENOMINATION

In Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay, AIR 1962 SC 853, it was observed (Sinha, C. J. dissenting) that ‘what constitutes an essential part of a religious or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as a part of its religion’. In Sri Venkataramana Devaru Vs. The State of Mysore (1958),[113] (Venkatarama Aiyar, J.) observed that it was settled that matters of religion in Art. 26(b) include even practices which are regarded by the COMMUNITY as part of its religion. In Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam Vs. Govt. of TN (2016)[114] the Apex Court (Ranjan Gogoi & NV Ramana JJ) referred to the same as the ‘religious practice’ of a GROUP or DENOMINATION.

PART – VIII

Principles Further Developed Following ‘Shirur Mutt Case’ and ‘Durgah Committee Case’

Following are some of the important cases that followed ‘Shirur Mutt Case’ and discuss rights of the State or other statutory body to interfere in the administration of trusts or institutions.

(i) Ratilal Panchand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay (1954).[115]

State can regulate administration of trust properties by laws

Both, Shirur Mutt Case and this case, are authored by BK Mukherjea, J., two days apart.  The constitutional validity (qua Articles 25 and 26) of some provisions of Bombay Public Trust Act, 1950 was considered by the Constitution Bench (5) of our Apex Court in this case. Challenges against certain provisions were upheld, and some were overruled.  In this decision it is held that the right of management given to a religious body can be regulated by law. It is observed: 

  • “The language of the two Clauses (b) and (d) of Article 26 would at once bring out the difference between the two. In regard to affairs in matters of religion, the right of management given to a religious body is a guaranteed fundamental right which no legislation can take away. On the other hand, as regards administration of property which a religious denomination is entitled to own and acquire, it has undoubtedly the right to administer such properly but only in accordance with law. This means that the State can regulate the administration of trust properties by means of laws validly enacted.”

The Supreme Court repeated the observation in Shirur Mutt case that a law which takes away the right of administration altogether[116] from the religious denomination and vests it in any other authority can be taken to be violative of the right under Article 26(d). While emphasizing what is the protected part under Article 26, the court pointed out the following:

  • “Religious practices or performances of acts in pursuance of religious belief are as much a part of religion as faith or belief in particular doctrines. Thus if the tenets of the Jain or the Parsi religion lay down that certain rites and ceremonies are to be performed at certain times and in a particular manner, it cannot that said that these are secular activities partaking of commercial or economic character simply because they involve expenditure of money or employment of priests or the use of marketable commodities. No outside authority has any right to say that these are not essential parts of religion and it is not open to the secular authority of the State to restrict or prohibit them in any manner they like under the guise of administering the trust estate. Of course, the scale of expenses to be incurred in connection with these religious observances may be and is a matter of administration of property belonging to religious institutions; and if the expenses on these heads are likely to deplete the endowed properties or affect the stability of the institution, proper control can certainly be exercised by State agencies as the law provides. We may refer in this connection to the observation of Davar, J. in the case of Jamshedji v. Soonabai, and although they were made in a case where the question was whether the bequest of property by a Parsi testator for the purpose of perpetual celebration of ceremonies like Muktad Baj, Vyezashni, etc., which are sanctioned by the Zoroastrian religion were valid charitable gifts, the observations, we think, are quite appropriate for our present purpose.”
  • ‘If this is the belief of the community’ thus observed the learned Judge, ‘and it is proved undoubtedly to be the belief of the Zoroastrian community, – a secular Judge is bound to accept that belief it is not for him to sit in judgment on that belief, he has no right to interfere with the conscience of a donor who makes a gift in favour of what he believes to be the advancement of his religion and the welfare of his community or mankind.’ These observations do, in our opinion, afford an indication of the measure of protection that is given by Article 26(b) of our Constitution.”

(ii) Sardar Syedna Taher Saifuddin Saheb Vs. The State of Bombay (1962 – B P Sinha, CJ., A.K Sarkar, Das Gupta, N. Rajagopala Ayyangar, Mudholkar, J.J.) [117] This decision is stand referred to a larger bench in Central Board of Dawoodi Bohra Community vState of Maharashtra (2005) 2 SCC 673.

  • Note: Sarkar, Das Gupta , Rajagopala Ayyangar were also judges in Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali.

The Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949 was challenged in Sardar Syedna Taher Saiffuddin Saheb Vs. State of Bombay. This Act made act of “ex-communication” illegal under Sec. 3, which reads as under:

  • “3. Notwithstanding anything contained in any law, custom or usage for the time being in force to the contrary, no excommunication of a member of any community shall be valid and shall be of any effect.”

Sec. 4 made excommunication, a punishable offence. The Act was challenged by the head of the Dawoodi Bohras, as:

  • being impinging upon the right of the Dawoodi Bohras to freely practice their religion according to their own faith and practice, a right guaranteed under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution.
  • It was contended that the right of the head of the Dawoodi Bohra community to ex-communicate is an essential part of the creed of the Dawoodi Bohra sect as it is a necessary measure of discipline for maintenance of integrity of the community, to hold together the community, so that the community faith, belief and practice can be preserved and hence protected by Article 26(b).

The Supreme Court, by majority (4 : 1), accepted the argument and struck down the Act as violative of Article 26(b) of the Constitution.  It is pointed out in this decision as under:

  • “The content of Arts. 25 and 26 of the Constitution came up for consideration before this Court in:
    • The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Matt[118];
    • Mahant Jagannath Ramanuj Das Vs. The State of Orissa;
    • Sri Venkatamana Devaru Vs. The State of Mysore[119];
    • Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali[120] and several other cases
  • and the main principles underlying these provisions have by these decisions been placed beyond controversy.
    • The first is that the protection of these articles is not limited to matters of doctrine or belief, they extend also to acts done in pursuance of religion and therefore contain a guarantee for rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are integral parts of religion.
    • The second is that what constitutes an essential part of a religious or religious practice has to be decided by the courts with reference to the doctrine of a particular religion and include practices which are regarded by the community as a part of its religion.” (This part is referred to in Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001)

It is also held as under:

  • “It is clear however that apart from these limitations the Constitution has not imposed any limit on the right of a religious community to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. The fact that civil rights of a person are affected by the exercise of this fundamental right under Art. 26(b) is therefore of no consequence. Nor is it possible to say that excommunication is prejudicial to public order, morality and health.”

In this decision the Constitution Bench of our Apex Court:

  • observed that the exercise of the power of ex-communication by the religious head on religious ground form part of the management of its affairs in matters of religion and
  • held that it was difficult to agree that court was not a forum for vindication of such right.

(iii) Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan (1963)[121]

In Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji MaharajVs. St. of Rajasthanthe Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (Gajendragadkar J) considered the constitutional validity of the Rajasthan Nathdhwara Temple Act, 1959. It was pointed out that Article 26(b) related to affairs in matters of religion such as the performance of the religious rites or ceremonies, or the observance of religious festivals and the like; and that it did not refer to the administration of the property at all. It was found that Article 26(d) conferred competence to the legislature to make a law in regard to the administration of the property belonging to the denomination. The only safeguard pointed out by the Supreme Court was that the religious denomination’s right must not be extinguished or altogether destroyed. Justice Gajendragadkar who delivered the judgment observed as under:

  • “It would thus be clear that religious practice to which Art. 25(1) refers and affairs in matters of religion to which Art. 26(b) refers, include practices which are an integral part of the religion itself and the protection guaranteed by Art. 25(1) and Art. 26(b) extends to such practices.”
  • “In deciding the question as to whether a given religious practice is an integral part of the religion or not, the test always would be whether it is regarded as such by the community following the religion or not. This formula may in some cases present difficulties in its operation. Take the case of a practice in relation to food or dress. If in a given proceeding, one section of the community claims that while performing certain rites white dress is an integral part of the religion itself, whereas another section contends that yellow dress and not the white dress is the essential part of the religion, how is the Court going to decide the question? Similar disputes may arise in regard to food. In cases where conflicting evidence is produced in respect of rival contentions as to competing religious practices the Court may not be able to resolve the dispute by a blind application of the formula that the community decides which practice is an integral part of its religion, because the community may speak with more than one voice and the formula would, therefore, break down. This question will always have to be decided by the Court and in doing so, the Court may have to enquire whether the practice in question is religious in character and if it is, whether it can be regarded as an integral or essential part of the religion, and the finding of the Court on such an issue will always depend upon the evidence adduced before it as to the conscience of the community and the tenets of its religion.”

(iv) SP Mittal Vs. Union of India  (1983)[122]

In SP Mittal Vs. Union of India the Constitution Bench of our Apex Court had to consider whether Auroville (Emergency Provisions) Act was violative of Article 26 of the Constitution. The majority ((Y.V. Chandrachud (CJ), P.N. Bhagwati, V. Balakrishna Eradi, R.B. Misra, JJ.) as wall as the minority (O. Chinnappa Reddy, J.) held that the Act was not violative of Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution specifically pointing out that the questions arise for consideration were merely relating to administration of properties. The majority observed (referring Shirur Mutt) as under:

  • “The words ‘religious denomination’ in Article 26 of the Constitution must take their colour from the word ‘religion’and if this be so, the expression  ‘religious denomination‘ must also satisfy three conditions:
    • (1) It must be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs or doctrines which they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being, that is, a common faith;
    • (2) common organization; and
    • (3) designation by a distinctive name.”

However, the Majority did not go to the question whether Arobindo society or Auroville was a ‘religious denomination’. It stated as under:

  • “We have also pointed out that the administration of the property of a religious denomination is different from the right of the religious denomination to manage its own affairs in matters of religion and that laws may be made which regulate the right to administer the property of a religious denomination. Questions merely relating to administration of properties belonging to a religious group or institution are not matters of religion to which clause (b) of Art. 26 applies.” 

Then Misra, J. proceeded stating as under:

  • “Even assuming but not holding that the Society or the Auroville were a religious denomination, the impugned enactment is not hit by Article 25 or 26 of the Constitution.”

Chinnappa Reddy, J. (minority) held as under:

  • “Definitions (given by Court) are not statutory definitions; they are mere explanations, every word of which is not to be weighed in golden scales. … Judicial definition is explanatory and not definitive.”
  • “… What is religion to some is pure dogma to others and what is religion to others is pure superstition to some others… But my views about religion, my prejudices and my predilections, if they be such, are entirely irrelevant. So are the views of the credulous, the fanatic, the bigot and the zealot. So also the views of the faithful, the devout, the acharya, the moulvi, the padre and the bhikhshu each of whom may claim his as the only true or revealed religion. For our purpose, we are concerned with what the people of the Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic of India, who have given each of its citizens freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion and who have given every religious denomination the right to freely manage its religious affairs, mean by the expressions religion and religious denomination. We are concerned with what these expressions are designed to mean in Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution. Any freedom or right involving the conscience must naturally receive a wide interpretation and the expression religion and religious denomination must therefore, be interpreted in no narrow, stifling sense but in a liberal, expansive way.”
  • “If the word ‘religion’ is once explained, though with some difficulty, the expression religious denomination may be defined with less difficulty. As we mentioned earlier Mukherjea, J., borrowed the meaning of the word denomination from the Oxford Dictionary and adopted it to define religious denomination as a collection of individuals classed together under the same name, a religious sect or body having a common faith and organisation and designated by a distinctive name.
    • The followers of Ramanuja,
    • the followers of Madhwacharya,
    • the followers of Vallabha,
    • the Chistia Soofies
  • have been found or assumed by the Court to be religious denominations. It will be noticed that these sects possess no distinctive names except that of their founder-teacher and had no special organisation except a vague, loose – unknit one. The really distinctive feature about each one of these sects was a shared belief in the tenets taught by the teacher-founder. We take care to mention here that whatever the ordinary features of a religious denomination may be considered to be, all are not of equal importance and surely the common faith of the religious body is more important than the other features. … Religious denomination has not to owe allegiance to any parent religion. The entire following of a religion may be no more than the religious denomination. This may particularly be so in the case of small religious groups or ‘developing’ religions, that is, religions in the formative stage. So Aurobindoism can be termed as a religious denomination.”

Whether the judgment of Chinnappa Reddy, J. – ‘minority’ or ‘concurring’

As shown above, majority (Misra J.) did not make a definite finding on the point whether the Arabindo Society or the Auroville had acquired the character of a ‘ religious denomination’. But, a definite finding was recorded by Chinnappa Reddy, J. – that the Arabindo Society or the Auroville had acquired the character of a ‘ religious denomination’.

Indu Malhotra, J., in Sabarimala case, referred to the observations of Chinnappa Reddy, J. with the introduction that the judgment of Chinnappa Reddy is a ‘concurrent’ one.
But, Nariman, J. observed in Sabarimala case that the SP Mittal Judgment was a dissenting judgment.
It is interesting to note that Chinnappa Reddy, J. himself stated his judgment – “I have the good fortune of having before me the scholarly judgment of my brother Misra J., I agree with my brother Misra, J. that the Writ Petitions must fail. With much that he has said, also, I agree. But with a little, to my own lasting regret, I do not agree. It is, therefore, proper for me to explain the points of my disagreement.”

Even if the judgment of Chinnappa Reddy, J. is a ‘dissenting’ judgment, it has force of law, as, Nariman, J. observed, in Sabarimala case, as to the minority judgment in Saifuddin case as under:

  • “Though the learned Chief Justice’s judgment is a dissenting judgment, some of the principles laid down by the learned Chief Justice, not dissented from by the majority judgment, are apposite.”

(v) AS Narayana Deekshitulu Vs. State of AP (1996).[123](K Ramaswami, J.)

Appointment & Service of Priest is a Secular Matter.   

In AS Narayana Deekshitulu Vs. State of AP (1996)[124] (K Ramaswami and BL Hansaria JJ.)of the Supreme Court held that the appointment and service of a priest is a secular matter.

By virtue of some Sections of Andhra Pradesh Charitable and Hindu Religious Institutions and Endowments Act, 1987 the hereditary rights of archaka, mirasidars, gamekars and other office holders were abolished. The court considered whether hereditary archaka was an essential and integral part of Hindu religion and whether the abolition of hereditary right to appointment, under Section 34, was violative of Articles 25(1) or 26(b) of the Constitution.

It was observed:

  • “There is a distinction between religious service and the person who performs the service; performance of the religious service according to the tenets, Agamas, customs and usages prevalent in the temple etc. is an integral part of the religious faith and belief and to that extent the legislature cannot intervene to regulate it. But the service of the priest (archaka) is a secular part. As seen earlier, the right to perform religious service has appointment by the owner of the temple or king as its source. The legislature is competent to enact the law taking away the hereditary right to succeed to an office in the temple and equally to the office of the priest (archaka). The hereditary right as such is not integral part of the religious practice but a source to secure the services of a priest independent of it. Though performance of the ritual ceremonies is an integral part of the religion, the person who performs it or associates himself with performance of ritual ceremonies, is not. Therefore, when the hereditary right to perform service in the temple is terminable by an owner for bad conduct, its abolition by sovereign legislature is equally valid and legal. Regulation of his service conditions is sequenced to the abolition of hereditary right of succession to the office of an archaka. Though an archaka integrally associates himself with the performance of ceremonial rituals and daily pooja to the Deity, he is an holder of the office of priest (archaka) in the temple. So are the other office-holders or employees of the temple.”

The principle ‘Service of Priest is a Secular Part’ is reiterated in:

  • Adi Visheshwara of Kashi Vishwanath Temple, Varanasi Vs. State of UP (Rendered by K Ramaswami J. ) (1997).[125]
  • Bhuri Nath Sewa Committee Vs. State of Jammu And Kashmir (Rendered by K Ramaswami J. himself) (1997).[126]
  • KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church. (2017)[127]
  • Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai (2005)[128]

It has been noticed by our Apex Court (BP Singh & SB Sinha JJ) in Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai while considering the question whether unification of churches is a religious decision under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution over which the courts have no jurisdiction, that it was a well accepted principle that a body created by a statute must conform to the provisions of the regulating statute. It was observed that the FDCB was a religious Society registered under the Societies Registration Act and its property vested with a Trust regulated by the BPT Act. It was found that as per the BPTA a public trust might also be a Society under the Societies Registration Act. It was held that the procedure for dissolution had not been conformed to the requirements set out in Section 13 of the SR Act and the procedure as laid down in the BPT Act.

(vi) Commissioner of Police v. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta,   (2004) 12 SCC 770. It is the second Ananda Margi case. In the first Ananda Margi case (Acharya Jagdishwaranand Avadhuta v. Commr. of Police, (1983) 4 SCC 522), the Supreme Court held that the Tandava dance in public (with knife, live snake, trident, skull, etc.) was not an essential rite of the Ananda Margi faith. In this second Ananda Margi case the Majority view is rendered by S. Rajendra Babu, J. on behalf of G. P. Mathur, J. also. It was observed as under:

  • 9. The protection guaranteed under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution is not confined to matters of doctrine or belief but extends to acts done in pursuance of religion and, therefore, contains a guarantee for rituals, observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are essential or integral part of religion. What constitutes an integral or essential part of religion has to be determined with reference to its doctrines, practices, tenets, historical background, etc. of the given religion. What is meant by “an essential part or practices of a religion” is now the matter for elucidation. Essential part of a religion means the core beliefs upon which a religion is founded. Essential practice means those practices that are fundamental to follow a religious belief. It is upon the cornerstone of essential parts or practices that the superstructure of a religion is built, without which a religion will be no religion. Test to determine whether a part or practice is essential to a religion is to find out whether the nature of the religion will be changed without that part or practice. If the taking away of that part or practice could result in a fundamental change in the character of that religion or in its belief, then such part could be treated as an essential or integral part. There cannot be additions or subtractions to such part because it is the very essence of that religion and alterations will change its fundamental character. It is such permanent essential parts which are protected by the Constitution. Nobody can say that an essential part or practice of ones religion has changed from a particular date or by an event. Such alterable parts or practices are definitely not the “core” of religion whereupon the belief is based and religion is founded upon. They could only be treated as mere embellishments to the non-essential (sic essential) part or practices.”

But, in the momentous minority view (AR Lakshmanan, J.) it is laid down as under:

  • “Countering the argument, learned senior counsel for the appellants, submitted that the concept of Tandava dance was not a part of religion but a secular activity and relied upon the decision of this Court in the case of Durga Committee, Ajmer & Anr. vs. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors. reported in (supra). The particular passage relied on by learned counsel for the appellant is as follows:
    • “In order that the practices in question should be treated as a part of religion they must be regarded by the said religion as its essential and integral part; otherwise even surely secular practices which are not an essential or an integral part of religion are apt to be clothed with a religions form and may make a claim for being treated as religions practices within the meaning of Art. 26. Similarly even practices though religions may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense be extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself. Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a religion their claim for the protection under Art.26 may have to be carefully scrutinised, in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and integral part of it and no other.”
  • This observation of this Court, in our view, runs counter to the observation of Mukherjee, J. in The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowment, Madras vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt (supra). In this context, it is useful to reproduce a passage from the above judgment which explains the definition of religion in paragraphs 14 and 19 of the judgment which are –
    • “We now come to Art. 25 which, as its language indicates, secures to every person, subject to public order, health and morality, a freedom not only to entertain such religious belief, as may be approved of by his judgment and conscience, but also to exhibit his belief in such outward acts as he thinks proper and to propagate or disseminate his ideas for the edification of others….
    • ….If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or oblations to the sacred fire all these would be regarded as parts of religion…”
  • In a subsequent decision, namely, His Holiness Srimad Perarulala Ethiraja Ramanuja Jeeyar Swami etc. vs. The State of Tamil Nadu [AIR 1972 SC 1586], this Court has held that –
    • ‘Worshippers lay great store by the rituals and whatever other people, not of the faith may think about these rituals and ceremonies, they are a part of the Hindu Religious faith and cannot be dismissed as either irrational or superstitious.’
  • The contention that the word ‘religion’ under Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India does not include sect of religion of Ananda Marga being declared as religious denomination does not qualify for the same protection as religion in our view is not tenable. The learned Judges of the Calcutta High Court in their judgment impugned in this appeal has categorically dealt with the question following the decision exactly on the same point in the case of Shirur Mutt (supra) and the National Anthem case (Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala) reported in [AIR 1987 SC 748] and Sri Venkataramana Devaru & Ors. Vs. State of Mysore & Ors., [AIR 1958 SC 255] held that a religious denomination or organisation enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rights and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and outside authority has no jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters.”

(vii) Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastoratae (2007)[129]

Our Apex Court (SB Sinha & Dalveer Bhandari JJ) in I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate[130] while dealing with the affairs of the Indian Evangelical Lutheran Church, a large congregation registered themselves under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 which also carried on secular activities of running a large number of schools and hospitals, it is held as follows:

  • “Keeping in view the interest of the general public, we see no reason as to why in a case of mismanagement of such charitable organizations, although run by minorities, the Court cannot oversee its functions. The Courts, indisputably, act as guardian of such societies. [See Guruvayoor Devaswom Managing Committee Vs. CK Rajan: AIR 2004 SC 561: (2003) 7 SCC 546.] Even otherwise, rights under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution are not absolute and unfettered. The right to manage, it goes without saying, does not carry with it a right to mismanage.”

The protection is not at all extended to the ‘service of a priest’ as such which is invariably held to be a secular act.[131] Therefore, the courts are not incompetent to decide upon the validity of such religious-appointments. The court can decide whether a particular service of rites or ceremonies is an essential or integral part of the religion concerned.

(viii) Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam Vs. Govt. of TN (2016):[132]

Constitutional Necessity May Arise To Determine “Essential Religious Practices”

The question of appointment of Archakas came up for consideration in this case. The Apex Court (Ranjan Gogoi & NV Ramana JJ) held that Archakas can be appointed in terms of Agama for the temples but such Agamas have to qualify the test of Article 14 which should not be contrary to the constitutional mandate. The Court held as under:

  • “43.That the freedom of religion under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution is not only confined to beliefs but extends to religious practices also would hardly require reiteration. Right of belief and practice is guaranteed by Article 25 subject to public order, morality and health and other provisions of Part III of the Constitution. Clause (2) is an exception and makes the right guaranteed by clause (1) subject to any existing law or to such law as may be enacted to, inter alia, provide for social welfare and reforms or throwing or proposing to throw open Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus. Article 26(b) on the other hand guarantees to every religious denomination or section full freedom to manage its own affairs insofar as matters of religion are concerned, subject, once again, to public order, morality and health and as held by this Court subject to such laws as may be made under Article 25(2)(b). The rights guaranteed by Articles 25 and 26, therefore, are circumscribed and are to be enjoyed within constitutionally permissible parameters. Often occasions will arise when it may become necessary to determine whether a belief or a practice claimed and asserted is a fundamental part of the religious practice of a group or denomination making such a claim before embarking upon the required adjudication. A decision on such claims becomes the duty of the constitutional court. It is neither an easy nor an enviable task that the courts are called to perform. Performance of such tasks is not enjoined in the court by virtue of any ecclesiastical jurisdiction conferred on it but in view of its role as the constitutional arbiter. Any apprehension that the determination by the court of an essential religious practice itself negatives the freedoms guaranteed by Articles 25 and 26 will have to be dispelled on the touchstone of constitutional necessity. Without such a determination there can be no effective adjudication whether the claimed right is in conformity with public order, morality and health and in accord with the indisputable and unquestionable notions of social welfare and reforms. A just balance can always be made by holding that the exercise of judicial power to determine essential religious practices, though always available being an inherent power to protect the guarantees under Articles 25 and 26, the exercise thereof must always be restricted and restrained.
  • 49. The difficulty lies not in understanding or restating the constitutional values. There is not an iota of doubt on what they are. But to determine whether a claim of State action in furtherance thereof overrides the constitutional guarantees under Articles 25 and 26 may often involve what has already been referred to as a delicate and unenviable task of identifying essential religious beliefs and practices, sans which the religion itself does not survive. It is in the performance of this task that the absence of any exclusive ecclesiastical jurisdiction of this Court, if not other shortcomings and adequacies, that can be felt. Moreover, there is some amount of uncertainty with regard to the prescription contained in the Agamas. Coupled with the above is the lack of easy availability of established works and the declining numbers of acknowledged and undisputed scholars on the subject. In such a situation one is reminded of the observations, if not the caution note struck by Mukherjea, J. in Shirur Mutt[133] with regard to complete autonomy of a denomination to decide as to what constitutes an essential religious practice, a view that has also been subsequently echoed by this Court though as a “minority view”. But we must hasten to clarify that no such view of the Court can be understood to be an indication of any bar to judicial determination of the issue as and when it arises. Any contrary opinion would give rise to large-scale conflicts of claims and usages as to what is an essential religious practice with no acceptable or adequate forum for resolution. That apart the “complete autonomy” contemplated in Shirur Mutt and the meaning of “outside authority” must not be torn out of the context in which the views, already extracted, came to be recorded (p. 1028). The exclusion of all “outside authorities” from deciding what is an essential religious practice must be viewed in the context of the limited role of the State in matters relating to religious freedom as envisaged by Articles 25 and 26 itself and not of the courts as the arbiter of constitutional rights and principles.”

The principles in this case have been considered in:

  • KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters & St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church. (2017)[134]

(ix) KS Varghese  Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church (2017)[135]

In KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church, the plaintiffs sought for reliefs with respect to the appointment of priests in the suit Church. The defendants, among other matters, contended that the reliefs were not allowable for they were violative of Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution. It was argued by the defendants that the Preamble to the Constitution of India guaranteed liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. The defendants also claimed that it was open to any parishioner to have faith in the spiritual superiority of the Patriarch of Antioch; and therefore, the suit reliefs could not be allowed.

It was held that the protection or guarantee under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India did not extend to the appointment of priests, deacons etc. (though there was protection or guarantee under Articles 25 and 26 as to observance of rituals, ceremonies and modes of worships, which are integral parts of religion).Article 25 assurances to all persons, the freedom of conscience and to profess, practice and propagate religion. Article 26 guarantees to all religious denominations the freedom to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. On that basis, the Apex Court, referring AS Narayana Deekshitulu Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh[136]explored what were the essentials of religious belief or practice.  The Court also relied on Commissioner of Police Vs. Acharya Jagadishwar-ananda Avadhuta[137] where it was held:

  • “9. ….What is meant by ‘an essential part or practices of a religion’ is now the matter of elucidation. Essential part of religion means the core beliefs upon which a religion is founded. Essential practice means those practices that are fundamental to follow a religious belief.”

Finally, the Supreme Court held that the appointment of priests was a secular matter[138]and that it can be dealt with by secular authorities. The Apex Court further found that the parties to the suit were bound by the 1934Constitution of the Church which contained the provisions for the appointment of priests by the authorities and the qualifications for the appointment of priests.  Thus the claims raised by the defendants to appoint priests of their choice, on spiritual ground, were rejected.

It was further observed in this case that it was a settled proposition of law that when a mode was prescribed for doing a thing, it could be done only in that manner and not otherwise.

PART – IX

Art. 30(1): Cases Connected to ‘Minority Institutions’

Following are some of the important cases connected to ‘minority institutions’:

(i) State of Madhya Pradesh Vs. Mother Superior, Convent School (1958: MP). [139]

Law made contrary to canon would be inroad upon religious faith and practices

It was contended before the MP High Court that the any law made contrary to the canon law would in effect be an inroad upon the religious faith and practices of the Roman Catholics.[140] It was urged that the canon law was a part of their religion, being in the nature of a mandate by the Pontiff, which the Roman Catholics have to obey and put into effect, whether they be the plain members of the community or spiritual leaders or officers administering the church. M. Hidayatullah CJ. observed as under:

  • “In matters of property there is always a secular angle which is supplied by the law of the country, and that no religious denomination can make a law about its own property and thus nullify the law of the land. The property of the Christian religious institutions therefore, is as much subject to law as any other property privately held in our country.
  • Of course, if matters of religion be involved in the disposal or use of the property, then to that extent laws cannot be made. But there is nothing to prevent the legislatures to enact laws for regulating property, be it private or belonging to religious institutions. I do not think that on this ground alone the State Legislature was incompetent to make laws with regard to property possessed by religious institutions.”

(ii) Molly Joseph Alias Nish Vs. George Sebastian (1997: SC)[141]

Canon Law no ‘legal impact’ upon Divorce Act.

It is held by the Apex Court that the personal law (Canon Law) ‘cannot have any legal impact’ in view of the enacted law – Divorce Act.[142]

(iii) State of Kerala Vs. Very Rev. Mother Provincial (1970: SC).[143]

No right to supersede Mg. Committee of minority institution and appoint another.

The Court declared ultra vires Section 63(1) of the Kerala University Act, 1969 which conferred power on the Government to take over the management of a minority institution on its default in carrying out the directions of the State Government, on the ground that the provisions interfered with the constitutional right of a minority to administer its institution. Minority institutions cannot be allowed to fall below the standard of excellence on the pretext of their exclusive right of management but at the same time their constitutional right to administer their institutions cannot be completely taken away by superseding or dissolving managing committee or by appointing ad hoc committees in place thereof.

(iv) Bihar State Madarasa Education Board, Patna Vs. Madarasa Hanfia Arabic College, Jamalia (1990: SC).[144]

State has power to regulate administration of educational institutions and discipline

While considering the correctness of the decision of the Education Board to dissolve the managing committee of a minority educational institution the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “This Court has all along held that though the minorities have right to establish and administer educational institution of their own choice but they have no right to mal-administer and the State has power to regulate management and administration of such institutions in the interest of educational need and discipline of the institution. Such regulation may have indirect effect on the absolute right of minorities but that would not violate Art. 30(1) of the Constitution as it is the duty of the State to ensure efficiency in educational institutions.”

Secy., Malankara Syrian Catholic College Vs. T. Jose (2007)[145]

Minority educational institutions have freedom to appoint teachers/Lecturers

The validity of Section 57(3) of the Kerala University Act, 1974, which prescribes seniority cum fitness alone as the criteria for promotion to the post of Principal in a college, was challenged as being violative of Article 30(1) of the Constitution insofar as its application to minority institutions is concerned. The Kerala High Court upheld the validity of Section 57(3). But the said decision was reversed by the Supreme Court. The first question that the Supreme Court took up for consideration was as to what extent the State can regulate the right of the minorities to administer their own educational institutions when such institutions receive aid from the State. The second question was as to whether the right to choose a Principal was part of the right of minorities under Article 30(1) and whether such a right could be trammelled by Section 57(3) of the Act. The Supreme Court summarised the general principles relating to the establishment and administration of the educational institutions by the minorities as under:

  •  “19.The general principles relating to establishment and administration of educational institution by minorities may be summarized thus:
  • (i) The right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice comprises the following rights:
    •  a) To choose its governing body in whom the founders of the institution have faith and confidence to conduct and manage the affairs of the institution;
    •  b) To appoint teaching staff (Teachers/Lecturers and Head-masters/Principals) as also non-teaching staff; and to take action if there is dereliction of duty on the part of any of its employees;
    •  c) To admit eligible students of their choice and to set up a reasonable fee structure;
    •  d) To use its properties and assets for the benefit of the institution;
  • (ii) The right conferred on minorities under Article 30 is only to ensure equality with the majority and not intended to place the minorities in a more advantageous position vis-a-vis the majority. There is no reverse discrimination in favour of minorities. The general laws of the land relating to national interest, national security, social welfare, public order, morality, health, sanitation, taxation etc. applicable to all, will equally apply to minority institutions also.
  • (iii) The right to establish and administer educational institutions is not absolute. Nor does it include the right to maladminister. There can be regulatory measures for ensuring educational character and standards and maintaining academic excellence. There can be checks on administration as are necessary to ensure that the administration is efficient and sound, so as to serve the academic needs of the institution. Regulations made by the State concerning generally the welfare of students and teachers, regulations laying down eligibility criteria and qualifications for appointment, as also conditions of service of employees (both teaching and non-teaching), regulations to prevent exploitation or oppression of employees, and regulations prescribing syllabus and curriculum of study fall under this category. Such regulations do not in any manner interfere with the right under Article 30(1).
  • (iv) Subject to the eligibility conditions/qualifications prescribed by the State being met, the unaided minority educational institutions will have the freedom to appoint teachers/Lecturers by adopting any rational procedure of selection.
  • (v) Extension of aid by the State does not alter the nature and character of the minority educational institution. Conditions can be imposed by the State to ensure proper utilization of the aid, without however diluting or abridging the right under Article 30(1).”

Conflicts Between Rights of Individuals and Denominations

Conflict between religious rights of individuals (Art. 14&25)and that of religious denominations are (Art. 26)surfaced in Courts, one after the other. Following are the important recent cases:

  • Sabarimala Case,[146]
  • Entry of Muslim Women in Mosque Case,[147]
  • Parsi Women’s Case,[148]
  • Dawoodi Bohra Community case.[149]

Because of the complicated nature of the issues involved in these matters, apparent culmination of each case arose more questions than what settled.

PART – X

SABARIMALA CASE & Constitutional Morality:

Indian Young Lawyers Association Vs. State of Kerala (2018).[150]

The Constitution Bench, headed by the Chief Justice, Dipak Misra,held in 4:1 majority that the exclusion of women from Sabarimala Temple violated the fundamental rights and that the custom of exclusion of a section of women was unconstitutional. The Court struck down Rule 3(b) of the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry) Rules. The Supreme Court also held that the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a separate religious denomination and therefore cannot claim the benefit of Article 26 of the Constitution of India.

The CJI, speaking also on behalf of Khanwilkar J., allowed the Writ Petition and observed, inter alia,  as under:

  • (i) Devotees, not constitute ‘denomination’. In view of the law laid down by the Supreme Court, in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt[151] and SP Mittal Vs. Union of India[152]the devotees of Lord Ayyappa do not constitute a separate religious denomination and, therefore, they cannot claim the benefits of Article 26 of the Constitution of India.;
  • (ii) Physiological factors of women cannot be raised. The right guaranteed under Article 25(1) of the Constitution has nothing to do with gender. For that matter, physiological factors specifically attributable to women cannot be raised;
  • (iii) Violation of fundamental rights. Rule 3(b) of the 1965 Rules, framed under the 1965 Act, that stipulates exclusion of entry of women of the age group of 10 to 50 years, was a clear violation of the right of Hindu women to practise their religious beliefs which, in consequence, makes their fundamental right of religion under Article 25(1) a dead letter;
  • (iv)Morality in Art. 25(1) is Constitutional Morality. the term ‘morality’ occurring in Article 25(1) of the Constitution has to be understood as being synonymous with constitutional morality; and
  • (v) Not be an essential religious practice. The exclusion of women between ages 10-50 by the Sabarimala Temple could not be an essential religious practice.

Justice Rohinton Nariman and Justice DY Chandrachud concurred with the views of Chief Justice.

Justice Rohinton Nariman further observed that the exclusion of women from the temple would render their rights under Article 25 meaningless. He stated that there was no deficiency of evidence to conclude that the exclusion of women from Sabarimala violated Article 25(1) of the Constitution.

Justice DY Chandrachud also pointed out that the exclusionary practices of women between age of 10-50 years from the Sabarimala Temple were contrary to constitutional morality.  Even if a claim for the exclusion of women from religious worship could be founded in religious texts, it would be subordinate to the constitutional values of liberty, dignity and equality. In any event, the practice of excluding women from the temple at Sabarimala is not an essential religious practice. The Court must decline to grant constitutional legitimacy to practices which derogate from the dignity of women and to their entitlement to an equal citizenship.  The social exclusion of women, based on menstrual status, is a form of untouchability which is an anathema to constitutional values. Notions of “purity and pollution”, which stigmatise individuals, have no place in a constitutional order.

Justice Indu Malhotra handed down a dissenting Judgment holding, inter alia, the following:

  • (i) Article 14 would not override Article 25.The equality doctrine enshrined under Article 14 would not override the Fundamental Right guaranteed by Article 25 to every individual to freely profess, practise and propagate their faith, in accordance with the tenets of their religion.
  • (ii) The Constitutional Morality implies harmonisation. The Constitutional Morality in a secular polity in a pluralistic society would imply the harmonisation of the Fundamental Rights, which include the right of every individual, religious denomination, or sect, to practise their faith and belief in accordance with the tenets of their religion, irrespective of whether the practise is rational or logical.
  • (iii) The Ayyappans constitute a religious denomination. The Ayyappans or worshippers of the Sabarimala Temple satisfy the requirements of being a religious denomination, or sect thereof, which is entitled to the protection provided by Article 26 by which it can manage its internal affairs and is not subject to the social reform mandate under Article 25(2)(b), which applies only to Hindu denominations.
  • The court must respect such rights.
  • (iv) A working formula to be adopted to decide religious denomination. In the matters as to religious denomination there is no straight jacket formula; but a working formula to be adopted to decide if it is a religious denomination.
  • (v) Notions of Court should not be the criterion. It is not for the court to see if such are rational or irrational.
  • (vi) Supreme Court must be a balancing wheel. Supreme Court is not just a guardian of fundamental rights but also a balancing wheel between rights and social control.
  • (vii) Article 25(2)(b) contemplates a State made law. What is permitted by Article 25(2)(b) is a State made law and not judicial Intervention.
  • (viii) The proper forum is civil court. This is a mixed question of fact and law which ought to be decided before a competent court of civil jurisdiction. The proper forum to ascertain whether a sect constitutes a religious denomination or not would be more appropriately be decided by a civil court through leading evidences.
  • (ix) Rules are not ultra vires of its parent Act. Rule 3(b) of the 1965 Rules would not be ultra vires Section 3 of its parent Act, the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship Act, 1965, since the proviso carves out an exception in the case of public worship in a temple for the benefit of any religious denomination or sect thereof, to manage their affairs in matters of religion.
  • (x) Not fall within the purview of Article 17.The limited restriction on the entry of women during the notified age group would not fall within the purview of Article 17 of the Constitution. It was pointed out that Article 17 pertains to untouchability, refers to caste; and it does not extend to discrimination on the basis of gender.

Justice Indu Malhotra, in light of the discussions and analysis in her judgment, directed that the Writ Petition could not be entertained.

Review Petitions & Reference to 9-Judge Bench

The matters involved in this case now stand referred to a higher bench, in the Review Petitions filed. According to the reference, the conflict of opinion between the Seven-judge-decision in Commissioner Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Shri Lakshmindra Thritha Swaminar of Sri Shirur Mutt [1954][153] and Five-judge-decision in Durgah Committee, Ajmer v. Syed Hussain Ali and Ors. [1962],[154] pertaining to the scope and extent of judicial review with regard to a religious practice, had also to be resolved. Seven issues were framed for consideration by the larger Bench.It is tagged to the matters relating to entry of Muslim women in durgahs/mosques, the entry of Parsi women married to non-Parsis into the holy fire place of Agyari and the challenge to the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra Community.

Important Constitutional Question Yet to be Resolved

As mentioned above, the crux of difference between the two decisions (Shirur Mutt case and Durgah Committee case) lies in the extent of protection of ‘religious practices’. The Shirur Mutt case says that it extends to all ‘religious practices’.  But, the Durgah Committee decision says that the protection must be confined to such ‘religious’ practices as are ‘essential and integral parts’ of the ‘RELIGION (rather than a sect or faction). In Durgah Committee case it is observed as under:

  • “The protection of Art.  26 of the Constitution can extend only to such religious practices as were essential and integral parts of the RELIGION and to no others.”

Re-framed the issues, by the Nine-judge Bench

The nine-judge Bench headed by Chief Justice has re-framed the issues referred, as under:

  • 1.  What is the scope and ambit of right to freedom of religion under Article 25 of the Constitution of India?
  • 2.  What is the inter-play between the rights of persons under Article 25 of the Constitution of India and rights of religious denomination under Article 26 of the Constitution of India?
  • 3.  Whether the rights of a religious denomination under Article 26 of the Constitution of India are subject to other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India apart from public order, morality and health?
  • 4.  What is the scope and extent of the word ‘morality’ under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India and whether it is meant to include Constitutional morality?
  • 5.  What is the scope and extent of judicial review with regard to a religious practice as referred to in Article 25 of the Constitution of India?
  • 6.  What is the meaning of expression ‘Sections of Hindus’ occurring in Article 25 (2) (b) of the Constitution of India?
  • 7.  Whether a person not belonging to a religious denomination or religious group can question a practice of that religious denomination or religious group by filing a PIL?

Interplay between the Rights under Article 25 and Article 26

  • Art. 25 refers to rights of persons freely to profess, practice and propagate religion. Art, 26 says as to the rights of every religious denomination or any section thereof to manage its own affairs in matters of religion.

From the above, the following questions emerge:

  • Do religious denomination or any section thereof have a right to freely to profess, practice and propagate religion
  • Do persons have a right to manage his own affairs in matters of religion.

See Blog: M. Siddiq Vs. Mahant Suresh Das –Pragmatic Verdict on Ayodhya Disputes

PART – XI

RIGHTS OF WOMEN & Religious Institutions

1. Entry of Muslim Women in Mosque

Pointing out the directives of the Supreme Court in Sabarimala Case, the petitioners in Yasmeen Zuber Ahmad Peerzade Vs. Union of India, filed the Writ Petition under Article 32 of the Constitution of India before the Supreme Court by way of a Public Interest Litigation, on March 26, 2019 seeking declaration that the practices of prohibition of entry of Muslim Women in Mosque in India is illegal and unconstitutional for being violative of the fundamental rights to equality, life and liberty and freedom of religion proclaimed under Articles 14, 15, 21, 25 and 29 of the Constitution and also to pass such further orders to provide a life of dignity to Muslim women. The petitioners argue that there is ‘nothing in the Quran and the Hadith that requires gender segregation’. It was also contended that the customs that prohibit women from entering mosques stand in conflict with Article 44 of the Constitution of India, which requires the State to secure a uniform civil code for all citizens, by eliminating discrepancies between various personal laws currently in force in the country.  The petitioners also relied on the Constitution Bench verdict in the Sabarimala case. It is also submitted that the Legislature has failed to ensure the dignity and equality of women in general and Muslim women in particular.

The contentions of the contesting respondents, as revealed from the counter affidavit filed by the All India Muslim Personal Law Board, would be, mainly, the following:

  1. The issues involved in this case are not the issues pertaining to any statute.
  2. Friday Namaz in congregation is not obligatory for women, though it is so on Muslim men. As per doctrines of Islam, a woman is entitled to the same religious reward (Sawab) for praying as per her option either in Masjid or at home.
  3. The matters involved are religious practices based upon beliefs of the religion; and not matters ‘merely concern’ the management of a religious place.
  4. The matters involved are matters concern of Masjids, purely private bodies regulated by Muttawalis.
  5. They are not the activities ‘only concern’ regulating the activities connected with religious practice, also.
  6. It is not appropriate for the Court to enter into or interpret the religious principles/beliefs and tenets, invoking Articles 14, 15, 21, 25 and 29 of Constitution of India.
  7. It is not appropriate for the Court to attempt to answer issues that are matters of faith alone, when there is no ‘threat to life and liberty’. 
  8. It is not appropriate for the Court to interfere in religious beliefs and the practice of the essential features of any religionprotected under Article 26.
  9. In the absence of any state action, it is not appropriate for the Court to judicially determine or interfere in, or to seek resolution of, various aspects on ‘faith and belief’, and essential religious practices of faith, through judicial process.  It should be left to be resolved through the processes of social transformation within the religious denomination itself.
  10. During the pendency of the present petition, a five Judge Bench judgment in Kantaru Rajeevaru Vs. Indian Young Lawyers Association[155]  has referred matters involving Articles 14, 25 and 26 to larger bench. They are much relevant in this case also.

This case is tagged with Sabarimala Revision-Reference matter and pending consideration before a 9 Judge Bench.

See Blog: ‘Is Ban on Muslim Women to Enter Mosques, Unconstitutional’ Stands Tagged-on with Sabarimala Revision-Reference Matter

2. Excommunication of Parsy Women if Marry Outside

A Parsi woman will miss her religious identity if she marries a Non-Parsi.  Unlike a woman, a Parsi man will not lose his religion on marrying a Non-Parsi. Can this anomaly be saved as an ‘essential religious practice’?  Is it an ‘integral practice’ touching upon the right to profess, practice and propagate one’s own religion?

Goolrokh Gupta filed a Writ Petition before the Gujarat High Court paying to allow her to perform funeral ceremonies of her parents in the event of their death. The petitioner contended that no tenet of Zorastrianism denied a born Parsi woman rights to her religious identity on marriage to a non-Parsi. But, the Parsi Trust takes such a discriminatory stance. The said custom did not apply to Parsi males. It is violative of the right to equality under Articles 14 of the Constitution of India. It was pointed out that this excommunication was a matter of social and constitutional concern. In  Sardar Saifuddin v. State of Bombay[156]  the Bombay Prevention of Excommunication Act, 1949 was struck down as unconstitutional by a Constitutional bench of the Supreme Court. It was argued that excommunication could be equated to the practice of untouchability, as the effect of both was the deprivation of human dignity and civil rights. The matter involved issues of the right to individual’s right to faith and practice religion under Article 25. Though there should be a need to balance the rights of individuals as well that of the denomination under Article 26 to manage internal affairs, it was argued that the fundamental rights being primarily concerned with rights of individuals and protect individuality and choices, due importance should be given to the same.

The Parsi Trust opposed the petition and contended that denial of entry to non-Parsis to Parsi institutions was an essential practice of the religion and that under Article 26, the Parsi Trust was entitled to regulate entry.  The Respondents heavily relied upon an interpretation of Zorastrianism which directed renunciation of Parsi religion if a Parsi woman undergoes the inter-faith marriage.

The Gujarat High Court dismissed the writ petition of Ms. Gupta by 2:1 majority in Goolrokh Gupta v. Burjor Pardiwala[157] on the main ground that a Parsi woman, upon marriage with a non-Parsi under the Special Marriage Act, ceases to be a Parsi. The High Court did not address the fundamental question of whether Ms. Gupta could be denied entry into Parsi institutions as an essential religious practice.

The majority pointed out that the English common law doctrine is that, in the absence of a specific statutory protection, the personality, known by religion, of a woman would merge into that of her husband.   Although such a principle of merger was not recognised by any of the religions in India, it had found that a married woman is identified by her husband’s family name superseding that of her father’s. The Court observed that it is of ‘general acceptance throughout the world’. The majority was of the opinion that the merger was essential to determine the religion of children born out of the marriage. To obtain reliefs from courts, countering this presumption, the bench observed that there should be a judicial declaration pursuant to a fact-finding inquiry. Since no such inquiry was conducted in the present case, the petitioner was deemed to have acquired the religious status of her Hindu husband. 

J. Akil Kureshi, minority, found that there was no automatic conversion on marriage. Special Marriage Act, 1954 speaks of a special form of marriage in which both parties can retain their birth-religion insofar as the other conditions under Section 4 of the Act of 1954 were satisfied. Kureshi, J. noted that it highlights legislative commitment toward a secular state. He ruled that the petitioner retained her Parsi identity by solemnisation of her marriage under the Special Marriage Act.

Ms. Gupta filed a Special Leave Petition before the Supreme Court.  The petition stands referred to a Constitutional Bench.  

It is pointed out that Goolrokh Gupta had not converted to the Hindu religion and the marriage was not taken place under the Hindu Marriage Act. The Special Marriage Act under which the marriage was solemnised, on the other hand, allowed the retention of religious identity. It was also pointed out that the matter was not one of acceptance by the religious or social community.  Therefore, it was contended that the presumption was that Ms Gupta continued as a Parsi.

The Constitution Bench observed at the hearing that the marriage under the Sp. Marriage Act would prima facie defeat the doctrine of merger.

The respondents, at the time of arguments before the Supreme Court, pointed out that the edicts of Zoroastrianism were very complex. Zoroastrianism is patrilineal and all the texts/edicts dictate that one was to marry within the fold of the religion itself. If one chose to marry outside the religion, they would not suffer excommunication but would end up in losing the privileges conferred on them by the religion. They claimed that denial of entry to non-Parsis into the Parsi institutions was an essential practice of the religion under Article 26, and that the Trust was entitled to regulate such entry. The Appeal is pending consideration.

See Blog: Is Excommunication of Parsi Women for Marrying Outside, Unconstitutional

PART – XII

Religious Rights and Civil Remedies under Sec. 9 CPC

Courts in India are not barred from adjudicating and pronouncing upon religious matters. It was the practice from time immemorial. The Religion did not overpower the administrators any time. Kings or secular courts heard all disputes including those related to religious matters. It continued during the Mugal/Muslim administration period also. Ecclesiastical Courts did not exist any time.

From the beginning of the established court hegemony in India, disputes concerning the religious matters were dealt with by the courts.

It is observed in Queen Empress v. Ramzan. (1885) 7 ILR All – 461 as under:

  • “I am unable to accept this view, because, if it is conceded that the decision of this case depends (as I shall presently endeavour to show it does depend) upon the interpretation of the Muhammadan Ecclesiastical Law, it is to my mind the duty of this Court, and of all Courts subordinate to it, to take judicial notice of such law”. (Quoted in Most. Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001)

In Chariar v. Sri Kristna Tata Chariar, (1888) I.L.R. 11 M. 450 it is held as under:

  • “The claim is for a specific pecuniary benefit to which plaintiffs declare themselves entitled on condition of reciting certain hymns.
  • There can exist no doubt that the right to such benefits is a question which the Courts are bound to entertain, and cannot cease to be such a question, because claimed on account of some service connected with religion. If, to determine the right to such pecuniary benefit, it becomes necessary to determine incidentally the right to perform certain religious services, we know of no principle which would exonerate the Court from considering and deciding the point”. Approved in Krishname v. Krishnasamy, (1879) ILR 2 Mad. 62. (Quoted in Most. Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001)

In Nafar Chandra Chatterjee v. Kailash Chandra Mondal, AIR 1921 Cal – 328 it was held by Sir Ashutosh Mookerjee as under:

  • “Where there were no Ecclesiastical Courts, there was nothing to prevent civil courts from holding that Pujari has been removed from his office on valid grounds.”
  • “There is manifestly nothing wrong in principle that the holder of a spiritual office should be subject to discipline and should be liable to deprivation for what may be called misconduct from an ecclesiastical point of view or for flagrant and continued neglect of duty….. It is plain that although so far as Hindus are concerned, there is now no State Church and no ecclesiastical court, there is nothing to prevent civil courts from determining questions such as those raised in the present litigation and from holding that the Pujari has been removed from his office on valid grounds.”(Quoted in Most. Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001)

In U.W. Baya vs. U. Zaw Ta. AIR 1914 Lower Burma 178 (1) where a question arose as to which was the forum where an action for violation of religious rights could be brought, it was held as under,

  • “there are, therefore, no ecclessiastical authorities in Lower Burma. Section 9, Civil P.C. enacts that the courts shall subject to the provisions herein contained, have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which the cognizance is either expressly or impliedly barred. This is a suit of a civil nature. It is a claim of certain lands and manuscripts.
  • The civil courts, in our opinion, clearly have jurisdiction to decide the suit and should do so”. (Quoted in Most. Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001)

In Sri Sinha Ramanuja Jeer v. Sri Ranga Ramanuja Jeer, (1962) 2 SCR 509 our Apex Court observed as under:

  • “Prima facie suits raising questions of religious rites and ceremonies only are not maintainable in a civil Court, for they do not deal with legal rights of parties. But the explanation to the section accepting the said undoubted position says that a suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of civil nature notwithstanding that such right may depend entirely on the decision of a question as to religious rites or ceremonies. It implies two things, namely, (i) a suit for an office is a suit of a civil nature; and (ii) it does not cease to be one even if the said right depends entirely upon a decision of a question as to the religious rites or ceremonies.”

Article 25 of the Constitution of India Guarantees the Freedom of Religion

Apart from Section 9 of the CPC, Article 25 of the Constitution of India guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion to every person.

Article 25 reads as under:

  • “25. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
  • (1) Subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
  • (2) Nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law –
    •        (a) regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
    •        (b) providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
  •        Explanation I – The wearing and carrying of kirpans shall be deemed to be included in the profession of the Sikh religion.
  •        Explanation II – In sub clause (b) of clause reference to Hindus shall be construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion, and the reference to Hindu religious institutions shall be construed accordingly.”

In S.P. Mittal v. Union of India, AIR 1983 SC 1, it was held that Art. 25 would receive a wide interpretation.

In Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001, it is observed that not only because it is claim to an office but also because there is no other forum where such dispute can be resolved. If a dispute arises whether a particular religious shrine has ceased to be so due to its anti-religion activities then the followers of that religion or belief and faith cannot be denied the right to approach the court. It is pointed out that Explanation I in Sec. 9 CPC is not restrictive of the right or matters pertaining to religion. It only removes the doubt to enable the courts to entertain suits where dispute about religious office is involved. The right to religion having become fundamental right, it would include the right to seek declaration that the Church was Episcopal.

Court may refrain from adjudicating upon Purely Religious Matters

In Most. Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan v. Moran Mar Marthoma, AIR 1995 SC 2001, it is cautioned that the court may refrain from adjudicating upon purely religious matters as it might be handicapped to enter into the hazardous, hemisphere of religion. It held further as under:

  • “Maintainability of the suit should not be confused with exercise of jurisdiction. Nor is there any merit in the submission that Explanation I could not save suits where the right to property or to an office was not contested or where the said right depended on decisions of questions as to religious faith, belief, doctrine or creed. The emphasis on the expression ‘is contested’ used in Explanation I is not of any consequence. It widens the ambit of the Explanation and include in its fold any right which is contested to be a right of civil nature even though such right may depend on decisions of questions relating to religious rights or ceremonies. But from that it cannot be inferred that where the right to office or property is not contested it would cease to be a suit cognisable under Section 9.”

It is held further as under:

  • “’Religion is the belief which binds spiritual nature of men to super-natural being’. It includes worship, belief, faith, devotion etc. and extends to rituals. Religious right is the right of a person believing in a particular faith to practice it, preach it and profess it. It is civil in nature. The dispute about the religious office is a civil dispute as it involves disputes relating to rights which may be religious in nature but are civil in consequence. Civil wrong is explained by Salmond as a private wrong. He has extracted Blackstone who has described private wrongs as, ‘infringement or privation of the private or civil rights belonging to individuals, considered as individuals, and are thereupon frequently termed civil injuries’. Any infringement with a right as a member of any religious order is violative of civil wrong. This is the letter and spirit of Explanation I to Section 9.”

Conclusion

The (i) right of entry of women in Sabarimala (ii) right of entry of Muslim women in durgahs/mosques, (iii) right of entry of Parsi women, married to non-Parsis, into the holy fire place of Agyari and  (v) the challenge to the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra Community are placed before the nine-judge-bench of the Supreme Court.

The result of the combined inquisitive analysis of all the aforesaid cases and all the issues involved therein, in the constitutional ethos, by the nine-judge-bench may be in supportive of the so called ‘progressive view in favour of women’. If the effect of answers of each segregated case and each separated issue is anatomically explored and blended together, especially in the light of the torch-flash of Shirur Mutt, the outcome may be diametrically opposite. The nine-judge-bench will have to analyse the matter, both ways.


Foot Notes:

Relevant parts of Shirur Mutt Case:

  • “We now come to article 25 which, as its language indicates, secures to every person, subject to public order, health and morality, a freedom not only to entertain such religious belief, as may be approved of by his judgment and conscience, but also to exhibit his belief in such outward acts as he thinks proper and to propagate or disseminate his ideas for the edification of others. A question is raised as to whether the word “persons” here means individuals only or includes corporate bodies as well. The question, in our opinion, is not at all relevant for our present purpose. A Mathadhipati is certainly not a corporate body; he is the head of a spiritual fraternity and by virtue of his office has to perform the duties of a religious teacher. it is his duty to practise and propagate the religious tenets, of which he is an adherent and if any provision of law prevents him from propagating his doctrines, that would certainly affect the religious freedom which is guaranteed to every person under article 25. Institutions as such cannot practise or propagate religion; it can be done only by individual persons and whether these person propagate their personal views or the tenets for which the institution stands is really immaterial for purposes. of article 25. It is the propagation of belief that is protected, no matter whether the propagation takes place in a church or monastery, or in a temple or parlour meeting. As regards article 26, the first question is, what is the precise meaning or connotation of the expression “religious denomination” and whether a Math could come within this expression. The word “denomination” has been defined in the Oxford Dictionary to mean ‘a collection of individuals classed together under the same name: a religious sect or body having a common faith and Organisation and designated by a distinctive name. It is well known that the practice of setting up Maths as centres of the logical teaching was started by Shri Sankaracharya and was followed by various teachers since then. After Sankara, came a galaxy of religious teachers and philosophers who founded the different sects and sub-sects of the Hindu religion that we find in India at the present day. Each one of such sects or sub-sects can certainly be called a religious denomination, as it is designated by a distinctive name,-in many cases it is the name of the founder,-and has a common faith and common spiritual organization. The followers of Ramanuja, who are known by the name of Shri Vaishnabas, undoubtedly constitute a religious denomination; and so do the followers of Madhwacharya and other religious teachers. It is a fact well established by tradition that the eight Udipi Maths were founded by Madhwacharya himself and the trustees and the beneficiaries of these Maths profess to be followers of that teacher. The High Court has found that the Math in question is in charge of the Sivalli Brahmins who constitute a section of the followers of Madhwacharya. As article 26 contemplates not merely a religious denomination but also a section thereof, the Math or the spiritual fraternity represented by it can legitimately come within the purview of this article.
  • The other thing that remains to be considered in regard to article 26 is, what is the scope of clause (b) of the article which speaks of management “of its own affairs in matters of religion ?” The language undoubtedly suggests that there could be other affairs of a religious denomination or a section thereof which are not matters of religion and to which the guarantee given by this clause would not apply. The question is, whereas the line to be drawn between what are matters of religion and what are not It will be seen that besides the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion, which is given by clause(b), the next two clauses of article 26 guarantee to a religious denomination the right to acquire and own property and to administer such property in accordance with law. The administration of its property by a religious denomination has thus been placed on a different footing from the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. The latter is a fundamental right which no legislature can take away, whereas the former can be regulated by laws which the legislature can validly impose. It is clear, therefore, that questions merely relating to administration of properties belonging to a religious group or institution are not matters of religion to which clause (b) of the article applies. What then are matters of religion ? The word “religion ” has not been defined in the Constitution and it is a term which is hardly susceptible of any rigid definition. In an American case [Vide Davie v. Benson 133 U.S 333 at 342] it has been said ” that the term religion has reference to one’s views of his relation to his Creator and to the obligations they impose of reverence for His Being and character and of obedience to His will. It is often confounded with cultus of form or worship of a particular sect, but is distinguishable from the latter.” We do not think that the above definition can be regarded as either precise or adequate. Articles 25 and 26 of our Constitution are based for the most part upon article 44(2) of the Constitution of Eire and we have great doubt whether a definition of “religion” as given above could have been in the minds of our Constitution-makers when they framed the Constitution. Religion is certainly a matter of faith with individuals or communities and it is not necessarily theistic. There are well known religions in India like Buddhism and Jainism which do not believe in God or in any Intelligent First Cause. A religion undoubtedly has its basis in a system of beliefs or doctrines which are regarded by those who profess that religion as conducive to their spiritual well being, but it would not be correct to say that religion is nothing else, but a doctrine or belief. A religion may not only lay down a code of ethical rules for its followers to accept, it might prescribe rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are regarded as integral parts of religion, and these forms and observances might extend even to matters of food and dress.
  • The guarantee under our Constitution not only protects the freedom of religious opinion but it protects also acts done in pursuance of a religion and this is made clear by the use of the expression ” practice of religion ” in article 25. Latham C. J. of the High Court of Australia while dealing with the provision of section 116 of the Australian Constitution which inter alia forbids the Commonwealth to prohibit the “free exercise of any religion” made the following weighty observations(1) : ” It is sometimes suggested in discussions on the subject of freedom of religion that, though the civil Government should not interfere with religious opinion&, it nevertheless may deal as it pleases with any acts which are done in pursuance of religious belief without infringing the principle of freedom of religion. It appears to me to be difficult to maintain this distinction as relevant to the interpretation of section 116. The section refers in express terms to the exercise of religion, and therefore it is intended to protect from the operation of any Commonwealth laws acts which are done in the exercise of religion. Thus the section goes far beyond protecting liberty of opinion. It protects also acts. done in pursuance of religious belief as part of religion.” These observations apply fully to the protection of religion as guaranteed by the Indian Constitution. Restrictions by the State upon free exercise of religion are permitted both under articles 25 and 26 on grounds of public order,. morality and health. Clause (2)(a) of article 25 reserves the right of the State to regulate or restrict any economic, financial, political and other secular activities which may be associated with religious practice and there is a further right given to the State by sub-clause (b) under which the State can (1) Vide Adelaide Company V. The Commonwealth 67 C.L.R. 116, 127 legislate for social welfare and reform even though by so doing it might interfere with religious practices. The learned Attorney-General lays stress upon clause (2)(a) of the article and his contention is that all secular activities, which may be associated with religion but do not really constitute an essential part of it, are amenable to State regulation.
  • The contention formulated in such broad terms cannot, we think, be supported. In the first place, what constitutes the essential part of a religion is primarily to be ascertained with reference to the doctrines of that religion itself. If the tenets of any religious sect of the Hindus prescribe that offerings of food should be given to the idol at particular hours of the day, that periodical ceremonies should be performed in a certain way at certain periods of the year or that there should be daily recital of sacred texts or ablations to the sacred fire, all these would be regarded as parts of religion and the mere fact that they involve expenditure of money or employment of priests and servants or the use of marketable commodities would not make them secular activities partaking of a commercial or economic character; all of them are religious. practices and should be regarded as matters of religion within the meaning of article 26(b). What article 25(2)(a) contemplates is not regulation by the State of religious practices as such, the freedom of which is guaranteed by the Constitution except when they run counter to public order, health and morality, but regulation of activities which are economic, commercial or political in their character though they are associated with religious practices. We may refer in this connection to a few American and Australian cases, all of which arose out of the activities of persons connected with the religious association known as “Jehova’s Witnesses.” This association of persons loosely organised throughout Australia, U.S.A. and other countries regard the literal interpretation of the Bible as fundamental to proper religious beliefs. This belief in the supreme Authority of the Bible colours many of their political ideas. They refuse to take oath of allegiance to the king or other Constituted human authority and even to show respect to the national flag, and they decry all wars between nations and all kinds of war activities. In 1941 a company of ” Jehova’s Witnesses ” incorporated in Australia commenced proclaiming and teaching matters which were prejudicial to war activities and the defence of the Commonwealth and steps were taken against them under the National Security Regulations of the State. The legality of the action of the Government was questioned by means of a writ petition before the High Court and the High Court held that the action of the Government was justified and that section 116, which guaranteed freedom of religion under the Australian Constitution, was not in any way infringed by the National Security Regulations [Vide Adelaide Company v. The Commonwealth, 67 C.L.R., 116, 127].
  • These were undoubtedly political activities though arising out of religious belief entertained by a particular community. In such cases, as Chief Justice Latham pointed out, the provision for protection of religion was not an absolute protection to be interpreted and applied independently of other provisions of the Constitution. These privileges must be reconciled with the right of the State to employ the sovereign power to ensure peace, security and orderly living without which constitutional guarantee of civil liberty would be a mockery.
  • The courts of America were at one time greatly agitated over the question of legality of a State regulation which required the pupils in public schools on pain of compulsion to participate in a daily ceremony of saluting the national flag, while reciting in unison, a pledge of allegiance to it in a certain set formula. The question arose in Minersville School District, Board of Education, etc. v. Gobitis, 310 U.S. 586. In that case two small children, Lillian and William Gobitis, were expelled from the public school of Minersville, Pennsylvania, for refusing to salute the national flag as part of the daily exercise. The Gobitis family were affiliated with “Jehova’s Witnesses” and had been brought up conscientiously to believe that such a gesture of respect for the flag was forbidden by the scripture. The point for decision by the Supreme Court was whether the requirement of participation in such a ceremony exacted from a child, who refused upon sincere religious ground, infringed the liberty of religion guaranteed by the First and the Fourteenth Amendments ? The court held by a majority that it did not and that it was within the province of the legislature and the school authorities to adopt appropriate means to evoke and foster a sentiment of. national unity amongst the children in public schools. The Supreme Court, however, changed their views on this identical point in the later case of West Virginia State Board of Education v. Barnette 319 U.S. 624.  There it was held overruling the earlier decision referred to above that the action of a State in making it compulsory for children in public schools to salute the flag and pledge allegiance constituted a violation of the First and the Fourteenth Amendments. This difference in judicial opinion brings out forcibly the difficult task which a court has to perform in cases of this type where the freedom or religious convictions genuinely entertained by men come into conflict with the proper political attitude which is expected from citizens in matters of unity and solidarity of the State organization. As regards commercial activities, which are prompted by religious beliefs, we can cite the case of Murdock v. Pennsylvania   319 U.S. 105. Here also the petitioners were “Jehova’s Witnesses” and they went about from door to door in the city of Jeannette distributing literature and soliciting people to purchase certain religious books and pamphlets, all published by the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society. A municipal ordinance required religious colporteurs to pay a licence tax as a condition to the pursuit of their activities. The petitioners were convicted and fined for violation of the ordinance. It was held that the ordinance in question was invalid under the Federal Constitution as constituting a denial of freedom of speech, press and religion; and it was held further that upon the facts of the case it could not be said that “Jehova’s Witnesses” were engaged in a commercial rather than in a religious venture. Here again, it may be pointed out that a contrary view was taken only a few years before in the case of Jones v. Opelika,  316 U.S. 584 and it was held that a city ordinance, which required that licence be procured and taxes paid for the business of selling books and pamphlets on the streets from house to house, was applicable to a member of a religious Organisation who was engaged in selling the printed propaganda, pamphlets without having complied with the provisions of the ordinance.
  • It is to be noted that both in the American as well as in the Australian Constitutions the. right to freedom of religion has been declared in unrestricted terms with. out any limitation whatsoever. Limitations, therefore, have been introduced by courts of law in these countries on grounds of morality, order and social protection. An adjustment of the competing demands of the interests of Government and constitutional liberties is always a delicate and a difficult task and that is why we find difference of judicial opinion to such an extent in cases decided by the American courts where questions of religious freedom were involved. Our Constitution-makers, however, have embodied the limitations which have been evolved by judicial pronouncements in America or Australia in the Constitution itself and the language of articles 25 and 26 is sufficiently clear to enable us to determine without the aid of foreign authorities as to what matters come within the purview of religion and what do not. As we have already indicated, freedom of religion in our Constitution is not confined to religious beliefs only; it extends to religious practices as well subject to the restrictions which the Constitution itself has laid down. Under article 26(b), therefore, a religious denomination or organization enjoys complete autonomy in the matter of deciding as to what rites and ceremonies are essential according to the tenets of the religion they hold and no outside authority has any jurisdiction to interfere with their decision in such matters. Of course, the scale of expenses to be incurred in connection with these religious observances would be a matter of administration of property belonging to the religious denomination and can be controlled by secular authorities in accordance with any law laid down by a competent legislature; for it could not be the injunction, of any religion to destroy the institution and its endowments by incurring wasteful expenditure on rites and ceremonies. It should be noticed, however, that under article 26(d), it is the fundamental right of a religious denomination or its representative to administer its properties in accordance with law; and the law, therefore, must leave the right of administration to the religious denomination itself subject to such restrictions and regulations as it might choose to impose. A law which takes away the right of administration from the hands of a religious denomination altogether and vests it in any other authority would amount to a violation of the right guaranteed under clause (d) of article 26. Having thus disposed of the general contentions that were raised in this appeal, we will proceed now to examine the specific grounds that have been urged by the parties before us in regard to the decision of the High Court so far as it declared several sections of the new Act to be ultra vires the Constitution by reason of their conflicting with the fundamental rights of the respondent.”

Relevant Parts of Dargah Case

  • “We will first take the argument about the infringement of the fundamental right to freedom of religion. Articles 25 and 26 together safeguard the citizens right to freedom of religion. Under Art. 25(1), subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part 111, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and their right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion. This freedom guarantees to every citizen not only the right to entertain such religious beliefs as may appeal to his conscience but also affords him the right to exhibit his belief in his conduct by such outward acts as may appear to him proper in order to spread his ideas for the benefit of others. Article 26 provides that subject to public order, morality and health every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right-
    • (a) to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
    • (b) to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
    • (c) to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
    • (d) to administer such property in accordance with law.
  • The four clauses of this Article constitute the fundamental freedom guaranteed to every religious denomination or any section thereof to manage its own affairs. It is entitled to establish institutions for religious purposes, it is entitled to manage its own affairs in the matters of religion, it is entitled to own and acquire movable and immovable property and to administer such property in accordance with law. What the “expression “religious denomination” means has been considered by this Court in The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt [1954] S.C.R. 1005, 1023, 1024. Mukherjea, J., as he then was, who spoke for the Court, has quoted with approval the dictionary meaning of the word “denomination” which says that a – “denomination” is a collection of individuals classed,. together under the same name, a religious sect or body having a common faith and Organisation and, designated by a distinctive name”. The learned Judge has added that Art. 26 contemplates not merely a religious denomination but also a section thereof Dealing with the questions as to what are the matters of religion, the learned Judge observed that the word “religion” has not been defined in the Constitution, and it is a term which is hardly susceptible of any rigid definition. Religion, according to him, is a matter of faith with individuals or communities and it is not necessarily theistic. It undoubtedly has its basis in a system of pleas or doctrines which are regarded by those who profess that religion as conducive to their spiritual well being, but it is not correct to say that religion is nothing else but a doctrine or belief. A religion may not only lay down a code of ethical rules for its followers to accept, it might prescribe rituals and observances, ceremonies and modes of worship which are regarded as integral parts of religion, and these forms and observances might extend even to matters of food and dress. Dealing with the same topic, though in another context, in Sri Venkataramana Devaru v. The State of Mysore [1958] S.C.R. 895, Venkatarama Aiyar, J. spoke for the Court in the same vein and observed that it was settled that matters of religion in Art. 26(b) include even practices which are regarded by the community as part of its religion, and in support of this statement the learned Judge referred to the observations of Mukherjea, J. which we have already cited. Whilst we are dealing with this point it may not be out of place incidentally to strike a note of caution and observe that in order that the practices in question should be treated as a part of religion they must be regarded by the said religion as its essential and integral part; otherwise even purely secular practices which are not an essential or an integral part of religion are apt to be clothed with a religious form and may make a claim for being treated as religious practices within the meaning of Art. 26. Similarly, even practices though religious may have sprung from merely superstitious beliefs and may in that sense be extraneous and unessential accretions to religion itself. Unless such practices are found to constitute an essential and integral part of a religion their claim for the protection under Art. 26 may have to be carefully scrutinised; in other words, the protection must be confined to such religious practices as are an essential and an integral part of it and no other. In the present appeal we are concerned with the freedoms guaranteed under Art. 26(c) and (d) in particular. The respondents contend that the appointment of the Committee contemplated by ss. 4 and 5 has effectively deprived the section of the denomination represented by them of its right to own the endowment properties and to them. We have already stated that we propose to deal with this appeal on the assumption that the respondents have filed the present writ petition not only for the Khadims but also for and oil behalf of the Chishtis and chat the Chishtis constitute a section of a religious denomination. Considered on this basis the contention of the respondents is directed against the powers conferred on the Committee for the purpose of administering the property of the Durgah and in substance it amounts to a challenge to the validity of the whole Act, because according to them it is for the section of the denomination to administer this property and the Legislature cannot interfere with the said right.
  • In dealing with this argument it is necessary to recall the fact that the challenge to the vires of s. 5 has been made by the respondents in their petition on a very narrow ground. They had urged that since the committee constituted under the Act was likely to include Hanafi muslims who may not be Chishtis muslims the provision authorising the appointment of the Committee was ultra vires, and in fact the decision of the, High Court is also based on this narrow ground. Now, it is clear that the vires of s. 5 cannot be effectively challenged on any such narrow ground. If the right of the denomination or a section of such denomination is adversely affected by the statute the relevant provision of the statute must be struck down as a whole and in its entirety or not at all. If respondents could properly invoke Art. 26(d) it would not be open to the statute to constitute by nomination a Committee for the management and administration of the property of the denomination at all. In others words, the infirmity or the vice in the statute cannot be cured by confining the members of the proposed Committee to the denomination itself. This no doubt is a serious weakness in the basis on which they levelled their attack against the validity of s. 5 in the court below.”

Sabarimala Review (Majority) Judgment

Kantaru Rajeevaru vs Indian Young Lawyers Association

14 November, 2019

                           JUDGMENT

RANJAN GOGOI, CJI. (A.M. Khanwilkar & Indu Malhotra JJ.)

1.      Ordinarily, review petitions ought to proceed on the principle predicated in Order XLVII in Part IV of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013.     However, along with review petitions several fresh writ petitions have been filed as a fall out of the judgment under review. All these petitions were heard together in the open Court.

2.      The endeavour of the petitioners is to resuscitate the debate about – what is essentially religious, essential to religion and integral part of the religion. They would urge that ‘Religion’ is a means to express ones ‘Faith’. In the Indian context, given the plurality of religions, languages, cultures and traditions, what is perceived as faith and essential practices of the religion for a particular deity by a section of the religious group, may not be so perceived (as an integral part of the religion) by another section of the same religious group for the same deity in a temple at another location. Both sections of the same religious group have a right to freely profess, practise and propagate their religious beliefs as being integral part of their religion by virtue of Article 25 of the Constitution of India. It matters not that they do not constitute a separate religious denomination. Further, as long as the practice (ostensibly restriction) associated with the religious belief is not opposed to public order, morality and health or the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India, the section of the religious group is free to profess, practise and propagate the same as being integral part of their religion. The individual right to worship in a temple cannot outweigh the rights of the section of the religious group to which one may belong, to manage its own affairs of religion. This is broadly what has been contended.

3.    Concededly, the debate about the constitutional validity of practices entailing into restriction of entry of women generally in the place of worship is not limited to this case, but also arises in respect of entry of Muslim women in a Durgah/Mosque as also in relation to Parsi women married to a non-Parsi into the holy fire place of an Agyari. There is yet another seminal issue pending for consideration in this Court regarding the powers of the constitutional courts to tread on question as to whether a particular practice is essential to religion or is an integral of the religion, in respect of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra community.

4.    It is time that this Court should evolve a judicial policy befitting to its plenary powers to do substantial and complete justice and for an authoritative enunciation of the constitutional principles by a larger bench of not less than seven judges. The decision of a larger bench would put at rest recurring issues touching upon the rights flowing from Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution of India. It is essential to adhere to judicial discipline and propriety when more than one petition is pending on the same, similar or overlapping issues in the same court for which all cases must proceed together. Indubitably, decision by a larger bench will also pave way to instil public confidence and effectuate the principle underlying Article 145(3) of the Constitution – which predicates that cases involving a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution should be heard by a bench of minimum five judges of this Court. Be it noted that this stipulation came when the strength of the Supreme Court Judges in 1950 was only seven Judges.      The purpose underlying was, obviously, to ensure that the Supreme Court must rule authoritatively, if not as a full court (unlike the US Supreme Court). In the context of the present strength of Judges of the Supreme Court, it may not be inappropriate if matters involving seminal issues including the interpretation of the provisions of the Constitution touching upon the right to profess, practise and propagate its own religion, are heard by larger bench of commensurate number of Judges. That would ensure an authoritative pronouncement and also reflect the plurality of views of the Judges converging into one opinion. That may also ensure consistency in approach for the posterity.

5.    It is our considered view that the issues arising in the pending cases regarding entry of Muslim Women in Durgah/Mosque (being Writ Petition (Civil) No.472 of 2019); of Parsi Women married to a non-Parsi in the Agyari (being Special Leave Petition (Civil) No. 18889/2012); and including the practice of female genital mutilation in Dawoodi Bohra community (being Writ Petition (Civil) No.286 of 2017) may be overlapping and covered by the judgment under review. The prospect of the issues arising in those cases being referred tolarger bench cannot be ruled out. The said issues could be:  

      (i)     Regarding the interplay between the freedom of religion   under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution and other  provisions in Part III, particularly Article 14.    

(ii)    What is the sweep of expression ‘public order, morality  and health’ occurring in Article 25(1) of the Constitution.       

(iii)   The expression ‘morality’ or ‘constitutional morality’ has   not been defined in the Constitution. Is it over arching morality   in reference to preamble or limited to religious beliefs or faith.   There is need to delineate the contours of that expression, lest       it becomes subjective.

      (iv)    The extent to which the court can enquire into the issue  of a particular practice is an integral part of the religion or religious practice of a particular religious denomination or       should that be left exclusively to be determined by the head of the section of the religious group.

          (v)     What is the meaning of the expression ‘sections of   Hindus’ appearing in Article 25(2)(b) of the Constitution.

(vi)    Whether the “essential religious practices” of a religious denomination, or even a section thereof are afforded  constitutional protection under Article 26.         

(vii)       What would be the permissible extent of judicial   recognition to PILs in matters calling into question religious    practices of a denomination or a section thereof at the instance           of persons who do not belong to such religious denomination

6.        In a legal framework where the courts do not have any epistolary jurisdiction and issues pertaining to religion including religious practices are decided in exercise of jurisdiction under Section 9 of the Civil Procedure Code or Article 226/32 of the Constitution the courts should tread cautiously. This is time honoured principle and practice.

7.        In this context, the decision of the Seven Judges bench of this Court in Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras vs. Shri Lakshmindra Tirtha Swamiar of Shirur Mutt (Shirur Mutt) holding that what are essential religious practices of a particular religious denomination should be left to be determined by the denomination itself and the subsequent view of a Five Judges bench in Durgah Committee, Ajmer vs. Syed Hussain Ali & Ors.  carving out a role for the court in this regard to exclude what the courts determine to be secular practices or superstitious beliefs seem to be in apparent conflict requiring consideration by a larger Bench.

8.        While deciding the questions delineated above, the larger bench may also consider it appropriate to decide all issues, including the question as to whether the Kerala Hindu Places of Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry) Rules, 1965 govern the temple in question at all. Whether the aforesaid consideration will require grant of a fresh opportunity to all interested parties may also have to be considered.

9.        The subject review petitions as well as the writ petitions may,accordingly, remain pending until determination of the questions  indicated above by a Larger Bench as may be constituted by the Hon’ble the Chief Justice of India.


[1]AIR 1974 SC 1389

[2]AIR 1994 SC 1918

[3]The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt: AIR 1954 SC 282

[4]Sardar Sarup Singh Vs. State of Punjab: AIR 1959 SC 860;

Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala: 2019-1 SCC 1.

[5]Commr. of Police Vs. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta:AIR 2004 SC 2984.

[6]AIR 1996 SC 1765

[7]Quoted in KS VargheseVs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[8]Mohd. Hanif Quareshi vs. State of Bihar: AIR 1958 SC 731

[9]Sarwar Husain vs. Addl. Judge: (LAWS (All)1982-7-16)

[10]Gramsabha of Village Battis Shirala Vs. Union Of India: LAWS(BOM) 2014-7-136

[11]Mohd. Hanif Quareshi vs. State of Bihar: AIR 1958 SC 731

[12]Sarup Singh Sardar vs. State of Punjab: AIR 1959 SC 860

[13]M. Ismail Faruqui vs. Union of India: AIR 1995 SC 605

[14]Lily Thomas vs. Union of India: (2000) 6 SCC 224

[15]Nirmal Kumar Sikdar vs. Chief Electroal Officer: AIR 1961 Cal 289

[16]AIR 1954 SC 282

[17]AIR 1983 SC 1

[18]AIR 1954 SC 282

[19]AIR 1954 SC 282

[20]AIR 1984 SC 51

[21]AIR 1987 SC748

[22](2011) 5 SCC 464

[23]AIR 1983 SC 1

[24]2019-1 SCC 1

[25]Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala: 2019-1 SCC 1.

[26]Yasmeen Zuber Ahmad Peerzade Vs. Union of India

[27]Goolrokh M. Gupta Vs. Burjor Pardiwala: AIR 2012 CC 3266

[28]Dawoodi Bohra Committee Vs. State of Maharashtra: AIR 2005 SC 752.

[29]    AIR 1954 SC 282.

[30]The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt: AIR 1954 SC 282;

Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala: 2019-1 SCC 1

KS  VargheseVs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333;

VM Malaviya Vs. GY Dewaji: 2018-1 GLR 435

[31]    See: Raja Birakishor Deb Vs. State of Orissa:  AIR 1964 S C 1501;

SP Mittal Vs. Union of India:  AIR 1983 S C 1;                

Dharam Das Vs. State of Punjab  AIR 1975 SC 1069 ;

Sri LakshamanaYatendrulu Vs. State of AP : 1996-8 S CC 705;

Sri AdiVisheshwam of KashiVishivanath Temple Vs. State of U P :  1997- 4 SCC 606

[32]A Pooornachandra-rao Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh: AIR 1982 AP 141.

[33] AIR 1982  AP 141

[34]    BCR-2011-3-655: 2011-3 All MR 171:  2011 (3) Mh LJ 966

[35]    Referred to: Raja Bira Kishore Deb Vs. The State of Orissa, AIR 1964 SC 1501;

PannalalBansilalPittiVs. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1996) 2 SCC 498

AS NarayanaDeekshituluVs.State of Andhra Pradesh, (1996) 9 SCC 548.

[36]AIR 1954 SC 282

[37]AIR 1961 SC 1402.

[38]Durgah Committee, Ajmer Vs. Syed Hussain Ali: AIR 1961 SC 1402.

[39]AS Narayana Deekshitulu   Vs. State of AP AIR 1996 SC 1765;

KS  VargheseVs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[40]    AIR 1954 SC 282.

[41]Sri Lakshmindra Theertha Swamiarvs The Commissioner: AIR 1952 Mad 613

[42]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018 -13 Scale 75; 2018 8 SCJ 609

[43]AIR 2015 SC 460

[44]AIR 1995  SC 2089

[45]AIR 1983 SC 1

[46]    Sri Jagannath Temple Puri Managt Comte Vs. Chintamani Khuntia: AIR 1997 SC 3839

[47]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018 8 SCJ 609

[48]2017-15 SCC 333

[49]AIR 2016  SC 209

[50]AIR 1983 SC 1

[51]AIR 1975  SC 706

[52]    1963AIR SC 1638:

[53]AIR 1959 SC 860

[54]2020-1 SCC 1

[55] 2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[56]AIR1983 SC 1

[57]1962 Supp. 2 SCR 496

[58]2020-1 SCC 1

[59] 2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[60]2017-9 SCALE 178

[61] (2002) 8 SCC 106

[62]1997-4 SCC 606

[63]AIR 1996 SC 1765

[64]AIR 1984 SC 51

[65] AIR 1958 SC 255

[66]2020-1 SCC 1

[67] 2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[68]2017-9 SCALE 178

[69]AIR1984 SC51

[70] AIR 1958 SC 255

[71]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018 13 Scale 75; 2018 8 SCJ 609

[72]AIR1983 SC 1

[73]1962 Supp. 2 SCR 496

[74]AIR 1959 SC 860

[75]AIR1959SC942

[76]2020-1 SCC 1

[77]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018 13 Scale 75; 2018 8 SCJ 609

[78]2017-15 SCC 333

[79]AIR 2016  SC 209

[80]AIR 2015 SC 460

[81]2004-4 SCC 661

[82]1962 Supp. 2 SCR 496

[83]AIR 1959 SC 860

[84]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018 13 Scale 75; 2018 8 SCJ 609

[85]2017-15 SCC 333

[86]AIR 1983 SC 1

[87]AIR 1970  SC 181

[88]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[89]2017-15 SCC 333

[90](2016) 2 SCC 725

[91]AIR 1996 SC 1023

[92] AIR 1999 SC 3567

[93]AIR 1983 SC 1

[94]AIR 1970  SC 181

[95]    AIR 1961 SC 1402.

See also: Birakishore Vs. State of Orissa: AIR 1964  SC 1501

[96]2020-1 SCC 1

[97]AIR 2004 SC 2984.

[98] 2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[99] AIR 1962 SC 853

[100]  1963AIR SC 1638:

[101] AIR 1958 SC 255

[102](2004) 12 SCC 770:AIR 2004 SC 2984

[103] 2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[104](2016) 2 SCC 725

[105] (2002) 8 SCC 106

[106]1997-4 SCC 606

[107] AIR 1962 SC 853

[108]  1963AIR SC 1638:

[109]AIR 1996 SC 1765

[110]Commr. of  Police Vs. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta: AIR 2004 SC 2984.

[111]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[112]  1963 AIR SC 1638:

[113] [1958] SCR 895; AIR 1958 SC 255

[114] (2016) 2 SCC 725

[115]  1954 AIR SC 388.

[116]  Syedna Mohamed Burhanuddin :1992 (1) GLH 331;

VM Malaviya Vs. GY Dewaji: 2018-1 GLR 435

[117] AIR 1962 SC 853

[118]AIR 1954 SC 282.

[119] AIR 1958 SC 255

[120]AIR 1961 SC 1402.

[121]  1963AIR SC 1638:

[122]AIR 1983 SC 1

[123]AIR 1996 SC 1765

[124]AIR 1996 SC 1765

[125]1997-4 SCC 606

[126]AIR1997 SC 1711

[127](2017) 15 SCC 333.

[128]  AIR 2005 SC 2544: 2005 (10) SCC 760.

[129]  AIR 2007 SC 1337.

[130]  AIR 2007 SC 1337: 2006-11 SCC 624:  2007  AIR (SCW)  1512

[131]  Bhuri Nath Sewa Committee Vs. State of Jammu And Kashmir: AIR1997 SC 1711;

A S Narayana Deekshitulu Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh: AIR 1996 SC 1765;

Ramachandra Vs. Shivaram Narayana Bhat: AIR  2009Kar 595;

KS Varghese Vs. St. Peters and St. Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[132](2016) 2 SCC 725

[133]AIR 1954 SC 282

[134](2017) 15 SCC 333.

[135](2017) 15 SCC 333

[136]AIR 1996 SC 1765

[137](2004) 12 SCC 770:AIR 2004 SC 2984

[138] Relied on The Commr, Hindu Religious Endowments Vs. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt: AIR 1954 SC 282

Tilkayat Shri Govindlalji Maharaj Vs. St. of Rajasthan: 1963AIR SC 1638

SP Mittal Vs. Union of India:  AIR 1983 S C 1

PannalalBansilalPatil  v. State of Andhra Pradesh AIR 1996 SC 1023

A S Narayana Deekshitulu Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh: AIR 1996 SC 1765;

Bhuri Nath Sewa  Committee Vs. State of Jammu And Kashmir: AIR1997 SC 1711;

Commissioner of Police Vs. Acharya Jagadishwarananda Avadhuta: AIR 2004 SC 2984.

N. Adithayan Vs. Travancore Devaswom Board: AIR 2005 SC 3538

Adi Saiva Sivachariyargal Nala Sangam VsGovt of TN: AIR 2016  SC 209

[139]  AIR 1958 MP 362

[140]  See also: Rev. Fr. Farcisus Mascarenhas Vs. State of Bombay: 1960-62 Bom LR 790 (Mudholkar& VM Tharkunde, JJ.);

Gnanamuthu Udayar Vs. Anthoni: AIR  1960 Mad 430.

[141]  AIR  1997 SC 109

[142]  See also: Saly Joseph Vs. Baby Thomas: AIR 1999 Ker 66;

Varkey Vs. Thresia: AIR  1955 Ker 255

[143]  AIR 1970 SC 2079: 1971-1 SCR 734:

[144]  1990 1 SCC 428: AIR  1990 SC 695:

[145]2007 1 SCC 386

[146]Indian Young Lawyers Assn. Vs. State of Kerala: 2019-1 SCC 1.

[147]Yasmeen Zuber Ahmad Peerzade Vs. Union of India

[148]Goolrokh M. Gupta Vs. Burjor Pardiwala: AIR 2012 CC 3266

[149]Dawoodi Bohra Committee Vs. State of Maharashtra: AIR 2005 SC 752.

[150]2019-1 SCC 1: 2018-13 Scale 75; 2018-8 SCJ 609

[151]AIR 1954 SC 282

[152]AIR 1983 SC 1

[153][1954] SCR 1005: AIR 1954 SC 282

[154][1962] 1 SCR 383: AIR 1961 SC 1402

[155]Review from 2019-1 SCC 1:

[156]AIR 1962 SC 853

[157]AIR 2012 CC 3266



Read in this Cluster  (Click on the topic):

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act

Will

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India

Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs of a Club or Society

Saji Koduvath.

Introduction.

It is trite law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of civil courts is not readily inferred in civil disputes. The normal rule, as laid down under Section 9 of Code of Civil Procedure, is that the civil courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of civil nature, except the cognisance of which is either expressly or impliedly excluded.[1]

That is, unless by express mode or by necessary implication barred, civil courts’ jurisdiction permeates into every civil matter including that of the private associations and even clubs. When the affairs of such institutions, associations etc. are governed by statutes, the courts test the validity of their actions on the touch stone of such statutes. If such bodies are not directly governed by any statute but being administered under their own rules, bye laws etc., their impugned actions are tested in the light of those rules or bye laws. The courts enquire whether their acts were in conformity with those rules and bye laws, and following the principles of natural justice.[2]

2. Sources of Civil Court’s Jurisdiction

The jurisdiction of a civil court to interfere with the internal affairs of associations is ‘rather limited’.[3] Courts get jurisdiction to interfere with the internal affairs of associations if there are cogent grounds such as acts without jurisdiction, acts in violation of the principles of natural justice, acts with malafides, etc. Beyond the general jurisdiction of courts to intervene and set right illegalities, the jurisdiction thereof is obtained by Courts from three sources:

  • (i)   contract – on the premise that bye laws bind its members as a contract.[4]
  • (ii) court is the protector of all charities[5] and
  • (iii) formation of associations is, besides common law right and statutory right, a fundamental right[6] protected by our courts.

Provisions of the Societies Registration Act, 1860:

  • 6. Suits By and Against Societies – Every society registered under this Act may sue or be sued in the name of the president, chairman, or principal secretary, or trustees, as shall be determined by the rules and regulations of the society, and, in default of such determination, in the name of such person as shall be appointed by the governing body for the occasion.
  • Provided that it shall be competent for any person having a claim or demand against the society, to sue the president or chairman, or principal secretary or the trustees thereof, if on application to the governing body some other officer or person be not nominated to be the defendant.

3. Disputes be Redressed by the Mechanism Provided by the Rules

In Kowtha Suryanarayana Rao Vs. Patibandla Subrahmanyam[7]  it is held as follows:

  • “It is a well established principle that, provided that the acts of the management are within the powers of the society itself any dispute between individual members of the society and those responsible for its management must be decided by the machinery provided by the rules and not in a Court of law. It is only when an act is ultra vires the society that a member is entitled to come to a Civil Court and have the act of the management which is ultra vires declared to be void.”

In Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD  Kaushik[8] it is observed that in matters of internal management of an association, the courts normally do not interfere, leaving it open to the association and its members to frame a particular bye-law, rule or regulation which may provide for eligibility and or qualification for the membership and/or providing for limitations/restrictions on the exercise of any right by and as a member of the said association.

It is further held in this decision that the Memorandum of Association is a contract amongst the members of the Society and that these are rules which govern internal control and management of the Society. The authority to frame, amend, vary and rescind such rules, undoubtedly, vests in the General Body of the Members of the Society. The power to amend the rules is implicit in the power to frame rules.

Other remedies must be exhausted

It is well settled legal proposition that once a person becomes a member of the association, such a person loses his individuality qua the association and he has no individual rights except those given to him by the rules and regulations and/or bye-laws of the association.Courts will not delve in the internal disputes of an association unless it is shown[9] that the aggrieved parties have worked out and exhausted their remedies[10] (but, failed to resolve disputes)under the bye laws, before:

  • (a) the machinery or body (domestic tribunals)[11], if any,  provided in its bye laws,[12] or
  • (b) the body or authority which has to take (expressly or impliedly) cognisance of the matter, under its bye laws, or
  • (c) the authorities under the statute, if any, holds the field.[13]

In the following decisions the Supreme Court held that where hierarchy of appeals is provided by the statute, party must exhaust the statutory remedies before resorting to writ jurisdiction:

  • G. Veerappa Pillai vs. Raman and Raman Ltd., AIR 1952 SC 192,
  • Asst Collector of Central Excise vs. Dunlop India Ltd. AIR 1985 SC 330,
  • Ramendra Kishore Biswas vs. State of Tripura, AIR 1999 SC 294,
  • Shivgonda Anna Patil vs. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1999 SC 2281,
  • C.A. Abraham vs. I.T.O. Kottayam and Others, AIR 1961 SC 609,
  • Titaghur Paper Mills Co. vs. State of Orissa, AIR 1983 SC 603,
  • H.B. Gandhi vs. M/s Gopinath and Sons, 1992 (Supp) 2 SCC 312,
  • Whirlpool Corporation vs. Registrar of Trade Marks, AIR 1999 SC 22,
  • Tin Plate Co. of India Ltd. vs. State of Bihar, AIR 1999 SC 74,
  • Sheela Devi vs. Jaspal Singh, 1999 (1) SCC 209 and
  • Punjab National Bank vs. O.C. Krishnan, 2001 (6) SCC 569.

The general principle is that when the Act and the Rules made thereunder are silent on a particular aspect, we have to look for guidance into the broad scheme of the Act and the intention of the legislature.[14] This principle applies, with full vigor, to the bye laws of voluntary associations.

In the celebrated decision, TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria,[15] the Supreme Court held that a member of a Masonic lodge was bound to abide by the rules of the lodge, and if the rules provide for expulsion, he shouldbe expelled only in the manner provided by the rules;[16]and that the lodge was bound to act strictly according to the rules.[17]

  • See also Chapter: Expulsion of Members & Officers’ Removal.

Dissent and Disagreement be Resolved under the Party Constitution

In the ‘floor test case’ (Maharashtra Assembly), Subhash Desai v. Principal Secretary, Governor of Maharashtra (decided on May 11, 2023), the Supreme Court held as under: 

  • “88. The political imbroglio in Maharashtra arose as a result of party differences within the Shiv Sena. However, the floor test cannot be used as a medium to resolve internal party disputes or intra party disputes. Dissent and disagreement within a political party must be resolved in accordance with the remedies prescribed under the party constitution, or through any other methods that the party chooses to opt for.”

4. Courts Interfere if Genuine Disputes or Manifest Illegality

If dispute arises among the members of the society as to the validity of the governing body of a society[18]the civil courts can adjudicate such matters. In DB Enterprise Vs. Juhu Chandan Co-Op Hsg. Ltd.[19] disputes arose among two groups of members of the society as to whether the Development Agreement has been validly entered into by the society on behalf of its members such as to bind them. Several members disputed that the agreement had not been validly entered into. Observing that it was impossible to accept that the agreement was against the interest of the members, to the question whether these disputes were genuine, the court considered the events elaborately that have transpired since initial proposal of the agreement, it was held that the society was bound by the Agreement.

But, in cases where a special forum is provided to settle disputes regarding management, as in Sec. 23 of the AP Societies Registration Act, 2001, the civil court jurisdiction is expressly or impliedly barred.[20]

The jurisdiction of courts’ interference in matters of associations is limited; and the decisions taken by the associations are respected.[21] A simple breach of any Rule will not give rise to a cause of action for a member.[22]  Courts will be slow to interfere with the decisions of the associations and the domestic tribunals,[23]including that in the election matters; because, the success of a winning candidate at an election cannot be lightly interfered with.[24]

Generally, the Court will not:

  • appreciate the evidence and record its own findings of fact.[25]
  • act as a Court of Appeal.[26]
  • interfere with finding of fact of a domestic tribunal on the ground of inadequacy or insufficiency of evidence.[27]
  • interfere with finding of fact on the ground that different view could possibly be taken on the evidence available on the record.
  • interfere with appreciation of the evidence on record and recorded the findings of fact of a domestic tribunal.[28]
  • interfere with finding of guilt.[29]
  • interfere with discharging duties by the elected office bearers of an Association.
  • go into the truth of the allegations/charges.[30]
  • interfere so long as the association acting within the power conferred on it under the Articles of Association.

The court will examine only:

  • Whether jurisdictional error.
  • Whether procedural errorin decision making process.[31]
  • Whether the action is perverse,or based on no evidence or grounds.
  • Whether the action is illegal.
  • Whether the action is malafide or arbitrary exercise of power.

And, the Court will interfere if:

  • action without jurisdiction.
  • manifest illegality including violation of the principles of natural justice.[32]
  • illegality of the act or omission goes to the root of the matter.[33]
  • manifest perversity or something that shocks the conscience of the Court.
  • malafide or arbitrary exercise of power.[34]
  • without cogent and compelling grounds.
  • the impugned acts are based on no evidence[35] i.e., where they are perverse[36] or based on conjectures or surmises.
  • the alleged violation is so grave that it could not be condoned by the general body.[37]
  • jurisdictional error apparent on the face of the record committed by the domestic tribunal.[38]
  • the impugned acts do not carry a reasonable degree of probability (but need not be so high as is required in a criminal case).[39]
  • no reasonable or ordinary prudent man[40] would on given facts and circumstances come to the conclusion reached by the quasi-judicial authority on the basis of the evidence on record.[41]
  • the impugned acts are made at the dictates of the superior authority.[42]
  • in order to resolve stalemate,as both sides did not want an election to be conducted.[43]
  • set right the illegalities and put the election process in motion in accordance with the Bye laws.[44]

When Injunction is granted by the Civil Courts

  • Breach of  Obligation ‘existing in his (pff’s) favour’ (Sec. 38 (1) Sp. Relief Act). According to sec, 2 (a) Sp. Relief Act, “Obligation” includes every duty enforceable by law.
  • Must be to enforce individual civil rights: Sec. 4 Sp. Relief Act; Sec. 9 CPC
  • Plaintiff must have personal interest:  Sec. 41(j) Sp. Relief Act
  • Discretion of the court:   Sec. 36 Sp. Relief Act.

5. Violation of the Principles of Natural Justice

               See notes below under the heading ‘Natural Justice’

6. Sec. 38 of the Specific Relief Act

Sec. 38 of the Specific Relief Act reads:

  • “38. Perpetual injunction when granted. (1) Subject to the other provisions contained in or referred to by this chapter, a perpetual injunction may be granted to the plaintiff to prevent the breach of an obligation existing in his favour, whether expressly or by implication.
  • (2) When any such obligation arises from contract, the Court shall be guided by the Rules and provisions contained in Chapter II.
  • (3) When the defendant invades or threatens to invade the plaintiff’s right to, or enjoyment of property, the Court may grant a perpetual injunction in the following cases, namely;
    • (a) where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff;
    • (b) where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused, or likely to be caused, by the invasion;
    • (c) where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford adequate relief;
    • (d) where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial proceedings.

Under Sec. 38 of the Specific Relief Act the court is expressly authorised to grant injunctions to prevent breach of an obligation existing in favour of the plaintiff or where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff. The word obligation is defined in Sec. 3 of the Specific Relief Act in a wider sense to include ‘every duty enforceable by law’. The word trust is also used in a wider sense in this Act as seen from the definition clause.[45]

7. Instances When Court Interferes with Acts of Management of an Association

It is observed by the Supreme Court in Rajahmundry Electric Supply Corporation Limited Vs. A. Nageswara Rao[46] as under:

  • “It is no doubt the law that Courts will not, in general, intervene at the instance of shareholders in matters of internal administration, and will not interfere with the management of a company by its directors, so long as they are acting within the power conferred on them under the Articles of Association.”

In a properly instituted suit the Court interferes with the acts of management of a society or club when the acts are:

  • (1) ultra virus or act without jurisdiction;[47]
  • (2) fraud[48]
  • (3) illegal[49]
  • (4) in violation of the Rules oragainst statutory provisions,[50]
  • (5)  rules/bye-laws not followed[51]
  • (6) against an order having the force of law;[52]
  • (7)  violation of the principles of natural justice[53]
  • (8)  oppressive;[54]
  • (9)   mismanagement[55]
  • (10) mala fide, or not in good faith;[56]
  • (11)  arbitrary,[57]
  • (12) irrational,
  • (13)  relevant factors were not considered
  • (14) irrelevant factors were considered
  • (15) decision, which no reasonable person would have taken.[58]
  • (16) ensuring democratic set-up or will of the community.[59]
  • (17) disciplinary action on trumpery charges.
  • (18) disciplinary action: grounds/reasons unjustifiable.[60]
  • (19) acts dishonestly[61]
  • (20) acts under the provisions of the bye laws which are opposed to public policy or not reasonable.[62]
  • (21)action not supported by any evidence[63] or based on conjectures or surmises[64]
  • (22) evidence perverse[65]
  • (23)exercise of discretionary power unreasonably[66]

8. When Courts Interfere with the Acts of a Domestic Tribunal:[67]

A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure.[68]In Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley[69] the Calcutta High Court held that the court can set aside the decision of a domestic tribunal

  • (A) when the tribunal oversteps the limits of its jurisdiction;
  • (B) when it violates the principles of natural justice and
  • (C) when it acts dishonestly,[70] actuated by bias, bad faith and the like.

In Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India,[71]our Apex Court held as under:

  • “Lord Greene said in 1948 in the famous Wednesbury Case[72]  that when a statute gave discretion to an administrator to take a decision, the scope of judicial review would remain limited. He said that interference was not permissible unless one or the other of the following conditions was satisfied, namely the order was:
    • contrary to law, or
    • relevant factors were not considered, or
    • irrelevant factors were considered; or
    • the decision was one which no reasonable person could have taken.”

9. Individual Wrongs and Internal Management

A suit for redressing individual wrongs done by a director of a company or a governing body member of a society cannot be considered as merely a matter concerned with internal management.[73]

10. Unfair Clause in a Contract is Amenable to Judicial Review

It is held in LIC of India Vs. Consumer Education & Research Centre[74] that an unfair and untenable or irrational clause in a contract is unjust and amenable to Judicial Review. In common law a party was relieved from such contract.

11. Rule Contrary to the Rules of Natural Justice, Void

While considering Section 2 (b) of the Karnataka Societies Registration Act (similar provision to Sec. 15 of the Societies Registration Act), the High Court of Karnataka (RP Sethi, G. Patri Basavana Goud JJ.), in Lingappa Police Patil Vs. Registrar of Societies,[75] it is held that the Rule of the Society which declared a person would cease to be a member merely on his default to make the subscription, without even providing him an opportunity to show cause for not making the payment within a specified period appeared ‘to be very harsh’; and that ‘confiscatory and deprivatory provisions made, resulting in civil consequences, should not have been allowed’ to be incorporated in the bye laws.  The Division Bench struck down the impugned Rule it being contrary to the provisions of the Act. It is on the principle that rules of natural justice require that that no person can be condemned unheard.[76]

12. No Member can Question Bye Laws

The Constitution or bye-laws of a society is paramount;[77] and, it is the soul of the Society.[78]

Bye laws of a Society are made by the founding members of the society for regulating its affairs. The decisions of its general body bind the members.[79] Subject to the provisions of the Act, if any, applicable and the bye laws, the final authority[80] of every association vests in the general body of the members in general meeting, summoned in such manner as specified in their bye-laws.

In Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. District Registrar, Co-op. Societies (Urban)[81] it is held that when one joins a society his rights in the society are governed by the provisions of the statute and the bye laws. A member of the society has no independent right qua the society and it is the society that is entitled to represent as the corporation aggregate. No individual member is entitled to assail the constitutionality of the provisions of the Act, rules and the bye laws. The stream cannot rise higher than the source.

13. Jurisdiction of Civil Courts is ‘Rather Limited’: Principles

In U.P. Financial Corporation Vs. Naini Oxygen and Acetylene Gas[82] it is observed:

  • “However, we cannot lose sight of the fact that the Corporation is an independent autonomous statutory body having its own constitution and rules to abide by, and functions and obligations to discharge. As such, in the discharge of its functions, it is free to act according to its own light.  The views it forms and the decisions it takes are on the basis of the reformation in its possession and the advice it receives and according to its own perspective and calculations. Unless its action is mala fide, even a wrong decision taken by it is not open to challenge. It is not for the courts or a third party to substitute its decision, however more prudent, commercial or business like it may be, for the decision of the Corporation. Hence, whatever the wisdom [or the lack of it] of the conduct of the Corporation, the same cannot be assailed for making the Corporation liable.”

In Prem Narain Tandon Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh[83] it is observed:

  • “Universities are autonomous bodies and the Courts should be reluctant, as far as possible, to interfere with the internal administration of the University. There should be no occasion for any interference unless there is a palpable violation of law, which has occasioned injustice in a broad and general sense.”[84]

An association itself is the best custodian of its interests;[85] and its decisions are binding on all members unless displaced by appropriate remedy under law.[86] When an authority is vested with the power to take an action, it also includes the power to recall or revoke that action, subject of course to any restraint, regulation or bar imposed, expressly or by implication, by law.  Therefore, unless and until there is a law, rule or bye-law prohibiting a person or authority from doing a particular act, that person or authority if vested with the final authority to take any decision for managing its affairs said authority or person is competent to take any decision, revise, review or revoke any earlier decision taken by it.[87]

The jurisdiction of civil courts is ‘rather limited’[88] in the internal disputes of the associations of persons; and, they will not assume jurisdiction so long as they are or acting within the power conferred on them.[89]

Courts Interfere When Illegalities Go To the Root of the Matter

The courts set right abuses in the matters of associations.But, it will not ordinarily explore or interfere with internal matters of associations, unless there are cogent grounds; or illegalities that go to the root of the matter or ultra vires (Anand Prakash Vs. Assistant Registrar, AIR 1968 All 22), such as, acts without jurisdiction, malafides, acts in violation of the principles of natural justice etc.

In ShridharMisraVs.JaichandraVidyalankar[90] it is observed:  

  • “Ordinarily, the civil court will not interfere with the internal management of a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act at the instance of some of the members of the Society. But this rule is subject to the following exceptions: 
  • (1) Where the impugned action is ultra vires the Society;
  • (2) the act complained of constitutes a fraud; and
  • (3) where the impugned action is illegal.
  • If a case falls under any of these exceptions, it is open to some of the members of the Society to file a suit in the civil court challenging the act done in the name of the Society.”

14. Forbearance – Principles

Forbearance (not absolute restraint[91]) of courts in internal matters of an association is based on the following principles:

1 . Autonomous bodies[92]

Autonomy indicates that the body is subordinate to none[93] though it may be working under administrative control of another body, such as a Ministry.[94]

A society is the best custodian of its interests.[95]

What is in the interest of the society is primarily for the society alone to decide and it is not for an outside agency to say.[96]

Article 19(1)(c) of our Constitution guarantees freedom to form associations or unions. Right to form an association enjoins with it a right to continue to be associated with it, as well as to ensure that only those persons are admitted to the association whom they voluntarily admitted.[97] It includes in itself the right of lawful functioning and administration, as autonomous[98] or self governing bodies (including one formed for the administration of a trust[99]). Such institutions are entitled to carry on its affairs without being interfered by external forces, unless it could be shown that the act complained of is null and void, or makes out a case of malafides.[100] Court will not interfere in the internal autonomy of educational institutions[101]or the acts of a Principal of a School (who is primarily responsible for maintenance of discipline[102]).

Article 43B of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall endeavour to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies.

When the administrators of an autonomous[103] body primarily responsible for maintenance of its internal discipline, whether it be a voluntary association, educational institution[104] or an industry, takes action against an erring member, student or employee, courts will not meddle with such actions or substitute its decision, however more prudent[105] it may be, unless there are fundamental vitiating circumstances, such as breach of the principles of natural justice, manifest perversity or something that shocks the conscience of the Court.

Our Apex Court, in Shyam Lal Yadev Vs. Kusum Dhawan,[106] it is expressed  that it would be strange jurisprudence which would paralyse autonomous bodies if courts could intervene on some ipse dixit to undo acts of internal management against employees especially when the power of the employer was made out.

2. Members’ rights merge in the rights of association: A person who forms an association or joins the society as a member, enters into a contract with the bye laws or regulations of the association. His rights merge in the rights of the society or association and are controlled by the Act and the bye-laws of the society or association.[107]

3. Rule of majority[108] is one of the basic principles of all voluntary associations, in our democratic set-up. And, therefore, courts will not interfere either with the lawful decisions of the associations or with its ‘policy matters’[109] and discretionary actions[110] exercised by the authorities under the powers given by the bylaws, expressly or impliedly. It is up to the members to propose amendments.[111] Company Court will not interfere with the commercial wisdom of the shareholders.[112]

4. Right of management includes right to resolve internal disputes: The right of management includes the right to resolve internal conflicts and disputes. Disputes between individual members of the society and those responsible for its management must be decided by the machinery provided by the rules and not in a Court of law.[113]

In Most Rev. P.M.A. Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[114] Sahai, J. observed: “… But, for purposes of enforcing discipline within a church religious body may constitute a tribunal to determine whether its rules have been violated by any other member or not and what will be the consequence of that violation. In such case the tribunals so constituted are not in any sense courts, they derive no authority from the statutes and they have no power of their own to enforce their sentence. Their decisions are given effect to by the courts as decision of the arbitrators whose jurisdiction rests entirely on the agreement of the parties.”

5.  A society cannot be left without a remedy; and Presupposed to have provisions to resolve disputes: The Constitution or bye-laws of a society is paramount,[115] and it is the soul of the Society.[116] The society cannot be left without a remedy for its internal administration, as law does not contemplate a vacuum.[117] The doctrine of necessity, a common law doctrine, is applied to tide over the situations where there are difficulties; and a solution has to be found out rather than allowing the problem to boil over.[118]  The members of an association are free to resolve their disputes internally under their bye laws; and the club/society or its domestic tribunal is entitled to decide all internal matters as it thinks right.[119] It is presupposed to have the provisions, expressly or impliedly, to resolve the internal disputes by themselves.[120]In proper cases,it can constitute a tribunal. An association is free to enforce discipline within the association, by itself; for,

  • (a) an association is autonomous; and, in its very nature, formed under the principles of democracy and doctrines of collective wisdom, as miniature replica of a republic; and
  • (b) the members are united on consensual basis;[121] and are voluntarily submitted themselves to the administration under the bye laws.

6. Scheme of the Bye Laws will Speak for Silences: When the Act and the Rules made thereunder are silent on a particular aspect, we have to look into the broad scheme[122] of the Act and the intention of the legislature for guidance.[123]The same principle can be applied to the bylaws and affairs of an association also.

7. Implied Bar: Rights created by Enacted Law or by Bylaws :The right to appoint and/or remove the directors of a company is created by the Companies Act; and these are the matters of internal management which itself provides machinery for the enforcement of such right. Therefore, the Civil Courts jurisdiction in such matters is impliedly barred.[124]  Same is the position in case of rights conferred by the bye laws applicable to an association.

8. Doctrines of Alternate/Special Remedy and  Equally Efficacious Remedy: Courts will not delve in the internal disputes of an association unless it is shown[125] that the aggrieved parties have worked out and exhausted[126] their remedies[127]  under the bye laws; ie. before domestic tribunals[128] or other authority.[129]

Where a right or liability is created by a statute which gives a special remedy for enforcing it, the remedy provided by that statute alone must be availed of.[130] Right conferred by a rule is always subject to the qualifications prescribed and limitations imposed thereunder.[131] These principles apply to the rights and liabilities arise from the bye laws of a society also. Courts will not, ordinarily, interfere where there is an appropriate or equally efficacious remedy available.[132]

9. Election–rights:  Not common law rights: The rights to vote, contest election etc. are neither fundamental nor common law rights. They are statutory rights regulated by the statutory provisions. Where a statute provides for election to an office and if it provides a machinery for determination of disputes arising out of election, the aggrieved person should pursue his remedy before the forum provided by the statute. It is not permissible to invoke the jurisdiction of the courts bypassing the machinery designated by the Act for adjudication of the election disputes. But exceptional or extraordinary circumstances may exist to justify bypassing the alternative remedies.[133]

10.  Court Interference Results Frustration: If the process of election is allowed to be freely interfered with by the courts, possibly no election will be completed without court’s order; and the basic purpose of having election and getting an elected body to run the Administration will be frustrated.[134]

11. Cannot stall the formation of the governing body: No member has a right to claim injunction so as to stall the formation of the governing body.[135]

12. Right of Ratification: A society cannot function otherwise than in accordance with its constitution. But, the Gen. Body can ratify a directory provision.[136] It is a recognised principle of law.[137] A simple breach of any Rule, especially when it is ‘technical’,[138]will not give rise to a cause of action for any member.  In other words, the alleged violation should be so grave that it could not be condoned or ratified by the general body,[139] or by a lawful correction; or there is manifest illegality, or act or omission that goes to the root of the matter.

13. Irregular Notice may be Ratified: In the nature and circumstances of a particular matter, an irregular notice may be ratified by the appropriate body at a subsequent meeting as observed in Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-Operative Societies.[140]

14. Sufficiency of Notice: When a question arose as to whether the provision in the Co-operative Rules that provides 15 clear days notice for moving a no-confidence motion was directory or mandatory, following the Supreme Court decision in Narasimhiah Vs. Singri Gowda[141] it was held in VA Jose Vs. Joint Registrar of Co-operative Societies[142] that the provision was only directory since the legislature had not provided any consequence that was to follow if 15 clear days notice had not been given and since the petitioner did not explain in what manner he was prejudiced for not getting 15 clear days notice. It was also held that the petitioner being participated in the disputed meeting, he had no right to challenge the invalidity in the notice for convening the meeting.

15. Success of a winning candidate cannot be lightly interfered: The success of a winning candidate at an election cannot be lightly interfered with; more so, when no fault of his.[143] If ultimately, the suit is dismissed, the court cannot compensate for granting a temporary injunction.[144]

Internal Management And Suit By Individual Members

As regards the internal management of the society, whether the society as such, and not its individual members, has to sue is considered in Ram Charan Agarwala Vs. Shridhar Misra.[145] It was held as under:

  • “There have been a large number of cases both in India as also in England where courts has to consider whether a suit can be brought in respect of the internal management of a company otherwise than in the name of the company itself, by individual members thereof. There is good authority for the proposition that the case of society registered under the Act is similar to that of a club or a joint-stock company, (See A. S. Krishnan v. M. Sundaram, AIR 1941 Bom 312). A Full Bench of this Court in the case of 1947 All LJ 637 (AIR 1948 All 146) (supra), has held that the same principles apply to a club which applied to a joint-stock company. In the leading case on the subject Foss v. Harbottle (1843) 2 Hare 461, it was held that the normal rule is that the corporation should sue in its own name and in its corporate character, or in the name of some one whom the law has appointed to be its representative. Mozley v. Alston, (1847) 16 LJ Ch 217, is an authority for the proposition that ordinarily individual share-holders cannot sustain a Bill in their own names in respect of a matter common to all or relating to the internal management of the company. In the case of Mac Doughall v. Gardiner (1875) 1 Ch D 13, the Court held that it could not interfere in the internal management of a company and dismissed an action brought by one Share-holder on behalf of himself and all other share-holders excluding the Directors, against the Directors and the company complaining against certain matters decided at a meeting. To the same effect is the decision of the Bombay High Court in Bhajekar v. Shinkar, AIR 1934 Bom 243 and of the Madras High Court in Nagappa v. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831. The Bombay High Court took the same view in S. Sidhantalankar v. Arya Samaj Bombay, AIR 1946 Bom 516, which was a case of a registered society. This general rule however has got an exception as pointed out in the Madras and Bombay cases referred to above. The exception is that a share-holder can bring an action even with regard to an internal management of a company if (1) the action of the majority is ultra vires the company; (2) where the act complained of constitutes a fraud on the minority; (3) where the action of the majority is illegal and (4) where a special resolution is required by the Article of the Company and the assent of the majority to such special resolution is obtained by a trick, or even where a Company authorised to do a particular thing only by a special resolution does it without a special resolution duly passed.”

15. In Proper Cases Courts Order Election and Appoint Receivers

Though not specifically sought for in relief, in proper cases, Courts order election and appoint receivers.

The courts interfere and grant relief in a given situation[146]disregarding the technicalities. For example:

  • (i)   where the issue was not properly expressed and it was of formal nature;[147]
  • (ii) when a larger relief was prayed for and the claim for the same was not duly established but the evidence justified grant of smaller relief;[148]
  • (iii) where the relief, as originally sought, has become obsolete or unserviceable or a new form of relief will be more efficacious on account of developments subsequent to the suit or even during the appellate stage;[149] and
  • (iv) to promote substantial justice; subject, of course to the absence of other disentitling factors or just circumstances where equity justifies bending the rules of procedure, where no specific provision or fair play is violated – as procedure is the handmaid and not the mistress of the judicial process.[150]

Kerala High Court, in KP Muhammed  Vs.  M Abdurahiman,[151]  held that when there was no validly elected committee for the proper management of an association, the civil courts would have jurisdiction to order election of the committee even if it was not sought for by the parties.

16. Court Examines Reasons of Supersession of Societies

While dealing with CP and Berar Municipalities Act, it is held by the Full Bench in Municipal Commissioner, Kareli Vs. State of MP[152] that the Court has power to examine the sufficiency of reasons. It was observed:

  • “In a democratic society it is of the essence that democratic institutions are allowed to function and not superseded on trumpery charges inadequately brought home or unreasonably accepted. The Courts will be vigilant to see that such over-reaching powers are kept within the four corners of the statute granting them. We think that the fact that a reasonable opportunity to show cause has been made a condition precedent to the exercise of the power and that reasons for the super-session have to be notified to the electorate shows that there is not to be a subjective appraisal but that the reasons must be sufficient under the Act and an objective test is indicated. The requirements of the law are not satisfied by accepting insufficient or inadequate reasons for super-session. We think that the Courts are at liberty to examine the reasons for this limited purpose in addition to the purposes which the learned Judges of the earlier Division Bench (Mangalmurti and Mudholkar JJ.) have already indicated in their order.”

17. Right of Parishioners to Sue against Third Parties

Gaspari Louis Vs. Rev. Fr. CP Gonsalves[153]was a case brought by the Vicar of a Roman Catholic church for arrears of rent due from the tenants of church property.It was observed by the Privy Council that this Church was part and parcel of the Universal Catholic Church and that its parishioners must be assumed to be bound by the Law of the Church, ie., the Canon Law.And, that if this Church had erected rules different from the rules of the Catholic Church in its temporal affairs (for administration by a body known as the junta composed of the heads of houses in the village), then those rules were to be proved in the same way that a custom would have to be proved in a Court of Law.

As per the Canon Law of the Catholic Church the church property vests in the hands of the Bishop or the Vicar.  But, in Latin Archdiocese of Trivandrum Vs. Seline Fernandez[154]  it is found, the parish being by law a public juridic person, that the plaintiffs (the elected representatives of the parishioners entrusted with the administration of the church) were competent to represent the juridic person and that they were competent to initiate civil proceedings before a Civil Court with the ultimate aim of protecting the property belonging to the church.  It is further held that by reading the Canon as a whole, the sanction of the ordinary was not necessary for initiation of such proceedings.

Parallel Administration within a Church, Not Allowable

Running parallel governance at the cost of Church by creating factionalism within the constituent parish churches is not permissible. It is settled proposition of law that when a mode is prescribed for doing a thing, it can be done only in that manner and not otherwise.[155]

18. Courts Act as Guardian, as Societies have No Right to Mismanage

Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution are not absolute

Our Apex Court in I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate[156] while dealing with the affairs of the Indian Evangelical Lutheran Church, a large congregation registered themselves under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 which also carried on secular activities of running a large number of schools and hospitals, it is held as follows:

  • “Keeping in view the interest of the general public, we see no reason as to why in a case of mismanagement of such charitable organisations, although run by minorities, the Court cannot oversee its functions. The Courts, indisputably, act as guardian of such societies. [See Guruvayoor Devaswom Managing Committee Vs. CK Rajan: AIR 2004 SC 561: (2003) 7 SCC 546.] Even otherwise, rights under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution are not absolute and unfettered. The right to manage, it goes without saying, does not carry with it a right to mismanage.”

19. If Mismanagement, So. Regn. Act no bar for Court Interference

Section 25 of the Karnataka Societies Registration Act provides for an enquiry into the constitution and working of the registered society by the Registrar on his own motion or on the application of the majority of the members or on the complaint given by 1/3rd members of the society. The Act further gives power to the Registrar to issue notice for general body meeting of the society and require the governing body of the society to call a general meeting and to determine such matters as may be directed by him. The Registrar has the ancillary powers to summon any person and examine him.

Following Kodava Samaj, Bangalore Vs. District Registrar of Registration of Societies, Bangalore[157] it is held in Advocates Association Vs. District Registrar and Registrar of Societies[158] that under the Karnataka Societies Registration Act the Registrar has power to direct the society to hold an election, because an enquiry into the constitution and working of the registered society would include the enquiry into the propriety of continuation by a Working Committee and the need to elect a new committee if the existing working committee functions contrary to the bye-laws of the society. Section 25 (2) (c) should be read so as to include a power in the Registrar to direct the holding of the election to the general body if the occasion demands.

The regulatory powers as to registration of a Society vested with the Registrar do not confer any authority on the Registrar to interfere with the affairs, including the election process, of the Society. The scope of exercising power under Section 4 of the Societies Registration Act is only to the limited extent of examining whether the list furnished is false or bogus. The above referred limited purpose is fulfilled the moment the list is furnished pursuant to an election. If the parties have any grievance against selection, they are free to approach the civil court.[159] When more than one return is filed, the Registrar has got the power to find out as to which one he should accept. There may not be an elaborate enquiry. Prima facie he has to satisfy as to which return is to be accepted. Such an enquiry made by the Registrar and the decision taken from it does not become final. The dispute can be taken up before a competent court as to who are the members of the governing body.[160]

Several State-Societies-Registration-Acts and Amendments to the Societies Registration Act provide for enquiry by Registrar into the constitution, working and financial conditions of the society. In D Dhanapal Vs. D David Livingstone[161] it is held that the suit filed for declaration that the plaintiff continues to be the Secretary of the Society is maintainable. Section 36 of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act does not reveal any express bar to the Civil Courts. Section 36 is merely an enabling provision. If the aggrieved party approaches the Registrar or the Registrar acts on his own motion, then, it shall be lawful for the Registrar to conduct an enquiry and communicate the report of the enquiry. It does not mean to deem it as a bar to the jurisdiction of the Civil Court. There must be at least some implication to show that the Civil Court cannot entertain such suits.

It may be true that the question of mismanagement of a society can be raised as a subject matter before the Registrar under Section 25 of the Karnataka So. Regn. Act; but, the members of the society who are aggrieved by those matters of mismanagement,redressal which are not expressly or impliedly provided for under the Actor for those matters for which precise provisions are lacking in the Act, can certainly maintain a suit.[162]

The Delhi High Court held in Premvati Vs. Bhagwati Devi,[163]that where shareholders complain of mismanagement or oppression and of acts prejudicial to the interest of the company or prejudicial to public interest, the civil court may entertain a suit by the shareholders and grant appropriate reliefs.

20. Service of Priest & Administration of an Institution – Secular Acts

The appointment and the service of the priest or Archaka are secular matters and not spiritual.Though the performance of the ritual ceremonies is an integral part of the religion, the person who performs the ceremonies is not a part of spiritual ceremonies itself. With respect to spiritual ceremonies right can be claimed but not with respect to the person who performs it or associates himself with the performance of spiritual ceremonies which is not a right under Article 25. This is a secular right.[164] Therefore the court can interfere in such affairs, if cogent grounds exist.

In Jamsheed Kanga Vs. Parsi Panchayath Funds and Properties[165] while dealing with Towers of Silence, the last resting place of the Parsis, it is held that though the performance of religious service, according to the tenets of the faith is an integral part of religious faith and belief, the service of the Priest is a secular act; and that the administration of a religious institution or an endowment made for religious purposes is a secular activity. Hence, it has been held that the Legislature is competent to enact a law regulating the administration and governance of a religious or charitable institution or endowment.

21. Interference in Religious Decisions: Church of North India Case

While considering the question whether unification of churches, registered under both Societies Registration Act and Bombay Public Trusts Act, was a religious decision falls under Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution over which the courts have no jurisdiction, it has been observed by our Apex Court in Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai[166] that it was a well accepted principle that a society created under a statute must have conformed to its provisions and the courts would interfere in case of its violation.

22. Court Interference – Illegal Expulsion & Ex-communication

Expulsion from society visits a member with harsh adversities. The courts interfere with illegal Expulsions and Ex-communications.[167]

23. Court Interference in Faith Matters: PMA Metropolitan Case

It was contented in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma[168]that the various decisions,[169] would indicate that Explanation 1 to Section 9 CPC embraced questions relating to the religious faith, doctrine and belief; and saved only those suits where the right to property or to an office was contested. But Sahai, J. did not entertain the argument. Sahai, J. observed:

  • “The jurisdiction of courts depends either on statute or on common law. The jurisdiction is always local and in absence of any statutory provision the cognisance of such dispute has to be taken either by a hierarchy of ecclesiastical courts established in the country where the religious institutions are situated or by a statutory law framed by the Parliament. Admittedly no law in respect of Christian Churches has been framed, therefore, there is no statutory law. Consequently any dispute in respect of religious office in respect of Christians is also cognisable by the civil court.”

24. Principles of Enforcing Decisions of Tribunals of Religious Bodies

While considering the question whether the ex-communication of the Catholicos by the Patriarch of Antioch was valid, in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[170]Sahai, J. observed as under:

  •  “A church is formed by the voluntary association of individuals. And the churches in the commonwealth are voluntary body organised on a consensual basis their rights apart from statutes will be protected by the courts and their discipline enforced exactly as in the case of any other voluntary body whose existence is legally recognised. Therefore, all religious bodies are regarded by courts of law in the same position in respect of the protection of their rights and the sanction given to their respective organisations. It is further settled that discipline of a church cannot affect any person except by express sanction of the civil power or by the voluntary submission of the particular person.

But, for purposes of enforcing discipline within a church religious body may constitute a tribunal to determine whether its rules have been violated by any other members or not and what will be the consequence of that violation. In such case the tribunals so constituted are not in any sense courts, they derive no authority from the statutes and they have no power of their own to enforce their sentence. Their decisions are given effect to by the courts as decision of the arbitrators whose jurisdiction rests entirely on the agreement of the parties.”

25. Church Disputes: Courts Inquire into the Laws

It is observed further in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma[171] as follows:

  • “In Dame Henriette Brown Vs. Les Cure Et Marguilliers De L’oeuvre Et Fabrique De Notre Dame De Motrea,[172] the Privy Council while following the decision in Long[173] held that where a church was merely a private and voluntary religious society resting only upon a consensual basis courts of justice were still bound when due complaint was made that a member of the society was injured in any manner of a mixed spiritual and temporal character to inquire into the laws and rules of the tribunal or authority which inflicted the alleged injury and ascertain whether the act complained of was law and discipline of the church and whether the sentence was justifiably pronounced by a competent authority. The decision in Long has been followed in this country[174] in Anadrav Bhikajiphadke Vs. Shankar Daji Charya[175] where certain persons brought a suit that their right of worship in the sanctuary of a temple was being infringed, it was held that the right of exclusive worship of an idol at particular place set up by a caste was civil right.”

It is held further:

  • “A Church is either Episcopal or congregational. It cannot be Episcopal in spiritual matters and congregational in temporal matters. …. That is the fundamental difference in congregational and Episcopal. In the former it vests in the parishioners. But in the latter, in endowment. …..”

A Division Bench of Madras High Court in Gaspari Louis Vs. Gonsalves[176] held that, unlike the Church of England which was described as ‘established Church’, the Roman Catholic Church was described as a voluntary association in the English cases.[177]  The Canon Law postulates a detailed procedure for the administration of the Church and its property and so long as the church retains the status of a Roman Catholic Church the diocesan Bishop alone would have the right in both the spiritual and the temporal matters in respect of the church and its property.

In S Robert Vs. M Kanagappan[178] it is held:

  • “Therefore we hold that once the church in question was constructed and consecrated by Arch Bishop of Trichy Diocese, the church and its properties would vest in the Pope and the fourth respondent, Arch Bishop as a delegate of the Pope, is entitled to the spiritual and temporal powers over the church and its properties. As already observed, though the church was constructed with the funds mostly provided by the Roman Catholic public of Vakkampatti village, when the church was consecrated according to the Roman Catholic rites, the church and its properties would vest in the fourth respondent.
  • Can.1254 and 1257 make it clear that the Catholic Church has the inherent right, independently of any secular power to acquire, retain, administer and alienate temporal goods, in pursuit of its proper objectives and all temporal goods would be regulated by the Canons as well as by their own statutes. Sub-clause (2) of Can.1257 provides that unless it is otherwise expressly provided, temporal goods belonging to a private juridical person are regulated by its own statutes, not by these Canons. Sub-clause (2) of Can. 1257 deals only with the temporal goods belonging to a private juridical person, and a body of Roman Catholic public in the village are not private juridical persons within the meaning of Canon Law.
  • It is, no doubt, true that it will be open to the church authorities and the Roman Catholic public of a particular village to regulate or to enter into an agreement with the villagers as to the mode of control over the church and its properties and in the absence of any agreement produced by the appellants herein, it must be held that the church and its properties vest only in the authority of the fourth respondent, viz., Arch Bishop of Trichy Diocese and the respondents 2 and 3 are the delegate of the Arch Bishop to exercise the spiritual and temporal powers over the church in question and its properties.
  • ……. Therefore, on the basis of the law, particularly, the law governing the church in question, we hold that the church and its properties vest only in the fourth respondent herein and it is open to him to exercise his power through his delegates, namely, respondents 2 and 3. It is true that it would be open to the fourth respondent to authorise villagers to administer the secular affairs of the church, but the plaintiffs have not established that they were authorised by the fourth respondent to administer the secular affairs of the church and even if they were so authorised, they would exercise the power of administration as authorised agents of the fourth defendant and not de hors the authorisation. Equally, it would have been open to the villagers to form a trust to retain the administrative control over the church and its properties at the time of consecration of church subject to the grant of consent by the fourth respondent for retaining such a control.
  • ….. It is, no doubt, true that it is open to the plaintiffs to show that notwithstanding the provisions of the Canon Law, the temporal affairs of the church are being governed by the custom of the Roman Catholic public of Vakkampatti village. If the custom is established, then, the Roman Catholic people of Vakkampatti village can claim right over the church and its properties by way of custom.”

A Division Bench of Madras High Court as early as in the year 1915, in Michel Pillai Vs. Rt. Rev. Bartle[179] held:

  • “According to Canon Law a Roman Catholic Church becomes, as soon as it is consecrated, the property of the church authorities, irrespective of the fact that any particular worshipper or worshippers contributed to its construction.  The Bishop and other church authorities have the exclusive right to the internal management of the church, whether relating to secular or religious matters, such as accommodating the congregation inside the church and prescribing the part to be taken by the congregation in the services and the ceremonies.”[180]

In Major Arch Bishop Vs. Lalan Tharakan,[181]  Kerala High Court, observing that the Catholic Church was a voluntary association governed under the Canon Law and that the properties of the church were vested with church authorities, it was held that the (parish)church was a legal person and that it was not a public trust to attract Sec. 92 CPC.

But, it may be pointed out that the courts in India, from early times, took the view that the religious institutions where public or a section of public worship, as of right, have the incidents of ‘public trust’.

26. Church Disputes: Court Inquires, Whether the Sentence Justifiable

Referring to Dame Henriette Brown Vs. Les Cure Et Marguilliers De L’oeuvre Et Fabrique De Notre Dame De Motrea,[182] and Long Vs. Bishop of Capetown,[183]it is observed in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma[184] that the courts of justice would inquire into the laws and rules of the tribunal or authority which inflicted the alleged injury and ascertain whether the act complained of was law and discipline of the church and whether the sentence was justifiably pronounced by a competent authority.

27. Court Cannot Determine Whether Bylaws Fair or Unfair.

The associations and clubs are at liberty to frame their bye laws and Rules.They may have different kinds of the posts, and may prescribe their own election process, so also the manner of holding the elections.[185]It is trite law that the courts will not interfere in the internal matters of an association, unless there are cogent grounds. In Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma,[186]Sahai, J. (minority) observed:

  • “Before concluding it may be observed that while highlighting the relationship between Malankara Association and the Parish Churches, it was submitted by Mr Parasaran that the provisions in the Constitution permitting every church to send same number of representatives irrespective of the strength of churches was not very fair. May be. But this is a provision governing matters not only of administration of churches but of faith and religion. The Malankara Association is like the executive body of the Malankara Church to exercise control over religion and temporal matters. The court’s function is restricted to ensure its proper implementation and not to determine whether the provisions in the Constitution framed by the religious body was fair or unfair. Religion is not governed, necessarily, by logic. In any case, it is not in the domain of secular courts to substitute its own opinion of fairness.”

28. Court Interference for Ensuring Will of the Community

But, in Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma Mathews, AIR 1996 SC 3121, (subsequent to AIR 1995 SC 2001) Jeevan Reddy and SC Sen, JJ. observed:

  • “Inasmuch as the Malankara Association was vested with control over the religious and communal affairs of the entire Malankara Christian Community, it was held desirable and necessary that the Association must ‘truly and genuinely reflect the Will of the said community’. For ensuring it, it was observed: ‘Its composition must be so structured as to represent the entire spectrum of the community. A powerful body having control over both spiritual and communal affairs of the Malankara Church should be composed in a reasonable and fair manner. It was held that judged from the above angle, clause (68) of the 1934 Constitution cannot be said to be a fair one inasmuch as the said clause provided for representation Parish Churchwise. ….”

29. Court Interference for Ensuring Democratic Set-up in Associations

Right to form associations or unions is a Fundamental Right guaranteed by our Constitution.[187] A democratic set up in such associations or unions, subject to its bye laws, is envisioned in that right itself, if it is infringed Courts interfere to set-right abuses.

In Raju C Raphael Vs. Regency Club[188] the suit was filed for a declaration that the amendments brought into the bye-laws of the first defendant club, with respect to the subscription, were illegal, unsustainable and without any force. The trial court found that the amendments were passed unanimously by the members who attended the meeting and therefore, it was held that the plaintiffs were not entitled to get an order of temporary injunction. The appellate court confirmed the order. It was challenged in the High Court in Writ Petition. The Kerala High Court taking note of the fact that more than 3/4th of the members of the club would not be able to exercise their franchise and considering the grievance of the petitioners that such an election would not result in a democratic set up in the club, the High Court, without interfering the concurrent findings of the fact, permitted all the members of the club, who pay the subscription in accordance with the amended bye-laws within a specified time, to exercise their votes in the election.

30. Mismanagement: Judged not by Result; but by Situation

The degree of prudence expected from a manager of an endowment would be the prudence which an ordinary man would exercise with the knowledge available to him; and the transactions of such managers would have to be judged not by the result, but by what might have been expected to be its results at the time they were entered into.[189]

31. Doctrine of ‘Conditions of Modern Life’

In KC Kappor Vs. Radhika Devi,[190] the Supreme Court has held that the expression “compelling necessity” (qua alienation of property held by a trustee-Kartha) must be interpreted with due regard to the ‘conditions of modern life’. Our Apex Court quoted with approval the Bombay decision, Nagindas Maneklal Vs. Mahomed Yusuf Mithcella.[191]

32. Principle of Non Interference: Rule of Majority

Rajiv Sahai Endlaw J., in Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India,[192] has held that the principle of non interference in internal management of clubs was evolved on the premise of such clubs being governed by the rule of majority. As a general rule, the courts will not interfere in matters of internal administration of a Company or a voluntary association. It is for the majority of shareholders or members to decide the manner in which the affairs of the company or the association are to be conducted. [193]

33. Judicial Review: Exceptions to Foss Vs. Harbottle

It was propounded in Foss Vs. Harbottle,[194] that a Civil Court would not interfere with the internal management of a company.  Following exceptions to this rule are laid down, with respect to the internal management of voluntary associations, in Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay[195], Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaichandra Vidyalankar[196] and Nagappa Chettiar Vs. The Madras Race Club.[197]

  • (1) action ultra virus the society;
  • (2) action constitutes a fraud ; and
  • (3) action illegal.

In Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam[198] the Division Bench considered the Rule with regard to the convening of a meeting of the governing body and pointed out that it was a statutory Rule and commission of act in violation of the Rules in passing an order or interfering in the management of the affairs of the college must be held to be void, unlawful and illegal, and was liable to be set aside and/or quashed.[199]

The power of the court to have judicial review over the decisions of a society is very limited. Civil Court has jurisdiction to deal with a suit by minority members on the ground of

  • oppression and
  • mismanagement.[200]

In AS Krishnan Vs. M. Sundarum[201], it was held by Kania, J.  that the position of a Society registered under the Societies Registration Act is like that of a club or a Joint Stock Company. In order to redress a wrong done to the Company, action should prima facie be brought by the Company itself. But where the persons against whom the relief is sought themselves hold and control the majority of the shares of the Company and will not permit an action to be brought in the name of the Company, the share-holders complaining can bring an action in their own names.

34. Court Interference: Fraud and Coercion

A decision taken playing fraud on the minority would not bind the society or club. The majority does not have any right to coerce the minority also.[202]

35. Court Interference: TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria

In TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria[203] the Supreme Court has pointed out the powers of Courts to interfere in the affairs of a society as under:

  • “The jurisdiction of a Civil Court is rather limited; it cannot
    • obviously sit as a court of appeal from decisions of such a body;
    • it can set aside the order of such a body, if the said body
      • acts without jurisdiction or
      • does not act in good faith or
      • acts in violation of the principles of natural justice…”

36. Court Interference: Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Hosg. Society Case

While dealing with the issue regarding allotment to members by a Housing Co-operative Society, the Supreme Court, held in Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Vs. Presiding Officer, Delhi Co-op. Tribunal[204] that the courts would not interfere with the discretionary affairs of a society except when it was

  • arbitrary,
  • irrational,
  • mala fide,
  • against any statutory provision or
  • against order having the force of law.

37. When Court Sets Aside Decision of Domestic Tribunal

A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure. It is held in Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar[205] as under:

  • “It is not the province and the function of this Court to lay down either the time or the mode and manner in which autonomous and high-powered bodies like the Syndicate of the appellant-University are entitled to conduct their business in the meetings. They are equally masters of their own procedure and unless there is an infraction of the clear statutory rules in carrying out their duties and in conforming to the procedure prescribed by law, this Court would be ill-advised to render any gratuitous advice to them in their autonomous field in dealing and disposing of their business.”

In Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley[206] following principle has been laid down by the Calcutta High Court:

  • “A domestic tribunal cannot do anything it likes, throwing everything to the winds. But the jurisdiction of the Court is of a very limited character. Generally speaking, the court can set aside the decision of a domestic tribunal on one of the three basic considerations set out below:
  • A. When the tribunal oversteps the limits of its jurisdiction.
  • B. When it violates the principles of natural justice.
  • C. When it acts dishonestly,[207] actuated by bias, bad faith and the like.”

Lord Denning, Master of Rolls, in the Court of Appeal in England observed, in the matter of a non-statutory domestic tribunal, as under:[208]

  • “Is a party who is charged before a domestic tribunal entitled as of right to be legally represented, much depends on what the rules say about it. When the rules say nothing, then the party has no absolute right to be legally represented. It is a matter for the discretion of the tribunal. They are masters of their own procedure: and, if they, in the proper exercise of their discretion, decline to allow legal representation, the Courts will not interfere….”

Quoting Lord Denning our Supreme Court observed in J K Aggarwal Vs. Haryana Seeds Development Corporation[209] as under:

  • “The right of representation by a lawyer may not in all cases be held to be a part of natural justice”.

38. Scope of Judicial Review: Wednesbury-Principle

In Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India,[210] our Apex Court held as under:

  • “Lord Greene said in 1948 in the famous Wednesbury case[211] that when a statute gave discretion to an administrator to take a decision, the scope of judicial review would remain limited. He said that interference was not permissible unless one or the other of the following conditions was satisfied, namely the order was
    • contrary to law, or
    • relevant factors were not considered, or
    • irrelevant factors were considered; or
    • the decision was one which no reasonable person could have taken.”

39. Court Does Not Sit in Appeal

It is trite law that the Court does not sit in appeal over the findings of the enquiry officer. The Supreme Court in the celebrated decision, TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria,[212]  it is held that jurisdiction of courts to interfere in cases involving expulsion of a member from the organisation is extremely limited, and the Court’s enquiry is confined to find out whether the decision making is within the four corners of the rules, and the Courts cannot sit in appeal over the decisions of the organisation.[213]

It is held by our Apex Court in Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar[214] as under:     

  • “We are at any rate not sitting in appeal against the findings of a Domestic Tribunal set up to enquire into the allegations of misconduct levelled against a team official of a participating team. We are not, therefore, reappraising the material that has been assembled by the Probe Committee and relied upon to support its finding. The finding is by no means without basis or perverse to call for our interference with the same.”

40. Ouster of Civil Court Jurisdiction – General Principles

Following principles as to ouster of Civil Court jurisdiction are important[215].

  • Firstly, bar of jurisdiction of a Civil Court is not to be readily inferred. A provision seeking to bar jurisdiction of Civil Court requires strict interpretation.
  • Secondly, the court would normally lean in favour of a construction, which would uphold the retention of jurisdiction of the Civil Court.
  • Thirdly, the burden of proof in this behalf shall be on the party who asserts that the Civil Court’s jurisdiction is ousted.

41. Natural Justice: Rules and Subsidiary Rules

Formerly, only two rules were recognised:

  • Nemo debet esse judex propria causa
  • Audi alteram partem

Subsequently, more subsidiary rules were recognised, such as:

  • Without bias
  • Right to reasons.

If principles of natural justice are not adumbrated in the rules, it is read into the same.[216] In the absence of suffering any disqualification by a member of a society by virtue of its rules and regulations, the court cannot add any further qualification.

See Chapter: Expulsion of Members.

42. Natural Justice: Commonsense Justice

Whether an order in violation of natural justice is bad or not is depended on facts and circumstances of each case.[217] Its essence is good consciousness in a given situation; nothing more but nothing less.[218]

In Keshav Mills Co Ltd. Vs. Union of India[219]our Supreme Court held:

  • “We do not think it either feasible or even desirable to lay down any fixed or rigorous yard-stick in this manner. The concept of Natural Justice cannot be put into a straight-jacket. It is futile, therefore, to look for definitions or standards of Natural Justice from various decisions and then try to apply them to the facts of any given case. The only essential point that has to be kept in mind in all cases is that the person concerned should have a reasonable opportunity of presenting his case and that the administrative authority concerned should act fairly, impartially and reasonably..”

In Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Election Commissioner[220] our Apex Court expounded the purport of natural justice following the principles laid down in AK Kraipak Vs. Union of India[221] as under:

  • “The aim of the rules of natural justice is to secure justice or to put it negatively to prevent miscarriage of justice. These rules can operate only in areas not covered by any law validly made. In other words they do not supplant the law of the land but supplement it. The concept of natural justice has undergone a great deal of change in recent years.     In the past it was thought that it included just two rules namely:  (1) no one shall be a judge in his own case (Nemo debet esse judex propria causa) and (2) no decision shall be given against a party without affording him a reasonable hearing (Audi alteram partem). Very soon thereafter a third rule was envisaged and that is that quasi-judicial enquiries must be held in good faith, without bias and not arbitrarily or unreasonably. But in the course of years many more subsidiary rules came to be added to the rules of natural justice. Till very recently it was the opinion of the courts that unless the authority concerned was required by the law under which it functioned to act judicially there was no room for the application of the rules of natural justice. The validity of that limitation is now questioned. If the purpose of the rules of natural justice is to prevent miscarriage of justice one fails to see why those rules should be made inapplicable to administrative enquiries. Often times it is not easy to draw the line that demarcates administrative enquiries from quasi-judicial enquiries. Enquiries which were considered administrative at one time are now being considered as quasi-judicial in character. Arriving at a just decision is the aim of both quasi-judicial enquiries as well as administrative enquiries. An unjust decision in an administrative enquiry may have more far reaching effect than a decision in a quasi-judicial enquiry. As observed by this Court in Suresh Koshy George Vs. University of Kerala (AIR 1969 SC 198) the rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. What particular rule of natural justice should apply to a given case must depend to a great extent on the facts and circumstances of that case, the framework of the law under which the enquiry is held and the constitution of the Tribunal or body of persons appointed for that purpose. Whenever a complaint is made before a court that some principle of natural justice had been contravened the court has to decide whether the observance of that rule was necessary for a just decision on the facts of that case.”

The Supreme Court, in Uma Nath Pandey Vs. State of UP,[222]further explained the of principles of natural justice as follows:

  • “7. The crucial question that remains to be adjudicated is whether principles of natural justice have been violated and if so, to what extent any prejudice has been caused, it may be noted at this juncture that in some cases it has been observed that where grant of opportunity in terms of principles of natural justice do not improve the situation, ‘useless formality theory’ can be pressed into service.
  • 8. Natural justice is another name for common sense justice. Rules of natural justice are not codified canons. But they are principles ingrained into the conscience of man. Natural justice is the administration of justice in a common sense liberal way. Justice is based substantially on natural ideals and human values. The administration of justice is to be freed from the narrow and restricted considerations which are usually associated with a formulated law involving linguistic technicalities and grammatical niceties. It is the substance of justice which has to determine its form.
  • 9. The expressions ‘natural justice’ and ‘legal justice do not present a watertight classification, It is the substance of justice which is to be secured by both, and whenever legal justice fails to achieve this solemn purpose, natural justice is called in aid of legal justice. Natural justice relieves legal justice from unnecessary technicality, grammatical pedantry or logical prevarication. It supplies the omissions of a formulated law. As Lord Buckmaster said, no form or procedure should ever be permitted to exclude the presentation of a litigant’s defence.
  • 10. The adherence to principles of natural justice as recognised by all civilised States is of supreme importance when a quasi-judicial body embarks on determining disputes between the parties, or any administrative action involving civil consequences; is in issue. These principles are well settled. The first and foremost principle is what is commonly known as audi alteram partem rule. It says that no one should be condemned unheard. Notice is the first limb of this principle. It must be precise and unambiguous. It should apprise the party indeterminately of the case he has to meet. Time given for the purpose should be adequate so as to enable him to make his representation. In the absence of a notice of the kind and such reasonable opportunity, the order passed becomes wholly vitiated. Thus, it is but essential that a party should be put on notice of the case before any adverse order is passed against him. This is one of the most important principles of natural justice. It is after all an approved rule of fair play. The concept has gained significance and shades with time. When the historic document was made at Runnymede in 1215, the first statutory recognition of this principle found its way into the ‘Magna Carta’. The classic exposition of Sir Edward Coke of natural justice requires to ‘vocate, interrogate and adjudicate’. In the celebrated case of Cooper Vs. Wandsworth Board of Works the principle was thus stated: ‘(E)ven God himself did not pass sentence upon Adam before he was called upon to make his defense. “Adam” (says God), “Where art thou? Hast thou not eaten of, the tree whereof I commanded thee that thou shouldest not eat?”

Violation of the Principles of Natural Justice

Our Apex Court, in Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Vs. K S Gandhi[223] observed that the applicability of the principles of natural justice is not a rule of thumb or a straight jacket formula as an abstract proposition of law; and that whether omission to record reasons by a domestic tribunal vitiates the impugned order or is in violation of the principles of natural justice depends on the facts of the case, nature of the inquiry and the effect of the order/decision on the rights of the person and attendant circumstances. In this decision, following the ratio in Ghazanfar Rashid v. Board, H.S. and I. Edn., U.P[224]  Full Bench, it is observed that, though it is open to the High Court to interfere with the order of the quasi judicial authority if it is not supported by any evidence or if the order as passed in contravention of the statutory provisions of the law or in violation of the principles of natural justice, the court has no jurisdiction to quash the order merely on the ground that the evidence available on record is insufficient or inadequate or on the ground that different view could possibly be taken on the evidence available on the record. Court should be slow to interfere with the decisions of domestic tribunal. Authority’s appreciation of the problem must be respected.

In All Saints High School Hyderabad Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh[225] our Apex Court held pointed out that the decision of a domestic tribunal can be interfered with if there is want of good faith or when there is victimisation or when the management has been guilty of basic error or violation of principles of natural justice or when the material findings are completely baseless or perverse.[226]

If Per Se Illegal, Question of Natural Justice Does Not Arise

In State of MP Vs. Shyama Pardhi, the Supreme Court while considering the appointment of a person in government service who had not possessed the prerequisite qualification and it was found to be in breach of the statutory rules, it was held that the question of violation of the principles of natural justice did not arise.[227]

43. Society Can Function Only In Accordance With Constitution

  • But the Gen. Body Can Ratify Violation of a Directory Provision
  • Bye laws and Doctrine of Factum Valet

The principle of ratification is a recognised principle of law and can be safely invoked by the societies, in appropriate cases.[228]

It is held in Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh[229]:

  • “Rule of Law demands and dictates that the people follow the Law. The Constitution, whether of the State or of a Society registered under the Societies Act, is paramount. As people are to follow the Law in a State, so the members of a Society are duty-bound to follow the Constitution of the Society. After all, the Constitution is the soul of the Society. The Society, therefore, cannot function in contravention of its Constitution.
  • To permit the Society to function in violation of its Constitution is to encourage illegal actions and omissions. The Court cannot be a party to an illegal action. In fact, one of the functions of the judiciary is to ensure that people adhere to the Constitution and the statutory laws. … In case the action of the Sabha is contrary to the tenor and spirit of its Constitution, the said action cannot be sustained by a Court of law.
  • The doctrine of factum valet is applicable to cure the violation of a directory provision or a mere matter of form but does not cure the violation of the fundamental principles or the essence of the transaction.”

44. Society or Entire-Members Should be Parties to the Litigation

Acts of a society that are in violation of law and against the basic principles of its foundation, natural justice, etc. can be challenged in a court of law. But, if it relates to an unregistered society or an unincorporated club, its entire members should be made parties to such actions. For this matter, Order 1 Rule 8 CPC can be invoked. A registered society is expressly authorised  to sue or be sued invoking the provisions under Sec. 6 of the So. Regn. Act; and Order 1 Rule 8 CPC need not be invoked.

Kania, J., in A.S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram,[230] observed as under:

  • “In my opinion as the position of the members of this society is similar to that of the share holders of the company and as the acts of the defendants which are challenged are in respect of the society it is necessary that the society should be a party to this litigation. I do not think is competent to the plaintiff either alone or representing himself and the other members of the society other than defendants to bring a suit. The only grievance in respect of the disputed acts can be of the society, it is not open to the plaintiff, without ascertaining the wishes of the society, to file a suit on behalf of himself and all other except the defendants. The reason for that conclusion is obvious. Even if the Court decides in favour of the plaintiff, the society can call meeting of its members tomorrow, confirm the act of the defendants and confirm their position as members of the managing committee, thus rendering the decision of the Court a nullity. … In the absence of the society as a party to this litigation, I am of opinion that the suit as framed is not maintainable and the Court has no jurisdiction to try the suit in the absence of the society.”

But it may be noted that the observations of Kania, J. that ‘the suit as framed is not maintainable and the Court has no jurisdiction to try the suit in the absence of the society’ are to be taken as a suit filed under Sec. 6 of the So. Regn. Act in view of Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic&Unani Tibia College, Delhi Vs. The State of Delhi;[231] Illachi Devi Vs. Jain Society Protection of Orphans India;[232] Tata Vs. Tata.[233]In these decisions it has been held that a society is not a legal person.

45. Whether the Societies Registration Act Overrides the BPTA

Our Apex Court, in Vinodkumar M. Malavia Vs. Maganlal Mangaldas Gameti[234] it is held:

  • “… The argument that as per Article 254 of the Constitution, the Societies Registration Act overrides the BPTA or that the Societies Registration Act and BPTA are in conflict, does not stand either, since both the statutes are not in conflict with each other. On the contrary, they are in consonance with each other regarding the administration and regulation of public and religious trusts.”

46. Final Authority, General Body

Bye laws of a Society are made by the founding members of the society for regulating its affairs. All members of the society are bound by it.[235] The decisions of its general body also bind the members.[236] Subject to the provisions in the Act, if any, applicable and the bye laws, the final authority[237] of every society and club shall vest in the general body of the members in general meeting, summoned in such manner as may be specified in the bye-laws.

But, it is not open for the majority of an association to alter the fundamental principles upon which it is founded.[238]

47. Court will Interfere to Prevent Gross Breach of Trust

In Piercy Vs. S. Mills and Co. Ltd.[239] their Lordships observed:

  • “I cannot look upon the Directors otherwise than as trustees for a public Company, and I must judge of the propriety of their conduct in this matter on the ordinary principle applicable to cases of trustee and cestuique trust. If shares are issued with indecent haste and scramble … ….for a different purpose, I have no doubt that the Court will interfere to prevent so gross a breach of trust.
  • If they were issued with the immediate object of controlling the holders of greater number of shares in the Company and of obtaining the necessary statutory majority for passing a special resolution, then it will not be valid or bona fide exercise of power.”[240]

48. Duty of Director Board to Obtain Views of the General Body

In AM Prakasan Vs. State of Kerala[241] it is held that Sec. 27 of the Kerala Co-op. Societies Act provides that the General Body is the final authority of a society subject to the provisions of the Act, the Rules and the bye laws; and that the Director Board of a Co-operative Society has a duty to place before the General Body and apprise them, the situation of waiving the huge amount of interest in a loan transaction, releasing security property and the fact that there is a likelihood of suffering any loss; and ascertain the views and opinion of the General Body on the same.

In Dipankar Dey Vs. State of Assam[242]  the writ petition, as regards the timing of a school, was disposed of directing the authorities, particularly, the President of the managing committee to convene a meeting of the general body (which is the supreme body) within a period of 6 weeks and the decision that may be adopted in the said general body meeting would hold the field.

49. General Principles in Company Law Apply

With respect to the individual membership rights of members of societies registered under the Societies Registration Act, the general principles governing the right of suit of an individual share holder or a member of the company would apply.[243] Legal status of society registered under the Societies Registration Act is similar to that a club or a joint sector company.[244]Following are recognised by Courts as individual membership rights in a company.[245]

  • Right to vote,
  • right to stand as a candidate for election as a director and
  • set-right illegal acts.

50. Sec. 9 of the CPC – Exclusion Not Readily Inferred

Sec. 9 CPC reads:

  • “9. Courts to try all civil suits unless barred. The courts shall (subject to the provisions herein contained) have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature excepting suits of which their cognisance is either expressly or impliedly barred.
  •   Explanation 1.- A suit in which the right to property or to an office is contested is a suit of a civil nature, notwithstanding that such right may depend entirely on the decision of questions as to religious rites or ceremonies.
  •   Explanation II.- For the purposes of this section, it is immaterial whether or not any fees are attached to the office referred to in Explanation I or whether or not such office is attached to a particular place. “

Under section 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure the Civil Courts have got jurisdiction to entertain suits of civil nature unless the same is expressly or impliedly barred by statute.[246] An exclusion of jurisdiction of Civil Court cannot be readily inferred. But in respect of any matter which the Tribunal or the appellate authority is empowered to determine by the Companies Act or any other law for the time being in force the Civil Courts would not  have jurisdiction to entertain such suit[247] by virtue of implied bar.

51. Sec. 9 of the CPC – Supreme Court Decisions:

Dhulabhai Case

Often questions come before the courts: whether the Civil Courts have jurisdiction in matters of a society with respect to decisions taken by internal tribunals of the societies, conduct of elections, convening of meetings, violation of bye laws, etc. In the landmark decision, Dhulabhai Vs. State of M.P.,[248] guidelines were given by the Supreme Court in respect of matters which could be tried by the Civil Courts. It reads as under:

  • “(1) Where the statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the Civil Court’s jurisdiction must be held to be excluded if there is adequate remedy to do what the Civil Courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, does not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • (2) Where there is an express bar of the jurisdiction of the court, an examination of the scheme of the particular Act to find the adequacy or the sufficiency of the remedies provided may be relevant but is not decisive to sustain the jurisdiction of the Civil Court. Where there is no express exclusion the examination of the remedies and the scheme of the particular Act to find out the intendment becomes necessary and the result of the inquiry may be decisive. In the latter case it is necessary to see if the statute creates a special right or a liability and provides for the determination of the right or liability and further lays down that all questions about the said right and liability shall be determined by the tribunals so constituted, and whether remedies normally associated with actions in Civil Courts are prescribed by the said statute or not.
  • (3) Challenge to the provisions of the particular Act as ultra vires cannot be brought before Tribunals constituted under that Act. Even the High Court cannot go into that question on a revision or reference from the decision of the tribunals.
  • (4) When a provision is already declared unconstitutional or the constitutionality of any provision is to be challenged, a suit is open. A writ of certiorari may include a direction for refund if the claim is clearly within the time prescribed by the Limitation Act but it is not a compulsory remedy to replace a suit.
  • (5) Where the particular Act contains no machinery for refund of tax collected in excess of constitutional limits or illegally collected a suit lies.
  • (6) Questions of the correctness of the assessment apart from its constitutionality are for the decision of the authorities and a civil suit does not lie if the orders of the authorities are declared to be final or there is an express prohibition in the particular Act. In either case the scheme of the particular Act must be examined because it is a relevant enquiry.
  • (7) An exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is not readily to be inferred unless the conditions above set down apply.”

Premier Automobiles Limited vs. Kamalakar Shantharam Wadke[249]

In this judgment, the Supreme Court set out the principles applicable to the jurisdiction of the Civil Court in relation to an industrial dispute as under:

  • “(1) If the dispute is not an industrial dispute, nor does it relate to enforcement of any other right under the Act, the remedy lies only in the Civil Court.
  • (2) If the dispute is an industrial dispute arising out of a right or liability under the general or common law and not under the Act, the jurisdiction of the civil Court is alternative, leaving it to the election of the suitor concerned to choose his remedy for the relief which is competent to be granted in a particular remedy.
  • (3) If the industrial dispute relates to the enforcement of a right or an obligation created under the Act, then the only remedy available to the suitor is to get an adjudication under the Act.
  • (4) If the right which is sought to be enforced is a right created under the Act such as Chap. V.A. then the remedy for its enforcement is either S.33C or the raising of an industrial dispute, as the case may be.”

The Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation and Another vs. Krishnakanth.[250]

The seven principles evolved in this case read as follows:

  • (1) Where the dispute arises from general law of contract, i.e. where reliefs are claimed on the basis of the general law of contract, a suit filed in civil court cannot be said to be not maintainable, even though such a dispute may also constitute an industrial dispute within the meaning of Section 2(k) or Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
  • (2) Where, however, the dispute involves recognition, observance or enforcement of any of the rights or obligations created by the Industrial Disputes Act, the only remedy is to approach the forums created by the said Act.
  • (3) Similarly, where the dispute involves the recognition, observance or enforcement of rights and obligations created by enactments like Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 which can be called sister enactments; to Industrial Disputes Act and which do not provide a forum for resolution of such disputes, the only remedy shall be to approach the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act provided they constitute industrial disputes within the meaning of Section 2(k) and Section 2A of Industrial Disputes Act or where such enactment says that such dispute shall be either treated as an industrial dispute or says that it shall be adjudicated by any of the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act. Otherwise, recourse to civil court is open.
  • (4) It is not correct to say that the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act are not equally effective for the reason that access to the forum depends upon a reference being made by the appropriate Government. The power to make a reference conferred upon the Government is to be exercised to effectuate the object of the enactment and hence not unguided. The rule is to make a reference unless, of course, the dispute raised is a totally frivolous one ex facie. The power conferred is the power to refer and not the power to decide, though it may be that the Government is entitled to examine whether the dispute is ex facie frivolous, not meriting an adjudication.
  • (5) Consistent with the policy of law aforesaid, we commend to Parliament and the State Legislatures to make a provision enabling a workman to approach the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal directly i.e. without the requirement of a reference by the Government in case of industrial disputes covered by Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act. This would go a long way in removing the misgivings with respect to the effectiveness of the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act.
  • (6) The certified Standing Orders framed under and in accordance with the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 are statutorily imposed conditions of service and are binding both upon the employers and employees, though they do not amount to statutory provisions. Any violation of these Standing Orders entitles an employee to appropriate relief either before the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act or the civil court where recourse to civil court is open according to the principles indicated herein.
  • (7) The policy of law emerging from Industrial Disputes Act and its sister enactments is to provide an alternative dispute-resolution mechanism to the workmen, a mechanism which is speedy, inexpensive, informal and unencumbered by the plethora of procedural laws and appeals upon appeals and revisions applicable to civil courts. Indeed, the powers of the courts and tribunals under the Industrial Disputes Act are far more extensive in the sense that they can grant such relief as they think appropriate in the circumstances for putting an end to an industrial dispute.

Rajasthan State Road Transport Corporation and Another vs. Krishna Kant[251]

The legal position summarized read as under:

  • “(1) Where the dispute arises from general law of contract, I.e. where reliefs are claimed on the basis of the general law of contract, a suit filed in civil court cannot be said to be not maintainable, even though such a dispute may also constitute an “industrial dispute” within the meaning of Section 2(k) or Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
  • (2) Where, however, the dispute involves recognition, observance or enforcement of any of the rights or obligations created by the Industrial Disputes Act, the only remedy is to approach the forums created by the said Act.
  • (3) Similarly, where the dispute involves the recognition, observance or enforcement of rights and obligations created by enactments like Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 which can be called “sister enactments” to Industrial Disputes Act and which do not provide a forum for resolution of such disputes, the only remedy shall be to approach the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act provided they constitute industrial disputes within the meaning of Section 2(k) and Section 2A of Industrial Disputes Act or where such enactment says that such dispute shall be either treated as an industrial dispute or says that it shall be adjudicated by any of the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act. Otherwise, recourse to civil court is open.
  • (4) It is not correct to say that the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act are not equally effective for the reason that access to the forum depends upon a reference being made by the appropriate Government. The power to make a reference conferred upon the Government is to be exercised to effectuate the object of the enactment and hence not unguided. The rule is to make a reference unless, of course, the dispute raised is a totally frivolous one ex facie. The power conferred is the power to refer and not the power to decide, though it may be that the Government is entitled to examine whether the dispute is ex facie frivolous, not meriting an adjudication.
  • (5) Consistent with the policy of law aforesaid, we commend to Parliament and the State Legislatures to make a provision enabling a workman to approach the Labour Court/Industrial Tribunal directly i.e. without the requirement of a reference by the Government in case of industrial disputes covered by Section 2A of the Industrial Disputes Act. This would go a long way in removing the misgivings with respect to the effectiveness of the remedies provided by the Industrial Disputes Act.
  • (6) The certified Standing Orders framed under and in accordance with the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 are statutorily imposed conditions of service and are binding both upon the employers and employees, though they do not amount to “statutory provisions.” Any violation of these Standing Orders entitles an employee to appropriate relief either before the forums created by the Industrial Disputes Act or the civil court where recourse to civil court is open according to the principles indicated herein.
  • (7) The policy of law emerging from Industrial Disputes Act and its sister enactments is to provide an alternative dispute-resolution mechanism to the workmen, a mechanism which is speedy, inexpensive, informal and unencumbered by the plethora of procedural laws and appeals upon appeals and revisions applicable to civil courts. Indeed, the powers of the Courts and Tribunals under the Industrial Disputes Act are far more extensive in the sense that they can grant such relief as they think appropriate in the circumstances for putting an end to an industrial dispute.”

Writ and Civil  Court jurisdiction

Disputes as to the internal management of a society are to be raised by way of civil suit and they cannot be made the subject matter of a writ petition.[252] The Supreme Court, in State of Madhya Pradesh Vs. Bhailal Bhai[253] it was pointed out that the remedy provided in a writ jurisdiction is not intended to supersede completely the modes of obtaining relief by an action in a civil court or to deny defence legitimately open in such actions. The power to give relief under Article 226 of the Constitution is a discretionary power. Similar view has been reiterated in following decisions:

  • N.T. Veluswami Thevar vs. G. Raja Nainar, AIR 1959 SC 422,
  • Municipal Council, Khurai vs. Kamal Kumar, AIR 1965 SC 1321,
  • Siliguri Municipality  vs. Amalendu Das, AIR 1984 SC 653,
  • S.T. Muthusami vs. K. Natarajan, AIR 1988 SC 616,
  • R.S.R.T.C. vs. Krishna Kant, AIR 1995 SC 1715,
  • Kerala State Electricity Board vs. Kurien E. Kalathil, AIR 2000 SC 2573,
  • A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu vs. S. Chellappan, 2000 (7) SCC 695
  • L.L. Sudhakar Reddy vs. State of AP, 2001 (6) SCC 634,
  • Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami vs. St. of Mahstra., 2001 (8) SCC 509,
  • Pratap Singh vs. State of Haryana, 2002 (7) SCC 484 and
  • GKN Driveshafts (India) Ltd. vs. IT Officer, 2003 (1) SCC 72,

52. Sec. 9 of the CPC: Civil Courts Jurisdiction, Impliedly Barred

Section 9 of the C.P.C. says that courts to try all suits unless their cognisance is either expressly or impliedly barred. Exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil court is not to be readily inferred, unless such exclusion must either be expressed or clearly implied,[254] is a trite law. It is held by our Apex Court in Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India[255] as under:

  • “Generally speaking, the broad guiding considerations are that wherever a right, not pre-existing in common law, is created by a statute and that statute itself provided a machinery for the enforcement of the right, both the right and the remedy having been created and a finality is intended to the result of the statutory proceedings, then, even in the absence of an exclusionary provision the civil courts jurisdiction is impliedly barred. If, however, a right pre-existing in common law is recognised by the statute and a new statutory remedy for its enforcement provided, without expressly excluding the civil courts jurisdiction, then both the common law and the statutory remedies might become a concurrent remedies leaving open an element of election to the persons of inherence.”

In Justice G. P. Singh’s (former Chief Justice, M. P. High court) “Principles of Statutory Interpretation”[256] it is stated:

  • “As laid down by Willes, J. and affirmed by high authorities -there are three classes of cases in which a liability might be established, founded upon statute. One is where there was a liability existing at common law, and that liability is affirmed by a statute which gives a special and peculiar form of remedy different from the remedy which existed at common law; there, unless the statute contains words which expressly or by necessary implication exclude the common law remedy, the party suing has his election to pursue either that or the statutory remedy. The second class of cases is, where the statute gives the right to sue merely, but provides no particular from the remedy; there, the party can only proceed by action at common law. But there is third class, viz. where a liability not existing at common law is created by a statute which at the same time gives a special and particular remedy for enforcing it – The remedy provided by the statute must be followed, and it is not competent to the party to pursue the course applicable to cases of the second class.”[257]

In Bal Mukund Bairwa,[258] it has been explained that if the infringement of the Standing Orders is alleged, the civil court’s jurisdiction may be held to be barred but if the suit is based on the violation of principles of common law or constitutional provisions or on other grounds, the civil court’s jurisdiction may not be held to be barred.

The legal position that Standing Orders have no statutory force and are not in the nature of delegated/subordinate legislation is clearly stated in Krishna Kant.[259] In this case it was stated that the certified Standing Orders framed under and in accordance with the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 were statutorily imposed conditions of service and are binding both upon the employers and employees, though they do not amount to ‘statutory provisions’ and any violation of these Standing Orders entitles an employee to appropriate relief either before the forum created by the Industrial Disputes Act or the civil court where recourse to civil court is open according to the principles indicated therein.

53. William Williamson Kerr in ‘Law of Injunction’

Regarding the power of a Civil Court to grant injunction William Williamson Kerr, in Sixth Edition of Law of Injunction, has pointed out as follows:

  • “Where parties contribute funds which are laid out on property which all enjoy in common, such as clubs, societies, associations, etc., the members of which have agreed to bind themselves by certain rules, they are bound by their rules, and the court will not interfere, except in cases of breach of trust or oppression:
  • (a) The jurisdiction of the Court in such cases is founded on the common interest of every member in the property of the club, society, etc., and on the common right of every member to require that the rules to which he has subscribed shall be properly carried out;
  • (b) But although in the case of an ordinarily constituted club, in which members have rights of property, a member whose rights have been interfered with by the committee is entitled to ask the Court to consider whether the rules of the club have been observed, whether anything has been done which is contrary to natural justice, and whether the decision complained of has been come to bona fide.”

Kerr further pointed out that in such a situation the court has a duty to see that the proceedings were conducted on the common principles of ordinary justice. If a meeting is called irregularly or if it is not summoned with proper notice the court can interfere in such a situation[260].

54. Ouster of Jurisdiction of Courts under the Companies Act

Section 430 of the Companies Act, 2013 (Sec. 10 of Companies Act, 1956) deals with jurisdiction of courts. It reads:

  • ‘No civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered to determine by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force and no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred by or under this Act or any other law for the time being in force, by the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal.’

It is clear that the civil court jurisdiction is ousted only with respect to matters ‘empowered to determine by or under this Act’.

55. No Power to Registrar to Direct Fresh Election; It is with Civil Court[261]

It is also held in CMS Evangelical Suvi David Vs. District Registrar[262] that the power under Sub-Section (9) of Section 36 cannot be stretched to a power on the Registrar to direct the registered society to hold fresh election. A direction to hold fresh election would amount to indirectly setting aside the earlier election and such power is not conferred on the Registrar under any of the provisions of the Act.

So long as the election is not declared invalid in the manner known to law, no direction for fresh election could be ordered. Validity of the election could very well be decided only by the competent Civil Court as the parties are entitled to let in their evidence to sustain their respective claims. If the Registrar satisfies himself as to the particulars furnished in Form VII as correct, he should enter the names in the register maintained for that purpose. In the event he does not satisfy as to the particulars and thereby does not accept Form VII, he has to issue a direction relegating the parties to approach the civil Court for appropriate orders.

56. District Courts’ Jurisdiction in Societies Registration Act, Limited

First proviso of Sec. 13, Societies Registration Act, 1880, lays down that in the event of any dispute arising among the governing body or the members of the society while in its dissolution, the adjustment of its affairs shall be referred to the principal court of original civil jurisdiction of the district in which the chief building of the society is situate; and the court shall make such order in the matter as it shall deem requisite.

57. Special Forum: Limited Jurisdiction

Several State (Societies Registration) Acts/Amendmentsprovide for a special forum – District Court – as the forum to entertain and try suits or applications for certain specific matters as to the administration of the societies. If limited jurisdiction alone is conferred to such forum, it follows as a matter of law that the forum has been prohibited from granting any other relief.[263]

The bye laws bind its members as a contract.[264] Therefore, breach of contractual obligations, both express and implied, with respect to matters arising from the byelaws of a Society, give rise to a cause of action in civil court. When a special statute (Societies Registration Act) provides for a special remedy, it has to be adhered to.  If such special remedy or extraordinary[265] jurisdiction[266] isan enabling provision, limited to specified  reliefs[267]and provides for a summary remedy,it cannot be said that civil court jurisdiction for claiming regular reliefs is ousted.[268]In any case, the aggrieved persons will not be left without any remedy at all, in respect of matters which are not specifically provided for in these provisions as it will brought-in arbitrary and inequitable results.[269]In BalawwaVs.Hasanabi[270] it is held that the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is ousted only in respect of such reliefs as could be granted by the Special Tribunal under the Special Statute (Karnataka Land Reforms Act, 1961); but in other respects the jurisdiction of the Civil Court was not ousted.

If the enabling provisions provide for a summary remedyalone and they do not derogate expressly or impliedly[271] the authority of the general statute, jurisdiction under the general statute cannot be taken as ousted.[272]

Andhra Pradesh Societies Registration Act, 2001

Sec. 23 of the AP Societies Registration Act, 2001 states as follows:

  • “23. Dispute regarding management: In the event of any dispute arising among the committee or the members of the society, any member of the society may proceed with the dispute under the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, or may file an application in the District Court concerned and the said court shall after necessary inquiry pass such order as it may deem fit.”

It is held by AP High Court[273] that the right to move the District Court under Section 23 of the Act was an effective remedy provided by the statute.

Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act

Section 36 of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act reads as under:

  • “36. Power of Registrar to inquire into the affairs of registered society:
  •        (1) The Registrar may, of his own motion or on the application of a majority of the members of the committee of a registered society or on the application of not less than one third of the members of that registered society, or if so moved by the District Collector, hold, or direct some person authorised by the Registrar by order in writing in this behalf to hold an inquiry into the constitution, working and financial condition of that registered society.
  •        (2) An application to the Registrar under sub-section (1) shall be supported by such evidence as the Registrar may require for the purpose of showing that the applicants have good reason for applying for an inquiry.
  •        (3) The Registrar may require the applicants under sub-section (1) to furnish uch security as he thinks fit for the costs of the proposed inquiry, before the inquiry is held…………..”

This Section provides for enquiry into the affairs of registered societybythe Registrar. If the aggrieved party approaches the Registrar or the Registrar acts on his own motion, then, it shall be lawful for the Registrar to conduct an enquiry and communicate the report of the enquiry. It is merely an enabling provision. It does not mean to deem it as a bar to the jurisdiction of the Civil Court. There must be at least some implication to show that the Civil Court cannot entertain such suits.[274]

Section 25 of the TC Literary Scientific and Charitable So.Regn. Act, 1955

S. 25(1) of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955 reads as under:

  • “25. Application to Court for dissolution, framing a scheme, etc: – (1) When an application is made by the State Government or ten percent of the members on the rolls of a society to the District Court within the jurisdiction of which the Society is registered, the court may, after enquiry and on being satisfied that it is just and equitable, pass any of the following orders:-
  • (a) removing the existing governing body and appointing a fresh governing body; or
  • (b) framing a scheme for the better and efficient management of the society; or
  • (c) dissolving the society.”

It is obvious that Section 25 of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955, which provides for the three remedies enumerated in this section through the District Court (on an application ‘made by the State Government or ten percent of the members’), serves only as an enabling provision; because, sans this enabling provision, one or more members of the society have to adopt the regular or ordinary legal recourse (ie. invoking the jurisdiction of the Civil Court) for redressal when an action of the society is ultra virus the society or constitutes a fraud or illegality.[275] This section is confined to matters expressly stated therein. Nothing is there in this section which either expressly or impliedly ousts the jurisdiction of a civil court, particularly in matters relating to convening of General Body or conducting of elections.[276]

ParayakaduNalukulangaraDevaswom Vs. PadmanabhanHarshas[277] was a suit instituted by a member of a society praying for issuing an injunction restraining the defendants from convening the General Body meeting of the society on the ground that it was illegal and opposed to the provisions of the bye-law, and also for issuance of a commission to convene the general body in accordance with the provisions of the bye-law of the society.  The Kerala High Court negatived the contention of the defendants that the suit was barred in view of Sec. 25 of the Travancore Cochin Literary Scientific and Charitable Societies Registration Act, 1955 and that the District Court alone had got jurisdiction to entertain a suit. The Court, observing that the question of jurisdiction had to be primarily determined (at the time of considering the maintainability of the suit) with reference to the allegations and averments in the plaint, pointed out that it had been alleged in the plaint that the defendants had convened a General Body in violation of the provisions in the bye-laws and in fraud of the right of the members of the Society.

The remedy available to one or more members is not barred, for providing an enabling remedy in the special statute ‘on an application made by ten percent of the members’.

But, subsequently, in Kerala Vyapari Vyavasayi Vs. Kerala Vyapari Vyavasayi Ekopana Samithi[278] it is observed (obitor) that a declaration that the election to the governing body of the Society, which was holding the office, as null and void, in effect and substance, amounted to the removal of the existing governing body; and that such a declaration could be prayed for, only by invoking S. 25 of the Act, and not by filing a suit in the ordinary civil court. The Court observed that the Act has created new rights and liabilities as far as societies registered thereunder are concerned; and that S. 25 provided a specific forum for granting the reliefs enumerated in Clause (a), (b) and (c) of sub-s. (1) of S. 25. The stipulation that the aforesaid reliefs can be sought for only in the manner specifically mentioned therein will not affect the exclusive nature of the jurisdiction conferred on the District Court. The exclusion of jurisdiction as above can be inferred not only from the fact that the District Court which is the principal civil court of original jurisdiction of the district concerned is specified for conducting the enquiry and granting the reliefs on its satisfaction but also from the fact that the right of appeal under S. 27 of the Act is conferred on the High Court. However, since that Legislature has enumerated the nature and kinds of disputes which are to be enquired into and the reliefs that could be sought for, it admits no doubt that other kinds of disputes are outside the purview of the District Court exercising power under S. 25 of the Act. The question that immediately arises is which other forum the aggrieved person should approach for reliefs not covered by S. 25. The answer is S. 9 of the C. P. C. Hence, in respect of all other matters involving disputes of a civil nature, it is competent for the ordinary civil courts to entertain, try and dispose of the suits.

Societies Registration Act as amended by State of U.P.

Section 25 of the Societies Registration Act as amended by State of U.P. reads as under:

  • “25(1) The prescribed authority may, on a reference made to it by the registrar or by a least one-fourth of the members of a society registered in Uttar Pradesh, hear and decide in a summary manner any doubt or dispute in respect of the election or continuance in office of an office -bearer of such society, and may pass such orders in respect thereof as it deems fit:
  • Provided that the election of an office-bearer shall be set aside where the prescribed authority is satisfied –
  • (a) that any corrupt practice has been committed by such office-bearer; or
  • (b) that the nomination of an candidate has been improperly rejected; or
  • (c) that the result of the election in so far it concerns such office bearer has been materially affected by the improper acceptance of any nomination or by the improper reception, refusal or rejection of any vote or the reception of any vote which is void or by any non -compliance with the provisions of any rules of the society.
  • Explanation I. – …………….. ………… …
  • Explanation II. – ………………… ……..
  • Explanation III. –  ……………. ………..

Section 25 of the Societies Registration Act as amended by State of U.P. endows the ‘prescribed authority’ with the right to hear and decide in a summary manner disputes in respect of the election or continuance in office of office-bearers of societies.

But, when disputed questions of fact are involved, summary proceedings under Section 25 of the Act, 1860 will not be a bar for seeking remedy before the Civil Court as the summary proceedings under Section 25 is not an efficacious remedy.[279]

Cooperative Societies Acts

Co-operative Societies Acts provide that disputes touching the business of a society shall be referred to the Registrar for arbitration. But, it does not encompass dispute arising out of a disciplinary proceeding between such society and its officers and servants; and therefore, in the absence of such provision for compulsory arbitration of such dispute the jurisdiction of the Civil Court is not barred.[280]

58. Legality of Meeting not be Adjudicated by Ednl. Authorities

Where there is no express exclusion, the Civil Courts examine the remedies and the Scheme of the Act to find out the intendment of the legislature, as to implied exclusion, in a proper case. In any event, the legality or correctness of the meeting held and the decisions taken by the society are not matters to be adjudicated upon by the appellate authorities constituted under the Educational Act and the Rules.[281].

59. Suit to Declare Plaintiff Continues as Secretary: Maintainable

Several State-Societies-Registration-Acts and Amendments to the Societies Registration Act provide for enquiry by Registrar into the constitution, working and financial conditions of the society. In D DhanapalVs. D David Livingstone[282] it is held that the suit filed for declaration that the plaintiff continues to be the Secretary of the Society is maintainable.

60. Whether Writ Petition Maintainable Against Societies

The main concern as to maintainability ofa writ is whether the society discharges public duty or not.Availability of alternative remedy may not operate as absolute bar against the exercise of the writ jurisdiction.[283]Various decisions of our Apex Court also say that a society is not ‘State’ within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India and thusnot amenable to writ jurisdiction. [284]

It is also pointed out that availability of efficacious statutory remedy bars writ jurisdiction.[285]

The Supreme Court held that the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) is an ‘authority’ for the purpose of issuance of Writs[286] by the courts.  The BCCI is a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 and it came to be a deemed society by virtue of Section 4 (2) of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act, 1975.

Our Apex Court appraised that, as a member of ICC, it represented the country in the international fora; it exercised enormous public functions; and it had the authority to select players, umpires and officials to represent the country in the international fora. The Writ Petitions against Co-operative Societies are maintainable in certain circumstances. When the action complained in the Writ Petition is of any statutory violation on the part of the Co-operative Society, a Writ Petition will lie.

In Sand Carriers Owners Union Vs. Board of Trustees for the Port of Calcutta,[287] it had been held:

  • “Unincorporated associations are not legal persons and as such, writ petitions are not maintainable. An association could be formed to protect the interest of consumers, tenants or other groups with the common interest but such group cannot move writ application. No aspect of the representative law has been changing more rapidly than the law governing standing and the standing barrier has been substantially lowered in recent years, but on the basis of the law relating to standing as in England or in America as also in India, it can be held without any difficulty that the writ petition at the instance of an association is not maintainable where the association itself is not affected by any order. The members of such association may be affected by common order and may have common grievance, but for the purpose of enforcing the rights of the members, writ petition at the instance of such association is not maintainable. The door of the writ Court could be made open at the instance of persons or authorities under the aforesaid four categories and to hold that every Tom, Dick and Harry can move the writ application would render the standing requirement meaningless and would introduce a procedure which is not judicially recognised.”

The action of the Co-operative Society, if falls in a public domain or breach of the public duty is complained of, writ may also lie. However, in the absence of breach of any statutory duty or public duty, a Writ Petition cannot be entertained against a Co-operative Society.[288]

In Supriyo Basu Vs. WB Housing Board[289] it has been held by our Apex Court that it is undisputed that a Co-operative Society is constituted on agreement between members thereof who had agreed to abide by the provisions of the Co-operative Societies Act, the Rules framed thereunder or the bye-laws framed by the Society. The Society is undisputedly not a department of the State and is also not a creature of a statute but merely governed by a statute. Only if it is established that the mandatory provision of a Statute has been violated, a writ petition could be maintainable. In the facts of Satwati Deswal Vs. State of Hariyana[290] it was held by our Apex Court that the Writ Petition was maintainable even though alternate remedy was available.

61. Court Interference on PIL:

Take-over and Appointment of Administrator by Court: When No Action was taken by Authorities

In a Public Interest Litigation in Sanjay Gupta Vs. State of M.P.[291] it was pleaded that due to irregularities and mismanagement of the society the future of near about 1200 students who were getting education in the college and schools run by a Society was in dark. The petitioner prayed to takeover the society and to appoint an administrator. The Court found that in spite of the adverse reports, no action had been taken by the authorities. Observing that the right to receive proper education is a part and parcel of Article 21 of the Constitution and considering the judgment of the Supreme Court in State of Uttaranchal Vs. Balwant Singh Chaufal[292] it was held that a writ petition in the shape of PIL was maintainable.

The Court appointed the Additional Collector, Gwalior as Administrator of the Society and gave directions for election and investigation in regard to financial irregularities in the light of Sec. 32 and 33 of the M.P. Societies Registrikaran Adhiniyam, 1973.

62. Disciplinary Action: Termination of Service

The jurisdiction of the Civil Court in the case of contract of service is only to grant damages if there is a wrongful termination of service; and the civil court has no power to interdict the disciplinary proceedings. The Civil Court cannot order reinstatement or enforcing the contractual service. It cannot grant the relief of injunction restraining the Management from taking the action, more so when the proposed action is only an enquiry into the conduct of the employee.[293] The Civil Court has no right to enforce the contract of personnel service and the well recognised exceptions are noticed by the Supreme Court in Executive Committee of U. P. State Warehousing Corporation Vs. Chandra Kiran Tyagi.[294]

  • “From the two decisions of this Court referred to above, the position in law is that no declaration to enforce a contract of personnel service will be normally granted. But there are certain well-recognised exceptions to this rule and they are: To grant such a declaration in appropriate cases regarding
  • (1) a public servant, who has been dismissed from service in contravention of Article 311.
  • (2) Reinstatement of a dismissed worker under Industrial law by Labour or Industrial Tribunals.
  • (3) A statutory body when it has acted in breach of a mandatory obligation, imposed by statute. “

63. Fiduciary Position of Governing Body Members

Directors of a company stand in a fiduciary[295] position and they are legally bound to exercise their powers for the company’s benefit. They have to protect the interest of the company and its shareholders. They cannot take part in any resolution under which they gain any benefit. If interested directors take part in such transactions there would be an irregularity and it renders the resolutions voidable at the instance of the company.[296] The term ‘fiduciary’ as an adjective means ‘in the nature of a trust, having the characteristics of a trust, analogues to a trust; relating to or founded upon a trust or confidence’. Mere confidence[297] also cannot result in a fiduciary relationship.

The term ‘fiduciary’ as an adjective means ‘in the nature of a trust, having the characteristics of a trust, analogues to a trust; relating to or founded upon a trust or confidence’. ‘Fiduciary relationship’ invariably involves dominion over property which is wholly lacking in the case of a contract of suretyship or guarantee, that the surety has not received anything nor has he been given dominion with money or property and that he has no liability to account. There is no fiduciary capacity involving liability to account in relation to another. Mere confidence also cannot result in a fiduciary relationship.[298]

Black’s Law Dictionary defines ‘fiduciary relationship’ as:

  • “A relationship in which one person is under a duty to act for the benefit of the other on matters within the scope of the relationship.fiduciary relationships – such as trustee-beneficiary, guardian-ward, agent-principal, and attorney-client – require the highest duty of care. fiduciary relationships usually arise in one of four situations : (1) when one person places trust in the faithful integrity of another, who as a result gains superiority or influence over the first, (2) when one person assumes control and responsibility over another, (3) when one person has a duty to act for or give advice to another on matters falling within the scope of the relationship, or (4) when there is a specific relationship that has traditionally been recognised as involving fiduciary duties, as with a lawyer and a client or a stockbroker and a customer.”

64. Law Does not Permit Transfer of Trust

Court Cannot Sanction Drastic Amendment to Trust

Trust is a confidential relationship which involves a special duty of loyalty to the purpose or object of the trust.  There is no principle of law or precedent which permits transfer of trust in favour of another body of persons.[299]

It is not open for the majority of the members of an association to alter the basic or fundamental principles upon which it is founded, unless such a power is specifically reserved. This principle in Milligan Vs. Mitchel,[300]Atttorney General Vs. Anderson[301] and Free Church of England Vs. Overtoun[302] is referred to in Prasanna Venkitesa Rao Vs. Srinivasa Rao.[303] Court cannot sanction any drastic amendment which would destroy the basic purpose for which the trust was created.It is held that no deviation from the object of the trust would be allowed; and the properties would not be allowed to be sold to the members of their community for whose benefit the trust is created and the properties were acquired.[304]

65. Duty of Courts as Ultimate Protector of All Charities

Court has Jurisdiction to Enforce Trusts

In AA Gopalakrishnan Vs. Cochin Devaswom Board[305] while adverting to the need for protecting the properties of deities, temples and Devaswom Boards, our Apex Court observed that it isalso the duty of Courts to protect and safeguard the properties of religious and charitable institutions from wrongful claims or misappropriation.[306]In Doongarsee Shyamji Vs. Tribhuvan Das[307] it was pointed out that where the Shebait of a temple has done something which is obviously adverse to the interest of the institution the court would allow a disinterested third party to file a suit, provided such a suit is filed in the interest of the foundation or the deity, as the case may be.[308]

As in the case of English Law, Indian Law also accepts court as the ultimate protector of all charities.[309] It is the guardian of the public charitable trust/institution.[310] Court has jurisdiction to enforce trusts.[311]In Subramannaiya Vs. Abbinava[312]  it was observed by the Privy Council (Wadsworth, J.) that it was the duty of the court to protect the trust property from misappropriation and diversion from the objects to which it was dedicated. It was observed: 

  • “It is the duty of the court to protect the trust property from misappropriation and diversion from the objects to which it was dedicated. When the trust property is without a legal guardian, owing to any defects in the machinery for the appointment of a trustee or owning to unwillingness of the legal trustee to act, it would be a monstrous thing if any honest person recognised as being in charge of the institution and actually controlling its affairs in the interest of the trust should not be entitled, in the absence of any one with a better title, to take these actions which are necessary to safeguard the interests of the trust”.

66. Non-convening of the Meetings and Acquiescence

Non-convening of Annual General Meetings is a serious allegation against the office-bearers of a Society.  But in proper cases courts can invoke doctrine of acquiescence.

In TJ Thomas Vs. CS Joseph[313] reliefs were claimed under the provisions of the Companies Act read with 3 and 4 of the Kerala Non-Trading Companies Act, 1961 alleging, inter alia, that the respondents were not convening the Annual General Meetings regularly. The prayers were rejected because it had come out in evidence that the non-convening of the meetings was due to the inaction on the part of petitioners; that the petitioners, if they were really interested in the affairs of the Sangam, should have taken appropriate steps at the appropriate time and seen that the Annual General Meetings were convened without fail; and that the conduct of the petitioners in this regard would show that they had without demur, acquiesced in the various activities of the respondents.

67. Fiduciary Relationship Will Not be Allowed to be Varied

Though, generally, the Indian Trusts Act applies to private trusts, the principles in Sec. 46 and 47 of the Indian Trusts Act (a trustee cannot renounce or delegate duties) are applied to various affairs of fiduciary relationship,[314] by our Courts, as they contain the common law principles of the universal rules of equity, justice and good conscience upheld by the English judges.

In State of Uttar Pradesh Vs. BansiDhar[315]  it is held by VR Krishna Iyer J. as under:

  •  “But while these provisions (of Indian Trusts Act)  proprio vigore do not apply, certainly there is a common area of legal principles which covers all trusts, private and public, and merely because they find a place in the Trusts Act, they cannot become ‘untouchable’ where Public Trusts are involved. Case must certainly be exercised not to import by analogy what is not germane to the general law of trusts, but we need have no inhibitions in administering the law by invoking the universal rules of equity and good conscience upheld by the English Judges, though also sanctified by the statute relating to private trusts. The Courts below have drawn inspiration from Section 83 of the Trusts Act and we are not inclined to find fault with them on that score because the provision merely reflects a rule of good conscience and of general application.”[316]

Sec. 46 and 47 of the Indian Trusts Act read:

  • S. 46: A trustee who has accepted the trust cannot afterwards renounce it except (a) with the permission of a principal Civil Court of Original Jurisdiction, or (b) if the beneficiary is competent to contract, with his consent, or (c) by virtue of a special power in the instrument of trust.
  • S. 47: A trustee cannot delegate his office or any of his duties either to a co-trustee or to a stranger, unless (a) the instrument of trust so provides, or (b) the delegation is in the regular course of business or (c) the delegation is necessary, or (d) the beneficiary, being competent to contract, consents to the delegation.

Sec. 46 and 47 of the Indian Trusts Act make it clear: a fiduciary relationship and duties[317] attached thereto should not be allowed  to  be  unilaterally  terminated  or  varied,  as  it would  be against the interests of society in general.These principles would apply with equal force to servants and, in fact, to anybody who has entered on another’s property in a fiduciary capacity [318]

68. Governing Body Not to Benefit

It is the duty of the trustee to administer the trust solely in the interest of the beneficiaries. He is not permitted to place himself in a position where it would be for his own benefit or to violate his duty to the beneficiaries.[319] Trustee has to act gratuitously unless sanctioned in the trust deed.[320]Section 32 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 which provides that the trustee is entitled to get reimbursement out of the trust property all expenses properly incurred in relation to the execution of the trust property and for preservation of the trust property is a principle of the English law of Trusts which has been incorporated in the Indian Trusts Act. Such principles are applied to public trusts also. 

The same is the position in case of governing body members of a society also.[321]

69. S. 88, Trusts Act Encompass Societies and Clubs Also

Section 88 of the Indian Trusts Act expressly refers to director of a company ‘or other person’. It reads as under:

  •  “88. Where a trustee, executor, partner, agent, director of a company, legal adviser, or other person bound in a fiduciary character to protect the interests of another person, avails himself of his character, and gains for himself any pecuniary advantage or,
  • where any person so bound enters into dealings under circumstances in which his own interests are, or may be, adverse to those of such other person, and thereby gains for himself a pecuniary advantage, he must hold for the benefit of such other person the advantage so gained.”

It is legitimate to comprehend that the words ‘or other person’ in Sec. 88 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 encompass the governing bodies of societies and clubs also.

70. Liability of So: No Personal Liability on Members & Gov. Body

Someswara Swamy Vari Devastanam Vs. Dasam Suryanarayana[322] it is held as under:

  • “The wording of the above Section (Sec. 8) is clearly indicating that whenever there is a decree against the society, the members of the society cannot be made liable for the payment of debt due from the society and the decree cannot be enforced against the members of the society in their individual capacity.
  • In Swami Satchitanand Vs. The 2nd Addl. Income-tax Officer, Kozhikode, AIR 1964 Kerala 118, the Kerala High Court held that a society registered under Societies Registration Act is a legal entity. It is capable of suing and being sued as such. A tax imposed on a Society, though it has been styled as an ‘Association of persons’ is still a tax on the society and not on its members. It is not possible, therefore, to say that the tax imposed on a Society is a tax imposed on the members of the Society. In K. C. Thomas Vs. R. L. Gadeock, AIR 1970 Patna 163, a division bench of Patna High Court while considering the scope of Section 8 of the Societies Registration Act, held that a registered Society can sue and be sued in its own name, can own its own property and can employ its own servants. Any person agreeing to serve under the Society or in any of its institutions must be deemed to hold the post under the Society. A society registered under the Act may not be a body corporate, quite distinct from its members.
  • In Chanumolu Anil Kumar Vs. Vasu Cotton and Ginning Mills, 1989 (2) APLJ 196. It is laid down that in the suit against a Company and is Directors, which is decreed, in the absence of any fraud or other allegations, the decree cannot be executed against the Directors. It is open to the executing Court to construe the decree as a decree against the Company alone and not against the Directors.
  • In the case covered by the above decision, the Directors were also shown as defendants describing them in their capacities in their Companies and the decree directs the defendants to pay the decree amount. The Court held that such a decree cannot be considered as a personal decree and a decree cannot be passed against the Directors and such decree would be a nullity. In Devuri Appala Raju Vs. KolliRamayamma, 1983 (1) ALT 420, a Single Bench of this Court held that a decree passed against the personal property of the legal representatives in violation of Section 52 CPC is a nullity and therefore in executable.
  • Section 8 of the Act which imposes a bar for imposing liability on the members of the society and the decree passed against the members of the society in their individual capacity is a nullity. The decree passed against the office bearers of the society cannot be up held as the decree against them in their personal capacity.”

Arrears of sales tax due from a society registered under the Societies Registration Act could not be recovered personally from an ex-president of the society.[323] Merely because of a person having been its president for some time will not be liable for payment of the dues of a Co-Operative Society.[324]

A company has a legal personality of its own, distinct from its members, and, therefore, in the absence of a contract, or a statutory provision, making the director personally liable for the dues of the company, he cannot be proceeded against for realisation of those dues.[325]

 In K. Paramasivam Pillai Vs. Board of Revenue,[326] the Madras High Court held that sales tax assessed under the Madras General Sales Tax Act, 1959, on a canteen attached to a recreation club of members of the gazetted and non-gazetted staff of the Tirunelveli Collectorate was not realisable personally from the honorary secretary of the canteen, since the liability was not personal to him.

In Nalin Behari Roy Vs. Bisweswar Bhattacharjya[327] it is observed that for the mere fact that the society was not a registered one, it would not entitle a person to recover the loans from the office bearer, personally.

Liability of Directors and Trustees on Accout of Ultra Vires Acts

In re: Bennett (1892),[328] the Articles of Association of the company provided that no dividend or bonus should be payable except out of profits. No profits were made by the company; but the directors paid interest to the shareholders out of the capital of the company. The Court of Appeal, affirming the judgment of the court of the first instance, held that the payment of interest out of the capital was ultra vires. Lindley, L.J. observed:

  • “As soon as the conclusion is arrived at that the company’s money has been applied by the directors for purposes which the company cannot sanction, it follows that the directors are liable to replace the money, however honestly they may have acted.”[329]

71. Liability of Director Board Members u/s 138, N.I. Act

See Chapter: Management of Societies and Clubs.

72. Granting Temporary Injunction

Stultifying the functioning of the associations and its governing body, normally courts will not grant temporary injunctions. The courts will always consider the balance of convenience in a pragmatic way and probe whether granting temporary injunction prejudicial and detrimental to the interests of the institution.[330]

73. Effect of Failure to File Documents U/S 4 or of Becoming Defunct

Non-renewal does not infer, society is defunct

Non-renewal of the registration of a society may be a bar to avail the benefits offered to registered societies, but the same by itself will not lead the inference that the society is not in existence.[331] In the event of becoming a society defunct, or failure to file documents under Sec. 4 of the So. Regn. Act, there is no bar to revive its activities and to conduct the election of the office bearers. The courts cannot set aside such elections on the sole ground that certain statutory provisions have not been complied with by it.[332]

74. Court’s Jurisdiction in Expulsion of a Member from a Political Party

See Chapter: Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

75. Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

See Chapter: Expulsion of Members & Removal of Office-Bearers

76. No Civil Suit Where Statutory Authorities Have Jurisdiction

The dismissal of the suit was upheld by our Apex Court in Church of North India Vs. Lavajibhai Ratanjibhai[333] holding that the civil court has no jurisdiction where bar is imposed in relation to a matter whereover the statutory authorities (under BPT Act) have the requisite jurisdiction. It is observed that in such a case, if only a question arises which is outside the purview of the Act or in relation to a matter unconnected with the administration or possession of the trust property, the Civil Court may have jurisdiction. It is also pointed out in this decision that a society created under a statute must conform to its provisions and the courts would interfere in case of its violation.[334]

77. Plea of Malafide or Fraud Requires Strict Proof

The Supreme Court in JN Chaudhary Vs. State of Hariyana, [335]reiterated the law and held that where a collective decision was taken by majority of the General Body of a Co-operative Society, then the same could not be ignored and bypassed at the instance of handful of members. When the decision was taken by majority in terms of the Rule, it could not be overruled by minority even on the ground of malafide or fraud unless it was established through strict proof of evidence. It was further observed that it was a well known dictum that mala fide was always easy to allege but difficult to prove as the same cannot be held as proved relying on assumption, speculation and suspicion.

With respect to ‘malafides’ the Supreme Court has laid down as follows in Ratnagiri Gas and Power Vs. RDS Projects[336]:

  •  “The law casts a heavy burden on the person alleging malafides to prove the same on the basis of facts that are either admitted or satisfactorily established and/or logical inferences deductible from the same. This is particularly so when the petitioner alleges malice in fact in which event it is obligatory for the person making any such allegation to furnish particulars that would prove malafides on the part of the decision maker. Vague and general allegations unsupported by the requisite particulars do not provide a sound basis for the Court to conduct an inquiry into their veracity. As and when allegations of malafides are made, the persons against whom the same are levelled need to be impleaded as parties to the proceedings to enable them to answer the charge. In absence of the person concerned as a party in his/her individual capacity it will neither be fair nor proper to record a finding that malice in fact had vitiated the action taken by the authority concerned. A judicial pronouncement declaring an action to be malafide is a serious indictment of the person concerned that can lead to adverse civil consequences against him. Courts have, therefore, to be slow in drawing conclusions when it comes to holding allegations of malafides to be proved and only in cases where based on the material placed before the Court or facts that are admitted leading to inevitable inferences supporting the charge of mala fides that the Court should record a finding in the process ensuring that while it does so, it also bars the person who was likely to be affected by such a finding. …… Between `malice in fact’ and `malice in law’ there is a broad distinction which is not peculiar to any system of jurisprudence. The person who inflicts a wrong or in injury upon any person in contravention of the law is not allowed to say that he did so with an innocent mind. He is taken to know the flaw and can only act within the law. He may, therefore, be guilty of `malice in law’, although, so far as the state of his mind was concerned he acted ignorantly, and in that sense innocently. `Malice in fact’ is a different thing. It means an actual malicious intention on the part of the person who has done the wrongful act.
  • …… It is an act which is taken with an oblique or indirect object. It is an act done wrongfully and wilfully without reasonable or probable cause, and not necessarily an act done from ill feeling and spite. Mala fide exercise of power does not imply any moral turpitude. It means exercise of statutory power for “purposes foreign to those for which it is in law intended. “ It means conscious violation of the law to the prejudice of another, a depraved inclination on the part of the authority to disregard the rights of others, where intent is manifested by its injurious acts. Passing an order for unauthorised purpose constitutes malice in law. (See: Addl. Distt. Magistrate, Jabalpur Vs. Shivkant Shukla, AIR 1976 SC 1207 : Union of India thr. Govt. of Pandicherry Vs. V. Ramakrishnan, (2005) 8 SCC 394 :(AIR 2005 SC 4295; 2005 AIR SCW 5147); and Kalabharati Advertising Vs. Hemant Vimalnath Narichania, AIR 2010 SC 3745).”

78. Tribunals are not Bound by Technical Rules

Domestic tribunals are not bound by technical rules of evidence and procedure as are applicable to Courts means not only on direct evidence but also on probabilities and circumstantial evidence. There is no scope for importing the principles of criminal trial while considering the probative value of probabilities and circumstantial evidence by a domestic tribunal.The enquiry held by domestic tribunals must be fair and the delinquent must be given adequate opportunity to defend themselves and holding such enquiries, the tribunal must follow the rules of natural justice. If not supported by any evidence, the Court may be justified to quash the order or open to the High Court to interfere with the order of the quasi judicial authority. [337] A domestic tribunal is free to evolve its own procedure.[338]

79. Complaint only if personally affected:

Courts will entertain a complaint on election-matter, and interfere, only if the person who complaints is personally affected.[339] He should have been a candidate or acquired the right to vote.

Locus Standi of an Individual Member to Challenge Election

In Tej Bahadur vs Shri Narendra Modi, AIR 2021 SC 217,  the Apex Court considered the question of the validity of the appellant’s nomination since that had a direct bearing on the question whether he had a right to question the election. After finding that the appellant was not a duly nominated candidate, it is held as under:

  • “We find that the averments in the petition do not disclose that the appellant has a cause of action which invest him with right to sue. It is settled that where a person has no interest at all, or no sufficient interest to support a legal claim or action he will have no locus standi to sue. The entitlement to sue or locus standi is an integral part of cause of action. In T. Arivandandam v. T.V. Satyapal (1977) 4 SCC 467, V.R. Krishna Iyer J., speaking for this Court held that if on a meaningful – not formal – reading of the plaint it is manifestly vexatious, and meritless, in the sense of not disclosing a clear right to sue, it should be nipped in the bud at the first hearing.”

A member of a Society does not have the right to challenge Election unless his rights are personally affected by the impugned action. An individual member cannot challenge an order finalising a voter list. He should have been a candidate or acquired the right to vote. (Ram Pal Singh Vs. State of U P: LAWS (ALL)-2015-5-99.   Referred to: Ram Pyare Lal Vs. State of U.P. 2015-3 ADJ 577;  Also See: Vimla Devi Vs. Deputy Director of Education, 1997-3 ESC 1807;  2010 (1) ADJ 262)

The Apex Court held in Bar Council of Delhi Vs. Surjeet Singh, AIR 1980 SC 1612:

  • A voter could challenge the election.
  • Merely because he took part in the election by standing as a candidate or by exercise of his right of franchise he cannot be estopped from challenging the whole election when the election was glaringly illegal and void on the basis of the obnoxious proviso. There is no question of approbation and reprobation at the same time in such a case.
  • A voter could come to the High Court even earlier before the election was held. But merely because he came to challenge the election after it was held it cannot be said that he was guilty of any laches and must be non-suited only on that account.

In Committee of Management, Sri Kachcha Baba Inter College, Varanasi Vs. Regional Committee, Pancham Mandal (2007-7 ADJ 414; 2007-3 All LR 14; MANU/UP/2165/2007)  it was held that a group of members of the General Body (and not by a rival committee of management) had no locus standi to challenge the result of the elections (Referred to in Satya Narain Tripathi Vs. State of U P: 2008 – 2 ADJ 222, 2008-71 ALLLR 698).

There were divergent views, in UP, on the right of an individual member to file a writ petition. In certain cases (Dr. P.P. Rastogi v. Meerut University, Meerut, 1997-1 UPLBEC 415; Smt. Vimla Devi v. The Deputy Director of Education, Agra Region, Agra, 1997-3 ESC 1807; Bhagwan Kaushik v. State of U.P., 2006-2 UPLBEC 1372; Amanullah Khan v. State of U.P. , 2009-75 All LR 29) it was held that an individual member had no right to file the writ petition. The other set of decisions (Kamla Kant Agrawal v. State of U.P., 2008-7 ADJ 601; Committee of Management, Janta Inter College, Sultanpur, District Haridwar v. Joint Director of Education, I Region, Meerut, 1999-1 UPLBEC 170; Ratan Kumar Solanki v. State of U.P., 2010-1 ADJ 262) observed that the writ petition could be maintained, subject to the existence of efficacious alternative remedy, when there was a breach of right of a person affecting his right to form an association, which was a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution, or there was a breach of the Statute. Both the divergent views had been considered by a Division Bench in Committee of Management, Arya Kanya Pathshala Inter College, Bulandshahar v. State of U.P. (2011-2 ADJ 65). The Division Bench observed as under:

  •  “There is no such proposition that an individual member cannot, in no circumstance, challenge the election of the Committee of Management….. It is clear that the question as to whether an individual member has locus to challenge the election of Committee of Management depends on facts of each case…..” (See: Laxman Singh Vs. State of UP, ADJ 2014-9 242, AWC 2014-5 4382, LBESR 2014-3 415)

80. Manner of Holding the Election, Within Powers of the Associations:

The associations and clubs are within their powers to decide their Bye laws and Rules, under which they may have different kinds of the posts prescribing different kinds of election process, and the manner of holding the election.[340]

81. General Law of Contracts and Companies Act

Bye laws bind its members as a contract.[341] In TAK Mohideen Pichai Taraganar Vs. Tinnevelly Mills Co.[342] it was held that the general right of suit cannot be considered to have been taken away merely because of some ‘regulatory’ provisions.

 Relying on this decision, it is held in Avanthi Explosives P. Ltd. Vs. Principal Subordinate Judge, Tirupathi[343] that the general law of contracts is the basis of the rights of parties and that the Companies Act merely ‘regulates’ these rights and does not create any new right or remedy. Unless there is an exclusion of the jurisdiction of the civil court, by words express or implied, the suit is maintainable, and no such exclusion has been held existing by the courts in respect of individual rights.

82. Validity of Election: Jurisdiction with Courts; Not with Registrar.

            Though Section 36(1) of the Tamil Nadu Societies Registration Act, 1975 empowers the Registrar, either of his own motion or on the Application of a majority of the members of the committee of management or on the Application, of not less than one third of the members of the Society to hold an enquiry into the Constitution, working and financial condition of a registered Society, it is held in S. Thamil Arasan President of Chennai Vyasarpadi Nadar Nagar Progressive Association Chennai Vs. R. Narayanan[344] that the Registrar is not competent to enquire into the validity of an election, while performing a mere ministerial function; the jurisdiction is vested with the Courts.

83. If Violation of Bye laws Court Sets Right the Illegalities

In V. Arulkumar Vs. Tamil Nadu Government Nurses Association[345] it is held that the court has to necessarily see as to whether the conduct of elections was in accordance with the Bye laws of the Association. If the same was in total violation of the Bye laws of the Association the court was certainly empowered to set right the illegalities and put the election process in motion to be performed in accordance with the Bye laws. Therefore it was held that the suit was maintainable.

84. In Proper Cases Courts Order Election and Appoint Receivers

In K.P. Muhammed Vs. M. Abdurahiman[346] both sides did not want an election to be conducted; and both were aiming at the administration or control of the Society, and for that purpose they were not so eager or anxious to have an election conducted in the manner suggested by the Court. The Kerala High Court, in order to resolve stalemate, ordered election and appointed Receivers to manage its affairs.

85. Ordinarily, Courts will not Interfere with Election Process

In Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik, (2011) 13 SCC 774,  our Apex Court held:

“Since 1952 this Court has authoritatively laid down that once election process has started the courts should not ordinarily interferewith the said process by way of granting injunction.”

In Jagan Nath Vs. Jaswant Singh, (1954) SCR 892 (Also See: Jayanta Samal Vs. Kulamani Behera: 2004 13 SCC 552), it is observed: 

“… It is also well settled that it is a sound principle of natural justice that the success of a candidate who has won at an election should not be lightly interfered with and any petition seeking such interference must strictly conform to the requirements of the law.”

Remedies with respect to the disputes as to elections will have to be sought for after elections are over. This time-honoured principle is emphasised in the following decisions also.

  • Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath, AIR  2016 SC 1094.
  • N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer, AIR 1952 SC 64
  • Nanhoo Mal and Others Vs. Hira Mal, (1976) 3 SCC 211
  • Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. Chief Election Commr., AIR 1978 SC 851.
  • Boddula Krishnaiah Vs. State Elec. Commissioner, A.P., AIR 1996 SC 1595
  • Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami Vs. State of Maharashtra, AIR 2001 SC 3982; Followed in Ahmednagar Zilla SDV P Sangh Vs. State of Maharashtra, (2004) 1 SCC 133.   
  • Anugrah Narain Singh Vs. State of U.P., (1996) 6 SCC 303
  • Election Commissioner of India Vs. Ashok Kumar, AIR 2000 SC 2977
  • Abdulla Khan Vs. State of Orissa, 2008 (Supp.) O.L.R. 251
  • Abdul Latheef C.K. Vs. K.M. Haneefa, 2015-3 Ker LT 299.
  • Medical Council of India Vs. Regar/Returning Officer, TN, AIR 2014 Mad 34
  • Avtar Singh Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurudwara Mgmnt. Comtee, (2006) 8 SCC 487. 
  • C. Subrahmanyam Vs. K. Ramanjaneyullu, (1998) 8 SCC 703.
  • Ashok Kumar Jain Vs. Neetu Kathoria, (2004) 12 SCC 73 (Also see: Harcharan Singh Vs. Mohinder Singh: AIR 1968  SC 1500; Mohinder Singh Gill Vs. The Chief Election Commissioner: AIR 1978  SC 851; Jyoti Basu Vs. Debi Ghosal: AIR  1982  SC  983; Harikrishna Lal Vs. Bau Lal Marandi: 2003-8 SCC 613; Shyamdeo Pd. Singh Vs. Naval Kishore Yadav: 2000-8 SCC 46; Election Commission of India Vs. Ashok Kumar : AIR 2000 SC 2977).
  • K.K. Shrivastava Vs. Bhupendra Kumar Jain, AIR 1977 SC 1703.

It is observed in Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath (AIR  2016 SC 1094: Referred: Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer: AIR 1952 SC 64;  Shri Sant Sadguru Janardan Swami Vs. State of Maharashtra: 2001 (8) SCC 509; Nanhoo Mal and others Vs. Hira Mal: 1976 (3) SCC 211) while considering election to Dental Council of India under Section 3 (a) of the Dentists Act, 1948:

“So far as the issue with regard to eligibility of Respondent no.1 for contesting the election is concerned, though prima facie it appears that Respondent No.1 could contest the election, we do not propose to go into the said issue because, in our opinion, as per the settled law, the High Court should not have interfered with the election after the process of election had commenced. The judgments referred to herein above clearly show the settled position of law to the effect that whenever the process of election starts, normally courts should not interfere with the process of election for the simple reason that if the process of election is interfered with by the courts, possibly no election would be completed without court ‘s order. Very often, for frivolous reasons candidates or others approach the courts and by virtue of interim orders passed by courts, the election is delayed or cancelled and in such a case the basic purpose of having election and getting an elected body to run the administration is frustrated. For the aforestated reasons, this Court has taken a view that all disputes with regard to election should be dealt with only after completion of the election.”

In K.K. Shrivastava Vs. Bhupendra Kumar Jain, AIR 1977 SC 1703, with respect to election to the Bar Council of Madhya Pradesh under the Advocates Act our Apex Court held:

“Where there is an appropriate or equally efficacious remedy the Court should keep its hands off. This is more particularly so where the dispute relates to an election. Still more so where there is a statutorily prescribed remedy which almost reads in mandatory terms.” See also: Abdul Latheef C.K. Vs. K.M. Haneefa:  2015-3 Ker LT 299.

86. Standard of Proof in Election Matters:

The election of a returned candidate will not be set aside unless there are cogent and convincing reasons (Kalyan Kumar Gogoi Vs. Ashutosh Agnihotri: AIR 2011 SC 760). In election matters the standard of proof is high and burden is on the election petitioner. The court proceedings on election disputes are akin to criminal proceedings (Md. Majid Hussain Vs. Md. Aqueel, AIR 2015 AP 21, that See also: Tanaji Ramchandra Nimhan Vs. Swati Vinayak Nimhan: AIR  2006 SC 1218). It is held in Gajanan Krishnaji Barat Vs. Dattaji Raghobaji Meghe, 1995-5 SCC 347, that in an election petition, based on allegations of commission of corrupt practice, the standard of proof required is, generally speaking, that in a criminal trial (Also see: Md. Majid Hussain Vs. Md Aqueel, AIR 2015 AP 21, Tanaji Ramchandra Nimhan Vs. Swati Vinayak Nimhan: AIR  2006 SC 1218). The onus lies heavily on the petitioner to establish the charge of corrupt practice and in case of doubt the benefit goes to the returned candidate.

It is pointed out in Seth Gulabchand v. Seth Kudilal, [1966]3 SCR 623 (Referred to in Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and Higher Secondary Education Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879), that the rules applicable to circumstantial evidence in criminal cases would not apply to civil cases. The ordinary rules governing civil cases of balance of probabilities will continue to apply. Mere preponderance of probabilities or presumptions cannot be the basis to challenge an election.

Courts Sparingly Exercise Jurisdiction – Must be cogent and compelling grounds.

The decision taken by the concerned authority during the course of election is not open to judicial review except on the ground of mala fide or arbitrary exercise of power (Manish Kansal Vs. State of U P: LAWS(ALL)-2015-5-194). Courts will not interfere with discharging duties by the elected office bearers of an organisation, without cogent and compelling grounds. A simple breach of any Rule will not give rise to a cause of action for any member unless there is manifest illegality, or act or omission that goes to the root of the matter.  In other words, the alleged violation should be so grave that it could not be condoned by the general body (See: A. S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: A. I. R. 1941 Bom. 312; Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598;   Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay, AIR 1946 Bom 516 ; NagappaVs. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831).


[1]      MP Electricity Board, Jabalpur Vs. M/s. Vijaya Timber: AIR 1997 SC 2364.

[2]      Capt. D.K. Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018 AP 48; Arunachal Pradesh Congs. Committee Vs. KalikhoPul: AIR 2015 Gauhati 179.

[3]      TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144

[4]      Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic & Unani Tibia College Vs. State of Delhi: AIR 1962 SC 458; Siddheshwar Sahkari Sakhar Karkhana Vs. Commr. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716; Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301; Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973. Zoroastrian Co-op. Hsing. Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005 SC 2306; State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378; BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[5]      C Chikka Venkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa: 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296; Narayan Krishnaji Vs. Anjuman E Islamia: AIR 1952 Kar 14: Thenappa Chattier Vs. Kuruppan Chhietier: AIR 1968 SC 915. Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastotate: AIR 2007 SC 1337

[6]      A P Dairy Development Corpn. Vs. B Narasimha Reddy: AIR 2011 SC 3298; DharamDuttVs. Union of India: AIR 2004 SC 1295.

[7]      AIR 1940 Mad 902.

[8]    (2011) 13 SCC 774

[9]      Madras Gymkhana Club Vs. KC Sukumar: 2010-1 CTC 199.

[10]    A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu Vs. S. Chellappan: 2000 (7) SCC 695: AIR 2000 SC 3032; Superintending Engineer Periyar Electricity Distribution Circle Erode Vs. Pavathal: 2002-2 CTC 544; 2002-1 Mad LJ 515. G. Bala Subrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264; AP Arya Vysya Mahasabha  Vs. Mutyapu Sudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227; Umesh Shivappa Ambi Vs. Angadi Shekara Basappa: (1998) 4 SCC 529: AIR 1999 SC 1566; Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487; Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh: AIR  2006 SC 52; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774; NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[11]    Ujjal TalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224. Rashmi Bala Saxena Vs. Jiwaji University Gwalior: AIR  1989 MP 181

[12]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774

[13]    G. Bala Subrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264; AP Arya Vysya Mahasabha  Vs. Mutyapu Sudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227.

[14]    V.VirupakshappaVsDangadiHanumanthappa: AIR 1978  Kar 131

[15]    AIR 1963 SC 1144.             

[16]    See also: Capt. DK Giri Vs. Secunderabad Club: AIR 2018 AP 48; M. Sekar Vs. The Tamil Nadu State Council of the CPI: 2015-7 MLJ 689.

[17]    Board of Control for Cricket Vs. Cricket Asson. of Bihar: AIR  2015 SC 3194;         D. Dwarakanantha Reddy Vs. Chaitnya Bharathi Educational Society : AIR 2007 SC 1794

[18]   SM Zaheer Alam Teachers Training College Vs. State of Bihar: AIR  2015 Pat 124

[19]   2009-5 BCR 776

[20]   See Notes under: ‘Special Forum: Limited Jurisdiction’

[21]    Maharashtra State Board of S and H Secondary Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879;         Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[22]    Shridhar Misra Vs. Jaihandra: AIR 1959 All 598; Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay; AIR 1946 Bom 516 ; Nagappa Vs. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831.

[23]    Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and H S Edn Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879, (agreed with ratio in Ghazanfar Rashid Vs. Board, H.S. & I. Edn., U.P: AIR 1970 All 209)

[24]    Kalyan Kumar Gogoi Vs. AshutoshAgnihotri:AIR 2011 SC 760. Referred to in:Ashok Vs. Rajendra Bhausaheb Mulak: 2012-12 SCC 27;  Ravinder Kumar Rawal Vs. V.K. Sood: ILR 2011-2  P&H 704.See also: Jagan NathVs. Jaswant Singh (1954) SCR 892. Jayanta Samal Vs. Kulamani Behera: 2004-13 SCC 552

[25]    State of West Bengal Vs. A.K. Shaw: AIR 1990 SC 2205: Relied on in Dharamraj Vs. Chhitan: 2006 12 SCC 349

[26]    Sterling Computers Limited Vs. M/s. M & N Publications: [(1993) 1 SCC 445]; Administrative Law, Prof. Wade Referred to. Union of India Vs. SB Vohra: AIR 2004 SC 1402 Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragoha: AIR 1980 SC 1524.

[27]    Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragohain: AIR 1980 SC 1524; Syed Yakoob Vs. K.S. Radhakrishnan 1964 (5) SCR 64

[28]    State of West Bengal Vs. A.K. Shaw :AIR 1990 SC 2205

[29]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[30]    Transport Commissioner, Madras v. A. Radhakrishna Moorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332.

[31]    Transport Commissioner, Madras Vs. A. Radhakrishna Moorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332.

[32]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144; Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley AIR 1969 Cal 224; All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association, 1994 55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, 2013-201 DLT 433. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879

[33]    ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598; Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. Arya Samaj, Bombay: AIR 1946 Bom 516 ; Nagappa Vs. Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831. N Thippanna Vs. State of Karnataka: 1982-2 Kant LJ 313; Joseph Vs. Kothamangalam Co-op. M. Society Ltd: 1994 (1) Ker LT 828;Bar Council of Delhi Vs. Surjeeth Singh: AIR 1980 SC 1612; Relied on in N Thippanna Vs. State of Karnataka:1982-2 Kant LJ 313; Devassy Vs. Asst. Registrar of Cooperative Societies: ILR 1976 (1) Ker. 95; Gopalan Vs. Joint Registrar of Cooperative Societies 1985 Ker LT 446.

[34]    Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India [(2006) 2 SCC 1; See also: UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224.  All Saints High School Hyderabad Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh: AIR  1980 SC 1042; See as to labour dispute: Management of Travancore Knitting Co Tiruppur Coimbatore Vs. K Muthuswamy: AIR  1962 Mad 398; Regional Manager, UPSRTC., Etawah Vs. HotiLal AIR 2003 SC 1462; Damoh Panna Sagar Rural Regional Bank Vs. Munna Lal Jain AIR 2005 SC 584.

[35]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[36]    Transport Commissioner, Madras v. A. Radhakrishna Moorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332.

[37]    AS Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312

[38]    Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragohain AIR 1980 SC 1524

[39]    Miller Vs. Minister of Pensions: [1947] All E L R 372 (Denning J.) Referred to in Maharashtra State Board Secondary and H S Edn Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879 . Also see: Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743

[40]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[41]    State of West Bengal Vs. A.K. Shaw: AIR 1990 SC 2205

[42]    Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677

[43]    K.P. Muhammed Vs. M. Abdurahiman:  LAWS (KER)-2013-3-137

[44]    V. Arulkumar Vs. Tamil Nadu Government Nurses Association: 2015-5 CTC 17

[45]    Rotopacking Materials Industry Vs. Ravider Kumar Chopra: 2003(6) BCR 6; Sm. Parul Bala Roy Vs. Srinibash Chowmal: AIR 1952 Cal 364; Arun Kumar MitraSekh Sajahan Vs. Gorachand Saheb Sekh: AIR 2005 Cal 178.

[46]    AIR 1956 SC 213

[47]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144. Kalyan Kumar Dutta Gupta Vs. B.M. Verma: AIR 1995 Cal. 140 (DB); Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India: ILR 2009-19 Dlh 216; Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: AIR 2005 SC 4074;  Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439; Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam:1998 (1) GLR 38; UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224. Mukunda Bore Vs. Bangshidhar Buragohain: AIR 1980 SC 1524.

[48]    Satyavart Sidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay AIR 1946 Bom 516, ShridharMisra Vs. JaichandraVidyalankar AIR 1959 All 598 ; NagappaChettiar Vs. The Madras Race Club AIR 1951 Mad 831; Sardar Kanwaldeep Singh Vs. AR Firms, Societies and Chits, Faizabad: AIR 1994 All 161; S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce:  AIR 1969 Mad 42; AS Krishnan Vs.M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312. Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam [1998 (1) GLR 38]; Raja Himanshu Dhar Singh Vs. AR Co-operative Societies: AIR 1962 All 439.

[49]    Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs.A R Co-op Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[50]    Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam:1998 (1) GLR 38. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879

[51]    Kalyan Kumar Dutta Gupta Vs. B.M. Verma: AIR 1995 Cal. 140 (DB). Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India: ILR 2009-19 Dlh 216.

[52]    Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Hous. Society Vs. PO, Delhi Co-op. Tribunal: AIR 1998 SC 2410.         

[53]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144; UjjalTalukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley AIR 1969 Cal 224; All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association, 1994 55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, 2013-201 DLT 433. Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS Edn. Vs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879

[54]    NK Mohapatra Vs. State: AIR  1994Ori 301.

[55]    CDS Financial Services (Mauritius) Ltd. Vs. BPL Communication: (2004) 121 Com Cas 374;  Marikar Motors Vs. M.I. Ravikumar : [1982] 52 Com Cas 362 (Ker); Pradip Kumar Sarkar Vs. Luxmi Tea Co. Ltd. [1990] 67 Com Cas 491 (Cal.); The appeal from this decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court in Luxmi Tea Co. Ltd. Vs. Pradip Kumar Sarkar, [1990] 67 Com Cas 518 (SC); Premvati Vs Bhagwati Devi, ILR 2007-16 Dlh 1514.

[56]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: AIR 1963 SC 1144; Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Vs. Presiding Officer: AIR  1998 SC 2410; Ujjal Talukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley AIR 1969 Cal 224; All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association, 1994-55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, 2013-201 DLT 433.

[57]    Myurdhwaj Co-op. Group Housing Society Ltd. Vs. Presiding Officer:  AIR 1998 SC 2410.

[58]    Rameshwar Prasad Vs. Union of India: AIR  2006 SC 980 (Wednesbury-Principle considered).Dharamraj Vs. Chhitan: 2006 -12 SCC 349; Kuldeep Singh v. Commissioner of Police: AIR 1999 SC 677; Workmen of Firestone Tyre Rubber Co  Vs. Management,Sheikh: AIR 1973 SC 1227;

[59]    PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001

[60]    PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001

[61]    UjjalTalukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224; Dr. BK Mukherjea, J. On the Hindu Law of Religious and Charitable Trusts, Tagore Law Lectures: Page: 411.

[62]    Alty Vs. Farrell: (1896) 1 QB 638; Kruse Vs. Johnson: (1898) 2 QB 91, Scott Vs. Pilliner: (1904) 2 KB 855, Repton School Governors Vs. Repton Rural District Council: (1918) 2 KB 133; Chester Vs. Bateson: (1920) 1 KB 829; Attorney General Vs. Denhy: 1925 Ch 596: All referred to in: Municipal Board Vs. Rizwan Beg: AIR 1964 All 544.

[63]    Transport Commissioner, Madras Vs. A. RadhakrishnaMoorthy: (1995) 1 SCC 332; Dharamraj Vs. Chhitan: 2006 -12 SCC 349. Workmen of Firestone Tyre Rubber Co  Vs. Management:Sheikh: AIR 1973 SC 1227

[64]    DharamrajVs.Chhitan: 2006 -12 SCC 349. Workmen of Firestone Tyre Rubber Co  Vs. Management:Sheikh: AIR 1973 SC 1227

[65]    Transport Commissioner, Madras v. A. RadhakrishnaMoorthy (1995) 1 SCC 332

[66]    Gaurav A Jain Vs. MP University of Agriculture and Technology: AIR  2004 Raj 247

[67]    UjjalTalukdarVs.Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224.

[68]    Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar: AIR 1977 P & H 21; State of Haryana Vs. Ram Chander: AIR 1976 P & H 381; Sarup Singh Vs. State of Punjab: 1990-1 LLJ 285. Board of High School and Intermediate Edn. Vs. Ghanshyam Das Gupta: AIR 1962 SC 1110 (Local Government Board Vs. Alridge, 1915 AC 120 referred to); Ramesh Kapur Vs. Punjab University, AIR 1965 Punj 120; TriambakPatiTripathi Vs. The Board of H S and Intermediate Edn.:  AIR 1973 All 1; BansiLal Gera Vs. University Of Delhi: 1968-4 DLT 353; University of Madras Vs. Nagalingam : AIR 1965 Mad 107. See as to statutory Tribunal: AnnamalaiVs. R. DoraiswamyMudaliar: 1982 ACJ 371. Sasidharan Vs. State of Kerala: 1980 KerLT  671.

[69]    AIR 1969 Cal 224

[70]    Dr. BK Mukherjea, J. On the Hindu Law of Religious and Charitable Trusts, Tagore Law Lectures: Page: 411.

[71]    AIR  2006 SC 980

[72]    Associated Provincial Picture Houses Vs. WednesburyCorpn. per Lord Greene, MR: (1948) 1 KB 223

[73]    R.  Prakasam Vs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam [1980] 50 Com Cas 611 (Ker); Avanthi Explosives Vs. Principal Sub. Judge Tirupathi 1987- 62 Comp. Cases 301.

[74]    (1995) 5 SCC 482; AC Muthiah Vs. Board of Control for Cricket in India: (2011) 6 SCC 617; Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD  Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774.

[75]    ILR 1997 Kar 3127

[76]    Sarbjit Singh Vs. All India Fine Arts and Crafts Society: ILR 1989-2 Del 585.

[77]    Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh (2007-4 Raj LW 3547). See also: Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: (2005) 11 SCC 73: AIR 2005 SC 4074;  Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Addl. Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[78]    Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547.

[79]    TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144; Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiroz H. Anita, AIR 1939 Bom 35;  Lennox Arthur Patrick O Reilly  Vs. Cyril Cuthbert Gittens, AIR 1949 PC 313; JN ChaudharyVs. State of Haryana: (2014) 11 SCC 249.

[80]    Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del 1031; GirishMulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[81]    (2005) 5 SCC 632: AIR 2005 SC 2306. Same view in State of UP Vs. COD Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society: AIR 1997 SC 1413.

[82]    (1995) 2 SCC 754

[83]    AIR 1960 All 205

[84]    Quoted in Kanwal Krishen Dhar Vs. University of J & K: AIR  1969  J & K 108. Rabindra Nath Ghosal Vs. University of Calcutta:  AIR  1992 Cal 207; Shamsuddin Ahmed Vs. Charu Chandra Biswas: AIR 1934 Cal 621;  Delhi Cloth General Mills Co. Vs. Dharam Singh: AIR 1981 Del  157.

[85]    State of Maharashtra Vs. Karvanagar Sahakari Griha (2000) 9 SCC 295;         Zoroastrian Co -operative Housing Society Vs. District Registrar AIR  2005 SC 2306.

[86]    Manav CGHS Limited Vs. PO Delhi Cooperation Tribunal: 2002-100 DLT 428 

[87]    Manav CGHS Limited Vs. PO Delhi Cooperation Tribunal: 2002-100 DLT 428 

[88]    Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC  1144.

[89]    Rajahmundry Electric Supply Corporation Vs. A. NagesnwaraRao: AIR 1956 SC 213.

[90]    AIR 1959 All 598.

[91]    K K Jain Vs. Federation of Indian Export Organisations: AIR  2002 Del 408; GegongApang Vs. SanjoyTassar: AIR  2001 Gau 1; SardarKanwaldeep Singh Vs. Asst Registrar Firms, Faizabad: AIR 1994 All 161.

[92]    Thalapalam Service Co Operative Ltd Vs. Union of India: AIR 2010 Ker  6. Appeal Judgment: Thalappalam Ser. Co-op. Bank Vs. State of Kerala: 2013 (16) SCC 82; 2013 AIR (SC) (CIV) 2758, 2013 AIR(SCW)  5683; Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar: AIR 2015 SC 3194; Delhi Development Horticulture Employees Union Vs. Delhi Admn: AIR  1992 SC 789. ChamanLal Vs. State of Punjab: AIR  2014 SC 3640; A C   Vs. Board of Control for Cricket In India: 2011 AIR (SCW)  3770; KendriyaVidyalayaSangathan Vs. LV Subramanyeswara:  2007 AIR (SCW)  3228; Vipulbhai M. ChaudharyVs. Gujarat Coop. Milk Marketing Federation: AIR 2015 SC 1960.

[93]    Renu Vs. District & Sessions Judge, Tis Hazari : AIR 2014 SC 2175

[94]    T.M. Sampath Vs. Secretary, Ministry of Water Resources: 2015 AIR-SCW 998; Centre for Environment Law, WWF-I Vs. Union of India: AIR 2013 (SC-CIV) 2571)

[95]    Manav CGHS Limited Vs. PO Delhi Cooperation Tribunal: 2002-100 DLT 428.  

[96]    State of Maharashtra Vs. KarvanagarSahakariGriha (2000) 9 SCC 295; Zoroastrian Co -operative Housing Society Vs. District Registrar AIR  2005 SC 2306.

[97]    The Hindi SahityaSammelanVs.Jagdish Swamp, AIR 1971 SC 966.

[98]    Tata Memorial Hospital Workers Union Vs. Tata Memorial Centre: AIR 2010 SC 2943; Thalappalam Ser. Coop. Bank Ltd Vs. State of Kerala: 2013 (16) SCC 82: 2013 Sup AIR (SC) 437; 2013 AIR(SC) (CIV) 2758, 2013 AIR(SCW)  5683.  Palam Ser. Coop. Bank Ltd Vs. State of Kerala: 2013 (16) SCC 82: 2013 Sup AIR (SC) 437; 2013 AIR(SC) (CIV) 2758, 2013 AIR(SCW)  5683.

[99]    Tata Memorial Hospital Workers Union Vs. Tata Memorial Centre: AIR 2010 SC 2943

[100]   Parekh SaloneeKishorbhai Minor Vs. Gujarat Secondary Edn. Board: AIR  1998Guj 55.

[101]   Keshab Chandra Vs. Inspector of Schools AIR 1953 All 623:  Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad AIR 1954 All 636

[102]   Keshab Chandra Vs. Inspector of Schools, AIR 1953 All 623;

Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad: AIR 1954 All 636.

[103]   KowthaSuryanarayanaRao Vs. PatibandlaSubrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad 902.

[104]   Keshab Chandra Vs. Inspector of Schools, AIR 1953 All 623

Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad: AIR 1954 All 636

Gajadhar Prasad Misra Vs. VC of The University of Allahabad: AIR 1966 All 477

Board of High School and Intermediate Edn. Vs. Ghanshyam Das Gupta, AIR 1962 SC 1110

P Senthil Vs. Principal: 2003 Mad 326.

[105]   U.P. Financial Corporation VsNaini Oxygen and Acetylene Gas: (1995) 2 SCC 754

[106]   AIR  1979 SC 1247

[107]   Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743. Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Ltd. Vs. District Registrar, Co-op. Societies [(2005) 5 SCC 632] 

        State of UP Vs. COD Chheoki Co-op. Society AIR 1997  SC  1413. Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[108]   Jhajharia Bros. Vs. Sholapur S. W. Co. : AIR 1941 Cal 174;

Deepak R Mehtra Vs. National Sports Club of India : ILR 2009-19 Dlh216;

Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439;

Rajeev SaumitraVs. Neetu Singh: 2016-198 Comp Cases 359.

[109]   SooraramPratap Reddy Vs. District Collector :(2008) 9 SCC 552.

[110]   State of H.P.  Vs. Rajesh ChanderSood: 2016-9 JT 439;

Commissioner of Income Tax Kerala Vs. L W Russel: AIR 1965 SC 49.

[111]   K.P. Haridas  Vs.  K. Vijayan: LAWS(KER) 2014-11-176

[112]   Miheer H. Mafatlal Vs. Mafatlal Industries Ltd.: AIR 1997  SC 506

[113]   KowthaSuryanarayanaRao Vs. PatibandlaSubrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad  902

[114]   AIR 1995 SC 2001

[115]   Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547;

Lila Parulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd.: (2005) 11 SCC 73: AIR 2005 SC 4074; 

Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[116]   Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547.

[117]   Lalit Kumar Modi Vs. Board of Control for Cricket:  2011 AIR-SCW 5919: 2011-10 SCC 106

[118]   Lalit Kumar Modi Vs. Board of Control for Cricket:  2011 AIR-SCW 5919: 2011-10 SCC 106

[119]   TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum: 1963 AIR SC 1144

[120]   Ranvir Singh Vs. Dist Inspector of Schools Allahabad: AIR 1954 All 636.

[121]   A P Dairy Development Corporation Vs. B Narasimha Reddy: AIR 2011 SC 3298;

DharamDuttVs. Union of India: (2004) 1 SCC 712: AIR 2004 SC 1295.

KowthaSuryanarayanaRao Vs. PatibandlaSubrahmanyam: AIR 1940 Mad 902; 

Zoroastrian Co-op. Housing Society Vs. Dist. Regtr. Co-op. Societies:  AIR 2005 SC 2306;

State of UP Vs. COD Chheoki Employees’ Co-op. Society Ltd: AIR 1997  SC  1413;

Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[122]   See: Sukumarakurup Vs. District Judge: AIR  1998 Ker 332;

        Government of NCT of Delhi Vs. Union of India: 2018 8 SCC 501.

[123]   V.VirupakshappaVsDangadiHanumanthappa: AIR 1978  Kar 131

[124]   Khetan Industries Private Limited Vs. ManjuRavindrapasadKhetan: AIR  1995 Bom 43

[125]   Madras Gymkhana Club Vs. KC Sukumar: 2010-1 CTC 199.

[126]   See: A. Venkatasubbiah Naidu Vs. S. Chellappan: 2000 (7) SCC 695: AIR 2000 SC 3032; Supntdg. Engineer Periyar Electricity Vs. Pavathal: 2002-2 CTC 544; 2002-1 Mad LJ 515.

G. BalaSubrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264;

A.P. AryaVysyaMahasabha  Vs. MutyapuSudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227;

UmeshShivappaAmbi Vs. AngadiShekaraBasappa: (1998) 4 SCC 529: AIR 1999 SC 1566;

Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487;

Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774;

NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[127]   Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. Viswanath AIR  2016 SC 1094

        S.T. Muthusami Vs. K. Natarajan AIR 1988 SC 616

        Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh [(2005) 8 SCC 383: AIR  2006 SC 52].

[128]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774

UjjalTalukdarVs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224.

RashmiBalaSaxena Vs. Jiwaji University Gwalior: AIR  1989 MP 181;

Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiroz H. Anita; AIR 1939 Bom 35;

        Lennox Arthur Patrick O’ Reilly Vs. Cyril Cuthbert Gittens: AIR 1949 PC 313.

[129]   G. BalaSubrahmanyam Vs. Bar Council of AP: 2014 (2) ALD 101; 2014 (1) ALT 264;

        AP AryaVysyaMahasabha  Vs. MutyapuSudershan: 2015 (5) ALD 1: 2015 (6) ALT 227               

[130]   N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer : AIR 1952 SC 64

        Quoted in Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh GurudwaraManagt.Committee(2006) 8 SCC 487.        

[131]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. B.D. Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774.

        N.P. Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer AIR 1952 SC 64;

        Quoted in Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh GurudwaraManagtComtee. (2006) 8 SCC 487

[132]   UmeshShivappaAmbi Vs. AngadiShekaraBasappa: AIR 1999 SC 1566;

Avtar Singh Hit Vs. Delhi Sikh Gurdwara Management Committee (2006) 8 SCC 487.

Harnek Singh Vs. Charanjit Singh: AIR  2006 SC 52; 

Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774;

NP Ponnuswami Vs. Returning Officer1952 SCR 218 : AIR 1952 SC 64

[133]   Gujarat University Vs. N.U. Rajguru:  AIR 1988 SC 66;

See also: Sukumarakurup Vs. District Judge: AIR 1998 Ker 332;

Ram Shankar Chaudhary Vs. Rama Shankar Singh: 1978 JLJ  401; 

JyotiBasuVs. Debi Ghosal AIR 1982 SC 983.

[134]   Shaji K. Joseph Vs. V. ViswanathAIR  2016 SC 1094.

Ponnuswami vs. Returning Officer: AIR 1952 SC 64; 

ShriSantSadguruJanardan Swami (MoingiriMaharaj) SahakariDugdhaUtpadakSanstha vs. State of Maharashtra 2001 (8) SCC 509 and  Nanhoo Mal Vs. Hira Mal and others 1976 (3) SCC 211 referred to.

[135]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. BD Kaushik: (2011) 13 SCC 774.

[136]   AS Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312

        See also: ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598;

        SatyavartSidhantalankarVs.AryaSamaj, Bombay: AIR 1946 Bom 516 ;

        NagappaVs.Madras Race Club, AIR 1951 Mad 831.

[137]   See: AS Krishnan Vs. M Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312 T.R.

See also: ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra: AIR 1959 All 598;

TR Bhavani Shankar Joshi Vs. GordhandasJamnadas: AIR 1943 PC 66;

Parmeshwari Prasad Gupta Vs. The Union of India: AIR 1973 SC 2389;

Punjabrao Vs. VM Molkar:1974, Mh.L.J. 428;

SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay: AIR 1946 Bom 516 ;

Nagappa Vs. Madras Race Club: AIR 1951 Mad 831.

ShamraoMadhavraoBodhankar Vs. Suresh ShamraoBodhankar: 1986-2 BCR 650.

            TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria: AIR 1963 SC 1144

        Inderpal Singh Vs. Avtar Singh: 2007-4 Raj LW 3547

[138]   See: Claude Lila ParulekarVs. Sakal Papers: AIR 2005 SC 4074.

[139]   A.S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312.

[140]   AIR1962 All 439: Shackleton on “Meetings, Law and Practice” quoted.

[141]   AIR 1966 SC 330

[142]   ILR 2007 (1) Ker 10

[143]   Kalyan Kumar Gogoi Vs. AshutoshAgnihotri (AIR 2011 SC 760) Followed in Ravinder Kumar Rawal Vs. V.K. Sood: ILR 2011-2  P&H 704.

[144]   Saheed Sporting Club Vs. Kalyan Ray Choudhury : 2008 CLT Supp 338. AIR 1963 All 518 referred to.

[145] AIR 1962 All 610

[146]   UP State Brassware Corporation Ltd. Vs. UdaiNarainPandey: AIR 2006 SC 586

[147]   Manugobinda Vs. BrajabanduMisra – AIR 1986 Orissa 281

[148]   Lavu Sri Krishna Rao Vs. Dr. MoturiNagendraRao: AIR 2007 A P 25

[149]   Rameshwar Vs. Jot Ram:  AIR 1976 SC 49

[150]   PasupuletiVenkateswarlu Vs. The Motor & General Traders:  AIR 1975 SC 1409.

[151] LAWS(KER) 2013 3 137

[152]   AIR 1958 MadhPra 323 (FB)

[153]   47 IndCas 941: 1918 35 MLJ 407.

[154]   2013(4) Ker LT 283

[155]   Varghese Vs. St. Peters and Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[156]   AIR 2007 SC 1337: 2006-11 SCC 624:  2007  AIR (SCW)  1512

[157]   ILR1993 Kar 2715

[158]   2006-4 AIR Kar R 218: 2006-4 Kant LJ 526    

[159]   Christ Church Mcconaghy School Society, Lucknow Vs. Registrar Firms, Societies And Chits, Lucknow: 2015-5 ADJ 472

[160]   C M Z Musliar Vs. Aboobacker: 1998-1 Ker LT–136: ILR 1998-2 Ker 76

[161]   2003-3 Mad LJ 668.

State of Andhra Pradesh Vs.ManjetiLaxmiKanthaRao: AIR 2000 SC 2220;

PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001 relied on.

[162]   Ram Vs. Murlidhar: 2008-2 Kant LJ 141; 2008 AIHC 1391

[163] ILR 2007-16 Dlh 1514

[164] AS NarayanaDeekshituluVs.. State of AP:  (1996) 9 SCC 548; Varghese Vs. St. Peters and Pauls Syrian Orthodox Church: (2017) 15 SCC 333.

[165]   2011 (3) Mh LJ 966.

Referred to: Raja Bira Kishore Deb Vs. The State of Orissa, AIR 1964 SC 1501;

PannalalBansilalPittiVs. State of Andhra Pradesh, (1996) 2 SCC 498;

A.S. NarayanaDeekshituluVs. State of A P: (1996) 9 SCC 548.

[166]   AIR 2005 SC 2544;

The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri LakshmindraThirthaSwamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282; 

RatilalPanachand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1954 SC 388.

[167]   See Chapter: Expulsion of Members

[168]   AIR 1995 SC 2001

[169]   SardarSyednaTaharSaifuddinSaheb Vs. The State of Bombay, 1962 Supp. 2 SCR 496;

Uqamsingh&Mishramal Vs. Kesrimal  1971(2) SCR 836;

ThiruvenkataRamanujaPeddaJiyyangarluValu Vs. PrathivathiBhayankaramVenkatacharlu: AIR 1947 PC 53;

M. AppadoraiAyyangarVs. P.B. Annanqarachariar. AIR 1939 Mad. 102;

Kattalai Michael Pillai&Ors. Vs. J.M. Barthe, AIR 1917 Mad. 431; 

E.C. Kent Vs. E.E.L. Kent. AIR 1926 Madras 59

Sri SinnaRamanuja Jeer. Vs. Sri RangaRamanujaJeer 1962 (2) SCR 509.

[170]   Most Rev. PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma: AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[171]   AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[172]   1874-75 (6) PC 157

[173]   Long Vs. Bishop of Capetown: (1863) 1 Moore PC (NS) 411

[174]   1863 (1) Moore PCC (NS) 411

[175]   ILR 7 Bom 323

[176]   35 Mad LJ 407; Referred to in S. Robert Vs. M. Kanagappan: 2003-2 Mad LJ 254

[177]   Long Vs. The Bishop of Cape Town(1863) 1 Moo. PC(NS) 411;

        Merriman Vs. Williams(1882) L.R.7 A.C.484

[178]   (2003)2 MLJ 254

[179]   ILR 39 Mad. 1056

[180]   Quoted in S Robert Vs. M Kanagappan: 2003-2 Mad LJ 254.

[181]   2016(2) Ker LT 791

[182]   1874-75 (6) PC 157

[183]   Long Vs. Bishop of Capetown: 1863 (1) Moore PCC NS 411

[184]   AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[185]   Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[186]   AIR 1995 SC 2001.

[187]   Article 19(1)(c)

[188]   LAWS(KER)-2011-2-223

[189]   JagatNarainVs. Mathura Das AIR 1928 All 454 (FB).

Referred to in Bhagauti Prasad KhetanVs.LaxminathjiMaharaj: AIR 1985 All 228.

[190]   AIR 1981 SC 2128.

[191]   AIR 1922 Bom 122.

[192]   ILR 2009-19Dlh216

[193]   Starlight Real Estate (Ascot) Mauritius Vs. Jagrati Trade Services: 2016-195 Com Cas 434

[194]   (1843) 67 ER 189; 1843-2 Hare 467

[195]   AIR 1946 Bom 516

[196]   AIR 1959 All 598

[197]   AIR 1951 Mad 831

SardarKanwaldeep Singh Vs. Asst. Regtr. Firms, Societies: AIR 1994 All 161;

S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce:  AIR 1969 Mad 42;

AS Krishnan Vs.M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom 312.

[198]   1998 (1) GLR 38

[199]   See also: Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Addl. Regtr. Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[200]   See rulings under company-law: CDS Financial Services (Mauritius) Ltd. Vs. BPL Communication Pvt. Ltd. (2004) 121 Com Cas 374; 

Marikar Motors Vs. M.I. Ravikumar : [1982] 52 Comp Cases 362 (Ker);

Pradip Kumar Sarkar Vs. Luxmi Tea Co. Ltd. [1990] 67 Comp Cases 491 (Cal.);

The appeal from this decision was dismissed by the Supreme Court in Luxmi Tea Co. Vs. Pradip Kumar Sarkar, [1990] 67 Comp Cases 518 (SC) 

[201]   AIR 1941 Bom 312

[202]   See: Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Addl. Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439

[203]   AIR 1963 SC 1144; See also UjjalTalukdar Vs. Netai Chand Koley: AIR 1969 Cal 224;

All India Wokey s Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association: 1994 55 DLT 607; Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association: 2013-201 DLT 433.

[204]   (1998) 6 SCC 39                                                          

[205]   AIR 1977 Pj&Hr 21

[206]   AIR 1969 Cal 224; Referred to in  GegongApang Vs. SanjoyTassar: AIR  2001 Gau 1

[207]   Dr. BK Mukherjea, J. On the Hindu Law of Religious and Charitable Trusts, Tagore Law Lectures: Page:411.

[208]   Enderby Town Football Club Ltd. Vs. Football Association (1971 Chancery Div. 591)

[209]   AIR 1991 SC 1221.

[210]   (2006) 2 SCC 1: AIR  2006 SC 980.

[211]   Associated Provincial Picture Houses Ltd. Vs. WednesburyCorpn. per Lord Greene, M.R. :(1948) 1 KB 223;

See also: Tata Cellular Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 11.

[212]   AIR 1963 SC 1144

[213]   See also: All India Hockey Federation Vs. Indian Olympic Association: (1994) 55 DLT 607

Ashok Kumar Vs. SBI Officers Association, (2013) 201 DLT 433.

Meghal Homes Vs. NiwasGirni K KSamiti: AIR   2007 SC 3079;

CaptKailashNath Harsh Vs. D C Patel : AIR 1999 Bom 133.

[214]   AIR  2015 SC 3194.

[215]   Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwal: AIR 2003 SC  2696

[216]   S.P. Malhotra Vs. Punjab National Bank: AIR 2013 SC 3739; 

Manohar Vs. State of Maharashtra: AIR 2013 SC 681;

Punjab National Bank Vs. KunjBehariMisra: AIR 1998 SC 2713;

Yoginath D. Bagde Vs. State of Maharashtra : AIR 1999 SC 3734;

State Bank of India Vs. K.P. Narayanan Kutty: AIR 2003 SC 1100;

JA Naiksatam Vs. P and SM, High Court of Bombay: AIR 2005 SC 1218;

P.D. Agrawal Vs. State Bank of India : AIR 2006 SC 2064;

Ranjit Singh Vs. Union of India : AIR 2006 SC 3685;

Canara Bank Vs. ShriDebasis Das : AIR 2003 SC 2041; 

KanwarNutwar Singh Vs. Director of Enforcement: 2010 AIR (SCW) 6427.

[217]   Ex Armymen’s Protection Service Vs. Union of India: AIR 2014 SC 1376;

A.S. Motors Pvt. Ltd Vs. Union Of India:   2013 AIR (SCW) 3830;

MuhammedYunus Khan Vs. State of UP: 2010-10 Scale 2867.      

[218]   U P State Road Transport Corpn. Vs. Musai Ram:1999-3 SCC 372.

[219]   AIR 1973  SC 389

[220]   (1978) 1 SCC 405

[221]   AIR 1970 SC 150

[222]   (2009) 12 SCC 40

[223]   1991 AIR-SCW 879

[224]   AIR 1970 All 209

[225]   AIR  1980 SC 1042

[226]   See as to labour dispute: Management of Travancore Knitting Co Tiruppur Coimbatore Vs. K Muthuswamy: AIR  1962 Mad 398;

Regional Manager, U.P.S.R. T.C. Etawah v. HotiLal AIR 2003 SC 1462

DamohPannaSagar Rural Regional Bank Vs. MunnaLal Jain AIR 2005 SC 584;

[227]            AIR 1996 SC 2219.

     Followed in Mohd.SartajVs. State of UP: AIR 2006 SC 3492.

[228]   AS Krishnan Vs. M Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312

T.R. Bhavani Shankar Joshi Vs. GordhandasJamnadas: AIR 1943 PC 66;

Parmeshwari Prasad Gupta Vs. The Union of India: AIR 1973 SC 2389;

Punjabrao Vs. VM Molkar1974: Mh.L.J. 428;

ShamraoMadhavraoBodhankar Vs. Suresh Shamrao Bodhankar:1986-2 BCR 650.

[229]   2007-4 Raj LW 3547.

See also: Kania, J., in A.S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom. 312.

[230]   AIR 1941 Bom. 312

[231]   AIR 1962 SC 458

[232]   AIR 2003 SC 3397

[233]   AIR 2010 SC 2943

[234]   2013 AIR (SCW)  5782; (2013) 15  SCC 394

[235]   BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club AIR 2005 SC 592.

[236]   TP Daver Vs. Lodge Victoria No. 363 SC Belgaum, 1963 AIR SC 1144;

        Ambalal Sarabhai Vs. Phiroz H. Anita, AIR 1939 Bom 35; 

        Lennox Arthur Patrick O Reilly  Vs. Cyril Cuthbert Gittens, AIR 1949 PC 313;

        J.N. ChaudharyVs. State of Haryana, (2014) 11 SCC 249.

[237]   Supreme Court Bar Association Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2012-22 Del 1031;

        GirishMulchand Mehta Vs. Mahesh S. Mehta. 2010 (1) Bom. C.R 31

[238]   PrasannaVenkitesaRaoVs.SrinivasaRao: AIR 1931 Mad. 12.

[239]   (1920) 1 Ch. 77

[240]   Quoted in Kalinga Tubes Ltd Vs. Shanti Prasad Jain: AIR  1963Ori 189.

[241]   2016-3 KHC 670

[242]   2010-5 GauLJ 294, 2010 4 GauLT 905

[243]   SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay, AIR 1946 Bom 516; 

        ShridharMisra Vs. Jaihandra, AIR 1959 All 598;

CL Joseph Vs. Jos AIR 1965 Ker 68;

Star Tiles Works Vs. N. Govindan AIR 1959 Ker  254. 

[244]   A. S. Krishnan Vs. M. Sundaram: AIR 1941 Bom 312

[245]   NagappaChettiar Vs. Madras Race Club : AIR 1951 Mad 831.

[246]   Rajasthan SRTC Vs. BalMukundBairawa (2009) 4 SCC 299;

Rajasthan SRTC Vs. Krishna Kant (1995) 5 SCC 75;

SantoshPoddarVs. KamalkumarPoddar 1992 (3) Bom.C.R.  310,

Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwal: AIR 2003 SCC  2696,

CDS Financial Services (Mauritius) Vs. BPL Communication: (2004) 121   Com. Cas  374;

V.N. Bhajekar Vs. K.M. Shinkar (1934) 36 Bom LR  483;

ClaudeLilaParulekar Vs. Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. (2005) 11 SCC  73: AIR 2005 SC 4074;

SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. The AryaSamaj (1945) 48 Bom LR  341;

Sangramsinh P. GaekwadVs. Shantadevi P. Gaekwad (2005) 123 Com. Cas. (SC) 566;

Star Tiles Works Vs. N. Govindan AIR 1959 Kerala  254;

Maharaja Exports Vs. Apparels Exports (1986) 60 Com. Cas. 353;

Berar Trading Co. Ltd. Vs. GajananGopalrao Dixit (1972) 42 Bom LR 48;

Sarat Chandra Chakravarti Vs. T. Chandra Chatterjee AIR 1924 Calcutta 982;

Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India AIR 1988 SC 752

[247]   M/s Ammonia Supplies Corpn. Vs. M/s. Modern Plastic Containers AIR 1998 SC 3153 ;

Canara Bank Vs. Nuclear Power Corporation Of India Ltd. 1995 Supp. (3) SCC 81 ;

Suguna Poultry Farm Ltd. Vs. Arul Mariamman Textiles: AIR 2005 Mad 72;

R. Prakasam Vs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: 1980 (50) Com. Cas 611;

Khetan Industries Vs. ManjuRavindraprasad AIR 1995 Bombay 43,

LIC Vs. Escorts: (1986) 1 SCC 264,

Kishore Y. Patil Vs. Patel Engineering: AIR 1992 Bom 114,

G.S. Bali Vs. Babulal Jain: 2000 (2) WLN Rajn 13;

R. R. RajendraMenonVs. Cochin Stock Exchange: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256.

[248]   AIR 1969 SC 78 ; See also Premier Automobiles Ltd. Vs.KamlekarShantaramWadke  (1976) 1 SCC 496: AIR 1975 SC 2238,

Munshi ram Vs.Municipal Committee, Chheharta AIR 1976 SC 1250,

JitendraNathBiswasVs.M/s. Empire of India &Ceylone Tea Co. (1989) 3 SCC 582:  AIR 1990 SC 255 

SaraswathiVs.Lachanna  (1994) 1 SCC 611.

[249] AIR 1975 SC 2238

[250] (1995) 5 SCC 75

[251] (1995) 5 SCC 75 : AIR 1995 SC 1715

[252] Dinesh Kumar Vs. Registrar of Societies: ILR 2011 – 21 Del – 3080.

[253] AIR 1964 SC 1006

[254]   RadhaKishan Vs. Ludhiyana Municipality: AIR 1963 SC 1547; 

Maharaja Exports Vs. Apparels Exports: (1986) 60 Comp. Cases 353 (Delhi);

Dwarka Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwal: (2003)117Comp Cas206 (SC);

CDS Mauritius Vs. BPL Communications (2004) 121 CompCas 375.

KavitaTrehanVs.Balsara Hygiene Products: (1994) 5 SCC 380) ;

RajendraMenon Vs.  Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd. (Vol. 69 Com  Cas  256 (Kerala)) ; Dr. T.M. Paul Vs. City Hospital (Pvt.) Limited (Vol.97 Com  Cases  216 (Kerala)) :

South Eastern Coalfields Ltd. Vs. State of MP: AIR 1998 SC 3153

[255]   Ram Kumar Bhargava Vs. Union of India: AIR 1988 SC 752

[256]   Seventh Edition: page 531

[257]   See also: Premier Automobiles Ltd. v. KamlekarShantaramWadke: AIR 1975 SC 2238,

Munshi Ram Vs. Municipal Committee, Chheharta: AIR 1976 SC 1250;

JitendraNathBiswas Vs. M/s. Empire of India Ceylone Tea: AIR 1990 SC 255;

SaraswathiVs.Lachanna:  (1994)1 SCC 611.

[258] 2009 AIR SCW 2566

[259] AIR 1995 SC 1715

[260]   See: GegongApang Vs. SanjoyTassar 2003-1 Gau LR 309.

[261]   See Chapter: EFFECT OF REGISTRATION & INCORPORATION

[262]   2005-2 Mad LJ 335

[263]   Official Trustee, WB Vs. SachindraNathChatterjee: AIR 1969 SC 823;

Rukmini Devi TodiVs. Official Liquidator: 2000-3 Cal LT 158.

[264]   Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic&Unani Tibia College Vs. State of Delhi: AIR 1962 SC 458;

SiddheshwarSahkariSakharKarkhanaVs.Commr. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716;

Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301;

Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973.

Zoroastrian Co-op. Hsing. Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005 SC 2306;

State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378;

BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[265]   Iridum India Telecom Vs. Motorola, AIR 2005  SC 514

[266]   See: Shyam Sunder Agarwal And Company Vs. Union of India: AIR 1996 SC 1321;

Ram KirpalMisir Vs. Bhagwati Saran Misir: AIR 1949 All 318;

JagarnathSahu Vs. SrikantDube: AIR  1949 All 589;

SatyapramodaThirthaswamulavaru : AIR 1982 AP 24.

[267]   See: PS Santhappan Vs. Andhra Bank: AIR 2004 SC 5251;

Iridum India Telecom Vs. Motorola: AIR 2005  SC 514.

[268]   See: United Bank of India Vs. Achintya Kumar Lahiri: 2007-66 All LR 246, 2007-1 ARC 453.

Dwark  Prasad Agarwal Vs. Ramesh Chandra Agarwala: AIR 2003 SC 2696;

R. Prakasam Vs. SreeNaryana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: (1980) 50 Comp. Cases 611(Ker);

RR RajendraMenonVs. Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256.

[269]   Firm of IlluriSubbayyaChetty Vs. State of Andhra Pradesh: AIR 1984 SC 322;

Antony Vs. Thandiyode Plantations: 1995 (2) KLT 512; 

Dhulabhai Vs. State of M. P. : AIR 1969 SC 78;

R. PrakasamVs. SreeNarayana Dharma ParipalanaYogam: (1980) 50 Comp. Cases 611(Ker).

[270]   (2000) 9 SCC 272. Referred to in R Ravindra Reddy Vs. H Ramaiah Reddy: AIR 2010 SC 991; ThimmappaRai Vs. RamannaRai: 2007 AIR (SCW) 3271

[271]   Sec. 41 of the Specific Relief Act applies to these matters.

[272]   RR RajendraMenonVs. Cochin Stock Exchange Ltd.: (1990) 69 Comp. Cases 256.

        See also: Mardia Chemicals Ltd. Vs. Union of India (2004) 4 SCC 311;

Jagdish Singh Vs. Heeralal: AIR 2014  SC 371;

D Dhanapal Vs. D David Livingstone: 2003-3 Mad LJ 668; 

Koh I Noor Tabacco Vs. Presiding Officer Second Labour Court: AIR 1986 Bom 340;

Indian Bank Vs. ABS Marine Products Pvt Ltd: AIR  2006 SC 1899;

State Trading Corpn. Vs. Govt of People Republic of Bangladesh: ILR 1997–1 Del  229;

Kanhaiya Vs. Lllabai: ILR  1971 MP 165. 

[273]   AmbatiRamaiah Vs. Government of Andhra Pradesh: 2012 -5 ALT 383;

All India SC, ST Railway Employees Association Vs. E. Venkateswarlu: 2003(3) ALT 674;

C. BabuRao Vs. District Registrar: 2010(1) ALD 452

[274]   D DhanapalVs. D David Livingstone: 2003-3 Mad LJ 668. 

[275]   See:  SatyavartSidhantalankar Vs. AryaSamaj, Bombay AIR 1946 Bom 516,

ShridharMisra Vs. JaichandraVidyalankar AIR 1959 All 598 

NagappaChettiar Vs. The Madras Race Club AIR 1951 Mad 831;

SardarKanwaldeep Singh Vs. Asst. Regr. Firms, Societies and Chits: AIR 1994 All 161;

S. Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce:  AIR 1969 Mad 42;

A. S. Krishnan Vs.M. Sundaram: A. I. R. 1941 Bom. 312.

Sri Bhaben Chandra Pegu Vs. The State of Assam [1998 (1) GLR 38]

Raja HimanshuDhar Singh Vs. Additional Registrar Co-op. Societies: AIR1962 All 439.

[276]   ParayakaduNalukulangaraDevaswom Vs. PadmanabhanHarshas: 1983 Ker LJ 232:  ILR  1983-2 Ker 732: 1983 Ker LT 803.                

[277]   1983 Ker LJ 232:  ILR  1983 2 Ker 732: 1983 Ker LT 803

[278]   2004-1 Ker LT 756, 2004 KHC 122

[279]   NagriPrachariniSabha Vs. VthAddl Dist. and Sess. Judge, Varanasi: 1991 Supp (2) SCC 36

[280] U P Cooperative Cane Union Federation Vs. Liladhar: AIR1981 SC 152.

[281]   K. Nanu Vs. C.H. KunhikrishnaKurup: 2013 Ker LJ 769

[282]   2003-3 Mad LJ 668.

        Also see: State of AP Vs.   ManjetiLaxmiKanthaRao: AIR 2000 SC 2220;

        PMA Metropolitan Vs. Moran Mar Marthoma:  AIR 1995 SC 2001 relied on.

[283]Janet Jeyapaul Vs. SRM University: 2015 (16) SCC 530,

Unni Krishnan  J P Vs. State of A.P:1993 (1) SCC 645,

Rajkumar v. Director of Education: 2016 (6) SCC 541,

Zee Telefilms Ltd.   Vs. U.O.I: 2005 (4) SCC 649,

Marwari BalikaVidyalaya Vs. AshaShrivastava: 2019 SCC online SC 408,

Mariamma Roy vs. Indian Bank: 2009 (16) SCC 187,

SatwatiDeswal Vs. State of Haryana: 2010 (1) SCC 126,

Maharashtra Chess Association Vs. U.O.I   :2019 SCC Online SC 932  

AnoopJaiswal Vs. Government of India: 1984 (2) SCC 369

Lachoo Memorial College Vs. Mridul Kumar Mathur: LAWS(RAJ) 2021 2 2.

[284]Pradeep Kumar BiswasVs. Indn. Insti. Cheml. Biology: (2002) 5 SCC 111,

Telefilms Ltd Vs. UOI : (2005) 4 SCC 649 

K.K. SaksenaVsICID : (2015) 4 SCC 670.

[285]Ramesh Ahluwalia Vs. State of Punjab: (2012) 12 SCC 331,

CIT Vs. ChhabilDassAgarwal : (2014) 1 SCC 603,

Assistant Collector of Central Excise Vs. Dunlop: (1985) 1 SCC 260,

Bharat BhushanSonaji Vs. Abdul Khalik: (1995) Supp. 2 SCC 593,

Public Service Tribunal Bar Assn. Vs. State of U.P.: (2003) 4 SCC 104

State of UP Vs. Sandeep Kumar Balmiki : (2009) 17 SCC 555

Lachoo Memorial College Vs. Mridul Kumar Mathur: LAWS(RAJ) 2021 2 2.

[286]   Zee Telefilms Ltd. Vs. Union of India (2005) 4 SCC 649;

        Board of Control for Cricket in India Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005   SC 592.

        Board of Control For Cricket in India Vs. Cricket Association of Bihar: AIR  2015 SC 3194.

[287]   AIR 1990 Cal. 176

[288]   Association of Milma Officers’, Thiruvananthapuram Vs State of Kerala: AIR 2015 Ker 137

[289]   AIR 2005 SC  4187.

        Madhya Pradesh RajyaSahakari Bank MaryaditVs. State of MP: AIR 2007 SC 540.

[290]   AIR 2009 SC 2956

[291] 2014-2 MPLJ 520

[292]   (2010) 3 SCC 402

[293] Palakole Co Op Sugars Ltd Vs. P N Raju: 1988-2 ALT 460, 1988-2 APLJ 433

[294] AIR 1970 SC 1244. Quoted in Palakole Co Op Sugars Ltd Vs. P N Raju: 1988-2 ALT 460, 1988-2 APLJ 433

[295]   See: BijiPothen Vs. Thankamma John: 2012(3) Ker LT 658

[296]   NarayandasShreeramSomaniVs.Sangli Bank Ltd. AIR 1966 SC 170;

Seth Mohan Lal   Vs. Grain Chambers Ltd.,  Muzaffarnagar: AIR 1968 SC 772;

        Shackleton on the Law and Practice of meetings, 7th edition (1983), Page 230.

[297]   See: BijiPothen Vs. Thankamma John: 2012(3) Ker LT 658;

        Arti Devi Vs. Central Information Commissioner: 2012-10-ADJ 491.

[298]   See: BijiPothen Vs. Thankamma John: 2012(3) Ker LT 658:

[299]   Abdul Kayua Vs. Alibhai: AIR 1963 SC 309:

        Referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain: ILR 1982-1 Del 11.

[300]   40 ER 852

[301]   (1888) 57 LJ Ch 543

[302]   (1904) AC 515.

[303]   AIR 1931 Mad. 12

[304]   PragjiSavjiVajaVs.ChhotalalNarsidasParmar: AIR 2014-3 Bom R 211: 2013-6 BCR 72.

[305]   AIR 2007 SC  3162

[306]   It is referred to in Mandal Revenue Officer Vs. GoundlaVenkaiah: AIR 2010 SC 744

[307]   AIR 1947 All 375

[308]   Refered to in  Lal Vs. Thakur RadhaBallabhji: AIR 1961 All 73

[309]   C ChikkaVenkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296:

        Narayan Krishnaji Vs. Anjuman E Islamia:  AIR 1952 Kar 14;

        Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier AIR 1968 SC 915

[310]   ChHoshiar Singh Mann Vs. Charan Singh : ILR 2009-19 Dlh 265]

        Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier AIR 1968 SC 915;

        I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate  AIR 2007 SC 1337

[311]   CK Rajan Vs. GuruvayoorDevaswom Managing Committee: AIR 1994 Ker 179 [Appeal Judgment: AIR 2004 SC 561: (2003) 7 SCC 546];

        C  ChikkaVenkatappa Vs. D Hanumanthappa 1970 (1) Mys LJ 296;

        Thenappa Chattier Vs. KuruppanChhietier AIR 1968 SC 915 ;

        ChHoshiar Singh Mann Vs. Charan Singh ILR 2009 (19) Dlh 265;

        I Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate:  AIR 2007 SC 1337;

        Sk. Abdul Kayum Vs. MullaAlibhai: AIR 1963 SC 309;

        SubramoniaPillaiChellamPillai Vs. SubramoniaPillaiChathanPillai: AIR 1953 TC 198; 

        M.G. Narayanaswami Naidu Vs. M. Balasundaram Naidu: AIR 1953 Mad 750.

[312]   AIR  1940 Mad. 617.

Quoted in Sankaranarayanan Vs. ShriPoovananatha: AIR  1949 Mad.721

Sobhanadreswara Rice Mill Co. Vs. BrahmachariBavaji Mutt : AIR  1973 AP 292;

        Parshvanath Jain Temple Vs. L.Rs of PremDass: 2009-3-RCR (CIVIL) 133.

[313]   ILR 1988-1 Ker 429

[314]   Bonnerji Vs. Sitanath 49 IA 46:

        referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11.

[315]   AIR 1974 SC 1084

[316]   See also: H E H The Nizams Pilgrimage Money Trust Hyderabad Vs. Commissioner of Income Tax Andhra Pradesh Hyderabad:  AIR 2000 SC 1802;

        Kishore Joo Vs. GumanBehariJooDeo: AIR  1978 All 1.

        Bonnerji Vs. Sitanath 49 IA 46:

        Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11;

Sk. Abdul Kayum Vs. MullaAlibhai : AIR 1963 SC 309.

Shivramdas Vs. B V Nerukar, AIR 1937 Bom 374,

Rambabu Vs. Committee of Rameshwar, (1899) 1 Bom LR 667;

NathiriMenon Vs. Gopalan Nair, AIR 1916 Mad 692.

[317]   Bonnerji Vs. Sitanath 49 IA 46:

        Referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11.

[318]   BalramChunnilalVs.DurgalalShivnarain: AIR1968 MP 81.

[319]   Scott on Trusts Vol. II Sec. 170. The leading case on the subject is KenchVs. Gandford (1726) (White and Tudor Leading Cases in Equity page 693) referred to in Arjan Singh Vs. Deputy Mal Jain ILR 1982- 1 Del 11.

[320]   See: Kishore Joo Vs. GumanBehariJooDeo: AIR  1978 All 1.

[321]   See: B D Wadhwa Vs. HardayalDevgun: ILR 1973-2 – Del  678.

[322]   AIR 2004 AP 223

[323]   State of Punjab v. Amolak Ram Kapoor: [1990] 79 STC 315 (P & H)

[324]   Baby Mathew Vs. Agricultural Income Tax Officer:1994-207 ITR 967

[325]   T.K. Jacob v. Divisional Forest Officer [1993] 2 KLJ 915:

        Referred to in Baby Mathew Vs. Agricultural IT Officer: 1994-207 ITR 967.

        See also: Punalur Paper Mills Ltd. v. District Collector: [1985] KLT 758

[326]   [1963] 14 STC 972 (Mad)

[327]   AIR  1961 Cal 393

[328] [1892] 1 Ch 154

Referred to in BholanathKundu Vs. Official Liquidator, BholanathKundu : 1987-61 CC 10.

[329] Life Insurance Corporation of India Vs. Rajmata Saheb Chowhanji: AIR 1978 SC 1447.

[330]   J K Choudhury Vs. Hem Chandra: AIR 1956 Assm 82;

S Krishnaswamy Vs. South India Film Chamber of Commerce: AIR   1969 Mad 42.

[331]   Committee of Management  Vs. Commr, Kanpur Region: 2008 -1 AWC 695; 2008 -1 ADJ 706; 2008-70 All LR 368.

[332]   See: Nelson Vs. Kallayam Pastorate: AIR 2007 SC 1337

[333]   AIR 2005 SC 2544.

[334]   See also: The Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments, Madras Vs. Sri LakshmindraThirthawamiar of Sri Shirur Mutt, AIR 1954 SC 282; and RatilalPanachand Gandhi Vs. State of Bombay AIR 1954 SC 388.

[335]   AIR 2014 SC 2018

[336]   AIR 2013 SC 200

[337]   Maharashtra State Board of Secondary and HS EdnVs. K S Gandhi: 1991 AIR-SCW 879, agreed with the ratio in Ghazanfar Rashid Vs. Board, H.S. AIR 1970 All 209. 

[338]   Kurukshetra University Vs. Vinod Kumar: AIR 1977 Pj&Hr 21

[339]   Ram Pal Singh Vs. State of U P: LAWS (ALL)-2015-5-99. Referred to: Ram PyareLal Vs. State of U.P. 2015 3 ADJ 577;

Indian Sugar Mills Association Vs. Secretary to Government, UP: AIR 1951 All 1;

Dr. P.P. Rastogi Vs. Meerut University, 1997 1 UPLBEC 415;

Vimla Devi Vs. Deputy Director of Education, 1997-3 ESC 1807;  2010 (1) ADJ 262

[340]   Ravipreet Singh Vs. National Rifle Association of India: ILR 2013-23 Dlh 743.

[341]   Board of Trustees, Ayurvedic&Unani Tibia College Vs. State of Delhi: AIR 1962 SC 458;

SiddheshwarSahkariSakharKarkhanaVs.Commr. of IT, Kolhapur: AIR 2004 SC 4716;

Hyderabad Karnataka Education Society Vs. Registrar of Societies: AIR 2000 SC 301;

Daman Singh Vs. State of Punjab AIR 1985 SC 973.

Zoroastrian Co-op. Hsing. Society Ltd. Vs. Dist. Regr, Co-op. Societies: AIR 2005 SC 2306;

State Bank of India Staff Association Vs. Mohindra Bhattacharyya:  AIR 1991 Cal 378;

BCCI Vs. Netaji Cricket Club: AIR 2005 SC 592.

[342]   AIR 1928 Mad 571

[343]   1987-62 CC 301; APLJ 1985 3 219

[344] 2005 (1) CTC 399 : 2005 (2) MLJ 102. Referred to in TheniMelapettai Hindu NadarkalUravinmuraiVs. The District Registrar: 2007 6 MLJ 1528.

[345]   2015-5 CTC 17

[346]   LAWS (KER)-2013-3-137



Read in this cluster (Click on the topic):

Civil Suits: Procedure & Principles

Evidence Act

Constitution

Contract Act

Easement

Club/Society

Trusts/Religion

Void, Voidable & Illegal Actions and Sham Transactions

Saji Koduvath, Advocate, Kottayam.

Contents in a Nutshell.

  1. The expression ‘VOID’ has several facets. It does not mean, in law, absolutely null and void for everything.
  2. Where acts, transactions, decrees, etc. are wholly without jurisdiction or ab initio void, no declaration is needed as a preliminary or introductory step to obtain the substantive relief of injunction or recovery.
  3. Even where the order/decree is void, the party aggrieved cannot decide that the same is not binding upon him. Such order/decree has to be got set-aside.
  4. A ‘voidable’ transaction should be got declared or set aside, before seeking the substantive relief.
  5. Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act directs exclusion of evidence as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso, evidence can be led into to assert that a document was sham.
  6. If a Tribunal abuses its power, or does not act in conformity with the Act or act in violation of its provisions, the jurisdiction of the civil court will not stand excluded.
  7. If no prejudice, an impugned action will not be nullity on the ground of breach of natural justice.
  8. Objection as to the place of suing should have been taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  9. All unlawful or illegal agreements are void; but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal.

Propositions as to Questioning a Deed Where One is NOT a Party: Where one person is not a party to a deed, following propositions can be laid down:

  1. Where a deed is ‘null and wholly void‘ (e.g., unregistered sale/gift), he can simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • Limitation statute will have no application in such cases.
  2. If it is not ‘null and wholly void‘, he cannot simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • But, in such cases, it is not mandatory to seek ‘annulment’ of the deed – by ‘setting it aside’ or ‘cancelling it’.
    • It will be sufficient – to resort to “appropriate proceeding”, for avoiding the same, before a court of law, seeking proper declaration or otherwise.
    • It must be done within the limitation period prescribed.

PART – I
Void’, ‘Void ab initio’ and ‘Voidable

Black’s Law Dictionary defines ‘void’ and ‘void ab initio’  as under:

  • Void.
    • Null; ineffectual; nugatory; having no legal force or binding effect; unable, in law, to support the purpose for which it was intended. Which means there is no legal obligation therefore there will be no breach of contract since the contract is null.
  • Void ab initio.
    • A contract is null from the beginning if it seriously offends law or public policy in contrast to a contract which is merely voidable at the election of one of the parties to the contract.
  • ‘Voidable’
    • An action or transaction is ‘voidable’ if it can remain valid, until it is avoided trough a legal action.

Indian Contract Act, 1872

  • Sec. 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act reads as under:
    • “An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void“.
  • Sec. 2(i) of the Indian Contract Act reads as under:
    • “An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other or others, is a voidable contract”.

Provisions of Contract Act that deals with VOID contracts are:

  • Sec. 20 Agreement void where both parties are under mistake as to matter of fact.
    • Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement, the agreement is void.
  • Sec. 23 What considerations and objects are lawful, and what not.
    • The consideration or object of an agreement is lawful, unless—
      it is forbidden by law ; or
      is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of any law; or
      is fraudulent ; or
      involves or implies, injury to the person or property of another; or
      the Court regards it as immoral, or opposed to public policy.
    • In each of these cases, the consideration or object of an agreement is said to be unlawful. Every agreement of which the object or consideration is unlawful is void.
  • Sec. 24. Agreement void, if considerations and objects unlawful in part.
  • If any part of a single consideration for one or more objects, or any one or any part of any one of several considerations for a single object, is unlawful, the agreement is void.
  • Sec. 25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a promiseto compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law.—
    • An agreement made without consideration is void, unless—
    • (1) it is expressed in writing and registered under the law for the time being in force for the registration of [documents], and is made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other ; or unless
    • (2) it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do; or unless;
    • (3) it is a promise, made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his agent generally or specially authorized in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits.
    • In any of these cases, such an agreement is a contract.
  • Sec. 26. Agreement in restraint of marriage, void.—
    • Every agreement in restraint of the marriage of any person, other than a minor, is void.
  • Sec. 27. Agreement in restraint of trade, void.—
    • Every agreement by which any one is restrained from exercising a lawful profession, trade or business of any kind, is to that extent void.
  • Sec. 28. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings, void.—
    • [Every agreement,
    • (a) by which any party thereto is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights under or in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, or which limits the time within which he may thus enforce his rights; or
    • (b) which extinguishes the rights of any party thereto, or discharges any party thereto, from any liability, under or in respect of any contract on the expiry of a specified period so as to restrict any party from enforcing his rights, is void to the extent.]
  • Sec. 29. Agreements void for uncertainty.
    • Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of being made certain, are void.
  • Sec. 30. Agreements by way of wager void.—
    • Agreements by way of wager are void; and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager, or entrusted to any person to abide the result of any game or other uncertain event on which any wager is made.
  • Sec. 36.Agreement contingent on impossible events void.—
    • Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made.

Provisions of Contract Act that deals with VOIDABLE contracts are:

  • Sec. 19.Voidability of agreements without free consent.—
    • When consent to an agreement is caused by coercion, fraud or misrepresentation, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
    • A party to a contract whose consent was caused by fraud or misrepresentation, may, if he thinks fit, insist that the contract shall be performed, and that he shall be put in the position in which he would have been if the representations made had been true.
  • Sec. 19A.Power to set aside contract induced by undue influence.—
    • When consent to an agreement is caused by undue influence, the agreement is a contract voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused.
    • Any such contract may be set aside either absolutely or, if the party who was entitled to avoid it has received any benefit thereunder, upon such terms and conditions as to the Court may seem just.
  • Sec. 53.Liability of party preventing event on which the contract is to take effect.—
    • When a contract contains reciprocal promises, and one party to the contract prevents the other from performing his promise, the contract becomes voidable at the option of the party so prevented; and he is entitled to compensation from the other party for any loss which he may sustain in consequence of the nonperformance of the contract.
  • Sec 55. Effect of failure to perform at fixed time, in contract in which time is essential.—
    • When a party to a contract promises to do a certain thing at or before a specified time, or certain things at or before specified times, and fails to do any such thing at or before the specified time, the contract, or so much of it as has not been performed, becomes voidable at the option of the promisee, if the intention of the parties was that time should be of the essence of the contract.
  • Sec. 64. Consequences of rescission of voidable contract.—
    • When a person at whose option a contract is voidable rescinds it, the other party thereto need not perform any promise therein contained in which he is promisor. The party rescinding avoidable contract shall, if he have received any benefit thereunder from another party to such contract, restore such benefit, so far as may be, to the person from whom it was received.

Void – Different Shades or Facets

  • Ab initio void.
  • Order without jurisdiction.
  • Sham transactions.
  • Illegal, for action without following the principles of natural justice.
  • Illegal, for not following the fundamental principles of judicial procedure.
  • Illegal, for non-compliance of the provisions of the statute. 

In Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, it is held as under:

  • “Thus the expressions void and voidable have been subject matter of consideration on innumerable occasions by courts. The expression void has several facets.
  • One type of void acts, transactions, decrees are those which are wholly without jurisdiction, ab initio void and for avoiding the same no declaration is necessary, law does not take any notice of the same and it can be disregarded in collateral proceeding or otherwise.
  • The other type of void act, e.g., may be transaction against a minor without being represented by a next friend. Such a transaction is good transaction against the whole world. So far the minor is concerned, if he decides to avoid the same and succeeds in avoiding it by taking recourse to appropriate proceeding the transaction becomes void from the very beginning.
  • Another type of void act may be which is not a nullity but for avoiding the same a declaration has to be made. Voidable act is that which is a good act unless avoided, e.g., if a suit is filed for a declaration that a document is fraudulent and/or forged and fabricated, it is voidable as apparent state of affairs is real state of affairs and a party who alleges otherwise is obliged to prove it.
  • If it is proved that the document is forged and fabricated and a declaration to that effect is given a transaction becomes void from the very beginning. There may be a voidable transaction which is required to be set aside and the same is avoided from the day it is so set aside and not any day prior to it. In cases, where legal effect of a document cannot be taken away without setting aside the same, it cannot be treated to be void but would be obviously voidable.”

When Declaration Needed in a Civil Suit

  1. As Introductory/preliminary to grant (1) Injunction or (2) Recovery:
    • Unnikrishnan Vs. Ponnu Ammal: 1999 1 KLT 298: AIR 1999 Ker 405.
  2. When serious denial or cloud on title (or right):
    • Anathula: AIR 2008 SC 2033.
  3. Asserted title or civil right is not clear, simple and straight-forward;
    • or, not well-established (lawful possession).
  4. Make clear what is doubtful – as to legal character and title.
    • ILR 1970-2 (Del) 433: Eg. Suit by trespasser claiming adverse possession: Darshan Kumari Vs. Kaushalya Devi: 1990 JKLR 208; 1991 KashLJ 1 (R.P. Sethi, J) for dispelling cloud: AIR 1953 Gau 162.
  5. Complicated or complexquestions of fact and law to be ‘adjudicated’.
    • (Anathula: 2008 SC 2033)
  6. Insurmountable obstacle
    • Md. Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Raifunnisa : (1996) 7 SCC 767.

Disposal of property by Natural Guardian against S. 8, Hindu M&G Act – Voidable

In Saroj v. Sunder Singh, 2013 (15) SCC 727, it is held as under:

  • “As per clause (a) of sub-section (2) of Section 8 (of Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956) no immovable property of the minor can be mortgaged or charged, or transferred by sale, gift, exchange or otherwise without the previous permission of the Court. Under sub-section (3) of Section 8 disposal of such an immovable property by a natural guardian, in contravention of sub-section (1) or sub-section (2) of Section 8, is voidable at the instance of the minor or any person claiming under him.”

See also: Murugan v. Kesava Gounder, (2019) 20 SCC 633; Vasantkumar v. State of Maharashtra, 2022 SCC OnLine Bom 712.

In Sukhdev Singh v. Jangir Singh, 1976 RLR 101 it is held that the plaintiff had to get the sale set aside and then only he could claim possession.(Referred to in Surta Singh Vs Pritam Singh,AIR 1983 P&H 114 : (1983) 1 ILR (P&H) 344 (FB)

Transfer by Sister – Ab-initio void, not required to be set aside by filing a suit

In Madhegowda v. Ankegowda, (2002) 1 SCC 178,. it is held by our Apex Court as under

  • “25………Undoubtedly Smt Madamma, sister of the minor, is not a “guardian” as defined in Section 4(b) of the Act (Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956). Therefore, she can only be taken to be a “de facto guardian” or more appropriately “de facto manager”. To a transfer in such a case Section 11 of the Act squarely applies. Therefore, there is little scope for doubt that the transfer of the minor’s interest by a de facto guardian/manager having been made in violation of the express bar provided under the section is per se invalid. The existence or otherwise of legal necessity is not relevant in the case of such invalid transfer. A transferee of such an alienation does not acquire any interest in the property. Such an invalid transaction is not required to be set aside by filing a suit or judicial proceeding. The minor, on attaining majority, can repudiate the transfer in any manner as and when occasion for it arises. After attaining majority if he/she transfers his/her interest in the property in a lawful manner asserting his/her title to the same that is sufficient to show that the minor has repudiated the transfer made by the de facto guardian/manager.”

When a person is NOT PARTY to a Suit or a Document, No Need to Annul

It is held in Y. G. Gurukul v. Y. Subrahmanyam, AIR. 1957 AP. 955, as under:

  • “When a person is not eo nomine a party to a suit or a document, it is unnecessary for him to have the deed or the decree annulled, and he can proceed on the assumption that there was no such document or decree.
  • (Followed in Sankaran V. Velukutty, 1986 Ker LT 794.)

In Usman Kurikkal v. Parappur Achuthan Nair, ILR 2012-3 Ker 343; 2012 3 KHC 89, it is held as under:

  • Plaintiff is neither a party to the sale deed nor a party to the resolution empowering the Board to execute the sale deed. The prayer in the plaint is essentially for a declaration that the sale deed is not valid and binding on the plaintiff. The plaintiff has not sought for a cancellation of the sale deed obviously because he was not an executant thereto. The plaintiff can very well ignore the sale deed and need not seek its annulment as has been held in Sankaran v. Velukutty (1986 KLT 794).”

The Supreme Court observed in V.  Kalyanaswamy v. L.  Bakthavatsalam, 2020 3 RCR(Civ) 404; 2020 9 Scale 367, as under:

  • “Plaintiffs-appellants in OS No. 36 of 1963 were not parties to the suit in 1958 and the compromise in OS No. 71 of 1958 will not bind the appellants.”

Deed executed by the predecessors also to be Set Aside

The question of setting aside a deed comes for consideration if it is executed by the predecessors of the plaintiff also.

  • Raj Narayan Sarin v. Lakshmi Devi – (2002)10 SCC 501.
  • Suhrad Singh vs. Randhir Singh – (2010) 12 SCC 112. The suit was relating to a “co-parcenery property”. One among the co-parcener executed the sale deed.  Another co-sharer (non-executant) was a party to the suit.  Court held in para 7: “Where the executants of a deed wants it to be annulled he has to seek cancelation of the deed.  But if a non-executant seeks annulment of a deed he has to seek a declaration that the deed is invalid, or non-est, or illegal or that it is not binding  on him.”
  •  Deccan Paper Mills vs. Regency Mahavir – (2021) 4 SCC 786. Principles in Suhrad Singh v. Randhir Singh – (2010) 12 SCC 112 squarely applied to this case. Suhrad Singh is quoted and followed.

If Title of Plaintiff (Auction Sale) is Nullity, Defendant need Not file a Substantive Suit.

In Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546, the defendants contended that the plaintiff’s title, on the basis of the alleged auction sale ‘was a nullity, as it was ultra vires the legal provisions and on the ground of lack of jurisdiction, non-service of demand notice on all the heirs and co-owners’. It was contended from the part of the (original) plaintiff that the sale proceedings could be challenged only by way of a substantive suit, and that the High Court was right in characterising the challenge to the suit by the defendant as a ‘backdoor method’. The Apex Court held as under:

  • If the title claimed by the plaintiff was a nullity and wholly void, there was no need for any of the defendants including Bajranglal to challenge it by way of a substantive suit. They could always set up nullity of title as a defence in any proceeding taken against them based upon such title. If, in fact, the sale was a nullity, it was non est in the eye of law and all that defendant had to do was point this out. (See in this connection: Ajudh Raz and Ors. v. Moti S/o Mussadi, [1991] 3 SCC 136 and the opinion of the Full Bench of the Bombay High Court in Abdulla Mian v. Government of Bombay, (1942) 44 Bom LR 577.
  • In Vidyadhar v. Manikrao and Anr., [1999] 3 SCC 573, the plaintiff had filed a suit on the basis of a sale deed executed by D-2 in his favour and sought the relief of possession of the property from defendant no. 1 who was an absolute stranger to the sale deed. The question which arose was whether defendant No. l, who was in possession, could justify his possession by urging the nullity of sale transaction between the plaintiff and defendant No. 2. In these circumstances, this Court held (vide para 21):
    • ‘The above decisions appear to be based on the principle that a person in his capacity as a defendant can raise any legitimate plea available to him under law to defeat the suit of the plaintiff. This would also include the plea that the sale deed by which the title to the property was intended to be conveyed to the plaintiff was void or fictitious or, for that matter, collusive and not intended to be acted upon. Thus, the whole question would depend upon the pleadings of the parties, the nature of the suit, the nature of the deed, the evidence led by the parties in the suit and other attending circumstances.’
  • Here, the plaintiffs suit is for ejection of the defendant and for possession of the suit property. She must succeed or fail on the title that she establishes. If she cannot succeed in proving her title, the suit must fail notwithstanding that the defendant in possession may or may not have title to the property. (See in this connection: Brahma Nand Puri v. Neki Puri, [1965] 2 SCR 233 at p. 237).”

Read Blog (Click): Declaration and Injunction

Where title claimed by plaintiff is a nullity, Need not be Challenged

It is held in Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546, that where the title claimed by the plaintiff was a nullity and wholly void, there was no need for any of the defendants including Bajranglal to challenge it by way of a substantive suit and that they could always set up nullity of title as a defence in any proceeding taken against them based upon such title.

Where title claimed is not a nullity, and not wholly void – it should be challenged

It comes out from the decision, Bajaranglal Shivchandrai Ruia v. Shashikant N. Ruia, AIR 2004 SC 2546 (taking converse postulation of the proposition laid down), that where the title claimed by the plaintiff was not a nullity and not wholly void, the defendants should have challenged the title by way of a substantive suit, ‘recourse to appropriate proceeding’ (as observed in Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552).

There may be several instances where “recourse to appropriate (legal) proceeding” may be necessitated in ‘void’ transactions. Two among such instances are pointed out in Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, as under:

  • “The other type of void act, e.g., may be transaction against a minor without being represented by a next friend. Such a transaction is good transaction against the whole world. So far the minor is concerned, if he decides to avoid the same and succeeds in avoiding it by taking recourse to appropriate proceeding the transaction becomes void from the very beginning.
  • Another type of void act may be which is not a nullity but for avoiding the same a declaration has to be made. Voidable act is that which is a good act unless avoided, e.g., if a suit is filed for a declaration that a document is fraudulent and/or forged and fabricated, it is voidable as apparent state of affairs is real state of affairs and a party who alleges otherwise is obliged to prove it.”

It goes beyond doubt that such suits (including that by by minor) should be filed within the limitation period.

Prepositions as to Questioning a Deed WHERE ONE is NOT a Party:

It is beyond doubt that a party to a document cannot ignore the document without ‘cancelling’ it. In Chellakannuv. Kolanji (R. Banumathi, J.), AIR 2005 Mad 405, it is observed as under:

  • “12. The word “Cancellation” implies that the persons suing should be a party to the document. Strangers are not bound by the documents and are not obliged to sue for cancellation. When the party to the document is suing, challenging the document, he must first obtain cancellation before getting any further relief. Whether cancellation is prayed for or not or even it is impliedly sought for in substance, the suit is one for cancellation. In the present case, when the Plaintiff attacks the Sale Deeds as having been obtained from him under fraud and mis-representation the Plaintiff cannot seek for any further relief without setting aside the Sale Deeds.

In Noorul Hoda v. Bibi Rafiunnisa, 1996 (7) SCC 767, our Apex Court held as follows:

  • “When the plaintiff seeks to establish his title to the property which cannot be established without avoiding the decree or an instrument that stands as an insurmountable obstacle in his way which otherwise binds him, though not a party, the plaintiff necessarily has to seek a declaration and have that decree, instrument or contract cancelled or set aside or rescinded.” 

In such cases the plaintiff need not pay Court Fee for ‘cancellation’ of a deed; it will be sufficient to pay the fee for ‘declaration’.

Where one person is not a party to a deed, following propositions can be laid down:

  1. Where a deed is ‘null and wholly void‘ (e.g., unregistered sale/gift), he can simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • Limitation statute will have no application in such cases.
  2. If it is not ‘null and wholly void‘, he cannot simply avoid the deed and advance with other reliefs.
    • But, in such cases, it is not mandatory to seek ‘annulment’ of the deed – by ‘setting it aside’ or ‘cancelling it’.
    • It will be sufficient – to resort to “appropriate proceeding”, for avoiding the same, before a court of law, seeking proper declaration or otherwise.
    • It must be done within the limitation period prescribed.

Read Blog (Click): Cancellation of Sale Deeds, Settlement Deeds and Trust Deeds & Powers of Sub-Registrar in Registering Deeds

PART – II

VOIDABLE’ Transaction – Declared or Set Aside Before Seeking Substantive Relief

A voidable transaction is to be impeached or set aside before seeking substantive relief. In Narayan v. Babasaheb, (2016) 6 SCC 725, our Apex Court has observed as under:

  • “24. When once a transaction takes place in the name of the minor which is in contravention of the 1956 Act and which is not done for legal necessity, such transaction is voidable and unless such a transaction is sought to be impeached or set aside, the question of recovery of possession of that property does not arise.”

See also:

  • Ranga-nayak-amma v. K.S.   Prakash, (2008) 15 SCC 673.
  • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, (2001) 6 SCC 534.
  • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, Referred to in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588.

‘VOID’ does not mean absolutely null and void for everything

In State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar, AIR 1996 SC 906, it is held as under:

  • “In our opinion, even a void order or decision rendered between parties cannot be said to be non-existent in all cases and in all situations. Ordinarily, such an order will, in fact be effective inter parties until it is successfully avoided or challenged in higher forum. Mere use of the word “void” is not determinative of its legal impact. The word “void” has a relative rather than an absolute meaning. It only conveys the idea that the order is invalid or illegal. It can be avoided. There are degrees of invalidity, depending upon the gravity of the infirmity, as to whether it is, fundamental or otherwise.” (See also: Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552.)

Void act or transaction: When No declaration needed. It can be attacked at any time, in any court, either directly or collaterally, such as:

  1. A void judgment
    • entered by a court which lacks jurisdiction over the parties or the subject matter, or
    • lacks inherent power to enter the particular judgment, or
    • an order procured by fraud
      • Long v. Shorebank Development Corp., (182 F.3d 548 (C.A. 7 III. 1999).
      • Referred to by Kerala High Court in Sulochana Gupta v. RBG Enterprises Pvt.  Ltd.  dt. 09 Sep 2020.
  2. Void acts, void transactions, void decrees
    • wholly without jurisdiction, ab initio void.
      • 2009-4 KLT 840; (2002) 9 SCC 28; 2013 SC 1226;  2009 4 KLT 840.
      • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University AIR 2001 SC 2552, T. Arivanandanam v. T. V. Satyapal, (1977) 4 SCC 467; N. V. Srinivasa Murthy v. Mariyamma, (2005) 5 SCC 548, Manoharlal Chatrath v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi, AIR 2000 Delhi 40.
  3. Void document,
    • then suit for recovery of possession simpliciter can be filed, without the need to seek a declaration about invalidity of the documents.
      • Rajasthan State Industrial Development and Investment Corporation v. Subhash Sindhi Cooperative Housing Society, (2013) 5 SCC 427; State of Maharashtra v. Pravin Jethalal Kamdar: 2000 SC 1099; Sanjay Kaushish v. D.C. Kaushish, AIR 1992 Delhi 118.
    • A void document is not   required   to   be   avoided,   whereas   a   voidable document must be.
      • Ranga-nayak-amma v. K.S.   Prakash, (2008) 15 SCC 673.
  4. Sale which was entirely without jurisdiction,
    • is   non   est   in   the   eye   of   law, and such   a nullity does not, from its very nature, need setting aside.
      • Mahadeo Prasad Singh v. Ram Lochan, (1980) 4 SCC 354;
    • In case the alienation was void, the plaintiff need not get a declaration that the transaction was void, but could institute a suit for possession straightway.
      • Sukhdev Singh v. Jangir Singh, 1976 RLR 101.
  5. When a document is void ab initio,
    • a decree for setting aside the same would not be necessary as the same is non-est in the eye of law, as it would be a nullity.
      • Prem   Singh v. Birbal, (2006) 5 SCC 353  
  6. Order without jurisdiction obtained by collusion
    • Not necessary to bring an independent suit for setting it aside.
      • Gram Panchayat of Village Naulakha v. Ujagar Singh, AIR 2000 SC 3272.
  7. If declaration surplusage
    • Appanna v. Jami Venkatappadu, 1953 Mad.611.
  8. Cannot be & cannot be required to be set aside.
    • Ishar Singh Kripal Singh and Co., 1956 Cal. 321
  9. Sale Deeds Executed Without Consideration Are Void
    • According to Sec. 54 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, ‘sale’ is a transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised.
    • If a sale deed is executed without payment of price, it is not a sale. It is of no legal effect. Therefore, void. It could be ignored.  In the light of these legal principles it was found in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that that the respondent-purchasers had no earning capacity and no evidence was adduced by them about the payment of the price mentioned in the sale deeds; and hence, the sale deeds were held as void.
  10. A void deed need not be challenged by claiming a declaration
    • It was also held by the Apex Court in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that a void deed need not be challenged by claiming a declaration; and that a plea thereof can be set up and proved even in collateral proceedings.

Void act or transaction – When Required to be Set Aside

There are instances where it is not permissible for a party to treat the judgment and order as null and void without getting it set aside from the competent court, such as:

  1. When an order is void to one but valid to another.“It is well settled principle of law that even a void order is required to be set aside by a competent Court of law, inasmuch as an order may be void in respect of one person but may be valid in respect of another. A void order is necessarily not non-est. An order cannot be declared to be void in collateral proceedings and that too in the absence of the authorities who were the authors thereof.”
    • M. Meenakshi v. Metadin Agarwal, 2006-7 SCC 470; Quoted in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588. Also See: Anita International v. Sugar Works Mazdoor Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44  
  2. Where legal effect cannot be taken away without setting aside In cases where legal effect of a document cannot be taken away without setting aside the same, it cannot be treated to be void but would be obviously voidable.
    • Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, (2001) 6 SCC 534.
  3. Fraud on Character of document (not contents).
    • E.g.: A sale deed was got executed as if it was a lease.
      • See: Prem Singh v. Birbal -(2006) 5 SCC 353; 2014 (3) KLJ 55.
    • In Ningawwa v. Byrappa, AIR 1968 SC 956it is held as under:
    • “The authorities make a clear distinction between fraudulent misrepresentation as to the character of the document and fraudulent misrepresentation as to the contents thereof. With reference to the former, it has been held that the transaction is void, while in the case of the latter, it is merely voidable. In Foster v. Mackinon,1869- 1 4 CP 704,  the action was by the endorsee of a bill of exchange. The defendant pleaded that he endorsed the bill on a fraudulent representation by the acceptor that he was signing a guarantee. In holding that such a plea was admissible, the Court observed: “It (signature) is invalid not merely on the ground of fraud, where fraud exists, but on the ground that the mind of the signer did not accompany the signature; in other words, that he never intended to sign, and therefore in contemplation of law never did sign, the contract to which his name is appended …. The defendant never intended to sign that contract or any such contract. He never intended to put his name to any instrument that then was or thereafter might become negotiable. He was deceived, not merely as to the legal effect, but as to the ‘actual contents’ of the instrument.” This decision has been followed by the Indian courts – Sanni Bibi v. Siddik Hossain, AIR 1919 Cal. 728, and Brindaban v. Dhurba Charan, AIR 1929 Cal. 606.
  4. If an Order is void or non-est.
    • It is required to be set aside.
    • In Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia v. Bombay Enviornmental Action Group (2011 SC) it is held as under:
    • “17. It is settled legal proposition that even if an order is void, it requires to be so declared by a competent forum and it is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
    • 18. In State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth Naduvil (dead) & Ors., AIR 1996 SC 906; Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla & Anr. v. Hind Rubber Industries Pvt. Ltd. etc, AIR 1997 SC 1240; M. Meenakshi & Ors. v. Metadin Agarwal (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (2006) 7 SCC 470; and Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194, this Court held that whether an order is valid or void, cannot be determined by the parties. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum.
    • 19. In State of Punjab & Ors. v. Gurdev Singh, Ashok Kumar, AIR 1991 SC 2219, this Court held that a party aggrieved by the invalidity of an order has to approach the court for relief of declaration that the order against him is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. While deciding the said case, this Court placed reliance upon the judgment in Smith v. East Ellore Rural District Council, [1956] 1 All ER 855 wherein Lord Radcliffe observed:-
    • “An order, even if not made in good faith is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.”
    • 20. In Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba & Ors., AIR 2004 SC 1377, this Court took a similar view observing that once an order is declared non-est by the Court only then the judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned. Such a declaration is permissible if the court comes to the conclusion that the author of the order lacks inherent jurisdiction/competence and therefore, it comes to the conclusion that the order suffers from patent and latent invalidity.
    • 21. Thus, from the above it emerges that even if the order/notification is void/voidable, the party aggrieved by the same cannot decide that the said order/notification is not binding upon it. It has to approach the court for seeking such declaration. The order may be hypothetically a nullity and even if its invalidity is challenged before the court in a given circumstance, the court may refuse to quash the same on various grounds including the standing of the petitioner or on the ground of delay or on the doctrine of waiver or any other legal reason. The order may be void for one purpose or for one person, it may not be so for another purpose or another person.” (quoted in: Anita International v. Tungabadra Sugar Works Maz. Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44)
    • In Anita International v. Tungabadra Sugar Works Maz. Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44, it was held that it was not open either to parties to a lis or to any third parties, to determine at their own, that an order passed by a Court is valid or void, or non est. They must approach a Court of competent jurisdiction, to have the said order set aside, on such grounds as may be available in law.
  5. Even if a Decree/Order is VOID AB-INITIO, Declaration Needed – In Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State of Punjab, (2011) 12 SCC 588, it is held that even if a decree is void ab initio, declaration to that effect has to be obtained by the person aggrieved from the competent court. More so, such a declaration cannot be obtained in collateral proceedings. The Apex Court held as above observing the following earlier decisions as stated under:
    • “11. It is a settled legal proposition that where a person gets an order/office by making misrepresentation or playing fraud upon the competent authority, such order cannot be sustained in the eyes of the law as fraud unravels everything. “Equity is always known to defend the law from crafty evasions and new subtleties invented to evade law”. It is a trite that “Fraud and justice never dwell together” (fraus et jus nunquam cohabitant). Fraud is an act of deliberate deception with a design to secure something, which is otherwise not due. Fraud and deception are synonymous. “Fraud is an anathema to all equitable principles and any affair tainted with fraud cannot be perpetuated or saved by the application of any equitable doctrine”. An act of fraud on court is always viewed seriously. (Vide: Meghmala v. G. Narasimha Reddy, (2010) 8 SCC 383).
    • 12. However, the question does arise as to whether it is permissible for a party to treat the judgment and order as null and void without getting it set aside from the competent court. The issue is no more res integra and stands settled by a catena of decisions of this Court. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum. (Vide: State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth , AIR 1996 SC 906; and Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla v. Hind Rubber Industries, AIR 1997 SC 1240).
    • 13. In Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, this Court held that there cannot be any doubt that even if an order is void or voidable, the same requires to be set aside by the competent court.
    • 14. In M. Meenakshi v. Metadin Agarwal, (2006) 7 SCC 470, this Court considered the issue at length and observed that if the party feels that the order passed by the court or a statutory authority is non-est/void, he should question the validity of the said order before the appropriate forum resorting to the appropriate proceedings. The Court observed as under:-“It is well settled principle of law that even a void order is required to be set aside by a competent Court of law, inasmuch as an order may be void in respect of one person but may be valid in respect of another. A void order is necessarily not non-est. An order cannot be declared to be void in collateral proceedings and that too in the absence of the authorities who were the authors thereof.” (Emphasis added)  Similar view has been reiterated by this Court in Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194.”
      • Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State of Punjab, (2011) 12 SCC 588 is relied on in: Shyam Sundar Singh v. Smt. Sulochana Devi on 23 November, 2021

When Declaration Sufficient; Need NOT be Set Aside

  • “An order may be void for one and voidable for the other. An invalid order necessarily need not be non est; in a given situation it has to be declared as such.”
    • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba, AIR 2004 SC 1377, Referred to in Inderjit Singh Grewal v. State Of Punjab (2011) 12 SCC 588  
  • A party aggrieved by an invalid, void or ultra vires order, he has to approach the court for the relief of declaration that the order is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. It can be avoided automatically, simply seeking a declaration. It need not be set aside.
    • State of Punjab v. Gurdev Singh, Ashok Kumar, AIR 1991 SC 2219, (1991) 4 SCC 1.

Nullity can be raised in Execution or in Collateral proceedings

  1. Order without Jurisdiction
    • With respect to a matter over which an authority has no jurisdiction is a nullity and is open to collateral attack, an order passed by an authority which has jurisdiction over the matter, but has assumed it otherwise than in the mode prescribed by law, is not a nullity. It may be liable to be questioned in those very proceedings, but subject to that it is good, and not open to collateral attack.
      • Central Potteries Ltd. v. State of Maharashtra AIR 1966 SC 932  
  2. If possible in execution or collateral proceedings to establish – null and void
    • Orders of Courts have to be obeyed unless and until they are set aside in appeal/revision. Alternatively in any proceedings for execution or in a collateral proceedings where an order is sought to be enforced or relied on, it is possible for a party to establish that the order is null and void. Then the Court considering the matter, if satisfied, will hold that the order is null and void and therefore not executable or enforceable…………………..”
      • S. Balasubramaniyam v. P. Janakaraju, AIR Kant R 2099. Referred to by Kerala High Court in Sulochana Gupta v. RBG Enterprises Pvt.  Ltd.  dt. 09 Sep 2020.
  3. Void deed need not be challenged; plea can in collateral proceedings
    • It was held by the Apex Court in Kewal Krishnan v. Rajesh Kumar  2021 SCC OnLine SC 1097, that a void deed (for no consideration paid in a sale deed) need not be challenged by claiming a declaration; and that a plea thereof can be set up and proved even in collateral proceedings.

All Illegal Agreements are Void, But the Reverse is Not True

J.B. Pardiwala, J., in Hasvantbhai Chhanubhai Dalal v. Adesinh Mansinh Raval, 2019-2 GujLH 357, observed as under:

  • DIFFERENCE BETWEEN “VOID” AND “ILLEGAL” AGREEMENT:
  • 58. The Indian Contract Act, 1872 has made it clear that there is a thin line of difference between void and illegal agreement.
    • A void agreement is one which may not be prohibited under law, while
      • an illegal agreement is strictly prohibited by law and the parties to the agreement can be penalized for entering into such an agreement.
    • A void agreement has no legal consequences, because it is null from the very beginning.
    • Conversely, the illegal agreement is devoid of any legal effect, since it is started.
    • All illegal agreements are void, but the reverse is not true.
    • If an agreement is illegal, other agreements related to it are said to be void.
    • An agreement that violates any law or whose nature is criminal or is opposed to any public policy or immoral is an illegal agreement.
  • These agreements are void ab initio, and so the agreements collateral to the original agreement are also void. Here the collateral agreement refers to the transaction associated or incidental to the main agreement. The difference between void and illegal agreement can be drawn clearly on the following grounds:
  • [1] An agreement which loses its legal status is a void agreement. An illegal agreement is one which is not permissible under law.
  • [2] Certain void agreements are void ab initio while some agreements become void when it loses its legal binding. On the other hand, an Illegal agreement is void since the very beginning. A void agreement is not prohibited by Indian Penal Code (IPC), but IPC strictly prohibits an illegal agreement.
  • [3] The scope of a void contract is comparatively wider than an illegal contract as all agreements which are void may not necessarily be illegal, but all illegal agreements are void from its inception.
  • [4] A void agreement is not punishable under law whereas an illegal agreement is considered as an offence, hence the parties to it are punishable and penalised under Indian Penal Code (IPC).
  • [5] Collateral agreements of a void agreement may or may not be void i.e. they may be valid also. Conversely, collateral agreements of an illegal agreement cannot be enforceable by law as they are void ab initio.
  • It is quite clear that the void and illegal agreement are very different. One of the factors that make an agreement void is the illegality of the contract, such as contract whose object or consideration is unlawful. Moreover, in both the two agreements loses its enforceability by law.”

What is Illegal and What is Void

In Kantilal Manilal Parekh v. Ranchhoddas K.  Bhatt, AIR 1953 Bom 98, it is said as under:

  • “Now, it must be observed that the words “illegal” and “void” are often loosely used as synonymous terms even by lawyers, jurists and sometimes Judges. None the less, for the purposes of the present discussion it is essential to distinguish between what is illegal and what is merely void. All unlawful or illegal agreements are void; but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal. It is often difficult to determine whether an agreement which is void is or is not also illegal. But a long line of cases in England enables one to deduce certain principles for the purpose of determining whether a contract or agreement in merely void or is illegal.
  • Sir Fredrick Pollock in his Principles of Contract (13th edn.) after reviewing a number of cases lays down the following propositions (p.276) :
    • ‘When conditions are prescribed by statute for the conduct of any particular business or profession, and such conditions are not observed, agreements made in the course of such business or profession – …
    • (e) are void if it appears by the context that the object of the legislature in imposing the condition was the maintenance of public order or safety or the protection of the persons dealing with those on whom the condition is imposed :
    • (f) are valid if no specific penalty is attached to the specific transaction, and if it appears that the condition was imposed for merely administrative purposes … :
    • (h) Where no penalty is imposed, and the intention of the legislature appears to be simply that the agreement is not to be enforced, there neither the agreement itself nor the performance of it is to be treated as unlawful for any purpose’.”

PART – III

Judgment or Order Without Jurisdiction

It is trite law that a decree passed by a Court totally without jurisdiction is a nullity. The law on the point can be summarised as under:

  • Lack of jurisdiction hits a Judgment or Order by, lack of jurisdiction:
    • over the parties, or
    • as to territorial limit,
    • pecuniary limit or
    • the subject matter.
  • Lack of Jurisdiction is also visited by:
    • ‘lack of inherent power’ to enter the particular judgment, or
    • an order procured by fraud or collusion.
  • It is not permissible to treat a Judgment or an Order of a Court/Authority as null and void without setting it aside or declared by the competent court.
    • A judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned if only it is so declared by the Court.
    • It is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
    • Or, it cannot be determined by the parties.
  • If only patent and latent invalidity, or inherent lack of jurisdiction/competence, then only such a declaration is permissible.
  • Where a decree is passed by a Court without jurisdiction was a nullity, its invalidity could not be corrected, even by the consent of the concerned parties.

Though the principle that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity was applied strictly in earlier times, there is a slow change in the attitude of the courts as regards the rigidity to see the Orders and Judgments as without jurisdiction, inasmuch as the courts began to apply the doctrines of prejudice, acquiescence, patent and latent invalidity, etc, in this matter.

Fraud Vitiates all solemn act; Order obtained by practicing fraud is a Nullity

In Jai Narain Parasurampuria v. Pushpa Devi Saraf, it is observed as under:

  • “58. It is now well settled that fraud vitiated all solemn act. Any order or decree obtained by practicing fraud is a nullity.
  • {See – (1) Ram Chandra Singh vs. Savitri Devi & Ors. [(2003) 8 SCC 319]
  • followed in (2) Vice Chairman, Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan & Anr. vs. Girdhari Lal Yadav [(2004) 6 SCC 325];
  • (3) State of A.P. & Anr. vs. T. Suryachandra Rao [(2005) 6 SCC 149];
  • (4) Ishwar Dutt vs. Land Acquisition Collector & Anr. [(2005) 7 SCC 190];
  • (5) Lillykutty vs. Scrutiny Committee, SC & ST Ors. [(2005 (8) SC 283];
  • (6) Chief Engineer, M.S.E.B. & Anr. vs. Suresh Raghunath Bhokare [(2005) 10 SCC 465];
  • (7) Smt. Satya vs. Shri Teja Singh [(1975) 1 SCC 120];
  • (8) Mahboob Sahab vs. Sayed Ismail & Ors. [(1995) 3 SCC 693]; and
  • (9) Asharfi Lal vs. Smt. Koili (Dead) by LRs. [(1995) 4 SCC 163].}” 

Pecuniary & Territorial Jurisdiction, and Jurisdiction in the Subject Matter

Generally speaking, the defect on the basis of pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction is not so serious compared to the defect for lack of jurisdiction in the subject matter or inherent lack of jurisdiction. It is reflected in Sec. 21, 21A, 99 and 99A, CPC.

Section 21, 21A, 99 and 99A CPC reads as under:

  • 21. Objections to jurisdiction. (1)] No objection as to the place of suing shall be allowed by any appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity and in all cases where issues or settled at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  • (2) No objection as to the competence of a Court with reference to the pecuniary limits of its jurisdiction shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the Court of first instance at the earliest possible opportunity, and in all cases where issues are settled, at or before such settlement, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.
  • (3) No objection as to the competence of the executing Court with reference to the local limits of its jurisdiction shall be allowed by any Appellate or Revisional Court unless such objection was taken in the executing Court at the earliest possible opportunity, and unless there has been a consequent failure of justice.]
  • 21A. Bar on suit to set aside decree on objection as to place of suing. No suit shall lie challenging the validity of a decree passed in a former suit between the same parties, or between the parties under whom they or any of them claim, litigating under the same title, on any ground based on an objection as to the place of suing.
  • Explanation.-The expression “former suit” means a suit which has been decided prior to the decision in the suit in which the validity of the decree is questioned, whether or not the previously decided suit was instituted prior to the suit in which the validity of such decree is questioned. 
  • 99. No decree to be reversed or modified for error or irregularity not affecting merits or jurisdiction. No decree shall be reversed or substantially varied, nor shall any case be remanded in appeal on account of any misjoinder or non-joinder of parties or causes of action or any error, defect or irregularity in any proceedings in the suit, not affecting the merits of the case or the jurisdiction of the Court.
  • Provided that nothing in this section shall apply to non-joinder of a necessary party.
  • 99A. No order under section 47 to be refused or modified unless decision of the case is prejudicially affected. Without prejudice to the generality of the provisions of section 99, no order under section 47 shall be reversed or substantially varied, on account of any error, defect or irregularity in any proceeding relating to such order, unless such error, defect or irregularity has prejudicially affected the decision of the case.

Section 21A CPC takes-in Objection as to Pecuniary Jurisdiction also

In Subhas Mahadevasa Habib v. Nemasa Ambasa Dharmadas, AIR 2007 SC 1828, it is held as under:

  • “Though Section 21A of the Code speaks of a suit not being maintainable for challenging the validity of a prior decree between the same parties on a ground based on an objection as to “the place of suing“, there is no reason to restrict its operation only to an objection based on territorial jurisdiction and excluding from its purview a defect based on pecuniary jurisdiction.

Lack of ‘Subject-Matter-Jurisdiction

Decision on a Labour Dispute by a Civil Court and pronouncement on a civil matter by the Rent Controller are the common examples of lack of ‘subject-matter jurisdiction’.

Our Apex Court held in P. Dasa Muni Reddy v. P. Appa Rao, AIR 1974 SC 2089, that there will be no res judicata if the former suit was filed in a court where it had no jurisdiction over the subject matter. The Court held as under:

  • “The appellant proved that the appellant made a mistake of fact in regard to the building, being outside the mischief of the Act. The appellant instituted the-suit before the Rent Controller in mistake about the underlying and fundamental fact that the building was outside the ambit of the Act. The Civil Court has jurisdiction in the subsequent suit which is the subject of this appeal. The appellant is not disentitled to any relief on the grounds of res judicata or estoppel or waiver. As one cannot confer jurisdiction by consent similarly one cannot by agreement waive exclusive jurisdiction of courts. The Civil Court and not the Rent Control possesses jurisdiction over the building in question.”

In Chief Engineer Hydel Project v. Ravinder Nath, AIR 2008 SC 1315, it was held that the civil court had no jurisdiction to decide the dispute of termination of service of a workman as the labour Court alone had the jurisdiction with respect to the same. The Supreme Court held as under:

  • “Once the original decree itself has been held to be without jurisdiction and hit by the doctrine of coram non judice, there would be no question of upholding the same merely on the ground that the objection to the jurisdiction was not taken at the initial, First Appellate or the Second Appellate stage. It must, therefore, be held that the civil court in this case had no jurisdiction to deal with the suit and resultantly the judgments of the Trial Court, First Appellate Court and the Second Appellate Court are liable to be set aside for that reason alone and the appeal is liable to be allowed.”

With respect to jurisdiction of courts, it is held in Harshad Chiman Lal Modi v. DLF Universal Ltd., AIR 2005 SC 4446, as under:

  • “The jurisdiction of a court may be classified into several categories. The important categories are
    • (i) Territorial or local jurisdiction;
    • (ii) Pecuniary jurisdiction; and
    • (iii) Jurisdiction over the subject matter.
  • So far as territorial and pecuniary jurisdictions are concerned, objection to such jurisdiction has to be taken at the earliest possible opportunity and in any case at or before settlement of issues. The law is well settled on the point that if such objection is not taken at the earliest, it cannot be allowed to be taken at a subsequent stage. Jurisdiction as to subject matter, however, is totally distinct and stands on a different footing. Where a court has no jurisdiction over the subject matter of the suit by reason of any limitation imposed by statute, charter or commission, it cannot take up the cause or matter. An order passed by a court having no jurisdiction is nullity.

No Jurisdiction, and No Territorial or Pecuniary Jurisdiction & Prejudice

In Hasham Abbas Sayyad v. Usman Abbas Sayyad, AIR 2007 SC 1077, it is held by the apex Court as under:

  • “ We may, however hasten to add that a distinction must be made between a decree passed by a court which has no territorial or pecuniary jurisdiction in the light of Section 21 of the CPC; and a decree passed by a court having no jurisdiction in regard to the subject matter of the suit. Whereas in the former case, the appellate court may not interfere with the decree unless prejudice is shown, ordinarily the second category of the cases would be interfered with.”

Availability of Alternative Forum Objection be taken at the Earliest,

It is held by our Apex Court Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan: AIR 1954 SC 340. as under:

  • “The policy underlying sections 21 and 99 of the Civil Procedure Code and section 11 of the Suits Valuation Act is the same, namely, that when a case had been tried by a Court on the merits and judgment rendered, it should not be liable to be reversed purely on technical grounds, unless it had resulted in a failure of justice, and the policy of the Legislature has been to treat objections to jurisdiction both territorial and pecuniary as technical and not open to consideration by an appellate Court, unless there has been a prejudice on the merits.”(Quoted in: Bahrein Petroleum v. P.J. Pappu, AIR 1966 SC 634)

It is held by our Apex Court in Ramesh Chand Ardawatiya v. Anil Panjwani, AIR 2003 SC 2508, as under:

  • “Where there is a special tribunal conferred with jurisdiction or exclusive jurisdiction to try a particular class of cases even then the civil court can entertain a civil suit of that class on availability of a few grounds. An exclusion of jurisdiction of the civil court is not to be readily inferred. (See Dhulabhai v. State of M.P, (1968) 3 SCR 662) An objection as to the exclusion of the civil court‘s jurisdiction for availability of alternative forum should be taken before the trial court and at the earliest, failing which the higher court may refuse to entertain the plea in the absence of proof of prejudice.”

Lack of Jurisdiction 3 Categories

As shown above, defects on pecuniary and territorial jurisdiction are not so fatal as compared to inherent lack of jurisdiction or jurisdiction on the subject matter of the suit. The objections as to the first category has to be raised in the pleadings at the earliest opportunity. If it is not done the party concerned is loses his chance.

The objections to the second category (inherent lack of jurisdiction or jurisdiction on the subject matter) can be raised without pleading and at any stage of the suit or even in execution or collateral proceedings.

The third category in this line is the objection that can be raised in any stage, including appeal or revision, without pleading, but not in execution or collateral proceedings (eg. bar by limitation). Ittyavira Mathai v. Varkey Varkey, AIR 1964 SC 907; Bhawarlal Bhandari v. M/s. Universal Heavy Mechanical Lifting Enterprises, AIR 1999 SC 246.

It is held by our Apex Court in Kiran Singh v. Chaman Paswan, AIR 1954 SC 340. as under:

  • “It is a fundamental principle well established that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction is a nullity, and that its invalidity could be set up whenever and wherever it is sought to be enforced or relied upon, even at the stage of execution and even in collateral proceedings. A defect of jurisdiction, whether it is pecuniary or territorial, or whether it is in respect of the subject-matter of the action, strikes at the very authority of the Court to pass any decree, and such a defect cannot be cured even by consent of parties.” (Referred to in : Foreshore Co-operative Housing Society Limited v. Praveen D. Desai (Dead) AIR 2015 SC 2006.)

Suit Barred by Limitation – Decree Overlooking the same is only Illegal, Not Void

Objection need not be pleaded; But, cannot be raised in Execution or Collateral proceedings.

In Dhurandhar Prasad Singh v. Jai Prakash University, AIR 2001 SC 2552, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “In the case of Ittyavira Mathai v. Varkey Varkey and another, AIR 1964 SC 907, the question which fell for consideration before this Court was if a Court, having jurisdiction over the parties to the suit and subject matter thereof passes a decree in a suit which was barred by time, such a decree would come within the realm of nullity and the Court answered the question in the negative holding that such a decree cannot be treated to be nullity but at the highest be treated to be an illegal decree.”

No Estoppel, Waiver, Acquiescence or Res judicata on any Order Without Jurisdiction

In Hasham Abbas Sayyad v. Usman Abbas Sayyad, AIR 2007 SC 1077, our Apex Court held as under:

  • “The core question is as to whether an order passed by a person lacking inherent jurisdiction would be a nullity. It will be so. The principles of estoppel, waiver and acquiescence or even res judicata which are procedural in nature would have no application in a case where an order has been passed by the Tribunal/ Court which has no authority in that behalf. Any order passed by a court without jurisdiction would be coram non judice being a nullity, the same ordinarily should not be given effect to. (see Chief Justice of Andhra Pradesh and another v. L.V.A. Dikshitulu and others, AIR 1979 SC 193 & M.D. Army Welfare Housing Organization v. Sumangal Services (P) Ltd. (2004) 8 SCC 619).”

Parties to a lis not to determine at their own – that an Order of a Court is void.

Modern trend in decisions emphasise that it is not permissible to treat a Judgment or an Order of a Court/Authority as null and void without setting it aside from the competent court. In Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia v. Bombay Environmental Action Group, AIR 2011 SC 1140; (2011) 3 SCC 363 , it was held as under:

  • “17. It is settled legal proposition that even if an order is void, it requires to be so declared by a competent forum and it is not permissible for any person to ignore the same merely because in his opinion the order is void.
  • 18. In
    • State of Kerala v. M.K. Kunhikannan Nambiar Manjeri Manikoth Naduvil (dead) & Ors., AIR 1996 SC 906; 
    • Tayabbhai M. Bagasarwalla & Anr. v. Hind Rubber Industries Pvt. Ltd. etc, AIR 1997 SC 1240; 
    • M. Meenakshi & Ors. v. Metadin Agarwal (dead) by L.Rs. & Ors. (2006) 7 SCC 470; and 
    • Sneh Gupta v. Devi Sarup & Ors., (2009) 6 SCC 194,
  • this Court held that whether an order is valid or void, cannot be determined by the parties. For setting aside such an order, even if void, the party has to approach the appropriate forum.
  • 19. In
    • State of Punjab & Ors. v. Gurdev Singh, AIR 1991 SC 2219,
  • this Court held that a party aggrieved by the invalidity of an order has to approach the court for relief of declaration that the order against him is inoperative and therefore, not binding upon him. While deciding the said case, this Court placed reliance upon the judgment in Smith v. East Ellore Rural District Council, [1956] 1 All ER 855 wherein Lord Radcliffe observed:-
    • “An order, even if not made in good faith is still an act capable of legal consequences. It bears no brand of invalidity on its forehead. Unless the necessary proceedings are taken at law to establish the cause of invalidity and to get it quashed or otherwise upset, it will remain as effective for its ostensible purpose as the most impeccable of orders.”
  • 20. In
    • Sultan Sadik v. Sanjay Raj Subba , AIR 2004 SC 1377,
  • this Court took a similar view observing that once an order is declared non-est by the Court only then the judgment of nullity would operate erga omnes i.e. for and against everyone concerned. Such a declaration is permissible if the court comes to the conclusion that the author of the order lacks inherent jurisdiction/competence and therefore, it comes to the conclusion that the order suffers from patent and latent invalidity.
  • 21. Thus, from the above it emerges that even if the order/notification is void/voidable, the party aggrieved by the same cannot decide that the said order/notification is not binding upon it. It has to approach the court for seeking such declaration. The order may be hypothetically a nullity and even if its invalidity is challenged before the court in a given circumstance, the court may refuse to quash the same on various grounds including the standing of the petitioner or on the ground of delay or on the doctrine of waiver or any other legal reason. The order may be void for one purpose or for one person, it may not be so for another purpose or another person.”

In Anita International v. Sugar Works Mazdoor Sangh, 2016-9 SCC 44  our Apex Court held as under:

  • “45. We are also of the considered view, as held by the Court in the
    • Krishnadevi Malchand Kamathia case, AIR 2011 SC 1140,
  • that it is not open either to parties to a lis or to any third parties, to determine at their own, that an order passed by a Court is valid or void. A party to the lis or a third party, who considers an order passed by a Court as void or non est, must approach a Court of competent jurisdiction, to have the said order set aside, on such grounds as may be available in law. However, till an order passed by a competent Court is set aside, as was also held by this Court in the
    • Official Liquidator, Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, 2013 4 SCC 381, and
    • the Jehal Tanti, AIR 2013 SC 2235, (2013) 14 SCC 689, cases,
  • the same would have the force of law, and any act/action carried out in violation thereof, would be liable to be set aside. We endorse the opinion expressed by this Court in the
    • Jehal Tanti case, AIR 2013 SC 2235,
  • In the above case, an earlier order of a Court was found to be without jurisdiction after six years. In other words, an order passed by a Court having no jurisdiction, had subsisted for six years. This Court held, that the said order could not have been violated while it subsisted. And further, that the violation of the order, before it is set aside, is liable to entail punishment, for its disobedience. For us to conclude otherwise, may have disastrous consequences. In the above situation, every cantankerous and quarrelsome litigant would be entitled to canvass, that in his wisdom, the judicial order detrimental to his interests, was void, voidable, or patently erroneous. And based on such plea, to avoid or disregard or even disobey the same. This course can never be permitted.
  • 46. To be fair to learned counsel for the appellants, it needs to be noticed, that reliance was also placed on behalf of the appellants on the
    • Kiran Singh (AIR 1954 SC 340),
    • the Sadashiv Prasad Singh (2015-5 SCC 574), and
    • the Jagmittar Sain Bhagat  (2013- 10 SCC 136) cases,
  • to contend, that a decree passed by a Court without jurisdiction was a nullity, and that, its invalidity could not be corrected, even by the consent of the concerned parties. We are of the considered view, that the proposition debated and concluded in the judgments relied upon by learned counsel for the appellants (referred to above) are of no relevance, to the conclusions drawn in the foregoing paragraph. In our determination hereinabove, we have not held, that a void order can be legitimized. What we have concluded in the foregoing paragraph is, that while an order passed by a Court subsists, the same is liable to be complied with, till it is set aside.”

PART – IV

Civil Court can Examine ‘Non-compliance of Law’; Not, ‘Erroneous’ Orders

Even when a tribunal is provided for reddressal of remedies, the civil courts will have jurisdiction to examine the allegation of non-compliance of the provisions of the statute or of any of the fundamental principles of judicial procedure. If the challenge is only as to the ‘erroneous’ character of the order, other than ‘jurisdictional error’, the suit will not be maintainable. (South Delhi Municipal Corporation v. Today Homes and Infrastructure Pvt.  Ltd.  2019-4 CivCC 150 (SC); 2019-3 CurCC 370(SC); 2019-11 Scale 33). Erroneous decisions of a tribunal can be corrected only in an appeal, if so provided.

Civil Court can adjudge plea – Order of the (Land) Tribunal is one without jurisdiction

The ultimate decision of the (Land) Tribunal can be challenged in the Civil Court and it can adjudge the plea that the order passed by the Tribunal was one without jurisdiction and was a nullity, in spite of finality and exclusionary clauses (or of provision for appeal/revision), if the order passed by the (Land) Tribunal was one illegally assuming jurisdiction, where it did not exist, and the decision was not a decision under the Act, but a nullity. (Muhammad Haji v. Kunhunni Nair, AIR  1993 Ker 104).

Tribunal violates mandatory provision – Order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity

When an order is passed by a statutory Land-Tribunal violating a mandatory provision, the order will be illegal, without jurisdiction and a nullity. The civil courts which are courts of “general jurisdiction” can decide whether a tribunal or authority exercising statutory jurisdiction has acted in excess or beyond the statutory powers. The civil courts can interfere when the order of the statutory tribunal or authority is really not an order under the Act conferring jurisdiction on it. In other words, if a tribunal abuses its power or does not act in conformity with the Act, but in violation of its provisions (Firm Seth Radha Kishan v. Ludhiana Municipality AIR 1963 SC 1547), the jurisdiction of the civil court will not be excluded (Srinivasa v. State of A.P., AIR 1971 S.C.71).

In Secretary of State v. Mask & Co. (AIR 1940 PC 105) it was held as under:

  • “It is settled law that the exclusion of the jurisdiction of the Civil Courts is not to be readily inferred, but that such exclusion must either be explicitly expressed or clearly implied. It is also well settled that even if jurisdiction is so excluded, the Civil Courts have jurisdiction to examine into cases where the provisions of the Act have not been complied with, or the statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principles of judicial procedure”.

In Dhulabai v. State of M.P. (AIR 1969 S.C. 78), it is held as follows:

  • “Where the statute gives a finality to the orders of the special tribunals the civil courts jurisdiction must be held lobe excluded if here is adequate remedy to do what the civil courts would normally do in a suit. Such provision, however, dues not exclude those cases where the provisions of the particular Act have not been complied with or me statutory tribunal has not acted in conformity with the fundamental principle of judicial procedure.”

See Blog: Court’s Jurisdiction to Interfere in the Internal Affairs of a Club or Society

In Asha John v. Vikram Malhotra, AIR 2021 SC 2932, our Apex Court considered whether the requirement in Sec. 31 of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1973 (FERA) that that when a foreign citizen ‘acquire or hold or transfer or dispose of’ Immovable Property in India, he must have obtained the prior permission for the same from the Reserve Bank of India.was mandatory or only directory. The Supreme Court held that the provision is mandatory, relying on the following earlier Decisions:

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536;  (1977) 2 SCC 424 Prohibition and negative words can rarely be directory. Under Section 31  read with Sections 47, 50 and 63 of the Act, it is in the nature of prohibition. When penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.
Union of India & Ors. v. A.K. Pandey, (2009) 10 SCC 552Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
Union of India v. Colonel L.S.N. Murthy & Anr. (2012) 1 SCC 71  The contract would be lawful, unless the consideration and object thereof is of such a nature that, if permitted, it would defeat the provisions of law. And, in such a case the consideration or object is unlawful and would become void and that unless the effect of an agreement results in performance of an unlawful act, an agreement which is otherwise legal cannot be held to be void. Further, if the effect of an agreement did not result in performance of an unlawful act, as a matter of public policy, the court should refuse to declare the contract void with a view to save the bargain entered into by the parties and the solemn promises made thereunder. The Court adverted to the exposition in the earlier decision in Shri Lachoo Mal v. Shri Radhey Shyam, AIR  1971 SC 221 as to what makes an agreement, which is otherwise legal, void is that its performance is impossible except by disobedience of law.

Void Decree or Document – Setting Aside or Declaration – Not needed

Sale deed executed by a stranger:

A sale deed executed by a stranger to the property is void an initio. It need not be cancelled or set aside.’ (See: Muppudathi Pillai v. Krishnaswami Pillai, AIR 1960 Mad 1; Kamalakshi Amma v. Sangeetha, AIR 2012 Ker 180.) A suit for declaration will be sufficient.

Title deed conveys no title – can be ignored

In Pragnya Rout V. Hemaprava Ray, AIR 2006 Ori 21, it is observed as under:

  • “22. Law is well settled that a decree and/or a registered document which is otherwise ab initio void need not be set aside. Such decree does not strip the right of a party who is the real owner and was not a signatory to the document in question or a party to the suit. It is not the law that merely because somebody has obtained a sale deed he has got title to the property as vendee and his title has to be declared so long as the deed has not been set aside by a competent Court of law. If the deed is void at the threshold, no steps need be taken to set it aside. The vendor may not have title to convey, and in such a case the title deed conveys no title and can be ignored as not worth the paper written on. (see (1992) 2 OLR 362 Sarbeswar v. Commissioner, Consolidation.) In view of such position of law, the argument advanced by Mr. P. Mohanty, learned counsel for the appellant, that the suit is not maintainable in the absence of a prayer to set aside the subsequent sales cannot be accepted.”

In Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608: (2006) 5 SCC 353, the Supreme Court held as under:

  • “16. When a document is valid, no question arises of its cancellation. When a document is void ab initio, a decree for setting aside the same would not be necessary as the same is non-est in the eye of law, as it would be a nullity.”

It is held in Gorakh Nath Dube vs Hari Narain Singh, AIR 1973 SC 2451, that where there is a document the legal effect of which can only be taken away by setting it aside or its cancellation, it could be urged that the consolidation authorities have no power to cancel the deed, and, therefore, it must be held to be binding on them so long as it is not cancelled by a court having the power to cancel it.

In Sukhlal v. Devilal, 1954 RajLW 136, Wanchco C.J. held as under:

  • “There is a difference between a suit for the cancellation of an instrument and one for a declaration that the instrument is not binding on the plaintiff, when the plaintiff seeks to establish, a title in himself and cannot establish that title without removing an insuperable obstacle such as a decree or a deed to which he has been a party or by which he is otherwise bound then quite clearly he must get that decree or deed cancelled or declared void in toto and his suit is in substance a suit for the cancellation of the decree or deed notwithstanding the fact that the suit may have been framed as a suit for a declaration. On the other hand, when the plaintiff is seeking to establish a title and finds himself threatened by a decree or a transaction between third parties, he is not in a position to get that decree or deed cancelled in toto. The proper remedy in such a case is to get a declaration that the decree or deed is invalid so far as he himself is concerned, and, therefore, he may sue for a declaration to that effect and not for the cancellation of the decree or the deed.” [See:’ Vellayya Konar v. Ramaswami Konar’ (AIR 1939 Mad 894)].

A void deed can be ignored and seek partition. It need not be set aside

The Supreme Court held in Mrs. Umadevi Nambiar vs Thamarasseri Roman Catholic Diocese (2022-3 Ker HC 113 SC )

  • “15. It is not always necessary for a plaintiff in a suit for partition to seek the cancellation of the alienations. There are several reasons behind this principle. One is that the alienees as well as the co­ sharer are still entitled to sustain the alienation to the extent of the share of the co­sharer. It may also be open to the alienee, in the final decree proceedings, to seek the allotment of the transferred property, to the share of the transferor, so that equities are worked out in a fair manner. Therefore, the High Court was wrong in putting against the appellant, her failure to challenge the alienations.”

Kerala High Court  in A.  Baiju Vs. Sasidharan, Decided on July 30, 2019, it is observed as under:

  • “The defendants claim under a sale deed executed by Bhanu. As already seen, Bhanu could sell only his undivided interest. Even if he executed a sale deed selling the property as such, it would not bind the other co-owners. Those co-owners can just ignore the sale deed and seek partition. It is not at all necessary to get the sale deed set aside.”
  • See also: R. Ganapathi Vs. Inspector General of Registration, AIR  2020 Mad 248;
  • Perumal Vs. Ramasamy, 2018-3 MadLW 830,

PART – V

Statute imposing Penalty – Effect on Validity of Contract

Mannalal Khetan v. Kedar Nath Khetan, AIR 1977 SC 536, is a direct authority on this matter. It is laid down as under:

  • 19. Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court will lend its assistance to give it effect. (See Mellis v. Shirley L.B. [(1885) 16 QBD 446 : 55 LJQB 143 : 2 TLR 360] ) A contract is void if prohibited by a statute under a penalty, even without express declaration that the contract is void, because such a penalty implies a prohibition.
  • The penalty may be imposed with intent merely to deter persons from entering into the contract or for the purposes of revenue or that the contract shall not be entered into so as to be valid at law. A distinction is sometimes made between contracts entered into with the object of committing an illegal act and contracts expressly or impliedly prohibited by statute. The distinction is that in the former class one has only to look and see what acts the statute prohibits; it does not matter whether or not it prohibits a contract: if a contract is made to do a prohibited act, that contract will be unenforceable. In the latter class, one has to consider not what act the statute prohibits, but what contracts it prohibits. One is not concerned at all with the intent of the parties, if the parties enter into a prohibited contract, that contract is unenforceable. (See St. John Shipping Corporation v. Joseph Rank [(1957) 1 QB 267].) (See also Halsbury’s Laws of England, 3rd Edn., Vol. 8, p. 141.)
  • 20. It is well established that a contract which involves in its fulfilment the doing of an act prohibited by statute is void. The legal maxim A pactis privatorum publico juri non derogatur means that private agreements cannot alter the general law. Where a contract, express or implied, is expressly or by implication forbidden by statute, no court can lend its assistance to give it effect. (See Mellis v. Shirley L.B.) What is done in contravention of the provisions of an Act of the legislature cannot be made the subject of an action.
  • 21. If anything is against law though it is not prohibited in the statute but only a penalty is annexed the agreement is void. In every case where a statute inflicts a penalty for doing an act, though the act be not prohibited, yet the thing is unlawful, because it is not intended that a statute would inflict a penalty for a lawful act.
  • 22. Penalties are imposed by statute for two distinct purposes:
    • (1) for the protection of the public against fraud, or for some other object of public policy;
    • (2) for the purpose of securing certain sources of revenue either to the State or to certain public bodies. If it is clear that a penalty is imposed by statute for the purpose of preventing something from being done on some ground of public policy, the thing prohibited, if done, will be treated as void, even though the penalty if imposed is not enforceable.”
  • (Quoted in: Asha John vs. Vikram Malhotra, AIR 2021 SC 2932.)

PART – VI

LIMITATION

No Period for Declaration, for Void Marriage

It is observed in Swapnanjali Sandeep Patil v. Sandeep Ananda Patil, 2019 AIR SC 1500, that No period of limitation is prescribed so far as presentation of petition for declaration to declare a marriage being nullity/void marriage, under Section 24 of the Act and that once the marriage is found to be void the same is a nullity and at any time the same can be declared as null.

Dismissal of plaintiff from service

State of Punjab v. Gurdev Singh, AIR 1991 SC 2219 arose from the suit for declaration that the order dismissing the plaintiff from service was ultra vires, unconstitutional, violative of principles of natural justice and void ab initio. It is observed that such a suit must be filed with three years from the date of passing of order or when departmental appeal or revision is filed from the date of dismissal of such appeal/revision, according to the provisions of Article 113 of the Limitation Act, 1963,.

Invalidity of the order

In Pune Municipal Corporation v. State of Maharashtra, 2007 AIR SC 2414; 2007 5 SCC 211, it is held as under:

  • “Setting aside the decree passed by all the Courts and referring to several cases, this Court held that if the party aggrieved by invalidity of the order intends to approach the Court for declaration that the order against him was inoperative, he must come before the Court within the period prescribed by limitation. If the statutory time of limitation expires, the Court cannot give the declaration sought for”.

Cancellation of a transaction on fraud (voidable transaction)

The Supreme Court, in Prem Singh v. Birbal, AIR 2006 SC 3608, it was held that where a suit is filed for cancellation of a transaction on the ground of coercion, under influence or fraud, Article 59 of the Limitation Act would apply. (Referred to in Mohinder Singh Verma v. J P S Verma, 2015 AIR(CC) 3043).

Declaration and Recovery– Limitation, governed by Article 65 and not Article 58

A suit for declaration is governed by Article 58 of the Limitation Act and the period of limitation is three years. But, in Seshumull MShah vSayed Abdul Rashid , AIR 1991 Kar. 273, Karnataka High Court observed that a suit where possession is claimed as a consequence of the declaration, it would be governed by Article 65 and not Article 58 of the Limitation Act.

In State of Maharashtra Vs. Pravin Jethalal Kamdar, (2000) 3 SCC 460, it was held by the Supreme Court that merely for the fact that the plaintiff, besides the relief of possession, sought declaration also is of no consequence, and that in such a case the governing article of the Schedule to the Limitation Act would be Article 65. In C. Natrajan v. Ashim Bai, (2007) 14 SCC 183, the Apex Court held that in the suit which has been filed “for possession, as a consequence of declaration of the plaintiff‘s title, Article 58 will have no application.” ,

In Ashok Kumar v. Mohd. Rustam, 2016 SCC OnLine Del 466: MANU/DE/0197/2016
CS (OS) 3195/2012, it was held as under:

  • “16. Article 58 of the Schedule to the Limitation Act, for the relief of declaration, undoubtedly provides limitation of three years from the date when the cause of action accrues. However I am of the opinion that once the plaintiff, besides suing for declaration of title also sues for recovery of possession of immovable property on the basis of title, the limitation for such a suit would be governed by the limitation provided for the relief of possession and not by limitation provided for the relief of declaration. To hold otherwise would tantamount to providing two different periods of limitation for a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on title i.e. of three years if the suit besides for the said relief is also for the relief of declaration of title and of twelve years as aforesaid if no relief of declaration is claimed. A relief of declaration of title to immovable property is implicit in a suit for recovery of possession of immovable property based on title inasmuch as without establishing title to property, if disputed, no decree for the relief of possession also can be passed. Thus, merely because a plaintiff in such a suit also specifically claims the relief of declaration of title, cannot be a ground to treat him differently and reduce the period of limitation available to him from that provided of twelve years, to three years. “
  • (referred to in Vidur Impex and Traders Pvt. Ltd. v. Pradeep Kumar Khanna, , 241 (2017) DLT 481)

In Ashok Kumar v. Gangadhar, 2007 (2) ALD 313, 2007 (3) ALT 561 , it is held as under:

  • “If the contention of the defendants that Article 58 applies to the suit for possession based on title where declaration of title is also sought, is accepted, it would amount to ignoring the relief for recovery of possession and application of Article 65 to a suit for possession and taking away the right of the plaintiff to prove that the suit is within 12 years from the date when the possession of the defendant becomes adverse to the plaintiff.  If such a suit were to be decided with reference to Article 58 on the ground that the declaration is sought for, application of Article 65 to the suit for possession would be rendered otiose.  Such a construction would be opposed to all principles of interpretation of statutes.  Therefore different Articles of the Limitation Act will have to be interpreted harmoniously.  When such an interpretation is given to Articles 58 and 65 and when the suit is filed for declaration of title to the suit property with consequential relief of possession in my humble view Article 65 of the Limitation Act would apply and not Article 58 of the Limitation Act”.

It is held in Mechineni Chokka Rao v Sattu Sattamma, 2006 (1) ALD 116,   as under:

  • “10…. It is obvious that Article 58 is in the nature of residuary provision among the declaratory suits. Indubitably the relief of declaration can be sought for in respect of an immovable property or movable property, or in respect of an instrument, or in respect of a decree, or in respect of an adoption. Thus, various types of declaratory reliefs can be sought for pertaining to those categories. Therefore, the relief of declaration alone appears to be not the criterion for prescribing the period of limitation but the subject-matter of the suit in respect of which the declaration is sought for, appears to be germane for consideration.”
  • “13. The problem can be viewed in a different dimension. The right over an immovable property will get extinguished as can be seen from Section 27 of the Act only after the expiry of the period prescribed for filing the suit for possession as per Articles 64 and 65 of the Act. Therefore, if the period falls short of the requisite period of 12 years the right over an immovable property will not get extinguished. When the person has a right over an immovable property which right is not extinguished as yet, he can lay the suit in respect of an immovable property even praying for the relief of declaration at any time within the period of 12 years at the end of which, his right would get extinguished. When we consider this clear mandate contained in Section 27 f the Act, it becomes manifest that a declaratory relief in respect of an immovable property can be sought for at any time within the period of 12 years after which the right will get automatically extinguished, notwithstanding the fact that Article 58, the residuary Article for filing declaratory suits, prescribes a period of three years limitation. … ….”

Declaration on VOID character of document – Limitation governed by consequential relief

In S. Krishnamma v. T.S. Viswajith :  2009 (4) KLT 840 it is held that Article 58 is not applicable for declaration that is sought only as an ancillary relief. It is held as under:

  • When a declaration regarding the void character of the document is sought for that is which would not govern the period of limitation for the suit. The consequential relief sought for is to be treated as main relief governing the period of limitation for the suit. (See Mrs. Indira Bhalchandran Gokhale Vs. Union of India & Another-AIR 1990 Bombay 98). Therefore declaration prayed for in this case as relief Nos. 1 and 2 were unnecessary, and even if made, need only be treated as ancillary to the main relief of partition of immovable properties and the claim that appellant is entitled to get family pension.

PART – VI

NATURAL JUSTICE: Sea Change in Application – Treating an Order ‘Nullity’

In early times, uniformly followed legal concept was that ‘denial of natural justice itself causes prejudice’. It is pointed out by the Bombay High Court in Gulab Babusaheb Bargiri Vs. Executive Engineer, Maharashtra State Electricity Board[1]  that, after Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India,[2] the principle of natural justice has undergone a sea change.

In PD Agrawal v. State Bank of India (2006)[3] the Apex Court observed that the principles of natural justice ‘has in recent time‘ undergone a sea change. Relying on State Bank of Patiala Vs. SK Sharma (1996)[4] and Rajendra Singh Vs. State of MP (1996)[5] the Court held that principle of law was that some real prejudice must have been caused to the complainant. 

Analysing previous judgments it is observed in State of UP Vs. Sudhir Kumar Singh, 2020 SCC OnLine SC 847, that the following are the tests to determine the non-observance of natural justice:

  • “(1)Natural justice is a flexible tool in the hands of the judiciary to reach out in fit cases to remedy injustice. The breach of the audi alteram partem rule cannot by itself, without more, lead to the conclusion that prejudice is thereby caused.
  • (2)Where procedural and/or substantive provisions of law embody the principles of natural justice, their infraction per se does not lead to invalidity of the orders passed. Here again, prejudice must be caused to the litigant, except in the case of a mandatory provision of law which is conceived not only in individual interest, but also in public interest.
  • (3)No prejudice is caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice where such person does not dispute the case against him or it. This can happen by reason of estoppel, acquiescence, waiver and by way of non-challenge or non-denial or admission of facts, in cases in which the Court finds on facts that no real prejudice can therefore be said to have been caused to the person complaining of the breach of natural justice.
  • (4)In cases where facts can be stated to be admitted or indisputable, and only one conclusion is possible, the Court does not pass futile orders of setting aside or remand when there is, in fact, no prejudice caused. This conclusion must be drawn by the Court on an appraisal of the facts of a case, and not by the authority who denies natural justice to a person.
  • (5)The “prejudice” exception must be more than a mere apprehension or even a reasonable suspicion of a litigant. It should exist as a matter of fact, or be based upon a definite inference of likelihood of prejudice flowing from the non-observance of natural justice.”

Natural justice is not applied in a vacuum without reference to the relevant facts and circumstances of the case. It is no unruly horse. It cannot be put in a straight jacket formula. [See: Maharashtra State Financial Corporation v. Suvarna Board Mills, 1994-5 SCC 566, Viveka Nand Sethi vs. Chairman, J. & K. Bank Ltd. & Ots. (2005) 5 SCC 337 and State of U.P. vs. Neeraj Awasthi & Ors. JT 2006 (1) SC 19. See also Mohd. Sartaj vs. State of U.P. (2006) 1 SCALE 265

EARLIER VIEWOrder in breach of Natural Justice is a Nullity

In AR Antulay Vs. RS Nayak (1988)[6] a seven Judge Bench of our Apex Court has held that when an order has been passed in violation of a fundamental right or in breach of the principles of natural justice, the same would be nullity.[7]

The Supreme Court, in SL KapurVs. Jagmohan (1981),[8]  held as under:

  • “In our view the principles of natural justice know of no exclusionary rule dependent on whether it would have made any difference if natural justice had been observed. The non-observance of natural justice is itself prejudice to any man and proof of prejudice independently of proof of denial of natural justice is unnecessary. It ill comes from a person who has denied justice that the person who has been denied justice is not prejudiced.”

See Blog: Natural Justice – Not an Unruly Horse, Cannot be Placed in a Straight-Jacket & Not a Judicial Cure-all.

PART – VII

SHAM transactions and Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act

Diplock LJ, in Snook v. London and West Riding Investments Ltd., [1967] 2 QB 786, it is observed as under:

  • “As regards the contention of the plaintiff that the transactions between himself, Auto Finance and the defendants were a ‘sham,’ it is, I think, necessary to consider what, if any, legal concept is involved in the use of this popular and pejorative word. I apprehend that, if it has any meaning in law, it means acts done or documents executed by the parties to the ‘sham’ which are intended by them to give to third parties or to the court the appearance of creating between the parties legal rights and obligations different from the actual legal rights and obligations (if any) which the parties intend to create.”
  • “But one thing, I think, is clear in legal principle, morality and the authorities (see Yorkshire Railway Wagon Co. v Maclure and Stoneleigh Finance Ltd. v Phillips), that for acts or documents to be a ‘sham,’ with whatever legal consequences follow from this, all the parties thereto must have a common intention that the acts or documents are not to create the legal rights and obligations which they give the appearance of creating. No unexpressed intentions of a ‘shammer’ effect the rights of a party whom he deceived. There is an express finding in this case that the defendants were not parties to the alleged ‘sham.’ So this contention fails.”

Section 92 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 directs exclusion of evidence or oral agreement as to the terms of any contract. But, under the first proviso to Section 92 any fact that may invalidate any document, such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution can be led into evidence. It permits the plaintiff to assert that the document was never intended to be acted upon and the document is a sham. But, such question arises only when one party asserts that there has been a different transaction altogether than what is recorded in the document. Oral evidence is admissible in law for that purpose. [See: Placido Francisco Pinto
v. Jose Francisco Pinto, 2021 SCC OnLine SC 842. Referred: Smt. Gangabai v. Smt. Chhabubai (1982) 1 SCC 4, and Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani, (2003) 6 SCC 595].

Section 92 of the Evidence Act reads as under:

  • “92. Exclusion of evidence or oral agreement. – When the terms of any such contract, grant or other disposition of property, or any matter required by law to be reduced to the form of a document, have been proved according to the last section, no evidence of any oral agreement or statement shall be admitted, as between the parties to any such instrument or their representatives in interest, for the purpose of contradicting, varying, adding to, or subtracting from, its terms:
  • Proviso (1).—Any fact may be proved which would invalidate any document, or which would entitle any person to any decree or order relating thereto; such as fraud, intimidation, illegality, want of due execution, want of capacity in any contracting party, want or failure of consideration, or mistake in fact or law.”

In Roop Kumar it is held as follows:

  • “22. This Court in Gangabai v. Chhabubai [(1982) 1 SCC 4 : AIR 1982 SC 20] and Ishwar Dass Jain v. Sohan Lal [(2000) 1 SCC 434 : AIR 2000 SC 426] with reference to Section 92(1) held that it is permissible to a party to a deed to contend that the deed was not intended to be acted upon, but was only a sham document. The bar arises only when the document is relied upon and its terms are sought to be varied and contradicted. Oral evidence is admissible to show that document executed was never intended to operate as an agreement but that some other agreement altogether, not recorded in the document, was entered into between the parties.”

See blog: Oral Evidence on Contents of Document, Irrelevant

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Read in this Cluster  (Click on the topic):

Book No, 1 – Civil Procedure Code

Power of attorney

Title, ownership and Possession

Principles and Procedure

Land LawsTransfer of Property Act

Evidence Act – General

Contract Act

Easement

Stamp Act & Registration

Will

Divorce

Book No. 2: A Handbook on Constitutional Issues

Book No. 3: Common Law of CLUBS and SOCIETIES in India

Book No. 4: Common Law of TRUSTS in India